Amk Practice Questions - Conception, Foetal, Infancy
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On day 5 after fertilisation, the pre-embry becomes know as what? Meaning ball of cells.
About This Quiz
Explore early human development stages with AMK practice questions focusing on conception, the transition from pre-embryo to blastocyst, and early cellular differentiation. This quiz enhances understanding of embryonic stages crucial for students and professionals in biology and medical fields.
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- 2.
Which hormone does a developing follicle produce?
Explanation
During the menstrual cycle, a developing follicle in the ovary produces estrogen. This hormone plays a crucial role in the reproductive system by stimulating the growth of the uterine lining and promoting the development of secondary sexual characteristics. Estrogen also helps regulate the menstrual cycle and is responsible for the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which triggers ovulation. Additionally, estrogen plays a role in maintaining bone health and cardiovascular function.Rate this question:
- 3.
When is the ELISA recommended?
Explanation
ELISA, or Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay, is a diagnostic test used to detect the presence of antibodies or antigens in the blood. It is commonly recommended to be performed 3 months after exposure to certain infections, such as HIV, to ensure accurate results. This waiting period allows enough time for the immune system to produce detectable levels of antibodies, increasing the test's sensitivity and reliability. By waiting for 3 months, the ELISA test can provide a more accurate assessment of infection status, reducing the chances of false-negative results.Rate this question:
- 4.
Lymphatic vessels from the scrotum drain to which lymph nodes?
Explanation
Lymphatic vessels from the scrotum drain to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. The scrotum is a part of the male reproductive system, and it contains lymphatic vessels that carry lymph fluid. These vessels drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, which are located in the groin area. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes play a crucial role in filtering and removing waste products, pathogens, and abnormal cells from the lymphatic fluid before it is returned to the bloodstream.Rate this question:
- 5.
Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries drain to which lymph nodes?
Explanation
Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries drain to the aortic lymph nodes. The aortic lymph nodes are located near the aorta, which is the main artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. These lymph nodes receive lymph fluid from various organs and tissues in the abdomen, including the ovaries. The lymph fluid carries waste products, pathogens, and other substances that need to be filtered and processed by the lymph nodes before being returned to the bloodstream.Rate this question:
- 6.
Lymphatic vessels from the cervix drain to which lymph nodes?
Explanation
Lymphatic vessels from the cervix drain to the internal iliac and sacral lymph nodes. The internal iliac lymph nodes are located in the pelvis and receive lymphatic drainage from the cervix, uterus, and upper part of the vagina. The sacral lymph nodes are also located in the pelvis and receive lymphatic drainage from the lower part of the cervix, vagina, and rectum. Therefore, both the internal iliac and sacral lymph nodes are involved in draining lymph from the cervix.Rate this question:
- 7.
A patient should definitely be started on ART/HAART when the viral load drops below how many ml?
Explanation
When the viral load drops below 200 ml, it indicates a significant decrease in the amount of HIV virus in the patient's bloodstream. This is a crucial threshold for initiating Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) or Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART). These treatments are recommended for patients with HIV to suppress the virus, prevent disease progression, and improve the patient's overall health. Therefore, starting ART/HAART when the viral load drops below 200 ml is essential for managing HIV infection effectively.Rate this question:
- 8.
Within 3-6 months of ART/HAART therapy the viral load should be less than how many copies per ml?
Explanation
Within 3-6 months of ART/HAART therapy, the viral load should be less than 50 copies per ml. This indicates that the antiretroviral therapy is effectively suppressing the replication of the HIV virus in the body. A low viral load is important for maintaining the health of individuals living with HIV, as it reduces the risk of disease progression and transmission to others. Regular monitoring of viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and make any necessary adjustments to the therapy.Rate this question:
- 9.
Which antibodies are found in breast milk?
Explanation
IgA antibodies are found in breast milk. IgA is the most abundant type of antibody in breast milk and plays a crucial role in providing immune protection to the infant. These antibodies help to prevent infections and diseases by binding to pathogens and neutralizing them. The presence of IgA in breast milk is one of the reasons why breastfeeding is recommended for newborns, as it helps to boost their immune system and protect them from various illnesses.Rate this question:
- 10.
A macrophage starts its life as what?
