B777 Tke Exam
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Which MCP actions are accomplished during preflight?
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Turn off left and right flight directors and set initial heading
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Arm left and right autothrottle, turn left and right FD switches ON, check Bank Limit Switch in AUTO.
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Disarm right autothrottle and set initial heading. Set initial altitude.
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Engage autopilot, Arm LOC and APP and set initial altitude.
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As the end of the year exams keep drawing near it is becoming more and more important to ensure we remember all we have covered so far. The quiz below is set specifically to test what you know when it comes to the B777 plane and what you can expect in the CAAP exam.
Quiz Preview
- 2.
During preflight, what position should the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches and LDG ALT selector be in?
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OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pulled OUT
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OUTFLOW VALVE switches in OFF and LDG ALT selector pushed IN
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OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pushed IN
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OUTFLOW VALVE switches in MAN and LDG ALT selector pushed IN
Correct Answer
A. OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pushed INExplanation
During preflight, the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches should be in the AUTO position and the LDG ALT selector should be pushed IN. This configuration ensures that the outflow valves will automatically regulate the cabin pressure during flight, and the landing altitude will be set to the current airport altitude.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What flight deck lights are turned on by the STORM light switch?
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All flight deck lights are illuminated bright.
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All external airplane lights are illuminated bright.
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Flight deck aisle stand, glareshield, and instrument flood lights, dome lights, and illuminated indicator lights are illuminated at maximum brightness.
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Landing lights, navigation lights, strobe lights, and wing lights are automatically illuminated.
Correct Answer
A. Flight deck aisle stand, glareshield, and instrument flood lights, dome lights, and illuminated indicator lights are illuminated at maximum brightness.Explanation
The STORM light switch is responsible for turning on the flight deck aisle stand, glareshield, and instrument flood lights, dome lights, and illuminated indicator lights at maximum brightness. This means that when the STORM light switch is activated, these specific lights will be illuminated brightly.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Why should the CABIN TEMP control be set to mid range position?
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To set the maximum temperature in any zone
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To allow full temperature range adjustment on cabin attendant panel
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C. To prevent cabin overheat during low altitude flight
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D. To set the actual temperature in cabin zones A-F
Correct Answer
A. To allow full temperature range adjustment on cabin attendant panelExplanation
Setting the CABIN TEMP control to the mid-range position allows for full temperature range adjustment on the cabin attendant panel. This means that the temperature can be adjusted to the desired level in each zone of the cabin. It does not specifically set the maximum temperature or prevent cabin overheat during low altitude flight, nor does it set the actual temperature in cabin zones A-F.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What does the EICAS message NO LAND 3 mean when FLARE and ROLLOUTarmed are displayed on the FMA?
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The autopilot disconnect switch has been pushed.
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The autopilot is inoperative. Manual landing is required.
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The autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland.
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NO LAND 3 means you are more than 3 miles from land.
Correct Answer
A. The autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland.Explanation
The EICAS message NO LAND 3 means that the autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland. This means that the system is not able to provide the necessary backup or redundancy for a triple channel autoland, indicating that it may not be safe to rely on the autopilot for landing.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What does the •SELCAL communication EICAS alert message indicate?
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The selective calling system has failed.
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A VHF or HF selective call has been received and is waiting to be answered.
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. A cabin attendant is calling the flight deck.
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An uplink has been received.
Correct Answer
A. A VHF or HF selective call has been received and is waiting to be answered.Explanation
The correct answer indicates that the EICAS alert message is indicating that a VHF or HF selective call has been received and is waiting to be answered.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which statement about checklist overrides is correct?
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To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key.
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Closed loop steps cannot be overridden.
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Steps that are overridden remain white.
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To override a checklist it must first be reset.
Correct Answer
A. To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key.Explanation
To override a checklist, you must first display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Why does the flight deck receive air from the left pack at a higher pressure than the passenger cabin?
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Conditioned air is ducted into the flight deck before the passenger cabin.
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To prevent smoke from entering the flight deck.
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To defog the forward windows.
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To cool the equipment in the aisle stand.
