Amk Practice Questions - Conception, Foetal, Infancy

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1. Lymphatic vessels from the scrotum drain to which lymph nodes?

Explanation

Lymphatic vessels from the scrotum drain to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. The scrotum is a part of the male reproductive system, and it contains lymphatic vessels that carry lymph fluid. These vessels drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, which are located in the groin area. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes play a crucial role in filtering and removing waste products, pathogens, and abnormal cells from the lymphatic fluid before it is returned to the bloodstream.

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About This Quiz
Fertilization Quizzes & Trivia

Explore early human development stages with AMK practice questions focusing on conception, the transition from pre-embryo to blastocyst, and early cellular differentiation. This quiz enhances understanding of embryonic... see morestages crucial for students and professionals in biology and medical fields. see less

2. Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries drain to which lymph nodes?

Explanation

Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries drain to the aortic lymph nodes. The aortic lymph nodes are located near the aorta, which is the main artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. These lymph nodes receive lymph fluid from various organs and tissues in the abdomen, including the ovaries. The lymph fluid carries waste products, pathogens, and other substances that need to be filtered and processed by the lymph nodes before being returned to the bloodstream.

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3. Lymphatic vessels from the cervix drain to which lymph nodes?

Explanation

Lymphatic vessels from the cervix drain to the internal iliac and sacral lymph nodes. The internal iliac lymph nodes are located in the pelvis and receive lymphatic drainage from the cervix, uterus, and upper part of the vagina. The sacral lymph nodes are also located in the pelvis and receive lymphatic drainage from the lower part of the cervix, vagina, and rectum. Therefore, both the internal iliac and sacral lymph nodes are involved in draining lymph from the cervix.

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4. A patient should definitely be started on ART/HAART when the viral load drops below how many ml?

Explanation

When the viral load drops below 200 ml, it indicates a significant decrease in the amount of HIV virus in the patient's bloodstream. This is a crucial threshold for initiating Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) or Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART). These treatments are recommended for patients with HIV to suppress the virus, prevent disease progression, and improve the patient's overall health. Therefore, starting ART/HAART when the viral load drops below 200 ml is essential for managing HIV infection effectively.

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5. Within 3-6 months of ART/HAART therapy the viral load should be less than how many copies per ml?

Explanation

Within 3-6 months of ART/HAART therapy, the viral load should be less than 50 copies per ml. This indicates that the antiretroviral therapy is effectively suppressing the replication of the HIV virus in the body. A low viral load is important for maintaining the health of individuals living with HIV, as it reduces the risk of disease progression and transmission to others. Regular monitoring of viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and make any necessary adjustments to the therapy.

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6. Which antibodies are found in breast milk?

Explanation

IgA antibodies are found in breast milk. IgA is the most abundant type of antibody in breast milk and plays a crucial role in providing immune protection to the infant. These antibodies help to prevent infections and diseases by binding to pathogens and neutralizing them. The presence of IgA in breast milk is one of the reasons why breastfeeding is recommended for newborns, as it helps to boost their immune system and protect them from various illnesses.

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7. A macrophage starts its life as what?

Explanation

A macrophage starts its life as a monocyte. Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that are produced in the bone marrow. They circulate in the bloodstream until they are recruited to sites of infection or inflammation. Once they leave the bloodstream and enter tissues, they differentiate into macrophages. Macrophages play a crucial role in the immune system by engulfing and digesting pathogens, dead cells, and other debris. They also release signaling molecules to coordinate immune responses. Therefore, the correct answer is a monocyte.

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8. A low basophil count could indicate what?

Explanation

A low basophil count could indicate hyperthyroidism, stress, pregnancy, or ovulation. Basophils are a type of white blood cell that play a role in the immune response and allergic reactions. A decrease in basophil count may suggest an overactive thyroid gland (hyperthyroidism), as well as stress, pregnancy, or ovulation. These conditions can affect the body's immune system and lead to a decrease in basophil count.

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9. A laow eosinophil count could indicate what?

Explanation

A low eosinophil count could indicate stress or drug toxicity. Stress can cause a decrease in eosinophils, which are a type of white blood cell. Additionally, certain medications or drugs can also lead to a decrease in eosinophil count. Therefore, a low eosinophil count may suggest the presence of stress or drug toxicity.

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10. Clonal selection gives rise to which cells?

Explanation

Clonal selection is a process in which specific immune cells are selected and proliferate in response to an antigen. This process leads to the production of active helper T cells and memory helper T cells, as well as cytotoxic T cells and memory cytotoxic T cells. These cells play crucial roles in the immune response. Active helper T cells help stimulate other immune cells, while memory helper T cells and memory cytotoxic T cells retain the ability to quickly respond to future infections by the same antigen. Cytotoxic T cells, on the other hand, directly kill infected cells.

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11. Most T cells displaying CD4 develop into what?

Explanation

CD4 is a protein found on the surface of certain T cells, and these T cells are known as helper T cells. Helper T cells play a crucial role in the immune response by coordinating and activating other immune cells, such as B cells and cytotoxic T cells. They help regulate the immune system and are involved in defending the body against infections and diseases. Therefore, it is accurate to say that most T cells displaying CD4 develop into helper T cells.

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12. Most T cells displaying CD8 develop into what?

Explanation

CD8 is a protein found on the surface of T cells. T cells that display CD8 are known as CD8+ T cells or cytotoxic T cells. These T cells play a crucial role in the immune system by recognizing and killing infected or abnormal cells, such as virus-infected cells or cancer cells. They are able to directly destroy these cells by releasing toxic substances or by triggering apoptosis, thus helping to eliminate threats to the body. Therefore, T cells displaying CD8 develop into cytotoxic T cells.

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13. By what age should an infant be able to sit unaided?

Explanation

By the age of 12 months, an infant should be able to sit unaided. At this stage, their muscles and coordination have developed enough to support their body weight and maintain a sitting position without any assistance. Sitting unaided is an important milestone in a child's development as it signifies the strengthening of their core muscles and prepares them for further physical activities like crawling and walking.

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14. On day 5 after fertilisation, the pre-embry becomes know as what? Meaning ball of cells.

Explanation

On day 5 after fertilisation, the pre-embryo develops into a morula, which is a compact ball of cells. This stage occurs after the zygote undergoes multiple rounds of cell division, resulting in a solid mass of cells. The morula will eventually develop into a blastocyst, which is the next stage of embryonic development. Therefore, the correct answer is morula.

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15. Which hormone does a developing follicle produce?

Explanation

During the menstrual cycle, a developing follicle in the ovary produces estrogen. This hormone plays a crucial role in the reproductive system by stimulating the growth of the uterine lining and promoting the development of secondary sexual characteristics. Estrogen also helps regulate the menstrual cycle and is responsible for the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which triggers ovulation. Additionally, estrogen plays a role in maintaining bone health and cardiovascular function.

