Airlaw And Operational Procedures

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| By CaptSpock
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Airlaw And Operational Procedures - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:

    • A.

      The state of registry or common mark registering authority

    • B.

      The state of registry only

    • C.

      The International Civil Aviation Organisation

    • D.

      The International Telecommunication Union

    Correct Answer
    B. The state of registry only
    Explanation
    According to Annex 7, the registration mark for an aircraft should be assigned by the state of registry only. This means that the letters, numbers, or combination of both used in the registration mark should be designated by the country where the aircraft is registered. The other options, such as the common mark registering authority, the International Civil Aviation Organisation, and the International Telecommunication Union, are not responsible for assigning the registration mark.

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  • 2. 

    According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a PPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and completed a private pilot licence course shall have received at least:

    • A.

      25 hours of dual instruction

    • B.

      35 hours of dual instruction

    • C.

      45 hours of dual instruction

    • D.

      10 hours of dual instruction

    Correct Answer
    A. 25 hours of dual instruction
    Explanation
    According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a PPL (A) is required to have received at least 25 hours of dual instruction in order to satisfactorily complete the private pilot license course. This means that the applicant must have undergone training with an instructor for a minimum of 25 hours in order to gain the necessary skills and knowledge to obtain the license.

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  • 3. 

    If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?

    • A.

      Let down

    • B.

      Descend

    • C.

      Descend for landing

    • D.

      You land

    Correct Answer
    B. Descend
    Explanation
    In the given scenario, if radio communication is established during an interception but communication in a common language is not possible, the intercepting aircraft should pronounce the phrase "Descend" to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing. This phrase is a clear and concise command that indicates the desired action of the intercepted aircraft.

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  • 4. 

    An aircraft maneuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:

    • A.

      Not land because the airport is not available for landing.

    • B.

      Give way to another aircraft.

    • C.

      Return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.

    • D.

      Not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Not land because the airport is not available for landing.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Not land because the airport is not available for landing." This is because the series of red flashes from the control tower signifies that the airport is not currently available for landing.

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  • 5. 

    Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?

    • A.

      Switching on and off three times the landing lights

    • B.

      The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

    • C.

      Switching on and off four times the navigation lights

    • D.

      Switching on and off four times the landing lights

    Correct Answer
    B. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
    Explanation
    When an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiences radio failure and needs to indicate difficulties, it should switch the landing lights on and off repeatedly. This action is a recognized signal to communicate a radio failure and indicate that the aircraft needs to land without requiring immediate assistance.

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  • 6. 

    An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit, select Mode A

    • A.

      Code 7000.

    • B.

      Code 7600.

    • C.

      Code 7500.

    • D.

      Code 7700.

    Correct Answer
    D. Code 7700.
    Explanation
    When an aircraft equipped with an SSR transponder is intercepted by another aircraft, it is required to select Mode A Code 7700. This code is used to indicate an emergency situation, specifically a general emergency. Selecting this code alerts air traffic control and other aircraft to the fact that the intercepted aircraft is in distress and requires immediate assistance.

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  • 7. 

    Definitions The Transition Level:

    • A.

      Shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.

    • B.

      Shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established.

    • C.

      Is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP.

    • D.

      Is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude." This means that the transition level is the minimum flight level that can be used once an aircraft has reached the transition altitude. It is the level at which aircraft switch from using altimeter settings based on atmospheric pressure to using standard pressure settings. This ensures that all aircraft in the same airspace are using the same reference for altitude measurements. The transition level is determined and published for each aerodrome in the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).

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  • 8. 

    When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode

    • A.

      Only when directed by ATC.

    • B.

      Unless otherwise directed by ATC.

    • C.

      Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.

    • D.

      Regardless of ATC instructions.

    Correct Answer
    B. Unless otherwise directed by ATC.
    Explanation
    When the aircraft carries a serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot is required to continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC. This means that the pilot must keep the Mode C transponder on unless ATC specifically instructs them to turn it off. The transponder helps ATC to accurately track the aircraft's altitude, so it is important for the pilot to comply with this requirement unless told otherwise by ATC.