Correct Answer
A. To prevent smoke from entering the flight deck.Explanation
The flight deck receives air from the left pack at a higher pressure than the passenger cabin to prevent smoke from entering the flight deck. By maintaining a higher pressure in the flight deck, any smoke that may be present in the passenger cabin is prevented from entering the flight deck area, ensuring the safety and visibility for the pilots.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What does an illuminated flight interphone CALL light on the audio control panel indicate?
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Another airplane is calling.
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A ground crew technician is calling the flight deck.
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Someone is calling the flight deck on VHF radio.
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The FLT transmitter select switch is stuck in the ON position.
Correct Answer
A. A ground crew technician is calling the flight deck.Explanation
An illuminated flight interphone CALL light on the audio control panel indicates that a ground crew technician is calling the flight deck.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What does the EICAS message ENG FUEL VALVE R indicate?
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The engine fuel valve on the right engine is open.
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Both the spar and the engine fuel valves on the right engine are commanded to the same position.
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The spar or engine fuel valve on the right engine has not reached its commanded position.
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The fuel filter bypass valve is not functioning.
Correct Answer
A. The spar or engine fuel valve on the right engine has not reached its commanded position.Explanation
The correct answer is that the spar or engine fuel valve on the right engine has not reached its commanded position. This means that there is an issue with the fuel valve on the right engine, as it has not fully opened or closed as it should according to the commands given. This could indicate a malfunction or failure in the fuel valve system, which would need to be addressed and fixed.Rate this question:
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- 11.
How long will a WINDSHEAR warning on the PFD remain active?
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Until windshear conditions are no longer detected.
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Until the master warning light reset switch is pushed.
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Until the GND PROX G/S caution light is pushed.
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Until the landing gear are retracted.
Correct Answer
A. Until windshear conditions are no longer detected.Explanation
A WINDSHEAR warning on the PFD will remain active until windshear conditions are no longer detected. This means that the warning will stay active as long as the aircraft is still experiencing windshear, which is a sudden change in wind speed and/or direction that can be hazardous to aircraft during takeoff, approach, or landing. Once the windshear conditions have passed and are no longer detected, the warning will deactivate.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What does the MAN position on the FLT DECK TEMP control do?
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It removes power from the trim air system.
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It causes the packs to provide air at an average mid temperature range. .
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It allows the trim air valve to be operated manually
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It removes control at the cabin attendant panel.
Correct Answer
A. It allows the trim air valve to be operated manuallyExplanation
The MAN position on the FLT DECK TEMP control allows the trim air valve to be operated manually.Rate this question:
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- 13.
When does the autobrake RTO setting command maximum braking?
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On the ground, with wheel speed above 45 knots and both thrust levers retarded to idle.
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On the ground, When both thrust levers are retarded to idle.
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On the ground, with wheel speed above 85 knots and both thrust levers retarded to idle.
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On the ground, with maximum brake peddle pressure applied
Correct Answer
A. On the ground, with wheel speed above 85 knots and both thrust levers retarded to idle.Explanation
The autobrake RTO setting commands maximum braking on the ground when the wheel speed is above 85 knots and both thrust levers are retarded to idle. This means that the autobrake system will apply the maximum amount of braking force in order to bring the aircraft to a stop as quickly as possible.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Is it possible to check at a door if the girt bar is attached to the floor fittings?
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Yes, the girt bar indicator flags are colored black.
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No, the girt bar indicator flags only indicate if the slide is usable.
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Yes, the girt bar indicator flags are colored yellow.
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No, the girt bar indicator is not visible.
Correct Answer
A. Yes, the girt bar indicator flags are colored yellow.Explanation
The correct answer is Yes, the girt bar indicator flags are colored yellow. This suggests that it is possible to check at a door if the girt bar is attached to the floor fittings. The yellow color of the girt bar indicator flags indicates that they serve the purpose of indicating the attachment of the girt bar to the floor fittings.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What does the EICAS message AUTOPILOT mean when an amber line is drawnthrough the pitch mode on the FMA?
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The engaged autopilot has failed.
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The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is operating in a degraded mode.
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The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is disconnected.
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The Autopilot does not have flight envelope protection.
Correct Answer
A. The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is operating in a degraded mode.Explanation
The EICAS message AUTOPILOT with an amber line drawn through the pitch mode on the FMA indicates that the pitch mode of the autopilot has failed. However, the autopilot is still operational but in a degraded mode. This means that the autopilot may not be able to fully control the pitch of the aircraft, leading to reduced functionality and potentially requiring manual intervention from the pilot.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the operating condition of the nose gear landing lights when the NOSE LANDING light switch is ON but the nose landing gear is NOT down and locked?