Explanation
A macrophage starts its life as a monocyte. Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that are produced in the bone marrow. They circulate in the bloodstream until they are recruited to sites of infection or inflammation. Once they leave the bloodstream and enter tissues, they differentiate into macrophages. Macrophages play a crucial role in the immune system by engulfing and digesting pathogens, dead cells, and other debris. They also release signaling molecules to coordinate immune responses. Therefore, the correct answer is a monocyte.Rate this question:
- 11.
A low basophil count could indicate what?
Explanation
A low basophil count could indicate hyperthyroidism, stress, pregnancy, or ovulation. Basophils are a type of white blood cell that play a role in the immune response and allergic reactions. A decrease in basophil count may suggest an overactive thyroid gland (hyperthyroidism), as well as stress, pregnancy, or ovulation. These conditions can affect the body's immune system and lead to a decrease in basophil count.Rate this question:
- 12.
A laow eosinophil count could indicate what?
Explanation
A low eosinophil count could indicate stress or drug toxicity. Stress can cause a decrease in eosinophils, which are a type of white blood cell. Additionally, certain medications or drugs can also lead to a decrease in eosinophil count. Therefore, a low eosinophil count may suggest the presence of stress or drug toxicity.Rate this question:
- 13.
Clonal selection gives rise to which cells?
Explanation
Clonal selection is a process in which specific immune cells are selected and proliferate in response to an antigen. This process leads to the production of active helper T cells and memory helper T cells, as well as cytotoxic T cells and memory cytotoxic T cells. These cells play crucial roles in the immune response. Active helper T cells help stimulate other immune cells, while memory helper T cells and memory cytotoxic T cells retain the ability to quickly respond to future infections by the same antigen. Cytotoxic T cells, on the other hand, directly kill infected cells.Rate this question:
- 14.
Most T cells displaying CD4 develop into what?
Explanation
CD4 is a protein found on the surface of certain T cells, and these T cells are known as helper T cells. Helper T cells play a crucial role in the immune response by coordinating and activating other immune cells, such as B cells and cytotoxic T cells. They help regulate the immune system and are involved in defending the body against infections and diseases. Therefore, it is accurate to say that most T cells displaying CD4 develop into helper T cells.Rate this question:
- 15.
Most T cells displaying CD8 develop into what?
Explanation
CD8 is a protein found on the surface of T cells. T cells that display CD8 are known as CD8+ T cells or cytotoxic T cells. These T cells play a crucial role in the immune system by recognizing and killing infected or abnormal cells, such as virus-infected cells or cancer cells. They are able to directly destroy these cells by releasing toxic substances or by triggering apoptosis, thus helping to eliminate threats to the body. Therefore, T cells displaying CD8 develop into cytotoxic T cells.Rate this question:
- 16.
By what age should an infant be able to sit unaided?
Explanation
By the age of 12 months, an infant should be able to sit unaided. At this stage, their muscles and coordination have developed enough to support their body weight and maintain a sitting position without any assistance. Sitting unaided is an important milestone in a child's development as it signifies the strengthening of their core muscles and prepares them for further physical activities like crawling and walking.Rate this question:
- 17.
On day 5 and 6 the morula becomes hollow inside by pumping fluid into the centre. It is now known as what?
Explanation
On day 5 and 6, the morula undergoes a process called blastulation, where it becomes hollow inside by pumping fluid into the center. This transformed structure is known as a blastocyst. The blastocyst is a crucial stage in embryonic development, as it consists of an outer layer of cells called the trophoblast, which will later form the placenta, and an inner cell mass, which will develop into the embryo itself. This stage marks the beginning of implantation in the uterus.Rate this question:
- 18.
Which hormone is tested for in pregnancy tests?
Explanation
Pregnancy tests detect the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (HcG) hormone in a woman's urine or blood. HcG is produced by the placenta shortly after fertilization occurs. Its presence in the body confirms pregnancy as it is only produced during pregnancy. Therefore, HcG is the hormone that is tested for in pregnancy tests.Rate this question:
- 19.
Lymphatic vessels from the bladder drain to which lymph nodes?