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16. When is the ELISA recommended?

Explanation

ELISA, or Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay, is a diagnostic test used to detect the presence of antibodies or antigens in the blood. It is commonly recommended to be performed 3 months after exposure to certain infections, such as HIV, to ensure accurate results. This waiting period allows enough time for the immune system to produce detectable levels of antibodies, increasing the test's sensitivity and reliability. By waiting for 3 months, the ELISA test can provide a more accurate assessment of infection status, reducing the chances of false-negative results.

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17. On day 5 and 6 the morula becomes hollow inside by pumping fluid into the centre. It is now known as what?

Explanation

On day 5 and 6, the morula undergoes a process called blastulation, where it becomes hollow inside by pumping fluid into the center. This transformed structure is known as a blastocyst. The blastocyst is a crucial stage in embryonic development, as it consists of an outer layer of cells called the trophoblast, which will later form the placenta, and an inner cell mass, which will develop into the embryo itself. This stage marks the beginning of implantation in the uterus.

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18. Which hormone is tested for in pregnancy tests?

Explanation

Pregnancy tests detect the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (HcG) hormone in a woman's urine or blood. HcG is produced by the placenta shortly after fertilization occurs. Its presence in the body confirms pregnancy as it is only produced during pregnancy. Therefore, HcG is the hormone that is tested for in pregnancy tests.

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19. Lymphatic vessels from the bladder drain to which lymph nodes?

Explanation

Lymphatic vessels from the bladder drain to the external iliac lymph nodes. The external iliac lymph nodes are located in the pelvis, near the iliac blood vessels. These lymph nodes receive lymph fluid from various pelvic organs, including the bladder. They play a crucial role in filtering and removing waste products, pathogens, and abnormal cells from the lymphatic system. Therefore, the external iliac lymph nodes are the correct answer for the drainage of lymphatic vessels from the bladder.

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20. During pregnancy, high levels of which hormone ensure the uterine walls are relaxed and the cervix is firmly shut?

Explanation

Progesterone is a hormone that is produced during pregnancy and plays a crucial role in maintaining the pregnancy. It helps to relax the uterine walls, preventing contractions and ensuring the fetus remains securely in the uterus. Additionally, progesterone also helps to keep the cervix closed, providing a protective barrier for the growing fetus and reducing the risk of premature labor or miscarriage. Therefore, high levels of progesterone during pregnancy are necessary for the proper development and protection of the fetus.

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21. What is the main role of oxytocin in lactation?

Explanation

Oxytocin plays a crucial role in lactation by stimulating milk ejection. It is released from the pituitary gland in response to the suckling of a baby. Oxytocin causes the muscles surrounding the milk-producing glands in the breast to contract, pushing the milk into the ducts and out of the nipple. This process, known as milk ejection or let-down, allows the milk to be available for the baby to feed. Therefore, the main role of oxytocin in lactation is to facilitate the release of milk from the breast.

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22. Lymphatic vessels from the prostate drain to which lymph nodes?

Explanation

The lymphatic vessels from the prostate drain into the internal iliac and sacral lymph nodes. These lymph nodes are located in the pelvis and are responsible for filtering and draining lymph fluid from the prostate. The internal iliac lymph nodes are located along the internal iliac artery, while the sacral lymph nodes are found near the sacrum. Drainage to these lymph nodes is important for the spread of cancer cells and the staging of prostate cancer.

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23. A high neutrophil count could indicate what?

Explanation

A high neutrophil count could indicate a bacterial infection because neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the body's immune response to bacterial infections. When there is an infection, the body releases more neutrophils to the site of infection to help fight off the bacteria. Therefore, an elevated neutrophil count is often seen in cases of bacterial infections as the body tries to combat the infection.

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24. Day 6 after fertilisation.Blastocyst 'hatches' from here and embeds in uterine wall.

Explanation

The zona pellucida is a glycoprotein layer that surrounds the developing embryo. On the 6th day after fertilization, the blastocyst, which is a hollow ball of cells, hatches from the zona pellucida. This allows the blastocyst to implant into the uterine wall and establish pregnancy. The zona pellucida serves as a protective barrier during early development and is shed once the blastocyst is ready to implant.

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25. In spermatogenesis, which cells produce testosterone?

Explanation

Leydig cells are responsible for producing testosterone during spermatogenesis. These cells are located in the testes and play a crucial role in the development and maturation of sperm cells. Testosterone is a male sex hormone that is essential for the growth and maintenance of male reproductive tissues, as well as the development of secondary sexual characteristics. Therefore, Leydig cells are vital in the production of testosterone, which is necessary for the proper functioning of the male reproductive system.

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26. Does the paramesonephric/Mullerian or mesonephric/Wolfian duct develop in females?

Explanation

The paramesonephric/Mullerian duct develops in females. This duct is responsible for the development of the female reproductive system, including the fallopian tubes, uterus, and upper portion of the vagina. In males, the mesonephric/Wolfian duct develops instead, giving rise to the male reproductive system.

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27. In innate immunity, what are the 2 main types of phagocytes?

Explanation

Macrophages and neutrophils are the two main types of phagocytes in innate immunity. Phagocytes are specialized immune cells that engulf and destroy pathogens, dead cells, and debris. Macrophages are large, long-lived cells that are present in tissues and organs, while neutrophils are small, short-lived cells that are the most abundant type of white blood cells. Both macrophages and neutrophils play crucial roles in the immune response by recognizing and engulfing foreign invaders, initiating inflammation, and presenting antigens to activate the adaptive immune system.

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28. How would you be able to tell if a patient had a patent ductus arteriosus?

Explanation

A machinery murmur is a distinct sound heard during auscultation of the heart that indicates the presence of a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). A PDA is a condition where a blood vessel called the ductus arteriosus, which connects the aorta and the pulmonary artery in a fetus, fails to close after birth. This causes abnormal blood flow between these two major blood vessels, resulting in the machinery murmur. Therefore, the presence of a machinery murmur would suggest the possibility of a patent ductus arteriosus in a patient.

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29. A high eosinophil count could indicate what?

Explanation

A high eosinophil count could indicate a parasitic infection or an autoimmune disease. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that are involved in the body's immune response. An increase in eosinophil count is often seen in response to parasitic infections as the body tries to fight off the invading parasites. However, eosinophilia can also occur in autoimmune diseases, where the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues. Therefore, a high eosinophil count can be a potential indicator of either a parasitic infection or an autoimmune disease.

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30. A large basophil count could indicate what?

