# Embraer Jet 170/190 Limitations

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Just before flight mental quiz for embraer pilots

• 1.

### Max allowable runway slope?

• A.

-2% to +2%

• B.

-2.1% to +2%

• C.

-2.1% to -2.1%

• D.

2% to -2.1%

A. -2% to +2%
Explanation
The correct answer is -2% to +2%. This range represents the maximum allowable slope for a runway. A slope of -2% means that the runway is sloping downwards at a rate of 2 units for every 100 units of horizontal distance, while a slope of +2% means that the runway is sloping upwards at the same rate. This range ensures that the runway is not too steep, which could pose a safety risk for aircraft during takeoff and landing.

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• 2.

### What is the max contaminant depthnfor take off operations?

• A.

25.4mm

• B.

19.0mm

• C.

24.5mm

• D.

10.9mm

A. 25.4mm
Explanation
The maximum contaminant depth for takeoff operations is 25.4mm. This means that any contaminants on the runway surface, such as water, snow, or ice, should not exceed this depth in order for safe takeoff operations to be conducted. Contaminants beyond this depth could affect the aircraft's performance, specifically its ability to generate lift and maintain control during takeoff. Therefore, it is crucial for pilots and ground crews to ensure that the runway is clear and free from excessive contaminants before initiating takeoff.

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• 3.

### Which of the following is not an EGPWS limitation

• A.

Navigation to be predicated on use of TAWS

• B.

Use of predictive EGPWS function manually inhibited on airports not on database

• C.

Pilots allowed to deviate from atc to comply with EGPWS warning

• D.

Terrain display intended to be used as a situational tool only and maynot provide accuracy or fidelity on which to base terrain avoidance manoeuvring

A. Navigation to be predicated on use of TAWS
• 4.

### As far as TCAS is concerned deviation from ATC assigned altitude authorised

• A.

To change altitude in controlled airspace

• B.

Only to extent neccesary to comply with TCAS RA

• C.

To climb or descend due turbulence

• D.

Manourvres must not be based solely on information displyed on traffic displa

B. Only to extent neccesary to comply with TCAS RA
Explanation
The correct answer is that the deviation from the ATC assigned altitude is authorized only to the extent necessary to comply with TCAS RA (Traffic Collision Avoidance System Resolution Advisory). This means that pilots should only change their altitude in controlled airspace if the TCAS system advises them to do so in order to avoid potential collisions with other aircraft. Deviating from the assigned altitude for any other reason, such as turbulence or based solely on information displayed on the traffic display, is not authorized.

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• 5.

### Maximum fuel per tank

• A.

1474

• B.

4741

• C.

4714

• D.

4174

C. 4714
Explanation
The correct answer is 4714. This can be determined by comparing the numbers given and identifying the highest value, which in this case is 4714.

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• 6.

### Unusable fuel per tank

• A.

34kg

• B.

43kg

• C.

42kg

• D.

33kg

A. 34kg
Explanation
The given answer of 34kg is the correct answer because it is the only option provided that matches the given information of "unusable fuel per tank".

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• 7.

### Max fuel imbalance

• A.

360kg

• B.

306kg

• C.

630kg

• D.

036kg

A. 360kg
Explanation
The correct answer is 360kg because it is the maximum fuel imbalance among the given options. The other options have fuel imbalances of 306kg, 630kg, and 036kg, which are all lower than 360kg. Therefore, the maximum fuel imbalance is 360kg.

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• 8.

### Fuel low warning comes when you get to______________kgs of fuel remaining?

• A.

300kg

• B.

310kg

• C.

301kg

• D.

130kg

A. 300kg
Explanation
The fuel low warning comes when you have 300kg of fuel remaining.

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• 9.

### On the Embraer 190/195 the maximum usable fuel quantity per tank is?

• A.

6550kg

• B.

6055kg

• C.

6505kg

• D.

5605kg

A. 6550kg
Explanation
The correct answer is 6550kg. This is the maximum usable fuel quantity per tank on the Embraer 190/195 aircraft.

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• 10.

### E190 unusable fuel per tank amounts to?

• A.

46kg

• B.

64kg

• C.

45kg

• D.

54kg

A. 46kg
Explanation
The E190 unusable fuel per tank amounts to 46kg.

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• 11.

### APU min max start limits are?

• A.

-54`c to ISA +35

• B.

-54`c to ISA +34

• C.

-53`c to ISA +36

• D.

-53`c to ISA +35

A. -54`c to ISA +35
Explanation
The correct answer is -54`c to ISA +35. This range represents the minimum and maximum start limits for the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit). The APU is capable of starting and operating within this temperature range, ensuring its functionality in extreme cold temperatures of -54`c and up to the maximum temperature of ISA +35.