Explanation
Lymphatic vessels from the bladder drain to the external iliac lymph nodes. The external iliac lymph nodes are located in the pelvis, near the iliac blood vessels. These lymph nodes receive lymph fluid from various pelvic organs, including the bladder. They play a crucial role in filtering and removing waste products, pathogens, and abnormal cells from the lymphatic system. Therefore, the external iliac lymph nodes are the correct answer for the drainage of lymphatic vessels from the bladder.Rate this question:
- 20.
During pregnancy, high levels of which hormone ensure the uterine walls are relaxed and the cervix is firmly shut?
Explanation
Progesterone is a hormone that is produced during pregnancy and plays a crucial role in maintaining the pregnancy. It helps to relax the uterine walls, preventing contractions and ensuring the fetus remains securely in the uterus. Additionally, progesterone also helps to keep the cervix closed, providing a protective barrier for the growing fetus and reducing the risk of premature labor or miscarriage. Therefore, high levels of progesterone during pregnancy are necessary for the proper development and protection of the fetus.Rate this question:
- 21.
What is the main role of oxytocin in lactation?
Explanation
Oxytocin plays a crucial role in lactation by stimulating milk ejection. It is released from the pituitary gland in response to the suckling of a baby. Oxytocin causes the muscles surrounding the milk-producing glands in the breast to contract, pushing the milk into the ducts and out of the nipple. This process, known as milk ejection or let-down, allows the milk to be available for the baby to feed. Therefore, the main role of oxytocin in lactation is to facilitate the release of milk from the breast.Rate this question:
- 22.
Lymphatic vessels from the prostate drain to which lymph nodes?
Explanation
The lymphatic vessels from the prostate drain into the internal iliac and sacral lymph nodes. These lymph nodes are located in the pelvis and are responsible for filtering and draining lymph fluid from the prostate. The internal iliac lymph nodes are located along the internal iliac artery, while the sacral lymph nodes are found near the sacrum. Drainage to these lymph nodes is important for the spread of cancer cells and the staging of prostate cancer.Rate this question:
- 23.
A high neutrophil count could indicate what?
Explanation
A high neutrophil count could indicate a bacterial infection because neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the body's immune response to bacterial infections. When there is an infection, the body releases more neutrophils to the site of infection to help fight off the bacteria. Therefore, an elevated neutrophil count is often seen in cases of bacterial infections as the body tries to combat the infection.Rate this question:
- 24.
Day 6 after fertilisation.Blastocyst 'hatches' from here and embeds in uterine wall.
Explanation
The zona pellucida is a glycoprotein layer that surrounds the developing embryo. On the 6th day after fertilization, the blastocyst, which is a hollow ball of cells, hatches from the zona pellucida. This allows the blastocyst to implant into the uterine wall and establish pregnancy. The zona pellucida serves as a protective barrier during early development and is shed once the blastocyst is ready to implant.Rate this question:
- 25.
In spermatogenesis, which cells produce testosterone?
Explanation
Leydig cells are responsible for producing testosterone during spermatogenesis. These cells are located in the testes and play a crucial role in the development and maturation of sperm cells. Testosterone is a male sex hormone that is essential for the growth and maintenance of male reproductive tissues, as well as the development of secondary sexual characteristics. Therefore, Leydig cells are vital in the production of testosterone, which is necessary for the proper functioning of the male reproductive system.Rate this question:
- 26.
Does the paramesonephric/Mullerian or mesonephric/Wolfian duct develop in females?
Explanation
The paramesonephric/Mullerian duct develops in females. This duct is responsible for the development of the female reproductive system, including the fallopian tubes, uterus, and upper portion of the vagina. In males, the mesonephric/Wolfian duct develops instead, giving rise to the male reproductive system.Rate this question:
- 27.
In innate immunity, what are the 2 main types of phagocytes?
Explanation
Macrophages and neutrophils are the two main types of phagocytes in innate immunity. Phagocytes are specialized immune cells that engulf and destroy pathogens, dead cells, and debris. Macrophages are large, long-lived cells that are present in tissues and organs, while neutrophils are small, short-lived cells that are the most abundant type of white blood cells. Both macrophages and neutrophils play crucial roles in the immune response by recognizing and engulfing foreign invaders, initiating inflammation, and presenting antigens to activate the adaptive immune system.Rate this question:
- 28.
How would you be able to tell if a patient had a patent ductus arteriosus?
