Ppl – Operational Procedures

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| By Rion Sigaya
Rion Sigaya, 3D animator
Jan Michael 'Rion' Sigaya, a former 3D animator turned licensed pilot with a Flight Instructor (FI) license, adeptly navigated the skies before unforeseen pandemic challenges led him back to his roots in the world of 3D animation.
Quizzes Created: 17 | Total Attempts: 249,386
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Ppl  Operational Procedures - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should:

    • A.

      Make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated

    • B.

      Fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL

    • C.

      Enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL

    Correct Answer
    A. Make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated
    Explanation
    When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in Class G airspace, the pilot should make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated. This is because in the absence of specific instructions or indications, the standard traffic pattern for airports is a left-hand pattern. Making all turns to the left helps maintain a consistent flow of traffic and reduces the risk of collision. It is important for pilots to follow this procedure to ensure safe and orderly operations in the airspace.

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  • 2. 

    To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?

    • A.

      The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need to be equipped for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR minimums

    • B.

      The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area

    • C.

      The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight

    Correct Answer
    C. The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight
    Explanation
    To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, the pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight. This is because SVFR operations at night require the pilot to have the necessary skills and knowledge to operate the aircraft in low visibility conditions. Additionally, the airplane must be equipped with the necessary instruments and equipment to navigate and communicate effectively in instrument flight conditions.

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  • 3. 

    Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?

    • A.

      Prior to entering the airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility

    • B.

      Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder

    • C.

      Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility

    Correct Answer
    A. Prior to entering the airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility
    Explanation
    When operating to or from a satellite airport without an operating control tower within Class C airspace, it is necessary for a pilot to establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility before entering the airspace. This ensures that the pilot is aware of any traffic or instructions from air traffic control and can safely navigate within the airspace. The requirement for an ATC transponder is not mentioned in the given answer, and prior communication with the ATC controlling facility before takeoff is not required in this scenario.

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  • 4. 

    When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communication prior to:

    • A.

      8 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL

    • B.

      5 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL

    • C.

      4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL

    Correct Answer
    C. 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL
    Explanation
    A pilot must establish communication prior to 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL when operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower in Class E airspace. This is because communication with the control tower is necessary for coordination and to receive instructions and clearances when operating in controlled airspace. Establishing communication within this distance and altitude range ensures that the pilot can safely enter and operate within the controlled airspace.

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  • 5. 

    When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must established communication prior to:

    • A.

      10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL

    • B.

      30 SM, and be transported equipped

    • C.

      4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL

    Correct Answer
    C. 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. In Class D airspace, pilots are required to establish communication with the ATC facility prior to entering the airspace. This communication must be established at least 4 NM from the airport and up to and including 2,500 feet above ground level (AGL). This ensures that the pilot is in contact with the ATC facility and can receive any necessary instructions or clearances for landing safely at the airport.

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  • 6. 

    When planning a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for the availability and status of:

    • A.

      All VORs to be used en route

    • B.

      Airport rotating light beacons

    • C.

      Destination airport lightning system

    Correct Answer
    C. Destination airport lightning system
    Explanation
    When planning a night cross-country flight, it is important for a pilot to check the availability and status of the destination airport lightning system. This is crucial for the pilot to ensure that the destination airport has proper lighting to facilitate a safe landing at night. Without a functioning lightning system, the pilot may face difficulties in visually identifying the runway and navigating the airport environment. Therefore, checking the availability and status of the destination airport lightning system is essential for a successful night cross-country flight.

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  • 7. 

    For night flying operations, the best night vision is achieved when the:

    • A.

      Pupils of the eyes have become dilated in approximately 10 minutes

    • B.

      Rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 30 minutes

    • C.

      Cones in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 5 minutes

    Correct Answer
    B. Rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 30 minutes
    Explanation
    The answer states that the best night vision is achieved when the rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 30 minutes. Rods are photoreceptor cells in the retina that are responsible for vision in low light conditions. They are more sensitive to light and are responsible for black and white vision. It takes some time for the rods to fully adapt to the darkness and provide optimal night vision, which is why it takes approximately 30 minutes for them to become adjusted.

