Ppl - Aircraft General Knowledge

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| By Rion Sigaya
Rion Sigaya, 3D animator
Jan Michael 'Rion' Sigaya, a former 3D animator turned licensed pilot with a Flight Instructor (FI) license, adeptly navigated the skies before unforeseen pandemic challenges led him back to his roots in the world of 3D animation.
Quizzes Created: 17 | Total Attempts: 234,816
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Ppl - Aircraft General Knowledge - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    An airplane said to be inherently stable will:

    • A.

      Be difficult to stall.

    • B.

      Require less effort to control.

    • C.

      Not spin.

    Correct Answer
    B. Require less effort to control.
    Explanation
    An airplane that is inherently stable means that it naturally tends to maintain its desired flight path without much input from the pilot. This stability reduces the need for constant adjustments and corrections, resulting in the airplane requiring less effort to control.

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  • 2. 

    When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on;

    • A.

      118.0 and 118.8 MHz.

    • B.

      121.5 and 243.0 MHz.

    • C.

      123.0 and 119.0 MHz.

    Correct Answer
    B. 121.5 and 243.0 MHz.
    Explanation
    An emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on frequencies 121.5 and 243.0 MHz when activated. These frequencies are commonly used for emergency communications and are monitored by search and rescue authorities. By transmitting on these frequencies, the ELT increases the chances of being detected and located in case of an emergency situation.

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  • 3. 

    When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable):

    • A.

      After one-half the battery's useful life.

    • B.

      During each annual and 100-hour inspection.

    • C.

      Every 24 calendar months.

    Correct Answer
    A. After one-half the battery's useful life.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is after one-half the battery's useful life. The battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) must be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable) after it has reached half of its useful life. This ensures that the ELT remains operational and reliable in case of an emergency. Replacing or recharging the battery at this point helps to prevent any potential failures or malfunctions that could occur due to an aging battery. It is important to regularly maintain and replace the ELT battery to ensure its effectiveness and compliance with safety regulations.

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  • 4. 

    When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested;

    • A.

      Anytime.

    • B.

      At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour.

    • C.

      During the first 5 minutes after the hour.

    Correct Answer
    C. During the first 5 minutes after the hour.
    Explanation
    An emergency locator transmitter (ELT) may be tested during the first 5 minutes after the hour. This is because ELT testing can cause interference with air traffic control and other communication systems. By testing the ELT during the first 5 minutes after the hour, it allows for any potential interference to be minimized since most scheduled radio transmissions occur on the hour. This ensures that the testing does not disrupt important communication systems and maintains safety in the airspace.

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  • 5. 

    Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated:

    • A.

      Turn off the aircraft ELT after landing.

    • B.

      Ask the airport tower if they are receiving an ELT signal.

    • C.

      Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.

    Correct Answer
    C. Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.
    Explanation
    To ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated, it is recommended to monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown. This frequency is designated for emergency communications and distress signals, including those transmitted by ELTs. By monitoring this frequency, pilots can listen for any ELT signals and determine if the transmitter has been activated. This is a proactive measure to ensure the ELT is not inadvertently left on or activated during the flight, which can cause unnecessary search and rescue operations.

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  • 6. 

    A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant- speed propeller is to:

    • A.

      Avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.

    • B.

      Avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.

    • C.

      Always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.

    Correct Answer
    B. Avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM. This is because operating the engine at low RPM with high manifold pressure can cause excessive stress on the engine components, leading to potential damage or failure. It is important to maintain a balanced combination of RPM and manifold pressure to ensure smooth and efficient engine operation.

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  • 7. 

    How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller:

    • A.

      The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.

    • B.

      The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle.

    • C.

      The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output.

    Correct Answer
    A. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
    Explanation
    On an engine with a constant-speed propeller, the throttle adjusts the engine's power output, which is indicated on the manifold pressure gauge. The propeller control lever is used to set the desired engine RPM by adjusting the pitch of the propeller blades, allowing the engine to maintain a constant speed regardless of the power setting.

