B777 Performance And Flight Planning

40 Questions | Total Attempts: 161

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B777 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the QRH takeoff speeds must be adjusted when the take off is made with some brake deactivation?
    • A. 

      V1, VR, V2

    • B. 

      V1

    • C. 

      V1, VMBE

    • D. 

      The airplane may not dispatch with any brakes deactivated.

  • 2. 
    Which of the normal QRH/FMC takeoff speeds may be used if stopway was used to increase the takeoff weight and the resulting V1 is less than the original VR?
    • A. 

      None

    • B. 

      V1

    • C. 

      VR and V2

    • D. 

      V1, VR, V2

  • 3. 
    Which f the following is not a restriction to the use of Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust?
    • A. 

      Conditions exist that affect braking, such as runway contaminated by slush, snow, standing water, or ice.

    • B. 

      Maximum thrust reduction is less than 25% below any certified rating.

    • C. 

      The runway is reported wet.

  • 4. 
    Which statement is most correct concerning landing and takeoff planning?
    • A. 

      If the Landing Climb Limit Weight is exceeded for Flap 30, a Flap 20 landing must be planned.

    • B. 

      The quick turnaround limit ensures sufficient brake energy capability in the next take off.

    • C. 

      The brake cooling schedule can be used for landing only.

    • D. 

      In landing planning, airplanes must be able to stop within 60% of the available runway.

  • 5. 
    Which of the following is the best definition of V1 (MCG) speed?
    • A. 

      The V1 speed associated with the maximum aer0odynamic control speed on the ground.

    • B. 

      The V1 speed associated with the maximum aerodynamic control speed on the ground.

    • C. 

      The speed by which you must have made the decision to stop the airplane.

    • D. 

      The speed by which you must have made the decision to continue the takeoff.

  • 6. 
    Which of the following is the best definition of V1 speed?
    • A. 

      The maximum speed where the rudder is affective for steering the airplane

    • B. 

      The maximum speed at which the take off can be continued following recognition of an engine failure.

    • C. 

      The maximum speed at which the flight crew must take the first action to reject the takeoff.

    • D. 

      The speed at which the pilot starts the decision process for the go-stop decision.

  • 7. 
    FMC computed takeoff speeds (V SPEEDS) can be used for which performance conduction?
    • A. 

      For balanced field length conditions

    • B. 

      When clearway or stopway adjustment are required to V1.

    • C. 

      When the runway is contaminated.

    • D. 

      When a brake is deactivated.

  • 8. 
    When the FMC scratchpad message V SPEEDS UNAVAILABLE is displayed, which of the following options may not help the pilot correct the situation?
    • A. 

      Use a smaller flap setting.

    • B. 

      Derate the takeoff thrust using the assumed temperature method.

    • C. 

      Derate the take off thrust using TO1 or TO2

    • D. 

      Add fuel increase the gross weight.

  • 9. 
    When calculating adjustments for slush/standing water, which of the following statements does not apply?
    • A. 

      The entire runway is assumed to be contaminated

    • B. 

      Takeoff is not recommended with slush depths greater than 13mm (0.5 inches)

    • C. 

      Interpolation for water depths between the values shown is not allowed. Use the greater water depth.

    • D. 

      The assumed temperature method of thrust reduction is not allowed on contaminated runways.

  • 10. 
    When using the Assumed Temperature method of reduced thrust the takeoff speeds are determined at which temperature?
    • A. 

      V1, VR, V2 at the outside temperature, V1(MCG) at the assumed temperature.

    • B. 

      V1, VR, V2 at the assumed temperature, V1(MCG) at the cutside air temperature.

    • C. 

      V1, VR, V2 at the outside air temperature, V1 (MCG) at the outside air temperature.

    • D. 

      V1, VR, V2 at the assumed temperature, V1 (MCG) at the assumed temperature.

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is not correct concerning long range cruise maximum operating altitude?
    • A. 

      The maximum operating altitude considers the most restrictive of either thrust limiting or buffet limits.

    • B. 

      When thrust limiting is used a residual climb capability of 300 ft/min is available.using bank angles of approximately 21 degrees.

    • C. 

      When thrust limiting is used a residual climb capability of 100 ft/min is available.

  • 12. 
    Extended Range Operations are required any time a suitable diversion airport is further than which of the following from the route calculated at normal one engine inoperative speed?
    • A. 

      120 minutes

    • B. 

      60 minutes

    • C. 

      180 minutes

    • D. 

      This applies only to over water operations.

  • 13. 
     flying ECON speed will results in which of the following savings?
    • A. 

      Maximum fuel costs

    • B. 

      Minimum trip time

    • C. 

      Minimum operating cost for the entered cost index

    • D. 