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  • 8. 

    A pilot is entering an area where significant clear air turbulence has been reported. Which action is appropriate upon encountering the first ripple?

    • A.

      Maintain altitude and airspeed

    • B.

      Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air

    • C.

      Enter a shallow climb or descent at maneuvering speed

    Correct Answer
    B. Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air
    Explanation
    Upon encountering the first ripple of clear air turbulence, it is appropriate for the pilot to adjust the airspeed to that recommended for rough air. This action is necessary to ensure the safety and stability of the aircraft in turbulent conditions. By adjusting the airspeed, the pilot can mitigate the effects of the turbulence and maintain control over the aircraft. It is important to follow the recommended airspeed for rough air to minimize the risk of further turbulence and potential damage to the aircraft.

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  • 9. 

    Which is the best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence?

    • A.

      Change power settings, as necessary, to maintain constant airspeed

    • B.

      Control airspeed with power, maintain wings level, and accept variations of altitude

    • C.

      Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude

    Correct Answer
    C. Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude
    Explanation
    The best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence is to set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude. This technique ensures that the aircraft is flying at a safe speed and that the wings are level, reducing the stress on the wings and minimizing the risk of structural damage. Accepting variations of airspeed and altitude allows the aircraft to adjust to the turbulent conditions without putting excessive load on the wings.

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  • 10. 

    When diverting to an alternate airport because of an emergency, pilots should:

    • A.

      Rely upon radio as the primary method of navigation

    • B.

      Climb to a higher altitude because it will be easier to identity checkpoints

    • C.

      Apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible

    Correct Answer
    C. Apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible
    Explanation
    When diverting to an alternate airport because of an emergency, pilots should apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible. This is because during an emergency situation, time is of the essence and pilots need to quickly and efficiently navigate to the alternate airport. Relying solely on radio as the primary method of navigation may not be sufficient or timely enough, and climbing to a higher altitude is not necessary for identifying checkpoints. Therefore, using rule-of-thumb computations and estimates allows pilots to make quick decisions and divert to the new course promptly.

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  • 11. 

    A pilot’s most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is:

    • A.

      Maintaining a safe airspeed

    • B.

      Landing directly into the wind

    • C.

      Turning back to the takeoff field

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintaining a safe airspeed
    Explanation
    In the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff, maintaining a safe airspeed is the most immediate and vital concern for a pilot. This is because without engine power, the aircraft will start losing altitude rapidly, and maintaining a safe airspeed will help the pilot to control the aircraft's descent and prevent a stall. Landing directly into the wind or turning back to the takeoff field may not be feasible options in all situations and could potentially lead to a loss of control or other safety hazards.

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  • 12. 

    When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for what primary reason?

    • A.

      Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control

    • B.

      Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane

    • C.

      Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as possible

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control
    Explanation
    Increasing the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed is recommended during turbulence encountered during the approach to a landing in order to attain more positive control. This is because the increased airspeed provides more airflow over the control surfaces, allowing the pilot to have better control of the aircraft in turbulent conditions. By increasing the airspeed, the pilot can counteract the effects of turbulence and maintain stability and control during the landing approach.

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  • 13. 

    Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions?

    • A.

      A power-on approach and power-on landing

    • B.

      A power-off approach and power-on landing

    • C.

      A power-on approach and power-off landing

    Correct Answer
    A. A power-on approach and power-on landing
    Explanation
    During gusty wind conditions, a power-on approach and power-on landing are recommended. This is because maintaining power during the approach and landing allows the pilot to have more control over the aircraft's speed and descent rate. The increased power helps counteract the effects of gusty winds, providing more stability and control. By keeping power on, the pilot can make adjustments as needed to counteract any sudden changes in wind speed or direction, ensuring a safer and smoother landing.

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  • 14. 

    A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the:

    • A.