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  • 8. 

    Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should:

    • A.

      Check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.

    • B.

      Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.

    • C.

      Announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.

    Correct Answer
    B. Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
    Explanation
    Pilots should visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance before starting each maneuver. This is important to ensure that there are no other aircraft or obstacles in the vicinity that could pose a risk of collision. Checking altitude, airspeed, and heading indications is also important, but the primary focus should be on visually scanning the area to maintain situational awareness and prevent potential collisions. Announcing intentions on the nearest CTAF is not directly related to collision avoidance and is more relevant for communication with other pilots in the vicinity.

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  • 9. 

    With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of Aircraft:

    • A.

      Normal, utility, acrobatic.

    • B.

      Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.

    • C.

      Landplane, seaplane.

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal, utility, acrobatic.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is normal, utility, acrobatic. This is because these are the categories of aircraft certification. Normal category aircraft are intended for non-aerobatic operations, utility category aircraft are designed for limited aerobatic maneuvers, and acrobatic category aircraft are specifically built for unlimited aerobatic maneuvers.

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  • 10. 

    What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft:

    • A.

      Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.

    • B.

      A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.

    • C.

      An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

    Correct Answer
    C. An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is an appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required. This is because as the pilot in command of an aircraft, it is necessary to have a valid pilot certificate that allows you to operate the specific type of aircraft. Additionally, if the pilot is required to have a medical certificate based on their age or the type of flight operation, they must also have a current medical certificate in their possession. These documents are essential for ensuring that the pilot is qualified and medically fit to operate the aircraft safely.

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  • 11. 

    Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each Flight:

    • A.

      Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.

    • B.

      Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

    • C.

      Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

    Correct Answer
    B. Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
    Explanation
    The pilot is required to become familiar with all available information concerning the flight before each flight. This includes reviewing weather conditions, airspace restrictions, NOTAMs, and any other relevant information that may affect the flight. By doing so, the pilot can ensure that they have a comprehensive understanding of the flight environment and can make informed decisions to ensure the safety of the flight.

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  • 12. 

    In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to:

    • A.

      Review traffic control light signal procedures.

    • B.

      Check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).

    • C.

      Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

    Correct Answer
    C. Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.
    Explanation
    The pilot in command is required to determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data. This is important for flight planning and ensuring that the aircraft can safely take off and land at the chosen airports. By knowing the runway lengths and the aircraft's performance data, the pilot can calculate the required distances for takeoff and landing, taking into account factors such as runway conditions, aircraft weight, and weather conditions. This information is essential for ensuring the safety and efficiency of the flight.

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  • 13. 

    What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller:

    • A.

      Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.

    • B.

      Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.

    • C.

      Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.

    Correct Answer
    B. Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
    Explanation
    A constant-speed propeller allows the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance. This means that the pilot can adjust the propeller to optimize the engine's power output and fuel efficiency based on the current flight conditions. By selecting the most appropriate blade angle, the pilot can ensure that the propeller is operating at its most efficient level, resulting in better overall performance of the aircraft.

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  • 14. 

    Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include:

    • A.

      The designation of an alternate airport.

    • B.

      A study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use.

    • C.

      An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

    Correct Answer
    C. An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
    Explanation
    Preflight action for all flights, particularly those that move away from the vicinity of the initial airport, requires comprehensive planning that includes developing alternate courses of action in case the flight cannot proceed as initially planned. This includes considerations for unexpected weather, mechanical issues, or airspace restrictions that might necessitate changes during the flight. Such preparedness ensures safety and flexibility in responding to in-flight contingencies.

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  • 15. 

    Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.

    • A.

      Aircraft power, pitch, bank, and trim.

    • B.

      Starting, taxiing, takeoff, and landing.

    • C.

      Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

    Correct Answer
    C. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.
    Explanation
    The four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft are straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents. These fundamentals are essential for controlling the aircraft's altitude, direction, and speed during flight. Straight-and-level flight refers to maintaining a constant altitude and heading. Turns involve changing the direction of the aircraft by banking it. Climbs and descents are maneuvers used to change the aircraft's altitude. These flight fundamentals are crucial for safe and controlled maneuvering of an aircraft.