Explanation

A large basophil count could indicate allergic reactions, leukemias, cancers, or hypothyroidism. Basophils are a type of white blood cell that play a role in the immune response. An increase in basophil count can be seen in allergic reactions due to the release of histamine. Leukemias and cancers can also cause an increase in basophil count as a result of abnormal cell growth. Additionally, hypothyroidism, a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone, can lead to an elevated basophil count.

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31. Lymphatic vessels from the testes drain to which lymph nodes?

Explanation

Lymphatic vessels from the testes drain to the aortic lymph nodes. The aortic lymph nodes are located along the abdominal aorta, which is the main artery that carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body. These lymph nodes receive lymphatic fluid from various organs and tissues in the abdomen, including the testes. The lymphatic system plays a crucial role in immune function and the drainage of excess fluid from tissues.

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32. From day 2-4, the collection of fertilised cells is known as what?

Explanation

From day 2-4, the collection of fertilised cells is known as a pre-embryo. This term is used to describe the early stage of development after fertilization, when the cells are still dividing and have not yet formed distinct tissues or organs. During this stage, the pre-embryo is a cluster of cells that will eventually develop into an embryo.

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33. Miss Lucy James is a 15 year old who visits you as she has not reached puberty yet. On examination you find that she has no breast or pubic hair development. A deficiency in which hormone would be responsible for this problem.

Explanation

The correct answer is oestrogen. Oestrogen is the hormone responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics in females, such as breast and pubic hair development. A deficiency in oestrogen would result in a delay or absence of these developments.

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34. Cells on the inside of the inner cell mass (stem cells) become know as what?

Explanation

The cells on the inside of the inner cell mass, also known as stem cells, differentiate into a specific type of tissue called the primitive ectoderm. This tissue gives rise to the ectodermal germ layer, which develops into various structures such as the nervous system, skin, and hair. The primitive ectoderm plays a crucial role in the early embryonic development and the formation of different cell types in the body.

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35. Ssarah Mills, a 17 year old student, comes to see you, her GP. She has been recently diagnosed as 6 weeks pregnant. She tells you that she would like a termination. You explain that as she is early in her pregnancy she would be suitable for a medical abortion, which would involve taking a drug called mifepristone to induce a miscarriage.

Explanation

Mifepristone is a drug used in medical abortions because it inhibits the action of progesterone. Progesterone is a hormone that is necessary for maintaining pregnancy, as it helps to prepare the uterus for implantation and supports the growth of the embryo. By inhibiting the action of progesterone, mifepristone disrupts the hormonal balance needed to sustain the pregnancy, leading to a miscarriage. This explains why it is a suitable drug for inducing a miscarriage in early pregnancy.

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36. From which structure in embryonic development does the neural tube develop from?

Explanation

The neural tube develops from the ectoderm during embryonic development. The ectoderm is one of the three primary germ layers that form early in development. It gives rise to various structures, including the nervous system. The neural tube is the precursor to the brain and spinal cord, and it forms through a process called neurulation. During neurulation, the ectoderm folds and closes, forming the neural tube. This structure will later differentiate into the central nervous system, playing a crucial role in the development of the entire nervous system.

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37. In innate immunity, what is the first line of defense?

Explanation

The first line of defense in innate immunity is the skin and mucous membranes. These physical barriers act as a protective shield against pathogens, preventing their entry into the body. The skin acts as a barrier, preventing the entry of microorganisms, while mucous membranes in the respiratory, digestive, and urogenital tracts produce mucus that traps pathogens and prevents their colonization. These barriers also contain antimicrobial substances that can directly kill or inhibit the growth of pathogens. Overall, the skin and mucous membranes play a crucial role in preventing the entry and spread of pathogens, making them the first line of defense in innate immunity.

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38. Where is gonadotrophin releasing hormone released from and what does it do?

Explanation

Gonadotrophin releasing hormone is released from the hypothalamus. Its main function is to stimulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to produce follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). FSH plays a crucial role in the regulation of reproductive processes, such as the development and maturation of ovarian follicles in females and the production of sperm in males.

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39. Which hormone would you test for to see if ovulation has occured?

Explanation

Progesterone is the hormone that is primarily responsible for preparing and maintaining the uterus for pregnancy. It is produced by the ovaries after ovulation has occurred. Therefore, testing for progesterone levels can indicate whether or not ovulation has taken place. If progesterone levels are high, it suggests that ovulation has occurred. Conversely, low levels of progesterone indicate that ovulation has not taken place. Therefore, progesterone is the hormone that would be tested for to determine if ovulation has occurred.

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40. You are a GP and see Jennifer Gables, a 27 year old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant, for a routine check up. Today she tells you she is experiencing some ankle and hand swelling but is feeling well other than that. The pregnancy has been uncomplicated so far. Her blood pressure reading was 144/94 mmHg. What is the most likely cause of this blood pressure reading?

Explanation

The most likely cause of the blood pressure reading of 144/94 mmHg in a 27-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation with ankle and hand swelling is pre-eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia is a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs, typically the liver and kidneys. It can lead to serious complications for both the mother and baby if left untreated. The symptoms of pre-eclampsia, such as high blood pressure and swelling, along with the absence of any other complications in the pregnancy, suggest that pre-eclampsia is the most likely cause.

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41. On suspection of bacterial meningitis, what is the most appropriate first step drug management?

Explanation

The most appropriate first step drug management for suspected bacterial meningitis is intra muscular benzyl penicillin. Bacterial meningitis is a serious infection of the meninges, the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Benzyl penicillin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that is effective against many bacteria commonly associated with meningitis, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis. It is administered intramuscularly to ensure rapid absorption and distribution throughout the body. Prompt treatment with benzyl penicillin can help control the infection and prevent complications.

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42. A diagnosis of gonorrhoea has been made. What findings on light microscopy would support this diagnosis?

Explanation

The presence of polymorphonuclear leucocytes (PMNs) and intracellular gram negative diplococci would support the diagnosis of gonorrhoea. Gonorrhoea is caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which appears as gram negative diplococci under light microscopy. PMNs are white blood cells that are typically present in high numbers during an infection, such as gonorrhoea. Therefore, the combination of PMNs and intracellular gram negative diplococci is indicative of a gonorrhoea infection.

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43. Lymphatic vessels from the uterus drain to which lymph nodes?

Explanation

The lymphatic vessels from the uterus drain to the external iliac lymph nodes. The external iliac lymph nodes are located in the pelvis, along the external iliac artery. These lymph nodes receive lymphatic drainage from various pelvic organs, including the uterus. The lymphatic system plays a crucial role in immune function and the removal of waste products from tissues. Therefore, the drainage of lymph from the uterus to the external iliac lymph nodes is an important process in maintaining the health and function of the reproductive system.

