Amk Practice Questions - Conception, Foetal, Infancy
AMK revision questions
Questions and Answers
- 1.
From day 2-4, the collection of fertilised cells is known as what?
Explanation
From day 2-4, the collection of fertilised cells is known as a pre-embryo. This term is used to describe the early stage of development after fertilization, when the cells are still dividing and have not yet formed distinct tissues or organs. During this stage, the pre-embryo is a cluster of cells that will eventually develop into an embryo.Rate this question:
- 2.
On day 5 after fertilisation, the pre-embry becomes know as what? Meaning ball of cells.
Explanation
On day 5 after fertilisation, the pre-embryo develops into a morula, which is a compact ball of cells. This stage occurs after the zygote undergoes multiple rounds of cell division, resulting in a solid mass of cells. The morula will eventually develop into a blastocyst, which is the next stage of embryonic development. Therefore, the correct answer is morula.Rate this question:
- 3.
On day 5 and 6 the morula becomes hollow inside by pumping fluid into the centre. It is now known as what?
Explanation
On day 5 and 6, the morula undergoes a process called blastulation, where it becomes hollow inside by pumping fluid into the center. This transformed structure is known as a blastocyst. The blastocyst is a crucial stage in embryonic development, as it consists of an outer layer of cells called the trophoblast, which will later form the placenta, and an inner cell mass, which will develop into the embryo itself. This stage marks the beginning of implantation in the uterus.Rate this question:
- 4.
Day 6 after fertilisation.Blastocyst 'hatches' from here and embeds in uterine wall.
Explanation
The zona pellucida is a glycoprotein layer that surrounds the developing embryo. On the 6th day after fertilization, the blastocyst, which is a hollow ball of cells, hatches from the zona pellucida. This allows the blastocyst to implant into the uterine wall and establish pregnancy. The zona pellucida serves as a protective barrier during early development and is shed once the blastocyst is ready to implant.Rate this question:
- 5.
Cells on the outside of the blastocyst that contribute to the placenta are called what?
Explanation
Trophectoderm cells are the outer cells of the blastocyst that play a crucial role in the formation of the placenta. These cells attach to the uterine wall and develop into the placenta, providing vital nutrients and oxygen to the developing embryo. They also facilitate the exchange of waste products between the mother and the fetus. Trophectoderm cells are specialized and essential for the successful implantation and development of the embryo.Rate this question:
- 6.
Cells of the inner cell mass that are exposed to the cavity of the blastocyst are called what?
Explanation
The cells of the inner cell mass that are exposed to the cavity of the blastocyst are called primitive endoderm. The primitive endoderm is one of the two cell types that differentiate from the inner cell mass during early embryonic development. It plays a crucial role in the formation of the yolk sac and contributes to the development of extraembryonic tissues. These cells are responsible for providing nutrients to the developing embryo and are essential for proper embryonic development.Rate this question:
- 7.
Cells on the inside of the inner cell mass (stem cells) become know as what?
Explanation
The cells on the inside of the inner cell mass, also known as stem cells, differentiate into a specific type of tissue called the primitive ectoderm. This tissue gives rise to the ectodermal germ layer, which develops into various structures such as the nervous system, skin, and hair. The primitive ectoderm plays a crucial role in the early embryonic development and the formation of different cell types in the body.Rate this question:
- 8.
At puberty, a primary oocyte finishes which stage of meiosis before being ovulated?
Explanation
During puberty, a primary oocyte finishes meiosis 1 before being ovulated. Meiosis 1 is the first division of meiosis, which involves the separation of homologous chromosomes. In this stage, the primary oocyte divides into two cells, one being a secondary oocyte and the other a polar body. The secondary oocyte then enters into meiosis 2, but this division is only completed if fertilization occurs. Therefore, the correct answer is meiosis 1.Rate this question:
- 9.
Where is gonadotrophin releasing hormone released from and what does it do?
Explanation
Gonadotrophin releasing hormone is released from the hypothalamus. Its main function is to stimulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to produce follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). FSH plays a crucial role in the regulation of reproductive processes, such as the development and maturation of ovarian follicles in females and the production of sperm in males.Rate this question:
- 10.
What does FSH do?
Explanation
FSH, or follicle-stimulating hormone, plays a crucial role in the reproductive system. It is responsible for stimulating the development of ovarian follicles in females, which contain the eggs. This hormone helps in the maturation of the follicles, leading to the release of a mature egg during ovulation. FSH also stimulates the production of estrogen, which is important for the growth and development of the reproductive organs. Overall, FSH plays a vital role in the menstrual cycle and fertility in females.Rate this question:
- 11.