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The nose gear landing lights are illuminated.
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The nose gear landing lights extend from the body outboard of the nose gear doors but remain extinguished.
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The nose gear landing lights are illuminated if both main landing gear are down and locked.
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The nose gear landing lights cannot illuminate when the nose landing gear is not down and locked.
Correct Answer
A. The nose gear landing lights cannot illuminate when the nose landing gear is not down and locked.Explanation
The nose gear landing lights cannot illuminate when the nose landing gear is not down and locked. This means that even if the NOSE LANDING light switch is ON, the lights will not turn on if the nose landing gear is not properly extended and locked.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which statement about the hydraulic systems is true?
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Hydraulic fluid is supplied to each hydraulic pump from the single central reservoir
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The demand pumps for the left and right systems are bleed air driven.
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Flight control system components are distributed so that any one hydraulic system can provide adequate airplane controllability.
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The left and right primary pumps are electric driven.
Correct Answer
A. Flight control system components are distributed so that any one hydraulic system can provide adequate airplane controllability.Explanation
The correct answer states that flight control system components are distributed in such a way that any one hydraulic system can provide adequate airplane controllability. This means that even if one hydraulic system fails, the remaining system(s) can still maintain control of the airplane. This distribution of components ensures redundancy and enhances the safety and reliability of the hydraulic systems in controlling the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In case of an emergency, open a passenger entry door from the inside by performing which of the following action?
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Pulling the door handle fully up to the emergency position.
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Pushing toe door handle fully down to the emergency position.
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Rotating the door handle to the emergency position.
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Rotating the door handle to the open position.
Correct Answer
A. Rotating the door handle to the open position.Explanation
To open a passenger entry door from the inside in case of an emergency, the correct action is to rotate the door handle to the open position. This action will unlock the door and allow it to be opened.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What happens in flight when both transfer busses become unpowered?
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The APU starts automatically, regardless of the APU selector position.
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The RAT powers both transfer busses action.
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No other power source is available so only the standby bus remains powered until pilot action
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The APU must be manually started and connected to the transfer busses.
Correct Answer
A. The APU starts automatically, regardless of the APU selector position.Explanation
When both transfer busses become unpowered, the APU starts automatically, regardless of the APU selector position. This means that the APU will automatically provide power to the aircraft's systems, ensuring that there is still a power source available.Rate this question:
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- 20.
During preflight with only APU electrical power in use, you note that all main and center tank fuel pump switches are OFF but the left forward pump PRESS light is not displayed. Are these indications correct if the APU is operating?
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Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished indicating the APU is on and automatically using that pump.
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Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished indicating the DC pump is on.
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No. The right forward PRESS light should also be extinguished.
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No. All of the PRESS lights should be extinguished when the fuel pumps are commanded off.
Correct Answer
A. Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished indicating the APU is on and automatically using that pump.Explanation
The correct answer is "Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished indicating the APU is on and automatically using that pump." This is because when the APU is operating, it automatically uses the left forward fuel pump and therefore the PRESS light for that pump is extinguished.Rate this question:
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- 21.
When must an immediate missed approach must be executed?
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When on an ILS approach and radio communication is lost.
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When a navigation radio or flight instrument failure occurs which affects the ability to safely complete the approach in instrument conditions.
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When the navigation instruments show significant disagreement, but visual contact with the runway is made
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When on an ILS approach, the localizer shows half scale deflection.
Correct Answer
A. When a navigation radio or flight instrument failure occurs which affects the ability to safely complete the approach in instrument conditions.Explanation
An immediate missed approach must be executed when there is a navigation radio or flight instrument failure that affects the ability to safely complete the approach in instrument conditions. This means that if there is a failure in the navigation equipment or flight instruments that would compromise the pilot's ability to navigate and safely land the aircraft, a missed approach should be initiated without delay.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Under what conditions may the flight deck number two windows be operated in flight?
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The number two windows may not be opened in flight
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The number two windows may be operated in flight if the airplane is unpressurized and airspeed is below Vref + 80 kts.
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The number two windows may be easily operated in flight at any speed if the airplane is unpressurized.