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  • 9. 

    The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:

    • A.

      3 km visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of clouds

    • B.

      3 km visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud

    • C.

      8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds

    • D.

      8 NM visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

    Correct Answer
    C. 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds. This answer states that for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, the minimum visibility required is 8 km when the aircraft is at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) above mean sea level (AMSL), and there should be no clouds in the vicinity. This ensures that the pilot has sufficient visibility to navigate safely and avoid any potential obstacles or other aircraft.

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  • 10. 

    In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway?

    • A.

      3 minutes

    • B.

      2 minutes

    • C.

      1 minute

    • D.

      4 minutes

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 minutes
    Explanation
    When a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft on the same runway, a minimum separation of 2 minutes should be applied in order to meet the wake turbulence criteria. This is necessary to ensure that the wake turbulence generated by the heavy aircraft has dissipated enough to prevent any potential hazards or disturbances to the medium aircraft during takeoff.

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  • 11. 

    Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify?

    • A.

      Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

    • B.

      Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.

    • C.

      You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.

    • D.

      ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost.

    Correct Answer
    A. Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
    Explanation
    The term "Radar contact" signifies that the aircraft has been identified on the radar display and that radar flight instructions will be provided until the radar identification is terminated. This means that the air traffic control (ATC) is able to track the aircraft's position and provide guidance and instructions based on the radar information. The ATC will continue to provide radar flight instructions until the radar identification is terminated, indicating that the aircraft is no longer being tracked on radar.

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  • 12. 

    When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible, than:

    • A.

      You must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide for continuation of the flight;

    • B.

      Departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed

    • C.

      You are not allowed to commence the flight

    • D.

      The flight can only continue in the most direct manner;

    Correct Answer
    A. You must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide for continuation of the flight;
    Explanation
    If the transponder is unserviceable before departure and cannot be restored, the correct action is to indicate the failure in the flight plan. After this, the Air Traffic Control (ATC) will make efforts to ensure that the flight can still continue. This means that the flight may be allowed to proceed, and ATC will assist in finding a solution for the transponder issue.

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  • 13. 

    A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:

    • A.

      Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).

    • B.

      Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).

    • C.

      AIRAC.

    • D.

      NOTAM.

    Correct Answer
    B. Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC) because it is a notice that contains information related to flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration, or legislative matters. It is originated at the AIS (Aeronautical Information Service) of a state. AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication) is a publication that contains aeronautical information essential to air navigation, AIRAC is the system for the regular publication of aeronautical information, and NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) is a notice containing information concerning the establishment, condition, or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure, or hazard.

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  • 14. 

    Which part of the AIP contains a list with "Location Indicators"?

    • A.

      ENR

    • B.

      GEN

    • C.

      SAR

    • D.

      AD

    Correct Answer
    D. AD
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AD. AD refers to the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) section that contains a list with "Location Indicators". This section provides information about the location codes used in aviation, allowing pilots, air traffic controllers, and other aviation personnel to easily identify and communicate specific locations.

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  • 15. 

    Runway end lights shall be:

    • A.

      Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.

    • B.

      Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.

    • C.

      Fixed lights showing variable white.

    • D.

      Fixed lights showing variable red.

    Correct Answer
    B. Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
    Explanation
    Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway are used as runway end lights. These lights provide a visual indication to pilots of the end of the runway, helping them to identify the runway threshold and make accurate landings or takeoffs. The red color is chosen because it contrasts with the surrounding environment and is easily distinguishable, especially in low visibility conditions. This helps to enhance the safety of aircraft operations by providing clear guidance to pilots regarding the runway's end.

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  • 16. 

    The ground - air visual code for: "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is:

    • A.

      V

    • B.

      X

    • C.

      Y

    • D.

      N

    Correct Answer
    A. V
    Explanation
    The ground-air visual code for "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is represented by the letter V. This code is used to indicate that the pilot or crew on the ground requires immediate assistance.

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  • 17. 

    Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation?

    • A.

      The Authority of the State in which the accident took place.

    • B.

      The Operators of the same aircraft type.

    • C.

      The aircraft manufacturer.