Which hormone does a developing follicle produce?
Explanation
During the menstrual cycle, a developing follicle in the ovary produces estrogen. This hormone plays a crucial role in the reproductive system by stimulating the growth of the uterine lining and promoting the development of secondary sexual characteristics. Estrogen also helps regulate the menstrual cycle and is responsible for the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which triggers ovulation. Additionally, estrogen plays a role in maintaining bone health and cardiovascular function.Rate this question:
- 12.
In the menstrual cycle, which hormones does oestrogen inhibit? How do these then become uninhibited?
Explanation
During the menstrual cycle, oestrogen levels gradually increase. As oestrogen levels rise, it eventually reaches a point where it inhibits the production of FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone). Once oestrogen inhibits FSH and LH, these hormones are no longer suppressed, and their production resumes. This allows for the development and release of an egg during ovulation.Rate this question:
- 13.
Which 2 things are caused by the LH surge?
Explanation
The LH surge, or luteinizing hormone surge, is responsible for triggering ovulation and the development of the corpus luteum. Ovulation is the release of an egg from the ovary, which typically occurs around 24-36 hours after the LH surge. The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that forms from the ruptured ovarian follicle after ovulation. It produces hormones such as progesterone, which prepares the uterus for possible implantation of a fertilized egg. Both ovulation and corpus luteum development are essential for the reproductive process and fertility in females.Rate this question:
- 14.
Which hormones are produced by the corpus luteum, and what is their role?
Explanation
The corpus luteum produces progesterone and estrogen hormones. These hormones play a crucial role in the menstrual cycle and reproductive system. Progesterone helps prepare the uterus for pregnancy and maintains the uterine lining, while estrogen helps regulate the menstrual cycle and promote the development of secondary sexual characteristics. Both hormones work together to inhibit the production of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), which are responsible for the maturation and release of eggs from the ovaries. By inhibiting FSH and LH, progesterone and estrogen help regulate the menstrual cycle and prevent ovulation during pregnancy.Rate this question:
- 15.
Describe what happens to an oocyte upon fertilisation and if fertilisation doesn't occur.
- 16.
Which hormone is tested for in pregnancy tests?
Explanation
Pregnancy tests detect the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (HcG) hormone in a woman's urine or blood. HcG is produced by the placenta shortly after fertilization occurs. Its presence in the body confirms pregnancy as it is only produced during pregnancy. Therefore, HcG is the hormone that is tested for in pregnancy tests.Rate this question:
- 17.
In spermatogenesis, which cells produce testosterone?
Explanation
Leydig cells are responsible for producing testosterone during spermatogenesis. These cells are located in the testes and play a crucial role in the development and maturation of sperm cells. Testosterone is a male sex hormone that is essential for the growth and maintenance of male reproductive tissues, as well as the development of secondary sexual characteristics. Therefore, Leydig cells are vital in the production of testosterone, which is necessary for the proper functioning of the male reproductive system.Rate this question:
- 18.
What is the role of testosterone in spermatogenesis?
Explanation
Testosterone plays a crucial role in spermatogenesis by stimulating the seminiferous tubules to produce sperm. These tubules are responsible for the production and maturation of sperm cells. Testosterone, a male sex hormone produced primarily in the testes, acts on the Sertoli cells within the seminiferous tubules, promoting the development of sperm cells and supporting their maturation process. Without testosterone, the production of sperm would be impaired, leading to infertility or reduced fertility in males.Rate this question:
- 19.
Does the paramesonephric/Mullerian or mesonephric/Wolfian duct develop in females?
Explanation
The paramesonephric/Mullerian duct develops in females. This duct is responsible for the development of the female reproductive system, including the fallopian tubes, uterus, and upper portion of the vagina. In males, the mesonephric/Wolfian duct develops instead, giving rise to the male reproductive system.Rate this question:
- 20.
Describe how the presence of a Y chromosome in male embryos causes development of male genitalia?
- 21.
Which HIV test should be performed in neonates?
Explanation
The PCR test is the most suitable HIV test to be performed in neonates. This is because the PCR test can detect the presence of the HIV virus in the blood at an early stage, even before antibodies are produced. Neonates may have acquired HIV from their mothers during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding, so it is crucial to accurately diagnose HIV in newborns to ensure timely treatment and management. The PCR test is highly sensitive and specific, making it an effective diagnostic tool for detecting HIV in neonates.Rate this question:
- 22.