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44. What is the function of the foramen ovale?

Explanation

The foramen ovale is a small opening in the wall between the right and left atria of the heart. During fetal development, it allows blood to bypass the non-functioning lungs and flow directly from the right atrium to the left atrium. This is important because the lungs are not yet fully developed in the fetus and do not participate in oxygenation of the blood. After birth, the foramen ovale usually closes, redirecting blood flow to the lungs for oxygenation. However, in some individuals, the foramen ovale may remain open, leading to a condition called a patent foramen ovale.

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45. A lack of surfactant production can be caused by lack of which hormone?

Explanation

A lack of surfactant production can be caused by a lack of corticotropin releasing hormone. Corticotropin releasing hormone is responsible for stimulating the release of corticotropin, which in turn stimulates the production and release of cortisol from the adrenal glands. Cortisol is essential for the production of surfactant, a substance that reduces surface tension in the alveoli of the lungs and helps to keep them open. Without sufficient surfactant, the alveoli can collapse, leading to respiratory distress syndrome, particularly in premature infants.

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46. A low neutrophil count could indicate what?

Explanation

A low neutrophil count could indicate a vitamin B12 deficiency, drug toxicity, or radiation exposure. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in fighting off infections. A low count of neutrophils, known as neutropenia, can be caused by various factors including nutritional deficiencies like vitamin B12 deficiency, exposure to toxic substances such as drugs, or radiation exposure. Therefore, a low neutrophil count can be a potential indicator of these conditions.

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47. A high lymphocyte count could indicate what?

Explanation

A high lymphocyte count could indicate viral infections because lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the body's immune response against viral infections. When the body detects a viral infection, it produces more lymphocytes to help fight off the virus. Therefore, an elevated lymphocyte count suggests that the immune system is actively responding to a viral infection.

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48. Which 2 things are caused by the LH surge?

Explanation

The LH surge, or luteinizing hormone surge, is responsible for triggering ovulation and the development of the corpus luteum. Ovulation is the release of an egg from the ovary, which typically occurs around 24-36 hours after the LH surge. The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that forms from the ruptured ovarian follicle after ovulation. It produces hormones such as progesterone, which prepares the uterus for possible implantation of a fertilized egg. Both ovulation and corpus luteum development are essential for the reproductive process and fertility in females.

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49. What is the role of testosterone in spermatogenesis?

Explanation

Testosterone plays a crucial role in spermatogenesis by stimulating the seminiferous tubules to produce sperm. These tubules are responsible for the production and maturation of sperm cells. Testosterone, a male sex hormone produced primarily in the testes, acts on the Sertoli cells within the seminiferous tubules, promoting the development of sperm cells and supporting their maturation process. Without testosterone, the production of sperm would be impaired, leading to infertility or reduced fertility in males.

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50. How would you advise someone with regards for testing for Down's syndrome during pregnancy?

Explanation

Amniocentesis is a diagnostic test that involves obtaining a sample of the amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus. This fluid contains fetal cells that can be analyzed to determine if the baby has Down's syndrome or other chromosomal abnormalities. It is a more definitive test compared to the biochemical blood test, as it directly examines the chromosomes. The other options mentioned, such as advising that the risk is low or relying on a routine ultrasound, do not provide the same level of certainty as amniocentesis.

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51. In the emergency department you are called to see Sarah Green, a 19 year old student brought in by ambulance. Her flatmate tells you that Sarah has been previously well. This morning Sarah vomited and returned to bed complaining of a headache. When her flatmate went to check on her at lunch time Sarah was very drowsy. She has since vomited twice more. On examination she is extremely drowsy with a GCS of 13. Temperature is 38.1oC, pulse rate 85bpm and blood pressuer 120/72mmHg. Pupils are equal and reactive to light, although Sarah is able to communicate that this testing causes her pain. There are no focal neurological signs; Kernig's sign is equivocal and plantar reflexes are up going.

You perform a lumbar puncture but notice that the CSF is clear. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

Based on the given symptoms and examination findings, the most likely diagnosis is viral meningitis. The patient presents with a sudden onset of symptoms, including headache, vomiting, drowsiness, and fever. The clear cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) obtained from the lumbar puncture suggests a viral rather than bacterial infection. The absence of focal neurological signs and the reactive pupils also support the diagnosis of viral meningitis.

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52. Which one of the following is not an anatomical orphysiological change associated with pregnancy?

Explanation

Muscle cell hyperplasia is not an anatomical or physiological change associated with pregnancy. During pregnancy, the body undergoes various changes to accommodate the growing fetus. Increased peripheral vasodilation occurs to meet the increased metabolic demands of the mother and fetus. Elevation and rotation of the heart happen due to the expanding uterus pushing against the diaphragm. Haemorrhoids can occur due to increased pressure on the veins in the rectal area. Increased cardiac output is necessary to supply oxygen and nutrients to the growing fetus. However, muscle cell hyperplasia, which refers to an increase in the number of muscle cells, is not a typical change observed during pregnancy.

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53. Sonya presents with a loss of hearing in her left ear. During the Rinne's test Sonya says that she perceives sound better through the bone that through the air in her left ear. During the Weber's test, Sonya reports that she could hear better in her left ear than her right.

According to these test results, what kind of hearing loss does Sonya have?

Explanation

Based on the results of the Rinne's and Weber's tests, Sonya perceives sound better through bone conduction than through air conduction in her left ear. This suggests that there is a problem with sound transmission in her left ear, indicating conductive hearing loss. Additionally, Sonya reports that she can hear better in her left ear than her right during the Weber's test, further supporting the presence of conductive hearing loss in her left ear. Therefore, the correct answer is conductive hearing loss in the left ear.

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54. A low lymphocyte count could indicate what?

Explanation

A low lymphocyte count could indicate immunosuppression, which means that the immune system is not functioning properly and is unable to protect the body from infections and diseases. Treatment with cortisol, a type of steroid hormone, can also lead to a low lymphocyte count as it suppresses the immune system.

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55. Cells of the inner cell mass that are exposed to the cavity of the blastocyst are called what?

Explanation

The cells of the inner cell mass that are exposed to the cavity of the blastocyst are called primitive endoderm. The primitive endoderm is one of the two cell types that differentiate from the inner cell mass during early embryonic development. It plays a crucial role in the formation of the yolk sac and contributes to the development of extraembryonic tissues. These cells are responsible for providing nutrients to the developing embryo and are essential for proper embryonic development.

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56. At puberty, a primary oocyte finishes which stage of meiosis before being ovulated?

