B777 Performance And Flight Planning

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B777 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the QRH takeoff speeds must be adjusted when the take off is made with some brake deactivation?

    • A.

      V1, VR, V2

    • B.

      V1

    • C.

      V1, VMBE

    • D.

      The airplane may not dispatch with any brakes deactivated.

    Correct Answer
    B. V1
    Explanation
    When the takeoff is made with some brake deactivation, the speed that needs to be adjusted is V1. V1 is the critical engine failure speed, which is the maximum speed at which the pilot can safely abort the takeoff and bring the aircraft to a stop on the remaining runway. When brakes are deactivated, it affects the stopping capability of the aircraft, so the V1 speed needs to be adjusted accordingly to ensure a safe takeoff.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the normal QRH/FMC takeoff speeds may be used if stopway was used to increase the takeoff weight and the resulting V1 is less than the original VR?

    • A.

      None

    • B.

      V1

    • C.

      VR and V2

    • D.

      V1, VR, V2

    Correct Answer
    C. VR and V2
    Explanation
    If the stopway is used to increase the takeoff weight and the resulting V1 is less than the original VR, the only normal QRH/FMC takeoff speeds that may be used are VR and V2. This is because V1 is the minimum speed at which the pilot must decide to continue or abort the takeoff, and if it is less than the original VR, it cannot be used. Therefore, only VR and V2 can be used as they are the speeds necessary for a safe takeoff.

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  • 3. 

    Which f the following is not a restriction to the use of Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust?

    • A.

      Conditions exist that affect braking, such as runway contaminated by slush, snow, standing water, or ice.

    • B.

      Maximum thrust reduction is less than 25% below any certified rating.

    • C.

      The runway is reported wet.

    Correct Answer
    C. The runway is reported wet.
    Explanation
    Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust is a method used by pilots to reduce engine thrust during takeoff, which helps to prolong engine life and reduce maintenance costs. This method is typically used when certain conditions are met, such as a dry runway and no contamination. However, the correct answer states that the runway being reported wet is not a restriction to the use of Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust. This means that even if the runway is wet, pilots can still use this method without any restrictions or limitations.

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  • 4. 

    Which statement is most correct concerning landing and takeoff planning?

    • A.

      If the Landing Climb Limit Weight is exceeded for Flap 30, a Flap 20 landing must be planned.

    • B.

      The quick turnaround limit ensures sufficient brake energy capability in the next take off.

    • C.

      The brake cooling schedule can be used for landing only.

    • D.

      In landing planning, airplanes must be able to stop within 60% of the available runway.

    Correct Answer
    A. If the Landing Climb Limit Weight is exceeded for Flap 30, a Flap 20 landing must be planned.
  • 5. 

    Which of the following is the best definition of V1 (MCG) speed?

    • A.

      The V1 speed associated with the maximum aer0odynamic control speed on the ground.

    • B.

      The V1 speed associated with the maximum aerodynamic control speed on the ground.

    • C.

      The speed by which you must have made the decision to stop the airplane.

    • D.

      The speed by which you must have made the decision to continue the takeoff.

    Correct Answer
    B. The V1 speed associated with the maximum aerodynamic control speed on the ground.
    Explanation
    The V1 speed is the speed at which the pilot must make the decision to continue the takeoff or to stop the airplane. It is associated with the maximum aerodynamic control speed on the ground, meaning that it is the speed at which the pilot has the most control over the aircraft's movements during takeoff.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is the best definition of V1 speed?

    • A.

      The maximum speed where the rudder is affective for steering the airplane

    • B.

      The maximum speed at which the take off can be continued following recognition of an engine failure.

    • C.

      The maximum speed at which the flight crew must take the first action to reject the takeoff.

    • D.

      The speed at which the pilot starts the decision process for the go-stop decision.