When is the ELISA recommended?
Explanation
ELISA, or Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay, is a diagnostic test used to detect the presence of antibodies or antigens in the blood. It is commonly recommended to be performed 3 months after exposure to certain infections, such as HIV, to ensure accurate results. This waiting period allows enough time for the immune system to produce detectable levels of antibodies, increasing the test's sensitivity and reliability. By waiting for 3 months, the ELISA test can provide a more accurate assessment of infection status, reducing the chances of false-negative results.Rate this question:
- 23.
How does the HIV virus get into a host CD4 cell?
Explanation
The HIV virus enters a host CD4 cell through a process involving the interaction between GP120 and CD4. GP120 recognizes CD4 and binds to it, leading to a structural change in the virus that exposes GP41. GP41 then binds to CCR5, a co-receptor on the surface of the CD4 cell, which allows the fusion of the virus with the cell membrane. This fusion enables the virus to enter the CD4 cell and initiate the infection process.Rate this question:
- 24.
How would you treat (1st line) HIV? (drug names)
Explanation
The correct answer includes both drug combinations: efavirenz, zidovudine, and lamivudine; and efavirenz, tenofovir, and emtricitabine. These drug combinations are commonly used in the treatment of HIV. Efavirenz is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) that helps to prevent the replication of the virus. Zidovudine and lamivudine are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) that also inhibit the replication of the virus. Tenofovir and emtricitabine are also NRTIs that work in a similar way. Using a combination of these drugs helps to reduce the viral load and improve the immune system function in individuals with HIV.Rate this question:
- 25.
Which hormone would you test for to see if ovulation has occured?
- A.
HCG
- B.
Progesterone
- C.
LH
- D.
FSH
Correct Answer
B. ProgesteroneExplanation
Progesterone is the hormone that is primarily responsible for preparing and maintaining the uterus for pregnancy. It is produced by the ovaries after ovulation has occurred. Therefore, testing for progesterone levels can indicate whether or not ovulation has taken place. If progesterone levels are high, it suggests that ovulation has occurred. Conversely, low levels of progesterone indicate that ovulation has not taken place. Therefore, progesterone is the hormone that would be tested for to determine if ovulation has occurred.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Miss Lucy James is a 15 year old who visits you as she has not reached puberty yet. On examination you find that she has no breast or pubic hair development. A deficiency in which hormone would be responsible for this problem.
- A.
Oestrogen
- B.
Follicle stimulating hormone
- C.
Progesterone
- D.
Gonadatrophin releasing hormone
- E.
Luteinising hormone
Correct Answer
A. OestrogenExplanation
The correct answer is oestrogen. Oestrogen is the hormone responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics in females, such as breast and pubic hair development. A deficiency in oestrogen would result in a delay or absence of these developments.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Ssarah Mills, a 17 year old student, comes to see you, her GP. She has been recently diagnosed as 6 weeks pregnant. She tells you that she would like a termination. You explain that as she is early in her pregnancy she would be suitable for a medical abortion, which would involve taking a drug called mifepristone to induce a miscarriage.
- A.
It inhibits action of progesterone
- B.
It inhibits action of oestrogen
- C.
It inhibits action of hCG
- D.
It imitates action of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone
- E.
It imitates action of oxytocin
Correct Answer
A. It inhibits action of progesteroneExplanation
Mifepristone is a drug used in medical abortions because it inhibits the action of progesterone. Progesterone is a hormone that is necessary for maintaining pregnancy, as it helps to prepare the uterus for implantation and supports the growth of the embryo. By inhibiting the action of progesterone, mifepristone disrupts the hormonal balance needed to sustain the pregnancy, leading to a miscarriage. This explains why it is a suitable drug for inducing a miscarriage in early pregnancy.Rate this question:
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- 28.
You are a GP and see Jennifer Gables, a 27 year old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant, for a routine check up. Today she tells you she is experiencing some ankle and hand swelling but is feeling well other than that. The pregnancy has been uncomplicated so far. Her blood pressure reading was 144/94 mmHg. What is the most likely cause of this blood pressure reading?
- A.
Normal for pregnancy
- B.
Pregnancy-induced hypertension
- C.
Chronic hypertension
- D.
Eclampsia
- E.