    • D.

      The State of design and manufacturer.

    Correct Answer
    A. The Authority of the State in which the accident took place.
    Explanation
    The authority of the state in which the accident took place is responsible for initiating an accident investigation. This is because the state has jurisdiction over the accident site and is responsible for ensuring the safety and well-being of its citizens. The state authority will gather evidence, conduct interviews, and analyze data to determine the cause of the accident and take appropriate actions to prevent similar incidents in the future.

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  • 18. 

    What are final fuel reserves required for a piston aircraft:

    • A.

      30 minutes

    • B.

      45 minutes

    • C.

      60 minutes

    • D.

      20 minutes

    Correct Answer
    B. 45 minutes
    Explanation
    The final fuel reserves required for a piston aircraft are typically 45 minutes. This means that the aircraft must have enough fuel to fly for an additional 45 minutes after reaching its intended destination. This reserve is necessary to account for any unexpected delays or diversions that may occur during the flight. Having this extra fuel ensures that the aircraft can safely reach an alternate airport or continue flying until a suitable landing site is available.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is correct regarding the VFR Operating minima:

    • A.

      For conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250 m at least

    • B.

      For conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3 050 m. (10 000 ft) is 5 km at least (clear of cloud)

    • C.

      Special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km

    • D.

      For conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1 000 m at least

    Correct Answer
    C. Special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km
    Explanation
    Special VFR flights are not allowed to be started when the visibility is less than 3 km. This means that if the visibility is below 3 km, special VFR flights cannot be initiated.

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  • 20. 

    An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:

    • A.

      20 kt.

    • B.

      60 kt.

    • C.

      40 kt.

    • D.

      80 kt.

    Correct Answer
    D. 80 kt.
    Explanation
    When an aircraft is flying towards the center of a microburst, it will experience a sudden change in wind direction and speed. In this case, the aircraft is facing a headwind of 40 kt before entering the microburst. Since a microburst is a strong downdraft, the wind speed will increase significantly as the aircraft crosses it. Therefore, the aircraft can expect to face a windshear of 80 kt, which is the sum of the original headwind (40 kt) and the additional increase in wind speed caused by the microburst.

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  • 21. 

    The wake turbulence:

    • A.

      Starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag devices.

    • B.

      Starts when the aeroplane reaches a height of 35 ft above the ground and stops when it crosses this height before landing.

    • C.

      Starts as soon as the aeroplane commences rolling and stops as soon as it has come to a stop at landing.

    • D.

      Starts at rotation and stops as soon as the aeroplane's wheels touch the ground.

    Correct Answer
    D. Starts at rotation and stops as soon as the aeroplane's wheels touch the ground.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that wake turbulence starts at rotation and stops as soon as the aeroplane's wheels touch the ground. This is because wake turbulence is caused by the vortices created by the wings of an aircraft as it generates lift. These vortices are strongest during takeoff and landing when the aircraft is at a high angle of attack and producing the most lift. Once the aircraft's wheels touch the ground, the lift decreases and the vortices dissipate, thus ending the wake turbulence.

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  • 22. 

    In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:

    • A.

      A 2000

    • B.

      A 7700

    • C.

      A 7600

    • D.

      A 7500

    Correct Answer
    D. A 7500
    Explanation
    In case of a hijack, the squawk code is A 7500. A squawk code is a four-digit transponder code that is used by aircraft to communicate with air traffic control. A 7500 squawk code specifically indicates a hijacking or unlawful interference with an aircraft. This code is used by the pilot to alert air traffic control and other aircraft of the emergency situation.

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  • 23. 

    Which part of the AIP contains a list with "Location Indicators"?

    • A.

      ENR

    • B.

      GEN

    • C.

      LOC

    • D.

      AD

    Correct Answer
    A. ENR
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ENR. The AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication) is a document that contains important information for pilots and other aviation personnel. The ENR section of the AIP specifically deals with en-route information, including navigation aids, airways, and airspace. In this context, the "Location Indicators" would refer to a list of codes or identifiers for different airports or airfields. Therefore, it makes sense that this list would be found in the ENR section of the AIP.

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