    Correct Answer
    B. The maximum speed at which the take off can be continued following recognition of an engine failure.
    Explanation
    V1 speed is defined as the maximum speed at which the takeoff can be continued following recognition of an engine failure. This means that if an engine failure occurs before reaching V1 speed, the takeoff can be safely aborted. However, if the engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 speed, the takeoff must be continued and the aircraft must be able to safely climb and fly with only one engine.

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  • 7. 

    FMC computed takeoff speeds (V SPEEDS) can be used for which performance conduction?

    • A.

      For balanced field length conditions

    • B.

      When clearway or stopway adjustment are required to V1.

    • C.

      When the runway is contaminated.

    • D.

      When a brake is deactivated.

    Correct Answer
    A. For balanced field length conditions
    Explanation
    FMC computed takeoff speeds (V SPEEDS) can be used for balanced field length conditions. This means that the speeds calculated by the Flight Management Computer (FMC) are suitable for takeoff on a runway where the available distance for both takeoff and landing is equal. This ensures that the aircraft can safely accelerate, take off, and climb within the available runway length without any issues.

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  • 8. 

    When the FMC scratchpad message V SPEEDS UNAVAILABLE is displayed, which of the following options may not help the pilot correct the situation?

    • A.

      Use a smaller flap setting.

    • B.

      Derate the takeoff thrust using the assumed temperature method.

    • C.

      Derate the take off thrust using TO1 or TO2

    • D.

      Add fuel increase the gross weight.

    Correct Answer
    B. Derate the takeoff thrust using the assumed temperature method.
    Explanation
    Derating the takeoff thrust using the assumed temperature method may not help the pilot correct the situation when the FMC scratchpad message "V SPEEDS UNAVAILABLE" is displayed. This message indicates that the aircraft's Flight Management Computer (FMC) is unable to calculate the required speeds for takeoff. Derating the thrust using the assumed temperature method is a technique used to reduce engine power for takeoff, but it does not directly address the issue with the FMC's inability to calculate the V speeds. Therefore, this option may not be effective in correcting the situation.

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  • 9. 

    When calculating adjustments for slush/standing water, which of the following statements does not apply?

    • A.

      The entire runway is assumed to be contaminated

    • B.

      Takeoff is not recommended with slush depths greater than 13mm (0.5 inches)

    • C.

      Interpolation for water depths between the values shown is not allowed. Use the greater water depth.

    • D.

      The assumed temperature method of thrust reduction is not allowed on contaminated runways.

    Correct Answer
    C. Interpolation for water depths between the values shown is not allowed. Use the greater water depth.
    Explanation
    The statement that does not apply when calculating adjustments for slush/standing water is "Interpolation for water depths between the values shown is not allowed. Use the greater water depth." This means that when determining the adjustment for water depth, it is not permissible to estimate or interpolate the value between the given values. Instead, the greater water depth should be used.

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  • 10. 

    When using the Assumed Temperature method of reduced thrust the takeoff speeds are determined at which temperature?

    • A.

      V1, VR, V2 at the outside temperature, V1(MCG) at the assumed temperature.

    • B.

      V1, VR, V2 at the assumed temperature, V1(MCG) at the cutside air temperature.

    • C.

      V1, VR, V2 at the outside air temperature, V1 (MCG) at the outside air temperature.

    • D.

      V1, VR, V2 at the assumed temperature, V1 (MCG) at the assumed temperature.

    Correct Answer
    B. V1, VR, V2 at the assumed temperature, V1(MCG) at the cutside air temperature.
    Explanation
    The Assumed Temperature method of reduced thrust is used to calculate takeoff speeds. In this method, V1, VR, and V2 speeds are determined at the assumed temperature, while V1 (MCG) speed is determined at the outside air temperature. This allows for a reduced thrust setting to be used during takeoff, resulting in fuel savings and reduced engine wear. Therefore, the correct answer is "V1, VR, V2 at the assumed temperature, V1(MCG) at the outside air temperature."