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  • 16. 

    With respect to the certification of aircraft, what are the classes of an aircraft based on propulsion, flight or landing?

    • A.

      Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.

    • B.

      Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.

    • C.

      Transport, restricted, provisional.

    Correct Answer
    A. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon." This answer refers to the different classes of aircraft based on their design and mode of operation. An airplane is a fixed-wing aircraft, a rotorcraft includes helicopters and other aircraft that use rotating wings for lift, a glider is an unpowered aircraft that relies on wind currents for flight, and a balloon is an aircraft that uses hot air or gas for lift. These categories encompass the main types of aircraft that are certified for operation.

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  • 17. 

    Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its:

    • A.

      Center of gravity moves forward.

    • B.

      Elevator trim is adjusted nosedown.

    • C.

      Center of gravity moves aft.

    Correct Answer
    C. Center of gravity moves aft.
    Explanation
    When the center of gravity moves aft, it means that the weight of the aircraft is shifted towards the tail. This causes the nose of the airplane to pitch up, increasing the angle of attack. In a stall, the angle of attack becomes too high and the airflow over the wings becomes disrupted, resulting in a loss of lift. When the center of gravity moves aft, it exacerbates this situation, making it more difficult for the pilot to recover from the stall by lowering the angle of attack and regaining lift.

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  • 18. 

    Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns?

    • A.

      The lowering of flaps increases the stall speed.

    • B.

      The raising of flaps increases the stall speed.

    • C.

      Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick.

    Correct Answer
    B. The raising of flaps increases the stall speed.
    Explanation
    When flaps are raised, the stall speed of an aircraft increases. Flaps are used to increase lift during takeoff and landing, but they also increase drag. By raising the flaps, the aircraft reduces its lift and drag, which results in a higher stall speed. This means that the aircraft needs to maintain a higher speed to avoid stalling when the flaps are raised.

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  • 19. 

    If an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range, it will tend to be unstable about its:

    • A.

      Vertical axis.

    • B.

      Lateral axis.

    • C.

      Longitudinal axis.

    Correct Answer
    B. Lateral axis.
    Explanation
    If an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range, it means that the center of gravity (CG) of the aircraft is shifted towards the rear. This will cause the airplane to be unstable about its lateral axis. The lateral axis is an imaginary line that runs from wingtip to wingtip, and any imbalance in weight distribution along this axis can lead to instability in the aircraft's roll motion. Therefore, loading the airplane to the rear of its CG range will make it more prone to rolling or tilting sideways, making the lateral axis the correct answer.

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  • 20. 

    What is one purpose of wing flaps?

    • A.

      To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.

    • B.

      To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls.

    • C.

      To decrease wing area to vary the lift.

    Correct Answer
    A. To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
    Explanation
    Wing flaps are used to increase the lift of an aircraft at lower speeds, allowing the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without having to increase the airspeed. By extending the flaps, the effective wing area is increased, generating more lift at slower speeds. This helps the pilot to safely descend at a steeper angle while maintaining control of the aircraft.

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  • 21. 

    One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to:

    • A.

      Decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed

    • B.

      Permit a touchdown at a higher airspeed.

    • C.

      Increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

    Correct Answer
    C. Increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
    Explanation
    Flaps are used during approach and landing to increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. By extending the flaps, the lift generated by the wings is increased, allowing the aircraft to maintain the same airspeed while descending at a steeper angle. This is beneficial for landing on shorter runways or in situations where a steeper descent is required. It allows the pilot to control the aircraft's descent path without the need to increase the airspeed, which could potentially lead to unsafe conditions.

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  • 22. 

    What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?

    • A.

      To control yaw.

    • B.

      To control over banking tendency.

    • C.

      To control roll.