Explanation
A machinery murmur is a distinct sound heard during auscultation of the heart that indicates the presence of a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). A PDA is a condition where a blood vessel called the ductus arteriosus, which connects the aorta and the pulmonary artery in a fetus, fails to close after birth. This causes abnormal blood flow between these two major blood vessels, resulting in the machinery murmur. Therefore, the presence of a machinery murmur would suggest the possibility of a patent ductus arteriosus in a patient.Rate this question:
- 29.
A high eosinophil count could indicate what?
Explanation
A high eosinophil count could indicate a parasitic infection or an autoimmune disease. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that are involved in the body's immune response. An increase in eosinophil count is often seen in response to parasitic infections as the body tries to fight off the invading parasites. However, eosinophilia can also occur in autoimmune diseases, where the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues. Therefore, a high eosinophil count can be a potential indicator of either a parasitic infection or an autoimmune disease.Rate this question:
- 30.
A large basophil count could indicate what?
Explanation
A large basophil count could indicate allergic reactions, leukemias, cancers, or hypothyroidism. Basophils are a type of white blood cell that play a role in the immune response. An increase in basophil count can be seen in allergic reactions due to the release of histamine. Leukemias and cancers can also cause an increase in basophil count as a result of abnormal cell growth. Additionally, hypothyroidism, a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone, can lead to an elevated basophil count.Rate this question:
- 31.
From day 2-4, the collection of fertilised cells is known as what?
Explanation
From day 2-4, the collection of fertilised cells is known as a pre-embryo. This term is used to describe the early stage of development after fertilization, when the cells are still dividing and have not yet formed distinct tissues or organs. During this stage, the pre-embryo is a cluster of cells that will eventually develop into an embryo.Rate this question:
- 32.
Lymphatic vessels from the testes drain to which lymph nodes?
Explanation
Lymphatic vessels from the testes drain to the aortic lymph nodes. The aortic lymph nodes are located along the abdominal aorta, which is the main artery that carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body. These lymph nodes receive lymphatic fluid from various organs and tissues in the abdomen, including the testes. The lymphatic system plays a crucial role in immune function and the drainage of excess fluid from tissues.Rate this question:
- 33.
Miss Lucy James is a 15 year old who visits you as she has not reached puberty yet. On examination you find that she has no breast or pubic hair development. A deficiency in which hormone would be responsible for this problem.
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Oestrogen
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Follicle stimulating hormone
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Progesterone
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Gonadatrophin releasing hormone
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Luteinising hormone
Correct Answer
A. OestrogenExplanation
The correct answer is oestrogen. Oestrogen is the hormone responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics in females, such as breast and pubic hair development. A deficiency in oestrogen would result in a delay or absence of these developments.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Cells on the inside of the inner cell mass (stem cells) become know as what?
Correct Answer
primitive ectodermExplanation
The cells on the inside of the inner cell mass, also known as stem cells, differentiate into a specific type of tissue called the primitive ectoderm. This tissue gives rise to the ectodermal germ layer, which develops into various structures such as the nervous system, skin, and hair. The primitive ectoderm plays a crucial role in the early embryonic development and the formation of different cell types in the body.Rate this question:
- 35.
Ssarah Mills, a 17 year old student, comes to see you, her GP. She has been recently diagnosed as 6 weeks pregnant. She tells you that she would like a termination. You explain that as she is early in her pregnancy she would be suitable for a medical abortion, which would involve taking a drug called mifepristone to induce a miscarriage.
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It inhibits action of progesterone
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It inhibits action of oestrogen
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It inhibits action of hCG
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It imitates action of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone
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It imitates action of oxytocin
Correct Answer
A. It inhibits action of progesteroneExplanation
Mifepristone is a drug used in medical abortions because it inhibits the action of progesterone. Progesterone is a hormone that is necessary for maintaining pregnancy, as it helps to prepare the uterus for implantation and supports the growth of the embryo. By inhibiting the action of progesterone, mifepristone disrupts the hormonal balance needed to sustain the pregnancy, leading to a miscarriage. This explains why it is a suitable drug for inducing a miscarriage in early pregnancy.Rate this question:
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- 36.
From which structure in embryonic development does the neural tube develop from?