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is not correct concerning long range cruise maximum operating altitude?

    • A.

      The maximum operating altitude considers the most restrictive of either thrust limiting or buffet limits.

    • B.

      When thrust limiting is used a residual climb capability of 300 ft/min is available.using bank angles of approximately 21 degrees.

    • C.

      When thrust limiting is used a residual climb capability of 100 ft/min is available.

    Correct Answer
    C. When thrust limiting is used a residual climb capability of 100 ft/min is available.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that when thrust limiting is used, a residual climb capability of 100 ft/min is available. This means that even when thrust is limited, the aircraft is still able to climb at a rate of 100 ft/min.

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  • 12. 

    Extended Range Operations are required any time a suitable diversion airport is further than which of the following from the route calculated at normal one engine inoperative speed?

    • A.

      120 minutes

    • B.

      60 minutes

    • C.

      180 minutes

    • D.

      This applies only to over water operations.

    Correct Answer
    B. 60 minutes
    Explanation
    Operations are required any time a suitable diversion airport is further than 60 minutes from the route calculated at normal one engine inoperative speed. This means that if the aircraft encounters an engine failure, it should be able to reach a suitable diversion airport within 60 minutes of flying at reduced speed. This requirement is particularly relevant for over water operations, where the availability of diversion airports may be limited.

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  • 13. 

     flying ECON speed will results in which of the following savings?

    • A.

      Maximum fuel costs

    • B.

      Minimum trip time

    • C.

      Minimum operating cost for the entered cost index

    • D.

      Maximum payload

    Correct Answer
    C. Minimum operating cost for the entered cost index
    Explanation
    Flying at the ECON speed will result in minimum operating cost for the entered cost index. This means that by flying at the most economical speed, the aircraft can achieve the lowest operating cost based on the specified cost index. This is because the ECON speed is optimized to balance fuel consumption and trip time, allowing for efficient operation and cost savings.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following adjustments to the crew oxygen quantity requirement is not correct?

    • A.

      One pilot is required to be on oxygen above 41,000 feet for an extended duration during flight.

    • B.

      A single pilot is at the flight controls for an extended duration during flight.

    • C.

      Additional crew members are required on the flight deck.

    • D.

      When the cruise altitude is planned to be above the engine inoperative maximum altitude.

    Correct Answer
    D. When the cruise altitude is planned to be above the engine inoperative maximum altitude.
  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not a correct flight procedure when landing distance is factor?

    • A.

      Using maximum stopping effort will utilize approximately 60% ot the during runway field length requirement.

    • B.

      Proper use of reverse thrust and speedbrake drag are most effective during the high speed portion of the landing.

    • C.

      Decelerating from an approach speed above VREF + 5 is faster by holding airplane off the runway in the flare than by touching down and decelerating on the runway.

    • D.

      On a 3 degree glide path, crossing the runway threshold at 100 feet rather than 50 feet could increase the total landing distance by approximately 950 feet.

    Correct Answer
    C. Decelerating from an approach speed above VREF + 5 is faster by holding airplane off the runway in the flare than by touching down and decelerating on the runway.
  • 16. 

    Which of the following is the best description of the guidelind for more movement of the flap handle during flap retraction/extension?

    • A.

      When within 20 knots of the maneuver speed for the next flap setting.

    • B.

      When within 10 knots of the maneuver speed for the next flap setting.

    • C.

      When within 30 knots of the maneuver speed for the next flap setting.

    • D.

      When within 40 knots if the maneuver speed for the next flap setting.

    Correct Answer
    A. When within 20 knots of the maneuver speed for the next flap setting.
    Explanation
    The best description for the guideline of more movement of the flap handle during flap retraction/extension is when within 20 knots of the maneuver speed for the next flap setting. This means that when the aircraft is within 20 knots of reaching the speed required for the next flap setting, more movement of the flap handle is necessary to retract or extend the flaps. This guideline ensures that the flaps are adjusted appropriately based on the aircraft's speed, allowing for smooth and safe operation.