    Correct Answer
    A. To control yaw.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the rudder on an airplane is to control yaw. Yaw refers to the side-to-side movement of the aircraft's nose. The rudder is located on the vertical stabilizer at the tail of the airplane and is used to generate a force that counteracts any yawing motion. By deflecting the rudder, the pilot can control the direction in which the nose of the aircraft points, helping to maintain stability and control during flight.

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  • 23. 

    When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?

    • A.

      During unaccelerated flight.

    • B.

      When the aircraft is accelerating.

    • C.

      When the aircraft is at rest on the ground.

    Correct Answer
    A. During unaccelerated flight.
    Explanation
    The four forces that act on an airplane are lift, weight, thrust, and drag. In order for these forces to be in equilibrium, the airplane must be in unaccelerated flight. This means that the airplane is not changing its speed or direction. When the forces are balanced, the lift generated by the wings is equal to the weight of the airplane, and the thrust provided by the engines is equal to the drag caused by air resistance. Therefore, during unaccelerated flight, the four forces are in equilibrium.

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  • 24. 

    The term “angle of attack” is defined as the angle?

    • A.

      Between the wing chord line and the relative wind.

    • B.

      Between the airplanes’ climb angle and the horizon.

    • C.

      Formed by longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord line of the wing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Between the wing chord line and the relative wind.
    Explanation
    The term "angle of attack" refers to the angle between the wing chord line and the relative wind. This angle is important in aerodynamics as it determines the lift and drag forces acting on the wing. By adjusting the angle of attack, pilots can control the amount of lift generated by the wings, which is crucial for maintaining the aircraft's altitude and maneuverability.

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  • 25. 

    The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will?

    • A.

      Increase if the CG is moved forward.

    • B.

      Change with an increase in gross weight.

    • C.

      Remain the same regardless of gross weight.

    Correct Answer
    C. Remain the same regardless of gross weight.
    Explanation
    The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls refers to the point where the airflow over the wing becomes disrupted and lift is greatly reduced. This angle is primarily determined by the shape and design of the wing, rather than the gross weight of the aircraft. Therefore, regardless of the gross weight, the angle of attack at which the wing stalls will remain the same.

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  • 26. 

    An airplane said to be inherently stable will:

    • A.

      Be difficult to stall.

    • B.

      Require less effort to control.

    • C.

      Not spin.

    Correct Answer
    B. Require less effort to control.
    Explanation
    An airplane that is inherently stable means that it has a natural tendency to return to its original state after being disturbed. This stability reduces the amount of effort required by the pilot to maintain control of the aircraft. In contrast, an unstable airplane would require constant adjustments and greater effort from the pilot to keep it under control. Therefore, the correct answer is that an inherently stable airplane will require less effort to control.

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  • 27. 

    What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

    • A.

      The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.

    • B.

      The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and the rudder trim.

    • C.

      The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.

    Correct Answer
    A. The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.
    Explanation
    The longitudinal stability of an airplane is determined by the location of the CG (center of gravity) with respect to the center of lift. If the CG is located ahead of the center of lift, the airplane will have a nose-heavy configuration, resulting in stable flight. On the other hand, if the CG is located behind the center of lift, the airplane will have a tail-heavy configuration, leading to unstable flight. Therefore, the correct answer is the location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.

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  • 28. 

    What causes and airplane (except T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted:

    • A.

      The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced.

    • B.

      The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.

    • C.

      When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support the weight.

    Correct Answer
    B. The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.
    Explanation
    When the power is reduced and the controls are not adjusted, the downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced. This reduction in downwash results in a decrease in elevator effectiveness. The elevator controls the pitch of the aircraft, so when its effectiveness is reduced, the aircraft tends to pitch nosedown. This is because the elevator is less able to generate the necessary lift to counteract the natural tendency of the aircraft to pitch down when power is reduced.

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  • 29. 

    When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?

    • A.

      When at low angles of attack.

    • B.

      When at high angles of attack

    • C.