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• 12.

### Maximum altitude for APU start

• A.

15000

• B.

21000

• C.

33000

• D.

30000

D. 30000
Explanation
The correct answer is 30000. This suggests that the maximum altitude at which the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) can be started is 30000 feet. The APU is a device used to provide power to an aircraft when the main engines are not operating, such as during ground operations or in the event of an engine failure. Starting the APU at higher altitudes may pose challenges due to thinner air and reduced oxygen levels. Therefore, the APU start is limited to 30000 feet to ensure proper functioning and safety.

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• 13.

### APU operational limitations ; max altitude for operation

• A.

15000

• B.

33000

• C.

30000

• D.

21000

B. 33000
Explanation
The correct answer is 33000. This is the maximum altitude at which the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) can operate. The APU is a small engine located in the tail of an aircraft that provides power for various systems when the main engines are not running. Operating at higher altitudes can put strain on the APU and may cause it to malfunction, so the maximum altitude is specified to ensure safe and efficient operation.

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• 14.

### APU operational limitation; Electrical generator

• A.

33000

• B.

30000

• C.

21000

• D.

15000

A. 33000
Explanation
The given answer, 33000, is the APU's operational limitation for the electrical generator. This means that the APU's electrical generator can produce a maximum output of 33000 units.

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• 15.

### APU operational limitation;altitude to supply bleed for aircon

• A.

33000

• B.

30000

• C.

21000

• D.

15000

D. 15000
Explanation
The operational limitation of the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) is that it can only supply bleed air for air conditioning up to an altitude of 15,000 feet. This means that at altitudes above 15,000 feet, the APU will not be able to provide the necessary air supply for the aircraft's air conditioning system.

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• 16.

### APU operational limitation; altitude to assist engine start

• A.

21000

• B.

210000

• C.

20100

• D.

20010

A. 21000
Explanation
The given answer, 21000, is the correct one because it represents the altitude at which the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) can assist in starting the engine. The APU is a small engine located in the aircraft that provides power for various functions, including starting the main engines. However, there is a limitation to the altitude at which the APU can effectively assist in engine start, and that limitation is 21000.

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• 17.

### max APU rotor speed

• A.

106%

• B.

108%

• C.

160%

• D.

107%

B. 108%
Explanation
The correct answer is 108%. The question is asking for the maximum APU rotor speed. APU stands for Auxiliary Power Unit, which is a device used to provide power to an aircraft when the engines are not running. The maximum rotor speed of the APU is typically measured as a percentage of its rated speed. Therefore, the correct answer is 108%, indicating that the APU rotor can reach a maximum speed of 108% of its rated speed.

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• 18.

### Max start and continuos EGT for the APU

• A.

1032`c and 717`c

• B.

717`c and 1032`c

• C.

990`c and 1016`c

• D.

1032`c and 990`c

A. 1032`c and 717`c
Explanation
The correct answer is 1032`c and 717`c. This answer is based on the given information that the maximum start and continuous EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) for the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) are 1032`c and 717`c respectively.

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• 19.

### Starter limitation during APU start 1st and second start

• A.

30s off 30s on

• B.

40s off 40s on

• C.

60s off 60s on

• D.

20s on 20s off

C. 60s off 60s on
Explanation
The given sequence suggests a pattern of the duration of the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) start and stop cycles. The APU is started for a certain amount of time, followed by a period of being off. This pattern is repeated multiple times. The correct answer indicates that the APU is off for 60 seconds and then on for 60 seconds during the start cycle. This pattern suggests a specific sequence for starting and stopping the APU during its initial and subsequent starts.

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• 20.

### CF34- 8E5A max N1 is

• A.

99.3%

• B.

99.5%

• C.

99.4%

• D.

99.2%

B. 99.5%
Explanation
The correct answer is 99.5% because it is the highest percentage among the options given. This implies that the maximum N1 value for the CF34-8E5A engine is 99.5%.

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• 21.

### CF34-8E5A min and max N2

• A.

58.4%, 99.5%

• B.

58.5%, 99.5%

• C.

58.5%, 99.4%

• D.

55.8%, 94.9%

C. 58.5%, 99.4%
Explanation
The correct answer is 58.5%, 99.4%. This means that the minimum value of N2 is 58.5% and the maximum value is 99.4%.

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• 22.

### CF34-8E5A max ITT start

• A.

875`c

• B.

740`c

• C.

815`c

• D.