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  • 17. 

    What maximum percentage of take off thrust reduction below any certified rating for operation with assumed temperature reduced thrust is allowed?

    • A.

      20

    • B.

      25

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      15

    Correct Answer
    B. 25
    Explanation
    The maximum percentage of take off thrust reduction below any certified rating for operation with assumed temperature reduced thrust that is allowed is 25%.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the QRH takeoff speeds must be adjusted when the take off is made with one brake deactivated?

    • A.

      V1, VR, V2

    • B.

      V1,VR

    • C.

      V1, VMBE

    • D.

      V1

    Correct Answer
    C. V1, VMBE
    Explanation
    When taking off with one brake deactivated, the takeoff speeds that need to be adjusted are V1 and VMBE. V1 is the decision speed, which is the speed at which the pilot must decide whether to continue the takeoff or abort. With one brake deactivated, the ability to stop the aircraft during the takeoff roll is compromised, so the decision speed needs to be adjusted accordingly. VMBE, or Minimum Brake Energy Speed, is the speed at which the aircraft can safely abort the takeoff and stop using only the remaining brakes. Since one brake is deactivated, the minimum brake energy speed also needs to be adjusted to ensure the aircraft can safely stop in an emergency.

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  • 19. 

    When making adjustments totakeoff speeds for minimum control speed, which of the following is the preferred method?

    • A.

      Use a smaller flap setting

    • B.

      Derate takeoff thrust using TO1 or TO 2.

    • C.

      Derate the takeoff thrust using the Assumed Temperature method

    • D.

      Add weight

    Correct Answer
    B. Derate takeoff thrust using TO1 or TO 2.
    Explanation
    The preferred method for making adjustments to takeoff speeds for minimum control speed is to derate the takeoff thrust using TO1 or TO2. This method allows for a reduction in engine power during takeoff, which can help improve the aircraft's performance and control. Using a smaller flap setting may not have as significant of an impact on minimum control speed, and adding weight could potentially worsen the situation. The Assumed Temperature method is not mentioned as a preferred method in this context.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following about planning for braking is not correct?

    • A.

      The amount of brake cooling in minutes can be found in the Brake Cooling schedule found in the QRH Performance Inflight.

    • B.

      It is recommended to use the autobreak system whenever runway limited, the runway is slippery, when using higher than normal approach speeds or landing in a crosswind.

    • C.

      The brake temperature monitoring system (BMTS) may be used to assess brake energy absorption 12 to 15 minutes after the airplane has come to a complete stop.

    • D.

      Use of reverse thrust along with the autobreak system does not reduce brake cooling requirements.

    Correct Answer
    D. Use of reverse thrust along with the autobreak system does not reduce brake cooling requirements.
    Explanation
    Using reverse thrust along with the autobrake system does not reduce brake cooling requirements. This means that even if the pilot is using reverse thrust to slow down the aircraft during landing, the brakes still need to be cooled down after landing. The statement implies that the use of reverse thrust does not have any impact on the cooling requirements of the brakes.

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  • 21. 

    FMC takeoff V SPEEDS can be used for which of the following conductions?

    • A.

      When using adjustment to V1 for clearway or stopway.

    • B.

      For an unbalanced runway condition.

    • C.

      When using adjustment to V1 for improved climb.

    • D.

      When using adjustments to V1 for obstacle clearance with unbalance V1.

    Correct Answer
    B. For an unbalanced runway condition.
    Explanation
    FMC takeoff V SPEEDS can be used for an unbalanced runway condition. This means that the aircraft's weight distribution is not evenly balanced on the runway. The FMC (Flight Management Computer) calculates the appropriate V speeds (such as V1, Vr, and V2) based on the aircraft's weight and balance to ensure a safe takeoff. In an unbalanced runway condition, the FMC will adjust the V speeds accordingly to account for the uneven weight distribution and ensure a successful takeoff.