      Directional of motion of the airplane and its lateral axis be perpendicular to the runway

    • B.

      Directional of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway

    • C.

      Downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the airplane to drift

    Correct Answer
    B. Directional of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway
    Explanation
    During a crosswind landing, it is important for the directional motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis to be parallel to the runway. This means that the airplane should be aligned with the runway, moving in the same direction as the runway. This is crucial for maintaining control and stability during the landing. If the airplane is not aligned parallel to the runway, it can result in drifting or veering off course, making the landing unsafe. By ensuring that the directional motion and longitudinal axis are parallel to the runway, the pilot can safely touch down and maintain control of the aircraft.

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  • 15. 

    With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use:

    • A.

      Aileron pressure into the wind and initiate the lift-off at a normal airspeed in both tailwheel and nosewheel-type airplanes

    • B.

      Right rudder pressure, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both tricycle and conventional-gear airplanes

    • C.

      Rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional and nosewheel-type airplanes

    Correct Answer
    C. Rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional and nosewheel-type airplanes
    Explanation
    When taking off in a crosswind, it is important for the pilot to maintain directional control. This is achieved by using rudder as required to counteract the wind and keep the aircraft aligned with the runway. Additionally, aileron pressure into the wind helps to prevent the wind from lifting one wing and causing the aircraft to roll. Finally, a higher than normal lift-off airspeed is necessary to provide extra control and stability during the takeoff roll. These techniques apply to both conventional and nosewheel-type airplanes.

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  • 16. 

    While taxiing a light, high-wing airplane during strong quartering tailwinds, the aileron control should be positioned:

    • A.

      Neutral at all the time

    • B.

      Toward the direction from which the wind is blowing

    • C.

      Opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing

    Correct Answer
    C. Opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing
    Explanation
    When taxiing a light, high-wing airplane during strong quartering tailwinds, positioning the aileron control opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing is the correct answer. This is because the tailwind will tend to push the aircraft from the rear, causing it to weathervane or turn into the wind. By positioning the aileron control opposite the wind direction, it creates a slight resistance to the wind, helping to maintain a straight taxi path and prevent the aircraft from turning into the wind.

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  • 17. 

    Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.

    • A.

      Power, pitch, bank, and trim

    • B.

      Thrust, lift, turns, and glides

    • C.

      Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descent

    Correct Answer
    C. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descent
    Explanation
    The four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft are straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descent. These fundamentals are essential for controlling the aircraft's position and altitude. Straight-and-level flight refers to maintaining a constant altitude and heading. Turns involve changing the direction of the aircraft by banking it. Climbs involve increasing the altitude of the aircraft, while descent involves decreasing the altitude. Mastering these fundamentals is crucial for safe and efficient aircraft maneuvering.

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  • 18. 

    Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its

    • A.

      Center of gravity moves aft

    • B.

      Center of gravity moves forward

    • C.

      Elevator trim is adjusted nosedown

    Correct Answer
    A. Center of gravity moves aft
    Explanation
    When the center of gravity moves aft, it means that the weight of the aircraft is shifting towards the tail. This causes the nose of the aircraft to pitch up, making it more difficult to recover from a stall. In a stall, the airflow over the wings becomes disrupted, and the aircraft loses lift. To recover from a stall, the pilot needs to lower the nose and regain airflow over the wings. However, when the center of gravity is aft, the nose is already pitched up, making it harder to lower the nose and regain lift.

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  • 19. 

    Light beacons producing red flashes indicate:

    • A.

      End of runway at departure end

    • B.

      A pilot should remain clear of an airport traffic pattern and continue circling

    • C.

      Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation

    Correct Answer
    C. Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation
    Explanation
    Light beacons producing red flashes indicate obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation. These beacons are used to warn pilots about potential dangers such as tall buildings, towers, or other obstacles that could pose a risk to aircraft during flight. The red flashes serve as a visual cue to alert pilots to exercise caution and avoid these areas to ensure safe navigation in the airspace.

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  • 20. 