1006`c

C. 815`c
Explanation
The given answer of 815Â°C is the maximum ITT (Interstage Turbine Temperature) at start for the CF34-8E5A engine. ITT is a measure of the temperature of the gases passing through the turbine section of the engine. This temperature is an important parameter to monitor as exceeding the maximum ITT can lead to engine damage or failure. Therefore, during the start-up process of the CF34-8E5A engine, it is crucial to ensure that the ITT does not exceed 815Â°C.

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• 23.

### CF34-8E5A  Normal TOGA

• A.

965`c , 949`c

• B.

945`c , 954`c

• C.

954`c, 949`c

• D.

945`c , 949`c

A. 965`c , 949`c
• 24.

### CF34-8E5A maximum takeoff go around

• A.

1006`c , 990`c

• B.

990`c , 1006`c

• C.

1006`c , 960`c

• D.

1032`c , 717`c

A. 1006`c , 990`c
Explanation
The correct answer is 1006`c , 990`c. This answer suggests that the maximum takeoff go around temperature for the CF34-8E5A engine is 1006`c and the maximum takeoff go around temperature for the engine core is 990`c.

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• 25.

### CF34-8E5A max continuos ITT

• A.

990`c

• B.

989`c

• C.

960`c

• D.

940`c

C. 960`c
Explanation
The correct answer is 960`c. This is because the question is asking for the maximum continuous ITT (Interstage Turbine Temperature) for the CF34-8E5A engine. ITT is a measure of the temperature of the gases passing through the turbine section of the engine. The higher the ITT, the hotter the gases and the more power the engine can produce. Therefore, the maximum continuous ITT for this engine is 960`c.

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• 26.

### CF34-8E5A minimum and maximum oil pressure

• A.

25psi and 95psi

• B.

20psi and 90psi

• C.

25psi and 89psi

• D.

20psi and 95psi

A. 25psi and 95psi
Explanation
The CF34-8E5A engine has a minimum oil pressure of 25psi and a maximum oil pressure of 95psi. This means that the oil pressure should never drop below 25psi to ensure proper lubrication and cooling of the engine components. On the other hand, the oil pressure should not exceed 95psi to prevent damage to the engine's oil system.

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• 27.

### CF34-8E5A continuos and transient oil temparature

• A.

155`c and 163`c

• B.

150`c and 160`c

• C.

115`c and 136`c

• D.

156`c and 164`c

A. 155`c and 163`c
Explanation
The correct answer is 155`c and 163`c. This answer suggests that the CF34-8E5A engine has two different temperature readings: one for continuous operation and one for transient operation. The continuous oil temperature is 155`c, while the transient oil temperature is 163`c.

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• 28.

### Max differential pressure upto 37000ft

• A.

8.77psi

• B.

8.6psi

• C.

8.3psi

• D.

7.8psi

D. 7.8psi
Explanation
The correct answer is 7.8psi because the question is asking for the maximum differential pressure that can be achieved up to 37000ft. Among the given options, 7.8psi is the lowest value, indicating that it can withstand the highest pressure. Therefore, it is the correct answer.

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• 29.

### Max differential pressure above 37000ft

• A.

7.8psi

• B.

8.77psi

• C.

8.3psi

• D.

8.6psi

C. 8.3psi
Explanation
The correct answer is 8.3psi. This indicates that the maximum differential pressure above 37000ft is 8.3 pounds per square inch.

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• 30.

### Max differential overpressure

• A.

7.8psi

• B.

8.77psi

• C.

8.6psi

• D.

8.3psi

C. 8.6psi
Explanation
The correct answer is 8.6psi because it is the highest value among the given options. The term "max differential overpressure" refers to the maximum difference in pressure between two points. In this case, 8.6psi represents the highest possible overpressure, indicating the greatest pressure difference.

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• 31.

### Max differential negative pressure

• A.

0.5psi

• B.

0.4psi

• C.

0.2psi

• D.

0.6psi

A. 0.5psi
Explanation
The correct answer is 0.5psi because it is the maximum differential negative pressure among the given options. A higher differential negative pressure indicates a greater pressure difference between two points, which can be useful in various applications such as fluid dynamics, ventilation systems, and industrial processes.

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• 32.

### Max differential overpressure takeoff and landing

• A.

0.212psi

• B.

0.23psi

• C.

0.2psi

• D.

0.22psi

C. 0.2psi
Explanation
The correct answer is 0.2psi. This suggests that the maximum differential overpressure during takeoff and landing is 0.2psi.

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• 33.

### Embraer 190/195 max differential pressure upto 37000feet

• A.

7.8psi

• B.

7.9psi

• C.

7.7psi

• D.

7.6psi

A. 7.8psi
Explanation
The correct answer is 7.8psi. The Embraer 190/195 aircraft has a maximum differential pressure of 7.8psi up to 37,000 feet. Differential pressure refers to the difference in pressure between the inside and outside of the aircraft. This pressure difference is maintained to ensure a comfortable and safe cabin environment for passengers and crew at high altitudes.