Explanation

During puberty, a primary oocyte finishes meiosis 1 before being ovulated. Meiosis 1 is the first division of meiosis, which involves the separation of homologous chromosomes. In this stage, the primary oocyte divides into two cells, one being a secondary oocyte and the other a polar body. The secondary oocyte then enters into meiosis 2, but this division is only completed if fertilization occurs. Therefore, the correct answer is meiosis 1.

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57. A 19 year old rugby player hit his head on a post whilst involved in a tackle. He was momentarily unconscious but regained consciousness and sat on the sideline til the end of the game. He was then admitted to A & E when he became drowsy. During your consultation with this patient his condition rapidly deteriorates, showing signs of confusion and no longer being able to obey commands. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

The most likely diagnosis in this case is an extradural hematoma. The patient's history of head trauma and loss of consciousness, followed by a period of lucidity and subsequent deterioration, are consistent with the classic presentation of an extradural hematoma. This type of hematoma occurs when there is bleeding between the dura mater and the skull, usually as a result of a skull fracture. The initial unconsciousness is due to the immediate impact, while the lucid interval occurs when the bleeding temporarily stops. However, as the hematoma expands, it puts pressure on the brain, leading to worsening symptoms such as confusion and inability to obey commands.

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58. An 18 year old patient presesnt with an advanced indirect inguinal hernia on her right hand side. Where might the swelling present?

Explanation

The correct answer is "in the right labia majora". In an indirect inguinal hernia, the hernia sac follows the path of the spermatic cord or round ligament of the uterus. In females, the round ligament passes through the inguinal canal and may protrude into the labia majora, causing swelling in that area. Therefore, in this case, the swelling would be present in the right labia majora.

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59. Given the lymphatic drainage of the testicles, which lymph nodes is a testicular tumour likely to metastasise to?

Explanation

A testicular tumor is likely to metastasize to the lateral aortic lymph nodes. The lymphatic drainage of the testicles follows a pathway that includes the para-aortic lymph nodes, which are located along the lateral aspect of the aorta. Therefore, if a testicular tumor spreads through the lymphatic system, it is likely to first involve the lateral aortic lymph nodes.

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60. A bladder carcinoma is likely to metastasise to which lymph nodes?

Explanation

Bladder carcinoma is likely to metastasize to the external iliac lymph nodes. This is because the lymphatic drainage of the bladder primarily occurs through the external iliac lymph nodes, making them the most likely site for metastasis. The other lymph nodes listed, such as popliteal, lumbar, superficial inguinal, and deep inguinal, are not typically involved in the metastasis of bladder carcinoma.

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61. Where does the spinal cord terminate in infants?

Explanation

The spinal cord terminates at the level of L3/L4 in infants. This means that the spinal cord ends at the space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae. The termination level may vary slightly among individuals, but L3/L4 is the most common level.

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62. Lymphatic vessels from the vagina drain to which lymph nodes?

Explanation

The lymphatic vessels from the vagina drain to the internal and external iliac lymph nodes. These lymph nodes are located in the pelvis and receive lymphatic drainage from the lower abdomen, pelvis, and lower limbs. The internal iliac lymph nodes are situated along the internal iliac artery, while the external iliac lymph nodes are found along the external iliac artery. The lymphatic drainage from the vagina to these lymph nodes is important for immune response and the removal of waste products and pathogens from the vaginal area.

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63. How would you treat (1st line) HIV? (drug types)

Explanation

The recommended treatment for HIV involves using a combination of antiretroviral drugs. In this case, the correct answer suggests using two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) and one non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). NRTIs work by blocking the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is necessary for HIV replication, while NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme directly. Using a combination of these drugs helps to prevent the virus from replicating and reduces the viral load in the body, ultimately slowing down the progression of HIV and improving the immune system.

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64. How should gonorrhoea be treated?

Explanation

Gonorrhoea should be treated with amoxicillin, ciprofloxacin, or ofloxacin in areas with low prevalence of resistance. In areas where resistance is more common, treatment with ceixime or celfriaxone is recommended. This is because the bacteria that cause gonorrhoea have developed resistance to certain antibiotics over time. Therefore, the choice of treatment depends on the local prevalence of resistance and the effectiveness of the antibiotics in combating the infection.

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65. How should chlamydia be treated?

Explanation

Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection caused by bacteria. It can be treated effectively with antibiotics such as doxycycline, azithromycin, or erythromycin. These medications work by killing the bacteria and reducing the symptoms of the infection. The choice of antibiotic may vary depending on factors such as the severity of the infection, individual patient characteristics, and any potential allergies or contraindications. It is important to complete the full course of antibiotics as prescribed by a healthcare professional to ensure complete eradication of the infection.

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66. How should a patient present with open herpes ulcers be treated?

Explanation

Patients with open herpes ulcers should be treated with antiviral medications such as acyclovir, famciclovir, or valaciclovir. These medications are effective in reducing the severity and duration of herpes outbreaks by inhibiting the replication of the virus. They can also help alleviate symptoms and promote faster healing of the ulcers. The choice of medication may depend on various factors, including the patient's medical history, the severity of the ulcers, and the preference of the healthcare provider.

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67. During foetal development, the mesoderm gives rise to what?

Explanation

During foetal development, the mesoderm is one of the three primary germ layers that forms early in embryonic development. It gives rise to various structures in the body, including muscles, bones, and connective tissue. These tissues are essential for the development and functioning of the musculoskeletal system, providing support, movement, and protection to the growing foetus.

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68. During foetal development, the endoderm gives rise to what?

Explanation

During fetal development, the endoderm is one of the three primary germ layers that forms the innermost layer of cells. It gives rise to various organs and structures, including the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal (GI) and respiratory tracts. This means that the cells derived from the endoderm differentiate and form the protective and functional linings of these important systems in the body.

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69. During foetal development, the ectoderm gives rise to what?

Explanation

During foetal development, the ectoderm is one of the three primary germ layers that forms the outermost layer of the embryo. It gives rise to various structures including the epidermis of the skin and the nervous system. The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin, providing protection and acting as a barrier against the external environment. The nervous system, on the other hand, includes the brain, spinal cord, and nerves, which are responsible for transmitting signals and coordinating bodily functions. Therefore, the correct answer is that the ectoderm gives rise to the epidermis of the skin and the nervous system.

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70. During foetal development, the sclerotome gives rise to what?

Explanation

During foetal development, the sclerotome is a group of cells that gives rise to the vertebrae and ribs. The sclerotome is responsible for the formation of the skeletal structures in the back, including the individual bones of the spine (vertebrae) and the curved bones that protect the chest (ribs). These structures are essential for providing support, protection, and flexibility to the developing foetus and later in life.

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71. During foetal development, the dermatome gives rise to what?