    Why should flight speeds above Vne be avoided?

    • A.

      Excessive induced drag will result in structural failure

    • B.

      Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered

    • C.

      Control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable

    Correct Answer
    B. Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered
    Explanation
    Flight speeds above Vne should be avoided because if gusts are encountered, it may result in exceeding the design limit load factors. This means that the aircraft may experience forces greater than what it was designed to withstand, potentially leading to structural failure or damage. Therefore, it is important to stay within the recommended speed limits to ensure the safety and integrity of the aircraft during flight.

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  • 21. 

    Which action is appropriate if a pilot becomes involved in hijacking?

    • A.

      Transmit code H on 121.5

    • B.

      Append the code PAPA to the aircraft call sign during all radio transmissions.

    • C.

      Set codes 7500 on the aircraft transponder.

    Correct Answer
    C. Set codes 7500 on the aircraft transponder.
    Explanation
    Setting codes 7500 on the aircraft transponder is the appropriate action if a pilot becomes involved in hijacking. Code 7500 is the internationally recognized transponder code for indicating a hijacking situation. By setting this code, the pilot alerts air traffic control and other aircraft to the emergency situation, allowing them to take appropriate actions to ensure the safety of the flight. Transmitting code H on 121.5 and appending the code PAPA to the aircraft call sign during radio transmissions are not appropriate actions for a hijacking situation.

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  • 22. 

    A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is:

    • A.

      Maintaining a safe airspeed.

    • B.

      Landing directly into the wind.

    • C.

      Turning back to the takeoff field.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintaining a safe airspeed.
    Explanation
    In the event of complete engine failure after takeoff, maintaining a safe airspeed is the most immediate and vital concern for a pilot. This is because the aircraft needs to maintain enough speed to generate lift and prevent stalling. Without engine power, the pilot must rely on the aircraft's momentum to maintain control and glide to a safe landing spot. Landing directly into the wind or turning back to the takeoff field may not be feasible or safe options depending on the altitude, terrain, and other factors. Therefore, maintaining a safe airspeed is crucial for a successful emergency landing.

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  • 23. 

    The pilot-in -command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when:

    • A.

      Climbing or descending to assigned altitudes.

    • B.

      Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in flight.

    • C.

      Requested to contact a new controlling facility.

    Correct Answer
    B. Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in flight.
    Explanation
    When operating an aircraft under IFR in controlled airspace, the pilot-in-command is required to report to ATC as soon as practical when experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment occurring in flight. This is important for the safety of the flight and to ensure that ATC is aware of any issues that may affect the aircraft's navigation or communication capabilities. Prompt reporting allows ATC to provide appropriate assistance or alternative instructions if needed.

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  • 24. 

    When an aircraft is rapidly accelerated in straight and level, such as take-off, what inhderent precession characteristics, if any will be displayed?

    • A.

      The miniature aircraft would indicate a descent.

    • B.

      The miniature aircraft would indicate a climb.

    • C.

      It depends on whether the altitude indicator is an electric or vacuum type.

    • D.

      No precession characteristic is evident unless a force.

    Correct Answer
    B. The miniature aircraft would indicate a climb.
    Explanation
    When an aircraft is rapidly accelerated in straight and level flight, the inherent precession characteristic that will be displayed is that the miniature aircraft on the attitude indicator would indicate a climb. This is because when the aircraft is accelerating, the nose of the aircraft will pitch up slightly, causing the attitude indicator to show a climb. This is a result of the inertia of the aircraft and the change in airflow over the wings during acceleration.

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  • 25. 

    In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flight crew is:

    • A.

      Not recommended because of excess time involved in its proper utilization.

    • B.

      Discouraged because of possible failure of the cockpit lightning system.

    • C.

      Required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures.

    Correct Answer
    C. Required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures." This means that according to regulations, the flight crew must use a cockpit check procedure in the event of an engine emergency. This requirement is in place to ensure that the crew does not solely rely on their memory when dealing with critical situations, but instead follows a standardized procedure to ensure safety and effectiveness in their response.