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The number two windows may be opened in flight only at airspeeds above 250 kts.
Correct Answer
A. The number two windows may be operated in flight if the airplane is unpressurized and airspeed is below Vref + 80 kts.Explanation
The correct answer is that the number two windows may be operated in flight if the airplane is unpressurized and airspeed is below Vref + 80 kts. This means that the windows can be opened during flight only if the aircraft is not pressurized and the airspeed is below a certain threshold. It is important to ensure that the cabin pressure is regulated and that the airspeed is within the specified range to maintain the safety and integrity of the aircraft during flight.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which statement about the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) is most correct?
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It displays airplane attitude, airspeed and ILS information.
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It displays airplane attitude, heading and airspeed information.
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It displays airplane attitude, altitude and ILS information.
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It displays airplane attitude, airspeed, altitude, heading and ILS information.
Correct Answer
A. It displays airplane attitude, airspeed, altitude, heading and ILS information.Explanation
The Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) is designed to provide essential flight information to the pilot in case of a failure in the primary flight display. The most correct statement about the ISFD is that it displays airplane attitude, airspeed, altitude, heading, and ILS (Instrument Landing System) information. This means that it provides the pilot with key data on the aircraft's position, speed, altitude, direction, and guidance information for precision instrument approaches. Having all of this information readily available on the ISFD ensures that the pilot can maintain situational awareness and make informed decisions during a flight.Rate this question:
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- 24.
When is the pitch limit indication displayed?
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When the flaps are NOT up, or at slow speeds with the flaps up
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Only when the flaps are NOT in the up position
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If airspeed is close to maximum
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After takeoff until passing 1000 feet.
Correct Answer
A. When the flaps are NOT up, or at slow speeds with the flaps upExplanation
The pitch limit indication is displayed when the flaps are NOT up, indicating that the aircraft is not in a configuration that allows for maximum pitch maneuverability. Additionally, the indication is also displayed at slow speeds with the flaps up, as the aircraft's maneuverability is limited in this situation as well.Rate this question:
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- 25.
When is the landing altitude flag (LDG ALT) removed during preflight?
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After landing altitude is set on the pressurization panel.
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After the original airfield is entered on CDU route page
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After correct local altimeter is set.
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Only after takeoff.
Correct Answer
A. After the original airfield is entered on CDU route pageExplanation
The landing altitude flag (LDG ALT) is removed during preflight after the original airfield is entered on the CDU route page. This indicates that the aircraft's navigation system has been programmed with the correct information regarding the departure airport, including the altitude at which the aircraft will land.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which statement about Resets Menu Page is correct?
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RESETS key resets all of the normal checklists.
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RESETS key resets all of the non-normal checklists.
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All checklists can be reset at once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESET ALL key.
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All checklists can be reset at once by using the NON- NORMAL MENU key followed by the RESET ALL key.
Correct Answer
A. All checklists can be reset at once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESET ALL key.Explanation
The correct answer states that all checklists can be reset at once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESET ALL key. This means that the RESETS key is used to reset all checklists, both normal and non-normal, and the RESET ALL key is used to reset all checklists at once. This implies that the RESETS key can reset both normal and non-normal checklists, contradicting the other statements which state that the RESETS key only resets normal or non-normal checklists.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which statement is true regarding fuel crossfeed?
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Crossfeed valves are normally open, providing fuel feed from tank to engine.
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Although there are two valves, only one open crossfeed valve is required for successful crossfeed operation.
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There is only one crossfeed valve even though there are two switches to control it.
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Fuel crossfeed can only be accomplished in the air.
Correct Answer
A. Although there are two valves, only one open crossfeed valve is required for successful crossfeed operation.Explanation
The statement that is true regarding fuel crossfeed is that although there are two valves, only one open crossfeed valve is required for successful crossfeed operation. This means that even though there are two switches to control the valves, only one valve needs to be open in order to allow fuel to flow from the tank to the engine. This is important for efficient fuel management during flight.Rate this question:
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- 28.
When does LNAV automatically engage if selected during preflight?
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At or above 50 feet when within 2.5 NM laterally from the active route leg.
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When does LNAV automatically engage if selected during preflight?
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Only at or above 50 feet on the departure route active leg.
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LNAV is already active during takeoff.