Explanation

During foetal development, the dermatome is responsible for giving rise to connective tissue and the dermis of the skin. The dermatome is a specific region of the embryo that develops into the connective tissue, which provides support and structure to various organs and tissues. Additionally, it also forms the dermis of the skin, which is the inner layer responsible for providing strength, elasticity, and sensory perception to the skin.

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72. During foetal development, the myotome gives rise to what?

Explanation

During foetal development, the myotome is a group of cells that forms the skeletal muscles of the trunk, neck, and limbs. These cells differentiate and develop into the specific muscle fibers that make up these structures. The myotome plays a crucial role in the formation and growth of the musculoskeletal system in the developing foetus.

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73. What is the ductus arteriosus?

Explanation

The ductus arteriosus is an additional artery that connects the pulmonary artery to the descending aorta. This artery is present in the fetal circulatory system and allows blood to bypass the lungs, as the lungs are not fully functional in the womb. After birth, the ductus arteriosus usually closes and becomes a ligament called the ligamentum arteriosum.

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74. Where would you find the ductus venosus?

Explanation

The ductus venosus is a blood vessel that connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava (IVC). During fetal development, the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus. The ductus venosus acts as a shunt, allowing a portion of this oxygenated blood to bypass the liver and flow directly into the IVC. This helps to supply the developing fetus with oxygen-rich blood. After birth, the ductus venosus closes and becomes a ligament known as the ligamentum venosum.

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75. What are the main effects of progesterone during labour?

Explanation

Progesterone plays a crucial role during labor by promoting the formation of a mucus plug that seals the uterus from the cervix. This mucus plug acts as a protective barrier, preventing the entry of bacteria into the uterus and reducing the risk of infection. Additionally, progesterone also suppresses uterine contractions, allowing the cervix to remain closed and the baby to stay in the womb until the appropriate time for delivery. These effects of progesterone contribute to the smooth progression of labor and the overall well-being of both the mother and the baby.

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76. What are the main effects of oestrogen during labour?

Explanation

Oestrogen plays a crucial role in preparing the uterus for labor by stimulating the growth of uterine muscle cells and increasing their contractility. It also promotes the softening and dilation of the cervix, allowing for the passage of the baby during childbirth. Additionally, oestrogen promotes the development of ducts in the mammary glands, which are responsible for producing and transporting milk after childbirth. These effects of oestrogen are essential for a successful labor and breastfeeding experience.

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77. In immunity, what is the role of the natural killer cells?

Explanation

Natural killer (NK) cells play a crucial role in the immune system by identifying and attacking cells that display abnormal plasma membrane proteins. These proteins can be a result of viral infections, cancerous mutations, or other abnormalities. NK cells have the ability to recognize these abnormal cells and release cytotoxic granules, leading to the destruction of the target cells. This immune response helps in preventing the spread of infections and controlling the growth of cancer cells.

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78. Which 3 cells do lymphocytes differentiate into?

Explanation

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. They differentiate into three main types: T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells. T cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunity, recognizing and destroying infected cells. B cells produce antibodies to neutralize pathogens. Natural killer cells are able to directly kill infected or cancerous cells. These three types of lymphocytes work together to provide a coordinated immune response against various threats to the body.

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79. What happens to T cells once they've been activated?

Explanation

Once T cells have been activated, they undergo clonal selection. This process involves the proliferation of the activated T cell into a large number of identical cells, known as clones. These clones are specific to the antigen that initially activated the T cell. Clonal selection ensures that there is a sufficient number of T cells that can recognize and respond to the specific antigen, enhancing the immune response against the pathogen or foreign substance.

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80. What's the role of active helper T cells?

Explanation

Active helper T cells play a crucial role in the immune response by secreting interleukin 2. Interleukin 2 is a cytokine that acts as a growth factor for other immune cells, such as cytotoxic T cells and B cells. It stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of these cells, enhancing the immune response against pathogens. By secreting interleukin 2, active helper T cells help to coordinate and regulate the immune system, ensuring an effective and targeted immune response.

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81. What's the role of memory helper T cells?

Explanation

Memory helper T cells play a crucial role in the immune response. Upon re-infection, they can proliferate and differentiate into either active helper T cells or memory helper T cells. Active helper T cells help coordinate the immune response by activating other immune cells and releasing cytokines. Memory helper T cells, on the other hand, provide long-term immunity by "remembering" the previous encounter with the pathogen. They can quickly respond to re-infection, leading to a faster and more effective immune response. This dual ability of memory helper T cells to differentiate into either active or memory cells allows for a robust and adaptable immune response.

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82. What's the role of cytotoxic T cells?

Explanation

Cytotoxic T cells play a crucial role in the immune system by binding to microbes and triggering apoptosis. Apoptosis is a process of programmed cell death, which helps to eliminate infected or abnormal cells. By binding to microbes, cytotoxic T cells can identify and target these harmful invaders, leading to their destruction through apoptosis. This mechanism is essential for the body to defend against infections and maintain overall health.

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83. What's the role of IgM antibodies?

Explanation

IgM antibodies are the first antibodies to be secreted by plasma cells after the initial exposure to an antigen. They play a crucial role in the primary immune response. Additionally, IgM antibodies have the ability to activate the complement system, which is an important part of the immune response that helps to destroy pathogens.

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84. What's the role of IgA antibodies?

Explanation

IgA antibodies play a vital role in providing localized protection to the mucus membranes. They are found in high concentrations in areas such as the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts, where they help prevent the entry of harmful pathogens. During times of stress, the levels of IgA antibodies decrease, which can potentially compromise the body's ability to defend against infections in these specific areas.

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85. What's the role of IgD antibodies?

Explanation

IgD antibodies play a crucial role in the activation of B cells. They are present on the surface of mature B cells and help in the recognition of antigens. When an antigen binds to the IgD antibody, it triggers the activation of the B cell, leading to the production of specific antibodies against the antigen. This activation process is essential for the immune response as it allows B cells to differentiate into plasma cells and produce large amounts of antibodies to combat the invading pathogens. Therefore, IgD antibodies are directly involved in the activation of B cells.

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86. What's the role of IgG antibodies?

Explanation

IgG antibodies are the most abundant type of antibodies in the human body. They play a crucial role in the secondary immune response, which occurs upon re-exposure to a previously encountered antigen. During a secondary response, IgG antibodies are produced in large quantities and quickly bind to the antigen, neutralizing it and promoting its elimination from the body. This rapid and efficient response is possible due to the memory cells that are formed during the primary immune response. These memory cells "remember" the antigen and can quickly produce IgG antibodies upon re-infection, providing a faster and stronger defense against the pathogen.

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87. What's the role of IgE antibodies?