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  • 26. 

    Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence.

    • A.

      The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll.

    • B.

      The greatest vortex strength is produced when the generating airline is heavy, clean and fast.

    • C.

      Vortex generation begins with the initiation of the takeoff roll.

    Correct Answer
    A. The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll.
    Explanation
    Wake turbulence refers to the turbulence generated by an aircraft as it passes through the air. The primary hazard associated with wake turbulence is the induced roll, which can lead to loss of control of an aircraft. This is because the vortices created by the wings of an aircraft can cause a sudden roll in another aircraft that encounters them. Therefore, pilots need to be aware of the potential dangers of wake turbulence and take appropriate precautions to avoid it.

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  • 27. 

    When diverting to an alternate airport because of an emergency, pilots should:

    • A.

      Rely upon radio as the primary method of navigation.

    • B.

      Apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible.

    • C.

      Climb to a higher altitude because it will easier to identify checkpoints.

    Correct Answer
    B. Apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible.
    Explanation
    When diverting to an alternate airport because of an emergency, pilots should apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible. This is because during an emergency situation, time is of the essence and pilots need to quickly determine the best course of action to ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants. Relying solely on radio as the primary method of navigation may not be sufficient in such situations, as it may take longer to receive instructions and guidance from air traffic control. Climbing to a higher altitude is not necessary for identifying checkpoints, as pilots can use various navigation tools and instruments to determine their position.

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  • 28. 

    Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead at your altitude?

    • A.

      Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.

    • B.

      Make sure you are slightly above patch of the jet.

    • C.

      Make sure you are slightly below the patch of the jet and perpendicular to the course.

    Correct Answer
    B. Make sure you are slightly above patch of the jet.
    Explanation
    To avoid wake turbulence caused by a large jet crossing your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead at your altitude, you should make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet. This is because wake turbulence sinks below the flight path of an aircraft, so by flying slightly above the path, you can minimize the risk of encountering the turbulence.

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  • 29. 

    When receiving radar vectors, if an airplane is approaching on a collision course from your left, what action should you take?

    • A.

      Take whatever action is necessary to avoid collision.

    • B.

      Expect the other pilot to give way as required by regulations.

    • C.

      Wait until ATC issues a new heading altitude that will ensure adequate separation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Take whatever action is necessary to avoid collision.
    Explanation
    When receiving radar vectors, if an airplane is approaching on a collision course from your left, the correct action to take is to take whatever action is necessary to avoid collision. This means that the pilot should immediately maneuver the aircraft in a way that ensures separation and avoids a potential collision. It is important for pilots to prioritize safety and take proactive measures to prevent accidents in such situations.

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  • 30. 

    To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?

    • A.

      Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.

    • B.

      At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point.

    • C.

      Past the point where the jet touched down.

    Correct Answer
    C. Past the point where the jet touched down.
    Explanation
    To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft, it is recommended to become airborne past the point where the jet touched down. This is because wake turbulence is strongest behind the aircraft and dissipates gradually as it moves forward. By taking off past the point where the jet landed, you reduce the risk of encountering the turbulence and ensure a safe departure.

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  • 31. 

    During landing on a runway covered with water or slush which braking technique is most effective?

    • A.

      Refrain from using brakes because the wheels will lock and cause uncontrollable skidding.

    • B.

      Apply breaks firmly and immediately upon runway contact to establish a squeegee or drying action of the tires against the runway surface and use differential braking.

    • C.

      Apply moderate braking after wheels have had ample time to spin up. If a skid develops, release completely and apply moderate differential braking.

    Correct Answer
    C. Apply moderate braking after wheels have had ample time to spin up. If a skid develops, release completely and apply moderate differential braking.
  • 32. 

    How can you determine if another aircraft is on collision course with your aircraft?

    • A.

      There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

    • B.

      The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.

    • C.

      The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same print in space.