Correct Answer
A. At or above 50 feet when within 2.5 NM laterally from the active route leg.Explanation
LNAV automatically engages when the aircraft reaches or exceeds an altitude of 50 feet and is within a lateral distance of 2.5 nautical miles from the active route leg. This means that LNAV will not engage if the aircraft is below 50 feet or if it is outside the lateral range of the active route leg. It is important to note that LNAV is not active during takeoff and needs to be selected during preflight for it to engage automatically at the specified conditions.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What precaution should be taken if a tail strike occurs during takeoff?
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No special precautions are necessary.
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The airplane should not be pressurized.
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Pressurize the airplane to a lower cabin altitude.
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The flight may continue normally, but an entry must be made in the maintenance log.
Correct Answer
A. The airplane should not be pressurized.Explanation
If a tail strike occurs during takeoff, the precaution that should be taken is to not pressurize the airplane. This is because a tail strike can cause damage to the structure of the aircraft, including the fuselage, and pressurizing the airplane could exacerbate any potential structural issues. Therefore, it is important to avoid pressurizing the airplane in order to ensure the safety of the flight.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Why should you minimize flight time at low altitude when the EQUIP COOLING OVRD message is displayed?
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AFT and BULK cargo compartments may overheat.
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Pack temperature would cause damage.
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Electronic equipment and displays may fail.
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Recirculation fan may not cool equipment adequately.
Correct Answer
A. Electronic equipment and displays may fail.Explanation
When the EQUIP COOLING OVRD message is displayed, it indicates that there is an issue with the cooling system of the aircraft's electronic equipment. This message serves as a warning that the equipment may overheat and fail if the flight time at low altitude is not minimized. Therefore, it is important to minimize flight time at low altitude to prevent the electronic equipment and displays from failing.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following are maximum allowable wind speeds when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations?
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Headwind 30 knots
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Tailwind 5 knots
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Crosswind 38 knots
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Crosswind 25 kts
Correct Answer
A. Crosswind 25 ktsExplanation
The maximum allowable wind speed for landing weather minima predicted on autoland operations is a crosswind of 25 knots. This means that the aircraft can safely land with a maximum crosswind component of 25 knots. The other options, such as a headwind of 30 knots or a tailwind of 5 knots, are not relevant to the question as they are not specifically related to autoland operations.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What is the level of urgency for a warning displayed on the PFD? (Example: ENG FAIL, PULL UP, or WINDSHEAR)
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Requires immediate crew awareness and may require crew action be performed in a timely manner
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Reminds the crew of the current state of manually or automatically configured airplane systems.
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Requires crew awareness and may require that crew action be accomplished "as time permits."
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Requires immediate crew awareness and immediate response, and is usually associated with flight path control.
Correct Answer
A. Requires immediate crew awareness and immediate response, and is usually associated with flight path control.Explanation
The correct answer is "Requires immediate crew awareness and immediate response, and is usually associated with flight path control." This answer indicates that a warning displayed on the PFD (Primary Flight Display) requires the crew's immediate attention and immediate response. It suggests that the warning is typically related to flight path control, emphasizing the importance of taking immediate action to address the situation.Rate this question:
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- 33.
When does the ground crew call horn sound?
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When hydraulics are pressurized.
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In case of an APU fire.
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Before starting engines
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If the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative.
Correct Answer
A. If the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative.Explanation
The ground crew calls horn sounds when the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative. This indicates that there is an issue with the cooling system and it needs attention or repair before the aircraft can proceed with its operations.Rate this question:
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- 34.
When will the EICAS advisory message ANTI-ICE ON be displayed?
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TAT above 10 degrees C, all ANTI-ICE selectors OFF and ice is NOT detected
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TAT above 10 degrees C, any ANTI-ICE selector ON and ice is NOT detected
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TAT below 10 degrees C, all ANTI-ICE selectors ON and ice is detected
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TAT below 10 degrees C, any ANTI-ICE selector OFF and ice is NOT detected
Correct Answer
A. TAT above 10 degrees C, any ANTI-ICE selector ON and ice is NOT detectedExplanation
The EICAS advisory message "ANTI-ICE ON" will be displayed when the Total Air Temperature (TAT) is above 10 degrees Celsius, any ANTI-ICE selector is ON, and ice is NOT detected. This means that the anti-ice system has been activated, but there is no indication of ice being present.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What automatic switching will occur if you start the APU with primary and secondary external power on the BUS TIE system?