Pre-eclampsia
Correct Answer
E. Pre-eclampsiaExplanation
The most likely cause of the blood pressure reading of 144/94 mmHg in a 27-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation with ankle and hand swelling is pre-eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia is a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs, typically the liver and kidneys. It can lead to serious complications for both the mother and baby if left untreated. The symptoms of pre-eclampsia, such as high blood pressure and swelling, along with the absence of any other complications in the pregnancy, suggest that pre-eclampsia is the most likely cause.Rate this question:
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- 29.
From which structure in embryonic development does the neural tube develop from?
- A.
Ectoderm
- B.
Mesoderm
- C.
Endoderm
- D.
Sclerotome
- E.
Myotome
Correct Answer
A. EctodermExplanation
The neural tube develops from the ectoderm during embryonic development. The ectoderm is one of the three primary germ layers that form early in development. It gives rise to various structures, including the nervous system. The neural tube is the precursor to the brain and spinal cord, and it forms through a process called neurulation. During neurulation, the ectoderm folds and closes, forming the neural tube. This structure will later differentiate into the central nervous system, playing a crucial role in the development of the entire nervous system.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which one of the following is not an anatomical orphysiological change associated with pregnancy?
- A.
Muscle cell hyperplasia
- B.
Increased peripheral vasodilation
- C.
Elevation and rotation of the heart
- D.
Haemorrhoids
- E.
Increased cardiac output
Correct Answer
A. Muscle cell hyperplasiaExplanation
Muscle cell hyperplasia is not an anatomical or physiological change associated with pregnancy. During pregnancy, the body undergoes various changes to accommodate the growing fetus. Increased peripheral vasodilation occurs to meet the increased metabolic demands of the mother and fetus. Elevation and rotation of the heart happen due to the expanding uterus pushing against the diaphragm. Haemorrhoids can occur due to increased pressure on the veins in the rectal area. Increased cardiac output is necessary to supply oxygen and nutrients to the growing fetus. However, muscle cell hyperplasia, which refers to an increase in the number of muscle cells, is not a typical change observed during pregnancy.Rate this question:
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- 31.
How would you advise someone with regards for testing for Down's syndrome during pregnancy?
- A.
Offer a biochemical blood test during pregnancy to calculate a risk figure for Down's syndrome affecting the baby
- B.
Offer mother amniocentesis to obtain fetal cells for chromosome analysis
- C.
Advise her that the risk of Down's syndrome is low so no further tests are neccessary
- D.
Advise her that the routine ultrasound at 20 weeks will detect any abnormalities
Correct Answer
B. Offer mother amniocentesis to obtain fetal cells for chromosome analysisExplanation
Amniocentesis is a diagnostic test that involves obtaining a sample of the amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus. This fluid contains fetal cells that can be analyzed to determine if the baby has Down's syndrome or other chromosomal abnormalities. It is a more definitive test compared to the biochemical blood test, as it directly examines the chromosomes. The other options mentioned, such as advising that the risk is low or relying on a routine ultrasound, do not provide the same level of certainty as amniocentesis.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A bladder carcinoma is likely to metastasise to which lymph nodes?
- A.
External iliac
- B.
Popliteal
- C.
Lumbar
- D.
Superficial inguinal
- E.
Deep inguinal
Correct Answer
A. External iliacExplanation
Bladder carcinoma is likely to metastasize to the external iliac lymph nodes. This is because the lymphatic drainage of the bladder primarily occurs through the external iliac lymph nodes, making them the most likely site for metastasis. The other lymph nodes listed, such as popliteal, lumbar, superficial inguinal, and deep inguinal, are not typically involved in the metastasis of bladder carcinoma.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Given the lymphatic drainage of the testicles, which lymph nodes is a testicular tumour likely to metastasise to?
- A.
Internal iliac
- B.
Superficial inguinal
- C.
Lateral aortic
- D.
Sacral
- E.
External iliac
Correct Answer
C. Lateral aorticExplanation
A testicular tumor is likely to metastasize to the lateral aortic lymph nodes. The lymphatic drainage of the testicles follows a pathway that includes the para-aortic lymph nodes, which are located along the lateral aspect of the aorta. Therefore, if a testicular tumor spreads through the lymphatic system, it is likely to first involve the lateral aortic lymph nodes.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A diagnosis of gonorrhoea has been made. What findings on light microscopy would support this diagnosis?
- A.
Only polymorphonuclear leucocytes
- B.
A predominance of lactobacilli
- C.
Polymorphonuclear leucocytes and intracellular gram negative diplococci
- D.
A predominance of gram negative cocobacilli and over 20% clue cells
- E.