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  • 22. 

    How does the FMC protect for minimum control speeds?

    • A.

      By increasing V1, VR and V2 as required within performance speed increase limits.

    • B.

      By increasing V1, VR and V2 as required.

    • C.

      Only after displaying the CDU Scratchpad message V SPEEDS UNAVAILBLE.

    • D.

      The FMC will not recalculated V speeds after entering a smaller takeoff flap setting following the display of the CDU Scratchpad message V SPEEDS UNAVAILABLE.

    Correct Answer
    A. By increasing V1, VR and V2 as required within performance speed increase limits.
    Explanation
    The FMC protects for minimum control speeds by increasing V1, VR, and V2 as required within performance speed increase limits. This means that the FMC will automatically adjust these speeds to ensure that the aircraft maintains a safe minimum control speed during takeoff and landing. It takes into account various factors such as aircraft weight, flap settings, and runway conditions to determine the appropriate speeds. By increasing these speeds within the performance limits, the FMC helps to prevent the aircraft from stalling or losing control during critical phases of flight.

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  • 23. 

    During flap retraction/extension, when should movement of the flap to the next position should be initiated?

    • A.

      When the airplanes speed is at or above the current flap maneuver speed.

    • B.

      When within 20 knots of the recommended speed for the desired flap position.

    • C.

      When reaching the maneuver speed for the desired flap position,

    • D.

      When at the current flap maneuver speed and accelerating.

    Correct Answer
    B. When within 20 knots of the recommended speed for the desired flap position.
    Explanation
    When initiating flap retraction/extension, the movement to the next position should be initiated when the airplane's speed is within 20 knots of the recommended speed for the desired flap position. This ensures that the aircraft is at an appropriate speed for the flap configuration, allowing for safe and efficient operation.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is not implied by “good” braking action?

    • A.

      Braking action is as good as a clean dry runway

    • B.

      Airplanes should not experience braking difficulties.

    • C.

      Airplanes should not experience directional control difficulties.

    • D.

      The “good” rating is comparative with a clean dry runway.

    Correct Answer
    B. Airplanes should not experience braking difficulties.
    Explanation
    The statement "Airplanes should not experience braking difficulties" is not implied by "good" braking action because even with good braking action, airplanes can still experience braking difficulties due to factors such as mechanical issues, adverse weather conditions, or runway conditions that are not clean and dry. The term "good" is used to compare the braking action to that of a clean dry runway, indicating that it may not be as effective under different circumstances.

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  • 25. 

    When operating with an engine inoperative, which of the following statements is not correct?

    • A.

      It is desirable to maintain thrust levels within the limits of Max Cruise thrust rating.

    • B.

      Max Continuous thrust rating is intended primarily for emergency use.

    • C.

      ATC altitude assignments may require the use of Max Continuous thrust rating.

    • D.

      There are no limits to planning the use of Max Continuous thrust rating.

    Correct Answer
    D. There are no limits to planning the use of Max Continuous thrust rating.
    Explanation
    The statement "There are no limits to planning the use of Max Continuous thrust rating" is not correct. Planning the use of Max Continuous thrust rating is subject to certain limitations and considerations. While the Max Continuous thrust rating is primarily intended for emergency use, it may also be required for certain ATC altitude assignments. However, it is desirable to maintain thrust levels within the limits of Max Cruise thrust rating, which suggests that there are indeed limits to planning the use of Max Continuous thrust rating.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is not a condition generally defined as an upset?

    • A.

      Unintentionally exceeding 36 degrees nose up pitch attitude.

    • B.

      Unintentionally exceeding 10 degrees nose down pitch attitude.

    • C.

      Unintentionally exceeding 35 degrees of bank angle.

    • D.

      Airspeed that is inappropriate for the conditions.

