Ppl – Operational Procedures
.
- 1.When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should:
- A.
Make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated
- B.
Fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL
- C.
Enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL
- 2.To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?
- A.
The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need to be equipped for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR minimums
- B.
The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area
- C.
The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight
- 3.Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
- A.
Prior to entering the airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility
- B.
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder
- C.
Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility
- 4.When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communication prior to:
- A.
8 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL
- B.
5 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL
- C.
4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL
- 5.When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must established communication prior to:
- A.
10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL
- B.
30 SM, and be transported equipped
- C.
4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL
- 6.When planning a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for the availability and status of:
- A.
All VORs to be used en route
- B.
Airport rotating light beacons
- C.
Destination airport lightning system
- 7.For night flying operations, the best night vision is achieved when the:
- A.
Pupils of the eyes have become dilated in approximately 10 minutes
- B.
Rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 30 minutes
- C.
Cones in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 5 minutes
- 8.A pilot is entering an area where significant clear air turbulence has been reported. Which action is appropriate upon encountering the first ripple?
- A.
Maintain altitude and airspeed
- B.
Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air
- C.
Enter a shallow climb or descent at maneuvering speed
- 9.Which is the best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence?
- A.
Change power settings, as necessary, to maintain constant airspeed
- B.
Control airspeed with power, maintain wings level, and accept variations of altitude
- C.
Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude
- 10.When diverting to an alternate airport because of an emergency, pilots should:
- A.
Rely upon radio as the primary method of navigation
- B.
Climb to a higher altitude because it will be easier to identity checkpoints
- C.
Apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible
- 11.A pilot’s most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is:
- A.
Maintaining a safe airspeed
- B.
Landing directly into the wind
- C.
Turning back to the takeoff field
- 12.When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for what primary reason?
- A.
Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control
- B.
Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane
- C.
Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as possible
- 13.Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions?
- A.
A power-on approach and power-on landing
- B.
A power-off approach and power-on landing
- C.
A power-on approach and power-off landing
- 14.A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the:
- A.
Directional of motion of the airplane and its lateral axis be perpendicular to the runway
- B.
Directional of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway
- C.
Downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the airplane to drift
- 15.With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use:
- A.
Aileron pressure into the wind and initiate the lift-off at a normal airspeed in both tailwheel and nosewheel-type airplanes
- B.
Right rudder pressure, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both tricycle and conventional-gear airplanes
- C.
Rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional and nosewheel-type airplanes
- 16.While taxiing a light, high-wing airplane during strong quartering tailwinds, the aileron control should be positioned:
- A.
Neutral at all the time
- B.
Toward the direction from which the wind is blowing
- C.
Opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing
- 17.Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.
- A.
Power, pitch, bank, and trim
- B.
Thrust, lift, turns, and glides
- C.
Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descent
- 18.Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its
- A.
Center of gravity moves aft
- B.
Center of gravity moves forward
- C.
Elevator trim is adjusted nosedown
- 19.Light beacons producing red flashes indicate:
- A.
End of runway at departure end
- B.
A pilot should remain clear of an airport traffic pattern and continue circling
- C.
Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation
- 20.Why should flight speeds above Vne be avoided?
- A.
Excessive induced drag will result in structural failure
- B.
Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered
- C.
Control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable
- 21.Which action is appropriate if a pilot becomes involved in hijacking?
- A.
Transmit code H on 121.5
- B.
Append the code PAPA to the aircraft call sign during all radio transmissions.
- C.
Set codes 7500 on the aircraft transponder.
- 22.A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is:
- A.
Maintaining a safe airspeed.
- B.
Landing directly into the wind.
- C.
Turning back to the takeoff field.
- 23.The pilot-in -command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when:
- A.
Climbing or descending to assigned altitudes.
- B.
Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in flight.
- C.
Requested to contact a new controlling facility.
- 24.When an aircraft is rapidly accelerated in straight and level, such as take-off, what inhderent precession characteristics, if any will be displayed?
- A.
The miniature aircraft would indicate a descent.
- B.
The miniature aircraft would indicate a climb.
- C.
It depends on whether the altitude indicator is an electric or vacuum type.
- D.
No precession characteristic is evident unless a force.
- 25.In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flight crew is:
- A.
Not recommended because of excess time involved in its proper utilization.
- B.
Discouraged because of possible failure of the cockpit lightning system.
- C.
Required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures.
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