Yeast spores and hyphae
Correct Answer
C. Polymorphonuclear leucocytes and intracellular gram negative diplococciExplanation
The presence of polymorphonuclear leucocytes (PMNs) and intracellular gram negative diplococci would support the diagnosis of gonorrhoea. Gonorrhoea is caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which appears as gram negative diplococci under light microscopy. PMNs are white blood cells that are typically present in high numbers during an infection, such as gonorrhoea. Therefore, the combination of PMNs and intracellular gram negative diplococci is indicative of a gonorrhoea infection.Rate this question:
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- 35.
An 18 year old patient presesnt with an advanced indirect inguinal hernia on her right hand side. Where might the swelling present?
- A.
Inferolateral to right inguinal ligament
- B.
In the right labia majora
- C.
In the vagina
- D.
To the right of the vulva
- E.
It is not possible for a female to get an indirect inguinal hernia
Correct Answer
B. In the right labia majoraExplanation
The correct answer is "in the right labia majora". In an indirect inguinal hernia, the hernia sac follows the path of the spermatic cord or round ligament of the uterus. In females, the round ligament passes through the inguinal canal and may protrude into the labia majora, causing swelling in that area. Therefore, in this case, the swelling would be present in the right labia majora.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Lymphatic vessels from the bladder drain to which lymph nodes?
Correct Answer
external iliacExplanation
Lymphatic vessels from the bladder drain to the external iliac lymph nodes. The external iliac lymph nodes are located in the pelvis, near the iliac blood vessels. These lymph nodes receive lymph fluid from various pelvic organs, including the bladder. They play a crucial role in filtering and removing waste products, pathogens, and abnormal cells from the lymphatic system. Therefore, the external iliac lymph nodes are the correct answer for the drainage of lymphatic vessels from the bladder.Rate this question:
- 37.
Lymphatic vessels from the prostate drain to which lymph nodes?
Correct Answer
internal iliac
sacralExplanation
The lymphatic vessels from the prostate drain into the internal iliac and sacral lymph nodes. These lymph nodes are located in the pelvis and are responsible for filtering and draining lymph fluid from the prostate. The internal iliac lymph nodes are located along the internal iliac artery, while the sacral lymph nodes are found near the sacrum. Drainage to these lymph nodes is important for the spread of cancer cells and the staging of prostate cancer.Rate this question:
- 38.
Lymphatic vessels from the scrotum drain to which lymph nodes?
Correct Answer
superficial inguinalExplanation
Lymphatic vessels from the scrotum drain to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. The scrotum is a part of the male reproductive system, and it contains lymphatic vessels that carry lymph fluid. These vessels drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, which are located in the groin area. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes play a crucial role in filtering and removing waste products, pathogens, and abnormal cells from the lymphatic fluid before it is returned to the bloodstream.Rate this question:
- 39.
Lymphatic vessels from the penis drain to which lymph nodes?
Correct Answer
superficial inguinal nodesExplanation
The lymphatic vessels from the penis drain to the superficial inguinal nodes. The superficial inguinal nodes are located in the groin area and receive lymphatic drainage from the lower limbs, perineum, and external genitalia, including the penis. These nodes play a crucial role in filtering and trapping foreign substances, such as pathogens, in the lymph fluid before it is returned to the bloodstream. Therefore, the superficial inguinal nodes are the correct lymph nodes to which the lymphatic vessels from the penis drain.Rate this question:
- 40.
Lymphatic vessels from the testes drain to which lymph nodes?
Correct Answer
aorticExplanation
Lymphatic vessels from the testes drain to the aortic lymph nodes. The aortic lymph nodes are located along the abdominal aorta, which is the main artery that carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body. These lymph nodes receive lymphatic fluid from various organs and tissues in the abdomen, including the testes. The lymphatic system plays a crucial role in immune function and the drainage of excess fluid from tissues.Rate this question:
- 41.
Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries drain to which lymph nodes?
Correct Answer
aorticExplanation
Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries drain to the aortic lymph nodes. The aortic lymph nodes are located near the aorta, which is the main artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. These lymph nodes receive lymph fluid from various organs and tissues in the abdomen, including the ovaries. The lymph fluid carries waste products, pathogens, and other substances that need to be filtered and processed by the lymph nodes before being returned to the bloodstream.Rate this question:
- 42.
Lymphatic vessels from the vagina drain to which lymph nodes?