    Correct Answer
    C. Unintentionally exceeding 35 degrees of bank angle.
    Explanation
    An upset condition generally refers to an unintended and extreme deviation from normal flight parameters. Unintentionally exceeding 36 degrees nose up pitch attitude, unintentionally exceeding 10 degrees nose down pitch attitude, and having an airspeed that is inappropriate for the conditions can all be considered as upset conditions. However, unintentionally exceeding 35 degrees of bank angle is not typically defined as an upset condition. Bank angle refers to the angle at which an aircraft is tilted from its horizontal axis, and exceeding 35 degrees of bank angle is not necessarily considered an extreme or dangerous deviation from normal flight.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is an indication of an airplane in windshear?

    • A.

      Uncontrolled changes from normal steady state flight conditions above 1000 feet. AGL.

    • B.

      Uncontrolled changes exceeding 10 knots indicated airspeed below 1000 feet AGL.

    • C.

      Uncontrolled changes exceeding 500 FPM vertical speed below 1000 feet AGL.

    • D.

      Uncontrolled changes exceeding 1 dot displacement of the localizer below 1000 feet AGL.

    Correct Answer
    C. Uncontrolled changes exceeding 500 FPM vertical speed below 1000 feet AGL.
    Explanation
    Uncontrolled changes exceeding 500 FPM vertical speed below 1000 feet AGL is an indication of an airplane in windshear. Windshear is a sudden and drastic change in wind direction or speed, which can cause rapid changes in altitude and airspeed. Exceeding 500 FPM vertical speed indicates a significant and uncontrolled change in the aircraft's vertical movement, which is a clear indication of encountering windshear.

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  • 28. 

    Windshear is encountered prior to V1, which is the most correct statement?

    • A.

      Once airborne perform the Windshear Escape Maneuver.

    • B.

      At VR rotate to the Flight Direction pitch bar and press the TOGA switch.

    • C.

      A successful RTO is always possible when initiated at or before V1.

    • D.

      Normal rotation must begin at least 3000 feet before the end of the runway.

    Correct Answer
    A. Once airborne perform the Windshear Escape Maneuver.
  • 29. 

    When recommended flap maneuvering speeds are followed, which of the following statements is correct?

    • A.

      The margin to stick shaker includes an overshoot of 15 degrees beyond the normal 25 degree angle of bank.

    • B.

      The margin to stick shaker includes an overshoot of 25 degrees beyond the normal 15 degree angle of bank

    • C.

      The margin to stick shaker includes an overshoot of 15 degrees beyond the normal 35 degree angle bank.

    • D.

      The margin to stick shaker includes an overshoot of 5 degrees beyond the normal 25 degree angle of bank.

    Correct Answer
    A. The margin to stick shaker includes an overshoot of 15 degrees beyond the normal 25 degree angle of bank.
    Explanation
    The recommended flap maneuvering speeds include a margin to the stick shaker, which is a device that warns pilots of an impending stall. In this case, the margin to the stick shaker includes an overshoot of 15 degrees beyond the normal 25 degree angle of bank. This means that the aircraft can safely operate at an angle of bank up to 40 degrees before the stick shaker is activated, providing an extra safety buffer to prevent stalls.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following statements about flap retraction is not correct?

    • A.

      The altitude selected for acceleration and flap retraction may be specified for each airport.

    • B.

      The minimum altitude for flap retraction is 400 feet

    • C.

      Boeing recommends 1000 feet for the standard flap retraction altitude used in training.

    • D.

      The engine out takeoff acceleration height is based on accelerating to the flaps up speed before retracting flaps.

    Correct Answer
    D. The engine out takeoff acceleration height is based on accelerating to the flaps up speed before retracting flaps.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The engine out takeoff acceleration height is based on accelerating to the flaps up speed before retracting flaps." This statement is incorrect because the engine out takeoff acceleration height is actually based on accelerating to a specific speed before retracting the flaps, not the flaps up speed.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following statement about command speed when using autothrottle is correct?