    Correct Answer
    A. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
    Explanation
    If there is no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft, it means that both aircraft are moving in the same direction and at the same speed. This suggests that there is a possibility of a collision course, as the two aircraft are not moving away from each other or changing their distance.

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  • 33. 

    What procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm activity?

    • A.

      Set power for recommended turbulence airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude.

    • B.

      The pilot should reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an area of known VFR conditions.

    • C.

      Reduce airspeed to manuevering speed and thereafter maintain a constant altitude.

    Correct Answer
    A. Set power for recommended turbulence airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude.
    Explanation
    If a pilot unintentionally penetrates embedded thunderstorm activity, the recommended procedure is to set power for recommended turbulence airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude. This means adjusting the power to the appropriate level for the aircraft's turbulence airspeed, which helps to minimize the effects of turbulence on the aircraft. Additionally, maintaining a level flight attitude helps to stabilize the aircraft and prevent it from entering dangerous flight conditions.

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  • 34. 

    Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions?

    • A.

      A power-on approach and power-on landing

    • B.

      A power-off approach and power-on landing

    • C.

      A power-on approach and power-off landing

    Correct Answer
    A. A power-on approach and power-on landing
    Explanation
    During gusty wind conditions, a power-on approach and power-on landing are recommended. This approach involves maintaining a higher power setting throughout the approach and landing, which helps to counteract the effects of gusty winds. By keeping the power on, the aircraft has more energy and control, allowing the pilot to better handle the variable wind conditions and make necessary adjustments. Additionally, a power-on landing helps to ensure a smoother touchdown and reduces the risk of a hard landing or loss of control.

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  • 35. 

    Pilots are required to have the anti-collision light system operating:

    • A.

      During all types of operation, both day and night

    • B.

      Anytime the pilot is in the cockpit

    • C.

      Anytime an engine is in operation

    Correct Answer
    A. During all types of operation, both day and night
    Explanation
    The anti-collision light system is required to be operating during all types of operation, both day and night. This is important for the safety of the aircraft and to alert other pilots and ground personnel of the aircraft's presence. The anti-collision lights help to increase visibility and reduce the risk of mid-air collisions. It is not necessary for the pilot to be in the cockpit or for an engine to be in operation for the anti-collision lights to be turned on.

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  • 36. 

    When taxiing during strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron position should be used?

    • A.

      Neutral

    • B.

      Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing

    • C.

      Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

    Correct Answer
    C. Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing
    Explanation
    When taxiing during strong quartering tailwinds, the correct aileron position to use is aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing. This is because the down aileron will create more lift on that side, helping to keep the wing down and prevent the wind from lifting it. This helps maintain control and stability during taxiing in strong tailwinds.

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  • 37. 

    If severe turbulence is encountered during flight, the pilot should reduce the airspeed to:

    • A.

      Minimum control speed

    • B.

      Design-maneuvering speed

    • C.

      Maximum structural cruising speed

    Correct Answer
    B. Design-maneuvering speed
    Explanation
    During severe turbulence, reducing the airspeed to the design-maneuvering speed is the correct action for the pilot to take. Design-maneuvering speed is the maximum speed at which the aircraft can be safely maneuvered without exceeding its structural limits. By reducing the airspeed to this level, the pilot ensures that the aircraft remains within its safe operating parameters and minimizes the risk of structural damage or loss of control. This allows for better stability and control during turbulent conditions.

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  • 38. 

    After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one of the primary considerations should include:

    • A.

      Turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for landing

    • B.

      Planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area

    • C.

      Maneuvering to, and landing on a lighted highway or road

    Correct Answer
    B. Planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area
    Explanation
    In the event of a powerplant failure at night, planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area is the primary consideration. This is because landing on a lighted highway or road may not be feasible or safe due to traffic and obstacles. By planning to land in an unlighted portion of an area, the pilot can minimize the risk of colliding with objects or other aircraft. Additionally, turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for landing may not be necessary or practical depending on the specific circumstances of the powerplant failure.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 12, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Rion Sigaya
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