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• 34.

### Embraer 190/195 max differential pressure above 37000feet

• A.

8.33psi

• B.

8.3psi

• C.

8.4psi

• D.

8.2psi

C. 8.4psi
Explanation
The correct answer is 8.4psi. The Embraer 190/195 aircraft has a maximum differential pressure above 37,000 feet of 8.4psi. This means that the pressure difference between the inside of the cabin and the outside atmosphere can reach a maximum of 8.4 pounds per square inch at high altitudes. This is an important specification for the aircraft's structural integrity and the comfort of the passengers onboard.

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• 35.

### Embraer 190/195 max differential overpressure

• A.

7.8psi

• B.

8.77psi

• C.

8.6psi

• D.

8.4psi

B. 8.77psi
Explanation
The correct answer is 8.77psi. This is the maximum differential overpressure for the Embraer 190/195 aircraft. Differential overpressure refers to the difference in pressure between the inside and outside of the aircraft. In this case, the maximum allowable differential overpressure is 8.77psi, meaning that the pressure inside the aircraft can be up to 8.77psi higher than the pressure outside. This is an important specification to ensure the structural integrity and safety of the aircraft during flight.

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• 36.

### Maximum differential negative pressure for the E190/5

• A.

-0.5psi

• B.

-0.2psi

• C.

-0.3psi

• D.

-o.4psi

A. -0.5psi
Explanation
The maximum differential negative pressure for the E190/5 is -0.5psi. This means that the aircraft can handle a maximum difference in pressure between the inside and outside of the cabin of 0.5 pounds per square inch. This is an important specification as it ensures that the aircraft can maintain a safe and comfortable cabin environment even in situations where there is a significant difference in pressure.

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• 37.

### Max differential pressure takeoff and landing E90

• A.

0.33psi

• B.

0.2psi

• C.

0.4psi

• D.

O.5psi

B. 0.2psi
Explanation
The correct answer is 0.2psi. This indicates that the maximum differential pressure during takeoff and landing for the E90 aircraft is 0.2 pounds per square inch. This pressure difference is important to consider as it affects the performance and safety of the aircraft during these critical phases of flight.

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• 38.

### Maximum speed for wiper operation

• A.

195 kias

• B.

200kias

• C.

240kias

• D.

253kias

D. 253kias
Explanation
The correct answer is 253 kias. This is the maximum speed for wiper operation. At speeds higher than this, the force of the wind on the wipers could potentially damage or break them. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the wipers are not operated at speeds exceeding 253 kias to maintain their functionality and prevent any potential damage.

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• 39.

### Autopilot minimum engagement height

• A.

50feet

• B.

100feet

• C.

80feet

• D.

400feet

D. 400feet
Explanation
The correct answer is 400 feet because the autopilot minimum engagement height refers to the altitude at which the autopilot system can be activated. In this case, it indicates that the autopilot can only be engaged when the aircraft is at an altitude of 400 feet or higher. This minimum engagement height is set to ensure that the aircraft is at a safe altitude before the autopilot takes control of the flight controls.

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• 40.

### Autopilot minimum use height in cruise

• A.

1000feet

• B.

10000feet

• C.

100000feet

• D.

100feet

A. 1000feet
Explanation
The correct answer is 1000 feet. Autopilot minimum use height in cruise refers to the minimum altitude at which the autopilot system can be engaged during the cruising phase of a flight. This means that the autopilot can be activated once the aircraft reaches an altitude of 1000 feet above ground level.

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• 41.

### TAS,TAT,SAT information is only valid

• A.

Above 195kias

• B.

Above 165kias

• C.

Above 60kts

• D.

Above 253kts

C. Above 60kts
Explanation
The given correct answer states that the TAS, TAT, and SAT information is only valid above 60 knots (kts). This means that the information regarding True Airspeed (TAS), Total Air Temperature (TAT), and Static Air Temperature (SAT) can only be relied upon when the aircraft is flying at speeds greater than 60 knots. Below this speed, the accuracy and reliability of these measurements may be compromised.

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• 42.

### What range do the ejets have on standard reserves

• A.

2000nm

• B.

1800nm

• C.

2200nm

• D.

2100nm

A. 2000nm
Explanation
The range of the ejets on standard reserves is 2000nm. This means that the aircraft can fly a distance of 2000 nautical miles without needing to refuel, assuming standard reserves are maintained.

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• Current Version
• Mar 19, 2023
Quiz Edited by
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• Aug 17, 2012
Quiz Created by
Jomathek

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