    • A.

      Add 5 knots plus one half of the steady state headwind to VREF.

    • B.

      Add one half of the steady state headwind and all of the gust to VREF if planning to disengage the autothrottle during approach.

    • C.

      Add 5 knots plus one half of the steady state headwind and all of the gust to VREF if planning to disengage the autothrottle during approach.

    • D.

      Add 5 knots plus all of the wind gust to VREF.

    Correct Answer
    B. Add one half of the steady state headwind and all of the gust to VREF if planning to disengage the autothrottle during approach.
    Explanation
    When using autothrottle, if the pilot plans to disengage it during approach, they should add one half of the steady state headwind and all of the gust to VREF. This means that they need to account for the effect of the wind on the aircraft's speed in order to maintain the appropriate approach speed. Adding these factors to VREF ensures that the aircraft is flying at the correct speed during the approach, taking into consideration the wind conditions.

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  • 32. 

    When making an approach without using autothrottle, what is the correct command speed?

    • A.

      VREF + 16 knots the wind is reported down the runway at 16 knots

    • B.

      VREF when the wind is reported calm.

    • C.

      VREF + 25 knots when the wind is reported down the runway at 20 knots with gusts to 30 knots.

    • D.

      VREF + knots when the wind is reported down the runway at 25 knots with gusts to 35 knots

    Correct Answer
    D. VREF + knots when the wind is reported down the runway at 25 knots with gusts to 35 knots
    Explanation
    The correct command speed when making an approach without using autothrottle is VREF + knots when the wind is reported down the runway at 25 knots with gusts to 35 knots. This means that the pilot should increase the approach speed by a certain number of knots above the reference speed (VREF) to compensate for the strong headwind and gusty conditions. This helps maintain a safe and stable approach, ensuring proper control of the aircraft during landing.

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  • 33. 

    During cruise flight, which of the following statements about use of rudder trim ios nopt correct?

    • A.

      Set the rudder trim to center the slip/skid indicator.

    • B.

      Set the rudder trim to set the control wheel to the neutral (zero index) position.

    • C.

      A slight Slip/skid indication is acceptable.

    • D.

      Set thrust symmetry.

    Correct Answer
    A. Set the rudder trim to center the slip/skid indicator.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Set the rudder trim to center the slip/skid indicator." This statement is not correct because the rudder trim should be set to zero, not to center the slip/skid indicator. The purpose of the rudder trim is to adjust for any yawing tendencies in the aircraft, not to center the slip/skid indicator. The slip/skid indicator should be centered by coordinated use of the rudder pedals, not by adjusting the rudder trim.

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  • 34. 

    During ground taxi operations, which of the following statements is not correct?

    • A.

      Idle thrust is adequate for taxiing under most conditions.

    • B.

      Excess thrust while taxiing may cause foreign objects to deflect into the stabilizers.

    • C.

      Run-ups and taxi operations should only be conducted over well maintained paved surfaces.

    • D.

      Air blasts at relatives low thrust will not be destructive or cause injury

    Correct Answer
    D. Air blasts at relatives low thrust will not be destructive or cause injury
    Explanation
    Air blasts at relatively low thrust can still be destructive or cause injury. Even at low thrust, the force of the air blast can dislodge loose objects or cause debris to be blown into the path of other aircraft or personnel, potentially causing damage or injury. It is important to exercise caution and follow proper procedures during ground taxi operations to minimize the risk of accidents or incidents.

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  • 35. 

    Which statement about carbon brake wear is not correct?

    • A.

      Brake wear is primarily dependant upon the number of brake applications.

    • B.

      Continuously light brake pressure to prevent the airplane from accelerating over a long period of time produces less wear than proper braking.

    • C.

      One firm brake application causes less wear than several light applications.

    • D.

      Continuous light brake pressure to prevent the airplane from accelerating over a long period of time procedures more wear than proper braking.