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Ectoderm
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Mesoderm
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Endoderm
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Sclerotome
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Myotome
Correct Answer
A. EctodermExplanation
The neural tube develops from the ectoderm during embryonic development. The ectoderm is one of the three primary germ layers that form early in development. It gives rise to various structures, including the nervous system. The neural tube is the precursor to the brain and spinal cord, and it forms through a process called neurulation. During neurulation, the ectoderm folds and closes, forming the neural tube. This structure will later differentiate into the central nervous system, playing a crucial role in the development of the entire nervous system.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Where is gonadotrophin releasing hormone released from and what does it do?
Correct Answer
hypothalamus, stimulates anterior lobe of pituitary gland to produce FSHExplanation
Gonadotrophin releasing hormone is released from the hypothalamus. Its main function is to stimulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to produce follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). FSH plays a crucial role in the regulation of reproductive processes, such as the development and maturation of ovarian follicles in females and the production of sperm in males.Rate this question:
- 38.
In innate immunity, what is the first line of defense?
Correct Answer
skin and mucous membranesExplanation
The first line of defense in innate immunity is the skin and mucous membranes. These physical barriers act as a protective shield against pathogens, preventing their entry into the body. The skin acts as a barrier, preventing the entry of microorganisms, while mucous membranes in the respiratory, digestive, and urogenital tracts produce mucus that traps pathogens and prevents their colonization. These barriers also contain antimicrobial substances that can directly kill or inhibit the growth of pathogens. Overall, the skin and mucous membranes play a crucial role in preventing the entry and spread of pathogens, making them the first line of defense in innate immunity.Rate this question:
- 39.
Which hormone would you test for to see if ovulation has occured?
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HCG
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Progesterone
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LH
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FSH
Correct Answer
A. ProgesteroneExplanation
Progesterone is the hormone that is primarily responsible for preparing and maintaining the uterus for pregnancy. It is produced by the ovaries after ovulation has occurred. Therefore, testing for progesterone levels can indicate whether or not ovulation has taken place. If progesterone levels are high, it suggests that ovulation has occurred. Conversely, low levels of progesterone indicate that ovulation has not taken place. Therefore, progesterone is the hormone that would be tested for to determine if ovulation has occurred.Rate this question:
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- 40.
You are a GP and see Jennifer Gables, a 27 year old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant, for a routine check up. Today she tells you she is experiencing some ankle and hand swelling but is feeling well other than that. The pregnancy has been uncomplicated so far. Her blood pressure reading was 144/94 mmHg. What is the most likely cause of this blood pressure reading?
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Normal for pregnancy
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Pregnancy-induced hypertension
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Chronic hypertension
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Eclampsia
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Pre-eclampsia
Correct Answer
A. Pre-eclampsiaExplanation
The most likely cause of the blood pressure reading of 144/94 mmHg in a 27-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation with ankle and hand swelling is pre-eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia is a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs, typically the liver and kidneys. It can lead to serious complications for both the mother and baby if left untreated. The symptoms of pre-eclampsia, such as high blood pressure and swelling, along with the absence of any other complications in the pregnancy, suggest that pre-eclampsia is the most likely cause.Rate this question:
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- 41.
On suspection of bacterial meningitis, what is the most appropriate first step drug management?
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Intrathecal ciprofloxacin
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Intra muscular benzyl penicillin
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Soluble paracetamol
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IV fluids
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Oral cefalexin
Correct Answer
A. Intra muscular benzyl penicillinExplanation
The most appropriate first step drug management for suspected bacterial meningitis is intra muscular benzyl penicillin. Bacterial meningitis is a serious infection of the meninges, the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Benzyl penicillin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that is effective against many bacteria commonly associated with meningitis, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis. It is administered intramuscularly to ensure rapid absorption and distribution throughout the body. Prompt treatment with benzyl penicillin can help control the infection and prevent complications.Rate this question:
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- 42.
A diagnosis of gonorrhoea has been made. What findings on light microscopy would support this diagnosis?