Explanation

IgE antibodies play a crucial role in allergic and hypersensitivity reactions. When a person is exposed to an allergen, such as pollen or pet dander, the immune system produces IgE antibodies specific to that allergen. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils, which are immune cells in the body. Upon re-exposure to the allergen, the allergen binds to the IgE antibodies on these cells, triggering the release of inflammatory mediators like histamine. This leads to the symptoms of an allergic reaction, such as itching, sneezing, and swelling. Therefore, IgE antibodies are responsible for initiating and amplifying allergic and hypersensitivity reactions.

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88. Clonal selection of B cells gives rise to which cells, and what are their role?

Explanation

Clonal selection is a process in which B cells that recognize a specific antigen are selected and activated. This process gives rise to two types of cells: memory B cells and plasma cells. Memory B cells are responsible for storing information about the antigen and are used for future immune responses. On the other hand, plasma cells are specialized cells that secrete antibodies, which are proteins that bind to and neutralize antigens. Therefore, memory B cells play a crucial role in long-term immunity, while plasma cells are involved in the immediate immune response by producing antibodies.

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89. Cells on the outside of the blastocyst that contribute to the placenta are called what?

Explanation

Trophectoderm cells are the outer cells of the blastocyst that play a crucial role in the formation of the placenta. These cells attach to the uterine wall and develop into the placenta, providing vital nutrients and oxygen to the developing embryo. They also facilitate the exchange of waste products between the mother and the fetus. Trophectoderm cells are specialized and essential for the successful implantation and development of the embryo.

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90. What does FSH do?

Explanation

FSH, or follicle-stimulating hormone, plays a crucial role in the reproductive system. It is responsible for stimulating the development of ovarian follicles in females, which contain the eggs. This hormone helps in the maturation of the follicles, leading to the release of a mature egg during ovulation. FSH also stimulates the production of estrogen, which is important for the growth and development of the reproductive organs. Overall, FSH plays a vital role in the menstrual cycle and fertility in females.

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91. In the menstrual cycle, which hormones does oestrogen inhibit? How do these then become uninhibited?

Explanation

During the menstrual cycle, oestrogen levels gradually increase. As oestrogen levels rise, it eventually reaches a point where it inhibits the production of FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone). Once oestrogen inhibits FSH and LH, these hormones are no longer suppressed, and their production resumes. This allows for the development and release of an egg during ovulation.

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92. Which hormones are produced by the corpus luteum, and what is their role?

Explanation

The corpus luteum produces progesterone and estrogen hormones. These hormones play a crucial role in the menstrual cycle and reproductive system. Progesterone helps prepare the uterus for pregnancy and maintains the uterine lining, while estrogen helps regulate the menstrual cycle and promote the development of secondary sexual characteristics. Both hormones work together to inhibit the production of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), which are responsible for the maturation and release of eggs from the ovaries. By inhibiting FSH and LH, progesterone and estrogen help regulate the menstrual cycle and prevent ovulation during pregnancy.

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93. How does the HIV virus get into a host CD4 cell?

Explanation

The HIV virus enters a host CD4 cell through a process involving the interaction between GP120 and CD4. GP120 recognizes CD4 and binds to it, leading to a structural change in the virus that exposes GP41. GP41 then binds to CCR5, a co-receptor on the surface of the CD4 cell, which allows the fusion of the virus with the cell membrane. This fusion enables the virus to enter the CD4 cell and initiate the infection process.

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94. Lymphatic vessels from the penis drain to which lymph nodes?

Explanation

The lymphatic vessels from the penis drain to the superficial inguinal nodes. The superficial inguinal nodes are located in the groin area and receive lymphatic drainage from the lower limbs, perineum, and external genitalia, including the penis. These nodes play a crucial role in filtering and trapping foreign substances, such as pathogens, in the lymph fluid before it is returned to the bloodstream. Therefore, the superficial inguinal nodes are the correct lymph nodes to which the lymphatic vessels from the penis drain.

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95. Lymphatic vessels from the vulva drain to which lymph nodes?

Explanation

Lymphatic vessels from the vulva drain to the superficial or deep inguinal lymph nodes. The inguinal lymph nodes are located in the groin area and play a crucial role in filtering and draining lymph fluid from the lower extremities, genitals, and lower abdomen. The lymphatic drainage pattern varies depending on the specific region of the body, and in the case of the vulva, the lymphatic vessels primarily drain to the inguinal lymph nodes. These nodes are responsible for filtering and removing any potential pathogens or waste products from the lymph fluid before it is returned to the bloodstream.

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96. During pregnancy, what are the main roles of the hormones progesterone and oestrogen?

Explanation

During pregnancy, progesterone and estrogen play crucial roles in maintaining the uterine lining and preparing the mammary glands for milk secretion. Progesterone helps to maintain the thickened uterine lining, ensuring a suitable environment for the developing fetus. It also helps to prevent contractions that could lead to premature labor. Estrogen, on the other hand, stimulates the growth of mammary glands and ducts in the breasts, preparing them for milk production and secretion after childbirth. Together, these hormones are essential for the successful progression of pregnancy and the ability to breastfeed.

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97. What is the main role of prolactin in lactation?

Explanation

Prolactin plays a crucial role in lactation by stimulating milk synthesis and secretion. It is a hormone produced by the pituitary gland in response to the suckling of the baby. Prolactin promotes the development of mammary glands and stimulates the production of milk. It also helps in maintaining lactation by ensuring the continuous production and release of milk. Therefore, the main role of prolactin in lactation is milk synthesis and secretion.

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98. What is the main effect of oxytocine during labour?

Explanation

Oxytocin is a hormone that plays a crucial role in labor and childbirth. It is responsible for stimulating contractions of the uterus, which helps in the dilation of the cervix. As the cervix dilates, it opens up to allow the baby to pass through the birth canal. Therefore, the main effect of oxytocin during labor is the dilation of the cervix.

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99. What is the role of the complement system in immunity?

Explanation

The complement system plays a crucial role in immunity by promoting phagocytosis, which is the process of engulfing and destroying pathogens by immune cells. Additionally, it contributes to inflammation, which is a protective response of the immune system to infection or injury. Inflammation helps to recruit immune cells to the site of infection, enhance the immune response, and ultimately eliminate the pathogen. Therefore, the complement system's promotion of phagocytosis and contribution to inflammation are important mechanisms in the immune system's defense against pathogens.

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100. A high monocyte count could indicate what?

Explanation

A high monocyte count could indicate viral/fungal infections or TB. Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response against infections. An increase in their count suggests an ongoing immune response to combat viral or fungal infections. Additionally, tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection that can also cause an elevation in monocyte levels as the immune system tries to fight off the infection. Therefore, a high monocyte count may be indicative of these particular infections.