    Correct Answer
    B. Continuously light brake pressure to prevent the airplane from accelerating over a long period of time produces less wear than proper braking.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Continuously light brake pressure to prevent the airplane from accelerating over a long period of time produces less wear than proper braking." This statement is not correct because continuously applying light brake pressure over a long period of time actually produces more wear than proper braking. Proper braking involves firm brake applications, which cause less wear compared to multiple light applications.

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  • 36. 

    Which statement about take off is correct?

    • A.

      A rolling takeoff increases the risk of foreign object damage or engine surge/stall due to a tailwind or crosswind.

    • B.

      A rolling takeoff increases the runway required and must be factored into takeoff analysis.

    • C.

      When aligned with the runway, stop momentarily to advance the thrust levers and select TOGA.

    • D.

      Brakes are not normally held with thrust above idle unless a static run-up is required in icing conditions.

    Correct Answer
    D. Brakes are not normally held with thrust above idle unless a static run-up is required in icing conditions.
    Explanation
    A rolling takeoff increases the risk of foreign object damage or engine surge/stall due to a tailwind or crosswind. This statement implies that holding the brakes with thrust above idle is not a normal practice unless a static run-up is required in icing conditions.

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  • 37. 

    Which statement about take off roll is not correct?

    • A.

      Light forward pressure is held on the control column,

    • B.

      The rudder becomes effective between 40 and 60 knots.

    • C.

      Maximum nose wheel steering effectiveness is available when above taxi speeds by using the nose wheel steering tiller.

    • D.

      The captain should keep one hand on the thrust levers unit V1

    Correct Answer
    C. Maximum nose wheel steering effectiveness is available when above taxi speeds by using the nose wheel steering tiller.
  • 38. 

    Which of the statements about speedbrakes is correct?

    • A.

      Fully raising the speedbrakes while lowering the nose wheel to the runway produces an adverse effect on the pitch rate

    • B.

      Autobrake and anti-skid provide full braking effectiveness regardless of the speedbrakes position.

    • C.

      In the event speedbrakes auto extension fails, no action is required of the crew as the speedbrakes will automatically extend when reverse thrust is selected.

    • D.

      Both pilots should monitor speedbrakes extension after touchdown.

    Correct Answer
    D. Both pilots should monitor speedbrakes extension after touchdown.
  • 39. 

    After touchdown, which of the statement is not correct?

    • A.

      Perform the landing roll procedure when at taxi speed.

    • B.

      Rudder control is effective to approximately 60 knots.

    • C.

      Displace the control wheel into a crosswind to maintain wings level and aid directional control.

    • D.

      The nose wheel should be promptly lowered to the runway.

    Correct Answer
    A. Perform the landing roll procedure when at taxi speed.
    Explanation
    Performing the landing roll procedure when at taxi speed is not correct. The landing roll procedure should be performed after touchdown, not at taxi speed. This procedure includes actions such as deploying spoilers, applying reverse thrust, and using the brakes to slow down the aircraft. Taxi speed is the speed at which the aircraft moves on the ground after landing, typically much slower than the speed during the landing roll.

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  • 40. 

    Which statement about automatic brakes on landing roll is correct?

    • A.

      Autobrakes 2 or greater results in a continuous brakes application, which can increase carbon brake life

    • B.

      Setting 1 or 2 provides brake application suitable for routine operations

    • C.

      Setting 3 or 4 should be used for wet or slippery runways or when landing rollout distance is limited

    • D.

      MAX AUTO braking is more than can be produced by full manual braking.

    Correct Answer
    D. MAX AUTO braking is more than can be produced by full manual braking.
    Explanation
    MAX AUTO braking is more than can be produced by full manual braking. This means that the automatic braking system, when set to MAX AUTO, can apply more brake force than a pilot manually applying the brakes. This can be useful in situations where maximum braking is required, such as on a short or slippery runway.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 19, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Gtd
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