Ppl – Operational Procedures

38 Questions | Total Attempts: 2475

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Ppl  Operational Procedures

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should:
    • A. 

      Make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated

    • B. 

      Fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL

    • C. 

      Enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL

  • 2. 
    To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?
    • A. 

      The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need to be equipped for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR minimums

    • B. 

      The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area

    • C. 

      The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight

  • 3. 
    Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
    • A. 

      Prior to entering the airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility

    • B. 

      Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder

    • C. 

      Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility

  • 4. 
    When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communication prior to:
    • A. 

      8 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL

    • B. 

      5 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL

    • C. 

      4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL

  • 5. 
    When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must established communication prior to:
    • A. 

      10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL

    • B. 

      30 SM, and be transported equipped

    • C. 

      4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL

  • 6. 
    When planning a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for the availability and status of:
    • A. 

      All VORs to be used en route

    • B. 

      Airport rotating light beacons

    • C. 

      Destination airport lightning system

  • 7. 
    For night flying operations, the best night vision is achieved when the:
    • A. 

      Pupils of the eyes have become dilated in approximately 10 minutes

    • B. 

      Rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 30 minutes

    • C. 

      Cones in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 5 minutes

  • 8. 
    A pilot is entering an area where significant clear air turbulence has been reported. Which action is appropriate upon encountering the first ripple?
    • A. 

      Maintain altitude and airspeed

    • B. 

      Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air

    • C. 

      Enter a shallow climb or descent at maneuvering speed

  • 9. 
    Which is the best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence?
    • A. 

      Change power settings, as necessary, to maintain constant airspeed

    • B. 

      Control airspeed with power, maintain wings level, and accept variations of altitude

    • C. 

      Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude

  • 10. 
    When diverting to an alternate airport because of an emergency, pilots should:
    • A. 

      Rely upon radio as the primary method of navigation

    • B. 

      Climb to a higher altitude because it will be easier to identity checkpoints

    • C. 

      Apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible

  • 11. 
    A pilot’s most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is:
    • A. 

      Maintaining a safe airspeed

    • B. 

      Landing directly into the wind

    • C. 

      Turning back to the takeoff field

  • 12. 
    When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for what primary reason?
    • A. 

      Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control

    • B. 

      Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane

    • C. 

      Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as possible

  • 13. 
    Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions?
    • A. 

      A power-on approach and power-on landing

    • B. 

      A power-off approach and power-on landing

    • C. 

      A power-on approach and power-off landing

  • 14. 
    A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the:
    • A. 

      Directional of motion of the airplane and its lateral axis be perpendicular to the runway

    • B. 

      Directional of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway

    • C. 

      Downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the airplane to drift

  • 15. 
    With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use:
    • A. 

      Aileron pressure into the wind and initiate the lift-off at a normal airspeed in both tailwheel and nosewheel-type airplanes

    • B. 

      Right rudder pressure, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both tricycle and conventional-gear airplanes

    • C. 

      Rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional and nosewheel-type airplanes

  • 16. 
    While taxiing a light, high-wing airplane during strong quartering tailwinds, the aileron control should be positioned:
    • A. 

      Neutral at all the time

    • B. 

      Toward the direction from which the wind is blowing

    • C. 

      Opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing

  • 17. 
    Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.
    • A. 

      Power, pitch, bank, and trim

    • B. 

      Thrust, lift, turns, and glides

    • C. 

      Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descent

  • 18. 
    Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its
    • A. 

      Center of gravity moves aft

    • B. 

      Center of gravity moves forward

    • C. 

      Elevator trim is adjusted nosedown

  • 19. 
    Light beacons producing red flashes indicate:
    • A. 

      End of runway at departure end

    • B. 

      A pilot should remain clear of an airport traffic pattern and continue circling

    • C. 

      Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation

  • 20. 
    Why should flight speeds above Vne be avoided?
    • A. 

      Excessive induced drag will result in structural failure

    • B. 

      Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered

    • C. 

      Control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable

  • 21. 
    Which action is appropriate if a pilot becomes involved in hijacking?
    • A. 

      Transmit code H on 121.5

    • B. 

      Append the code PAPA to the aircraft call sign during all radio transmissions.

    • C. 

      Set codes 7500 on the aircraft transponder.

  • 22. 
    A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is:
    • A. 

      Maintaining a safe airspeed.

    • B. 

      Landing directly into the wind.

    • C. 

      Turning back to the takeoff field.

  • 23. 
    The pilot-in -command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when:
    • A. 

      Climbing or descending to assigned altitudes.

    • B. 

      Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in flight.

    • C. 

      Requested to contact a new controlling facility.

  • 24. 
    When an aircraft is rapidly accelerated in straight and level, such as take-off, what inhderent precession characteristics, if any will be displayed?
    • A. 

      The miniature aircraft would indicate a descent.

    • B. 

      The miniature aircraft would indicate a climb.

    • C. 

      It depends on whether the altitude indicator is an electric or vacuum type.

    • D. 

      No precession characteristic is evident unless a force.

  • 25. 
    In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flight crew is:
    • A. 

      Not recommended because of excess time involved in its proper utilization.

    • B. 

      Discouraged because of possible failure of the cockpit lightning system.

    • C. 

      Required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures.

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