Correct Answer
internal and external iliacExplanation
The lymphatic vessels from the vagina drain to the internal and external iliac lymph nodes. These lymph nodes are located in the pelvis and receive lymphatic drainage from the lower abdomen, pelvis, and lower limbs. The internal iliac lymph nodes are situated along the internal iliac artery, while the external iliac lymph nodes are found along the external iliac artery. The lymphatic drainage from the vagina to these lymph nodes is important for immune response and the removal of waste products and pathogens from the vaginal area.Rate this question:
- 43.
Lymphatic vessels from the uterus drain to which lymph nodes?
Correct Answer
external iliacExplanation
The lymphatic vessels from the uterus drain to the external iliac lymph nodes. The external iliac lymph nodes are located in the pelvis, along the external iliac artery. These lymph nodes receive lymphatic drainage from various pelvic organs, including the uterus. The lymphatic system plays a crucial role in immune function and the removal of waste products from tissues. Therefore, the drainage of lymph from the uterus to the external iliac lymph nodes is an important process in maintaining the health and function of the reproductive system.Rate this question:
- 44.
Lymphatic vessels from the cervix drain to which lymph nodes?
Correct Answer
internal iliac
sacralExplanation
Lymphatic vessels from the cervix drain to the internal iliac and sacral lymph nodes. The internal iliac lymph nodes are located in the pelvis and receive lymphatic drainage from the cervix, uterus, and upper part of the vagina. The sacral lymph nodes are also located in the pelvis and receive lymphatic drainage from the lower part of the cervix, vagina, and rectum. Therefore, both the internal iliac and sacral lymph nodes are involved in draining lymph from the cervix.Rate this question:
- 45.
Lymphatic vessels from the vulva drain to which lymph nodes?
Correct Answer
superficial or deep inguinalExplanation
Lymphatic vessels from the vulva drain to the superficial or deep inguinal lymph nodes. The inguinal lymph nodes are located in the groin area and play a crucial role in filtering and draining lymph fluid from the lower extremities, genitals, and lower abdomen. The lymphatic drainage pattern varies depending on the specific region of the body, and in the case of the vulva, the lymphatic vessels primarily drain to the inguinal lymph nodes. These nodes are responsible for filtering and removing any potential pathogens or waste products from the lymph fluid before it is returned to the bloodstream.Rate this question:
- 46.
How would you treat (1st line) HIV? (drug types)
Correct Answer
2xNRTI and 1xNNRTIExplanation
The recommended treatment for HIV involves using a combination of antiretroviral drugs. In this case, the correct answer suggests using two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) and one non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). NRTIs work by blocking the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is necessary for HIV replication, while NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme directly. Using a combination of these drugs helps to prevent the virus from replicating and reduces the viral load in the body, ultimately slowing down the progression of HIV and improving the immune system.Rate this question:
- 47.
A patient should definitely be started on ART/HAART when the viral load drops below how many ml?
Correct Answer
200Explanation
When the viral load drops below 200 ml, it indicates a significant decrease in the amount of HIV virus in the patient's bloodstream. This is a crucial threshold for initiating Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) or Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART). These treatments are recommended for patients with HIV to suppress the virus, prevent disease progression, and improve the patient's overall health. Therefore, starting ART/HAART when the viral load drops below 200 ml is essential for managing HIV infection effectively.Rate this question:
- 48.
Within 3-6 months of ART/HAART therapy the viral load should be less than how many copies per ml?
Correct Answer
50Explanation
Within 3-6 months of ART/HAART therapy, the viral load should be less than 50 copies per ml. This indicates that the antiretroviral therapy is effectively suppressing the replication of the HIV virus in the body. A low viral load is important for maintaining the health of individuals living with HIV, as it reduces the risk of disease progression and transmission to others. Regular monitoring of viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and make any necessary adjustments to the therapy.Rate this question:
- 49.
How should HIV be managed in pregnancy?
- 50.
How should gonorrhoea be treated?
Correct Answer
amoxicillin, ciprofloxacin or ofloxacin in areas with low prevelance of resistance
ceixime or celfriaxoneExplanation
Gonorrhoea should be treated with amoxicillin, ciprofloxacin, or ofloxacin in areas with low prevalence of resistance. In areas where resistance is more common, treatment with ceixime or celfriaxone is recommended. This is because the bacteria that cause gonorrhoea have developed resistance to certain antibiotics over time. Therefore, the choice of treatment depends on the local prevalence of resistance and the effectiveness of the antibiotics in combating the infection.Rate this question:
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