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101. A low monocyte count could indicate what?

Explanation

A low monocyte count could indicate bone marrow suppression, which refers to a decrease in the production of monocytes by the bone marrow. This can be caused by various factors such as infections, certain medications, or diseases affecting the bone marrow. On the other hand, treatment with cortisol, a hormone that helps regulate the immune system, can also lead to a low monocyte count. Cortisol has immunosuppressive effects and can inhibit the production of monocytes. Therefore, both bone marrow suppression and treatment with cortisol can result in a low monocyte count.

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102. Which HIV test should be performed in neonates?

Explanation

The PCR test is the most suitable HIV test to be performed in neonates. This is because the PCR test can detect the presence of the HIV virus in the blood at an early stage, even before antibodies are produced. Neonates may have acquired HIV from their mothers during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding, so it is crucial to accurately diagnose HIV in newborns to ensure timely treatment and management. The PCR test is highly sensitive and specific, making it an effective diagnostic tool for detecting HIV in neonates.

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103. How would you treat (1st line) HIV? (drug names)

Explanation

The correct answer includes both drug combinations: efavirenz, zidovudine, and lamivudine; and efavirenz, tenofovir, and emtricitabine. These drug combinations are commonly used in the treatment of HIV. Efavirenz is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) that helps to prevent the replication of the virus. Zidovudine and lamivudine are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) that also inhibit the replication of the virus. Tenofovir and emtricitabine are also NRTIs that work in a similar way. Using a combination of these drugs helps to reduce the viral load and improve the immune system function in individuals with HIV.

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Lymphatic vessels from the scrotum drain to which lymph nodes?
Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries drain to which lymph nodes?
Lymphatic vessels from the cervix drain to which lymph nodes?
A patient should definitely be started on ART/HAART when the viral...
Within 3-6 months of ART/HAART therapy the viral load should be less...
Which antibodies are found in breast milk?
A macrophage starts its life as what?
A low basophil count could indicate what?
A laow eosinophil count could indicate what?
Clonal selection gives rise to which cells?
Most T cells displaying CD4 develop into what?
Most T cells displaying CD8 develop into what?
By what age should an infant be able to sit unaided?
On day 5 after fertilisation, the pre-embry becomes know as what?...
Which hormone does a developing follicle produce?
When is the ELISA recommended?
On day 5 and 6 the morula becomes hollow inside by pumping fluid into...
Which hormone is tested for in pregnancy tests?
Lymphatic vessels from the bladder drain to which lymph nodes?
During pregnancy, high levels of which hormone ensure the uterine...
What is the main role of oxytocin in lactation?
Lymphatic vessels from the prostate drain to which lymph nodes?
A high neutrophil count could indicate what?
Day 6 after fertilisation.Blastocyst 'hatches' from here and embeds in...
In spermatogenesis, which cells produce testosterone?
Does the paramesonephric/Mullerian or mesonephric/Wolfian duct...
In innate immunity, what are the 2 main types of phagocytes?
How would you be able to tell if a patient had a patent ductus...
A high eosinophil count could indicate what?
A large basophil count could indicate what?
Lymphatic vessels from the testes drain to which lymph nodes?
From day 2-4, the collection of fertilised cells is known as what?
Miss Lucy James is a 15 year old who visits you as she has not reached...
Cells on the inside of the inner cell mass (stem cells) become know as...
Ssarah Mills, a 17 year old student, comes to see you, her GP. She has...
From which structure in embryonic development does the neural tube...
In innate immunity, what is the first line of defense?
Where is gonadotrophin releasing hormone released from and what does...
Which hormone would you test for to see if ovulation has occured?
You are a GP and see Jennifer Gables, a 27 year old woman who is 32...
On suspection of bacterial meningitis, what is the most appropriate...
A diagnosis of gonorrhoea has been made. What findings on light...
Lymphatic vessels from the uterus drain to which lymph nodes?
What is the function of the foramen ovale?
A lack of surfactant production can be caused by lack of which...
A low neutrophil count could indicate what?
A high lymphocyte count could indicate what?
Which 2 things are caused by the LH surge?
What is the role of testosterone in spermatogenesis?
How would you advise someone with regards for testing for Down's...
In the emergency department you are called to see Sarah Green, a 19...
Which one of the following is not an anatomical orphysiological change...
Sonya presents with a loss of hearing in her left ear. During the...
A low lymphocyte count could indicate what?
Cells of the inner cell mass that are exposed to the cavity of the...
At puberty, a primary oocyte finishes which stage of meiosis before...
A 19 year old rugby player hit his head on a post whilst involved in a...
An 18 year old patient presesnt with an advanced indirect inguinal...
Given the lymphatic drainage of the testicles, which lymph nodes is a...
A bladder carcinoma is likely to metastasise to which lymph nodes?
Where does the spinal cord terminate in infants?
Lymphatic vessels from the vagina drain to which lymph nodes?
How would you treat (1st line) HIV? (drug types)
How should gonorrhoea be treated?
How should chlamydia be treated?
How should a patient present with open herpes ulcers be treated?
During foetal development, the mesoderm gives rise to what?
During foetal development, the endoderm gives rise to what?
During foetal development, the ectoderm gives rise to what?
During foetal development, the sclerotome gives rise to what?
During foetal development, the dermatome gives rise to what?
During foetal development, the myotome gives rise to what?
What is the ductus arteriosus?
Where would you find the ductus venosus?
What are the main effects of progesterone during labour?
What are the main effects of oestrogen during labour?
In immunity, what is the role of the natural killer cells?
Which 3 cells do lymphocytes differentiate into?
What happens to T cells once they've been activated?
What's the role of active helper T cells?
What's the role of memory helper T cells?
What's the role of cytotoxic T cells?
What's the role of IgM antibodies?
What's the role of IgA antibodies?
What's the role of IgD antibodies?
What's the role of IgG antibodies?
What's the role of IgE antibodies?
Clonal selection of B cells gives rise to which cells, and what are...
Cells on the outside of the blastocyst that contribute to the placenta...
What does FSH do?
In the menstrual cycle, which hormones does oestrogen inhibit? How do...
Which hormones are produced by the corpus luteum, and what is their...
How does the HIV virus get into a host CD4 cell?
Lymphatic vessels from the penis drain to which lymph nodes?
Lymphatic vessels from the vulva drain to which lymph nodes?
During pregnancy, what are the main roles of the hormones progesterone...
What is the main role of prolactin in lactation?
What is the main effect of oxytocine during labour?
What is the role of the complement system in immunity?
A high monocyte count could indicate what?
A low monocyte count could indicate what?
Which HIV test should be performed in neonates?
How would you treat (1st line) HIV? (drug names)
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