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The APU connects to the BUS TIE switches but does not power either main bus.
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The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces secondary external power on the left main bus.
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The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces primary external power.
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The APU powers both main buses.
Correct Answer
A. The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces secondary external power on the left main bus.Explanation
If the APU is started with both primary and secondary external power on the BUS TIE system, it will connect to the BUS TIE and replace the secondary external power on the left main bus. This means that the APU will take over the power supply for the left main bus, while the primary external power continues to supply power to the right main bus.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What happens when an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are shut down?
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The APU shuts down automatically but the fire bottle must be discharged manually.
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The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically.
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The APU does NOT shut down automatically but the fire bottle discharges automatically.
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The APU does NOT shut down automatically and the fire bottle must be discharged manually.
Correct Answer
A. The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically.Explanation
When an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are shut down, the APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When do the control wheel stabilizer trim switches control stabilizer movement directly?
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All the time.
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Only during approaches
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Only on the ground and in the Secondary and Direct flight control modes
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During engine out go-arounds
Correct Answer
A. Only on the ground and in the Secondary and Direct flight control modesExplanation
The control wheel stabilizer trim switches control stabilizer movement directly only on the ground and in the Secondary and Direct flight control modes. This means that the switches have the ability to directly adjust the position of the stabilizer during these specific conditions.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What normally powers the 4 Transformer-rectifier units (TRUs)?
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Ground service bus
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Both AC transfer buses
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Left and right main DC bus
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APU battery
Correct Answer
A. Both AC transfer busesExplanation
The correct answer is "Both AC transfer buses." The AC transfer buses are responsible for providing power to the transformer-rectifier units (TRUs). These TRUs convert the AC power from the transfer buses into DC power, which is then used to power various systems and equipment on the aircraft. Therefore, the AC transfer buses are the source of power for the TRUs.Rate this question:
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- 39.
When does RTO automatically apply maximum brake pressure?
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When a thrust lever is retarded to idle.
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When the speedbrake lever reaches the UP position.
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When the thrust levers are retarded to idle above 85 knots
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When the reverse thrust levers are raised to idle above 85 knots.
Correct Answer
A. When the thrust levers are retarded to idle above 85 knotsExplanation
When the thrust levers are retarded to idle above 85 knots, the RTO (Rejected Takeoff) system automatically applies maximum brake pressure. This is a safety measure to quickly bring the aircraft to a stop in case of an aborted takeoff. By applying maximum brake pressure, the system helps to decelerate the aircraft as quickly as possible, reducing the risk of runway overrun or other potential hazards.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ground wind limits for doors?
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38 knots while opening or closing, 45 knots while open
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15 knots while opening or closing, 25 knots while open
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40 knots while opening or closing, 65 knots while open
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There are no ground wind Limits for doors
Correct Answer
A. 40 knots while opening or closing, 65 knots while openExplanation
The correct answer is 40 knots while opening or closing, 65 knots while open. This means that the ground wind limits for doors are 40 knots when they are being opened or closed, and 65 knots when they are fully open. This suggests that there are specific wind speed limits that need to be adhered to when operating the doors to ensure safety and prevent damage.Rate this question:
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- 41.
When can the ground handling bus be powered?
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On the ground, with either APU or external power available
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Only when the APU is running while on the ground
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Either on the ground or in flight, with APU power available.
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On the ground, with the ground service switch selected.
Correct Answer
A. On the ground, with either APU or external power availableExplanation
The ground handling bus can be powered when the aircraft is on the ground and either the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) or external power is available. This means that the bus can receive power from either the APU or from an external power source while the aircraft is on the ground.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What action is required during preflight if the EICAS message LANDING ALTITUDE is displayed, with the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO?
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Verify that a destination airport has been loaded in the FMC
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Pull the LDG ALT selector OUT.
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Verify the LDG ALT selector is in.
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Verify that a destination airport has been loaded in the FMC and verify the LDG ALT selector is in.