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Only polymorphonuclear leucocytes
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A predominance of lactobacilli
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Polymorphonuclear leucocytes and intracellular gram negative diplococci
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A predominance of gram negative cocobacilli and over 20% clue cells
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Yeast spores and hyphae
Correct Answer
A. Polymorphonuclear leucocytes and intracellular gram negative diplococciExplanation
The presence of polymorphonuclear leucocytes (PMNs) and intracellular gram negative diplococci would support the diagnosis of gonorrhoea. Gonorrhoea is caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which appears as gram negative diplococci under light microscopy. PMNs are white blood cells that are typically present in high numbers during an infection, such as gonorrhoea. Therefore, the combination of PMNs and intracellular gram negative diplococci is indicative of a gonorrhoea infection.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which 2 things are caused by the LH surge?
Correct Answer
ovulation and corpus luteum developmentExplanation
The LH surge, or luteinizing hormone surge, is responsible for triggering ovulation and the development of the corpus luteum. Ovulation is the release of an egg from the ovary, which typically occurs around 24-36 hours after the LH surge. The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that forms from the ruptured ovarian follicle after ovulation. It produces hormones such as progesterone, which prepares the uterus for possible implantation of a fertilized egg. Both ovulation and corpus luteum development are essential for the reproductive process and fertility in females.Rate this question:
- 44.
What is the role of testosterone in spermatogenesis?
Correct Answer
stimulates seminiferous tubules to produce spermExplanation
Testosterone plays a crucial role in spermatogenesis by stimulating the seminiferous tubules to produce sperm. These tubules are responsible for the production and maturation of sperm cells. Testosterone, a male sex hormone produced primarily in the testes, acts on the Sertoli cells within the seminiferous tubules, promoting the development of sperm cells and supporting their maturation process. Without testosterone, the production of sperm would be impaired, leading to infertility or reduced fertility in males.Rate this question:
- 45.
Lymphatic vessels from the uterus drain to which lymph nodes?
Correct Answer
external iliacExplanation
The lymphatic vessels from the uterus drain to the external iliac lymph nodes. The external iliac lymph nodes are located in the pelvis, along the external iliac artery. These lymph nodes receive lymphatic drainage from various pelvic organs, including the uterus. The lymphatic system plays a crucial role in immune function and the removal of waste products from tissues. Therefore, the drainage of lymph from the uterus to the external iliac lymph nodes is an important process in maintaining the health and function of the reproductive system.Rate this question:
- 46.
What is the function of the foramen ovale?
Correct Answer
allows blood to flow from the right atrium to the leftExplanation
The foramen ovale is a small opening in the wall between the right and left atria of the heart. During fetal development, it allows blood to bypass the non-functioning lungs and flow directly from the right atrium to the left atrium. This is important because the lungs are not yet fully developed in the fetus and do not participate in oxygenation of the blood. After birth, the foramen ovale usually closes, redirecting blood flow to the lungs for oxygenation. However, in some individuals, the foramen ovale may remain open, leading to a condition called a patent foramen ovale.Rate this question:
- 47.
A lack of surfactant production can be caused by lack of which hormone?
Correct Answer
corticotropin releasing hormoneExplanation
A lack of surfactant production can be caused by a lack of corticotropin releasing hormone. Corticotropin releasing hormone is responsible for stimulating the release of corticotropin, which in turn stimulates the production and release of cortisol from the adrenal glands. Cortisol is essential for the production of surfactant, a substance that reduces surface tension in the alveoli of the lungs and helps to keep them open. Without sufficient surfactant, the alveoli can collapse, leading to respiratory distress syndrome, particularly in premature infants.Rate this question:
- 48.
A low neutrophil count could indicate what?
Correct Answer
vitamin B12 deficiency
drug toxicity
radiation exposureExplanation
A low neutrophil count could indicate a vitamin B12 deficiency, drug toxicity, or radiation exposure. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in fighting off infections. A low count of neutrophils, known as neutropenia, can be caused by various factors including nutritional deficiencies like vitamin B12 deficiency, exposure to toxic substances such as drugs, or radiation exposure. Therefore, a low neutrophil count can be a potential indicator of these conditions.Rate this question:
- 49.
A high lymphocyte count could indicate what?
Correct Answer
viral infectionsExplanation
A high lymphocyte count could indicate viral infections because lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the body's immune response against viral infections. When the body detects a viral infection, it produces more lymphocytes to help fight off the virus. Therefore, an elevated lymphocyte count suggests that the immune system is actively responding to a viral infection.Rate this question:
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