      Maximum payload

  • 14. 
    Which of the following adjustments to the crew oxygen quantity requirement is not correct?
    • A. 

      One pilot is required to be on oxygen above 41,000 feet for an extended duration during flight.

    • B. 

      A single pilot is at the flight controls for an extended duration during flight.

    • C. 

      Additional crew members are required on the flight deck.

    • D. 

      When the cruise altitude is planned to be above the engine inoperative maximum altitude.

  • 15. 
    Which of the following is not a correct flight procedure when landing distance is factor?
    • A. 

      Using maximum stopping effort will utilize approximately 60% ot the during runway field length requirement.

    • B. 

      Proper use of reverse thrust and speedbrake drag are most effective during the high speed portion of the landing.

    • C. 

      Decelerating from an approach speed above VREF + 5 is faster by holding airplane off the runway in the flare than by touching down and decelerating on the runway.

    • D. 

      On a 3 degree glide path, crossing the runway threshold at 100 feet rather than 50 feet could increase the total landing distance by approximately 950 feet.

  • 16. 
    Which of the following is the best description of the guidelind for more movement of the flap handle during flap retraction/extension?
    • A. 

      When within 20 knots of the maneuver speed for the next flap setting.

    • B. 

      When within 10 knots of the maneuver speed for the next flap setting.

    • C. 

      When within 30 knots of the maneuver speed for the next flap setting.

    • D. 

      When within 40 knots if the maneuver speed for the next flap setting.

  • 17. 
    What maximum percentage of take off thrust reduction below any certified rating for operation with assumed temperature reduced thrust is allowed?
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      25

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      15

  • 18. 
    Which of the QRH takeoff speeds must be adjusted when the take off is made with one brake deactivated?
    • A. 

      V1, VR, V2

    • B. 

      V1,VR

    • C. 

      V1, VMBE

    • D. 

      V1

  • 19. 
    When making adjustments totakeoff speeds for minimum control speed, which of the following is the preferred method?
    • A. 

      Use a smaller flap setting

    • B. 

      Derate takeoff thrust using TO1 or TO 2.

    • C. 

      Derate the takeoff thrust using the Assumed Temperature method

    • D. 

      Add weight

  • 20. 
    Which of the following about planning for braking is not correct?
    • A. 

      The amount of brake cooling in minutes can be found in the Brake Cooling schedule found in the QRH Performance Inflight.

    • B. 

      It is recommended to use the autobreak system whenever runway limited, the runway is slippery, when using higher than normal approach speeds or landing in a crosswind.

    • C. 

      The brake temperature monitoring system (BMTS) may be used to assess brake energy absorption 12 to 15 minutes after the airplane has come to a complete stop.

    • D. 

      Use of reverse thrust along with the autobreak system does not reduce brake cooling requirements.

  • 21. 
    FMC takeoff V SPEEDS can be used for which of the following conductions?
    • A. 

      When using adjustment to V1 for clearway or stopway.

    • B. 

      For an unbalanced runway condition.

    • C. 

      When using adjustment to V1 for improved climb.

    • D. 

      When using adjustments to V1 for obstacle clearance with unbalance V1.

  • 22. 
    How does the FMC protect for minimum control speeds?
    • A. 

      By increasing V1, VR and V2 as required within performance speed increase limits.

    • B. 

      By increasing V1, VR and V2 as required.

    • C. 

      Only after displaying the CDU Scratchpad message V SPEEDS UNAVAILBLE.

    • D. 

      The FMC will not recalculated V speeds after entering a smaller takeoff flap setting following the display of the CDU Scratchpad message V SPEEDS UNAVAILABLE.

  • 23. 
    During flap retraction/extension, when should movement of the flap to the next position should be initiated?
    • A. 

      When the airplanes speed is at or above the current flap maneuver speed.

    • B. 

      When within 20 knots of the recommended speed for the desired flap position.

    • C. 

      When reaching the maneuver speed for the desired flap position,

    • D. 

      When at the current flap maneuver speed and accelerating.

  • 24. 
    Which of the following is not implied by “good” braking action?
    • A. 

      Braking action is as good as a clean dry runway

    • B. 

      Airplanes should not experience braking difficulties.

    • C. 

      Airplanes should not experience directional control difficulties.

    • D. 

      The “good” rating is comparative with a clean dry runway.

  • 25. 
    When operating with an engine inoperative, which of the following statements is not correct?
    • A. 

      It is desirable to maintain thrust levels within the limits of Max Cruise thrust rating.

    • B. 

      Max Continuous thrust rating is intended primarily for emergency use.

    • C. 

      ATC altitude assignments may require the use of Max Continuous thrust rating.

    • D. 

      There are no limits to planning the use of Max Continuous thrust rating.

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