Correct Answer
A. Verify that a destination airport has been loaded in the FMC and verify the LDG ALT selector is in.Explanation
If the EICAS message LANDING ALTITUDE is displayed and the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches are in AUTO, it is necessary to verify that a destination airport has been loaded in the FMC and also verify that the LDG ALT selector is in. This is because the LANDING ALTITUDE message indicates that the aircraft is approaching its landing altitude, and the FMC needs to have the correct destination airport information for accurate altitude calculations. Additionally, the LDG ALT selector needs to be in the correct position to ensure that the landing altitude is properly set.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What happens when the stabilizer signal is not present or is invalid?
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The EICAS message STAB GREENBAND displays.
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The green band on the indicator turns amber.
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The green band and the pointer are not displayed.
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The CDU displays the VERIFY TRIM message in the scratchpad.
Correct Answer
A. The green band and the pointer are not displayed.Explanation
When the stabilizer signal is not present or is invalid, the green band and the pointer are not displayed.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Following automatic deployment of the RAT due to system failures, what systems receive hydraulic power from the RAT?
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Alternate gear extension system
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Normal brakes (after landing and airspeed below 60 kts)
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Primary flight control components normally powered by the center hydraulic system
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All primary flight control components
Correct Answer
A. Primary flight control components normally powered by the center hydraulic systemExplanation
The primary flight control components normally receive hydraulic power from the center hydraulic system.Rate this question:
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- 45.
How can the aircrew retract the gear following alternate gear extension?
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The landing gear lever must be in the down position when using the alternate gear extension system
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After the landing gear is extended, the main gear doors close
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The normal landing gear indications are displayed on EICAS
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If the normal system is operating, select DN then UP
Correct Answer
A. If the normal system is operating, select DN then UPExplanation
The correct answer suggests that if the normal landing gear system is operating, the aircrew should select the gear lever to the DN (down) position and then back to the UP (up) position in order to retract the gear following alternate gear extension. This indicates that the normal system is capable of controlling the gear retraction process and the aircrew should follow this procedure to ensure proper operation.Rate this question:
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- 46.
When the Door Select Lever is in the red armed position, which of the following is correct?
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The slide bar is attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for electrical emergency operation.
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The slide bar is attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for pneumatic emergency operation.
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The slide bar is not attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for normal operation.
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The slide bar is attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for counterbalance emergency opening.
Correct Answer
A. The slide bar is attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for pneumatic emergency operation.Explanation
When the Door Select Lever is in the red armed position, it means that the door is selected for pneumatic emergency operation. In this position, the slide bar is attached to the floor fittings, indicating that the door is ready for emergency opening using pneumatic power. This allows for quick and efficient evacuation in case of an emergency situation.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What happens when the BULK CARGO TEMPERATURE selector is positioned to HIGH?
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The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 7 degrees C or 45 degrees F.
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The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 21 degrees C or 70degrees F.
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The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 21 degrees C or 70 degrees F and the bulk cargo compartment ventilation fan operates continuously.
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The bulk cargo compartment ventilation fan operates continuously.
Correct Answer
A. The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 21 degrees C or 70 degrees F and the bulk cargo compartment ventilation fan operates continuously.Explanation
When the BULK CARGO TEMPERATURE selector is positioned to HIGH, the compartment temperature is automatically maintained at around 21 degrees C or 70 degrees F. Additionally, the bulk cargo compartment ventilation fan operates continuously.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A high-low chime sounds and a •COMM communications alert message appears on EICAS. What action should you take?
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Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message in the CDU scratchpad.
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Push the FMC COMM function key on the CDU and view the uplinked message.
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Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message on the MFD.
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Push the transmitter select switch with the illuminated CALL light and respond to the call.
Correct Answer
A. Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message on the MFD. -
- 49.
Which fuel pumps are used for fuel jettison?
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Left and right main tank fuel pumps and the center tank override pumps
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Left and right main tank jettison pumps only
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Left and right main tank jettison pumps and the center tank jettison/override pumps
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All fuel pumps are used for fuel jettison.
Correct Answer
A. Left and right main tank jettison pumps and the center tank jettison/override pumpsExplanation
The correct answer is "Left and right main tank jettison pumps and the center tank jettison/override pumps." This means that the fuel jettison process involves using the left and right main tank jettison pumps, as well as the center tank jettison/override pumps. These pumps are specifically designed to remove fuel from the respective tanks during the jettison procedure.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 12, 2009Quiz Created by
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