      When at high airspeeds

    Correct Answer
    B. When at high angles of attack
    Explanation
    P-factor is the phenomenon in which the descending propeller blade generates more thrust than the ascending blade, causing a yawing moment to the left. This occurs when the airplane is at high angles of attack, as the relative wind is coming from below and the descending blade has a higher angle of attack compared to the ascending blade. At low angles of attack, the relative wind is more aligned with the propeller disc, minimizing the effect of P-factor. Similarly, at high airspeeds, the increased airflow over the blades reduces the impact of P-factor.

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  • 30. 

    What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?

    • A.

      The next higher octane aviation gas.

    • B.

      The next lower octane aviation gas.

    • C.

      Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.

    Correct Answer
    A. The next higher octane aviation gas.
    Explanation
    If the recommended octane fuel is not available for an aircraft, the next higher octane aviation gas can be used as a substitute. This is because higher octane fuels have a higher resistance to engine knocking, which can be detrimental to the performance and safety of the aircraft. Using a higher octane fuel ensures that the engine operates properly and efficiently.

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  • 31. 

    Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will?

    • A.

      Force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.

    • B.

      Prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

    • C.

      Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

    Correct Answer
    C. Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
    Explanation
    Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because it helps prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks. When there is airspace in the tanks, it creates a larger surface area for moisture to condense, which can lead to water contamination in the fuel. By filling the tanks completely, there is less airspace available for moisture to condense, reducing the risk of water contamination and potential engine damage.

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  • 32. 

    During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft in safe for flight?

    • A.

      The pilot-in-command.

    • B.

      The owner or operator

    • C.

      The certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. The pilot-in-command.
    Explanation
    The pilot-in-command is responsible for determining if the aircraft is safe for flight during the preflight inspection. As the person ultimately in charge of the flight, the pilot-in-command must ensure that all systems and components of the aircraft are in proper working order before taking off. This includes checking for any visible damage, ensuring all required documents and equipment are on board, and verifying that all necessary maintenance has been performed. The owner or operator may have a role in ensuring the overall airworthiness of the aircraft, but the pilot-in-command has the final responsibility for determining if it is safe to fly. The certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection may provide valuable input, but the ultimate decision lies with the pilot-in-command.

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  • 33. 

    Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found?

    • A.

      In the airworthiness Certificate.

    • B.

      In the current, FAA- approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings and placards, or any combination thereof

    • C.

      In the aircraft airframe air frame and engine and engine logbooks.

    Correct Answer
    B. In the current, FAA- approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings and placards, or any combination thereof
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that an aircraft's operating limitations may be found in the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings and placards, or any combination thereof. These sources provide important information about the aircraft's performance capabilities, weight and balance limits, and any other limitations that pilots need to be aware of in order to operate the aircraft safely.

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  • 34. 

    The airworthiness certificate, registration certificate, radio station license, operating limitations, including _______ must be onboard the aircraft prior to early flight:

    • A.

      Life jackets.

    • B.

      Weight and balance data.

    • C.

      Airframe and engine logbooks.

    Correct Answer
    B. Weight and balance data.
    Explanation
    The airworthiness certificate, registration certificate, radio station license, operating limitations, including weight and balance data, must be onboard the aircraft prior to early flight. Weight and balance data is crucial for ensuring the aircraft is properly loaded and balanced, which is essential for safe and efficient flight operations. This information helps pilots determine the maximum weight the aircraft can carry and the ideal distribution of that weight to maintain stability and control during flight.

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  • 35. 

    Preflight action require pilots to determine current weather reports, full requirements, alternate course of action, traffic delays, including __________________.:

    • A.

      Runway lengths at airports of intended use.

    • B.

      Any preventive maintenance done to the aircraft.

    • C.

      The schedule for aircraft inspection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Runway lengths at airports of intended use.
    Explanation
    The preflight action requires pilots to consider various factors before taking off, including runway lengths at airports of intended use. This is important because the length of the runway directly affects the aircraft's takeoff and landing performance. Pilots need to ensure that the runway is long enough to accommodate the aircraft's specific requirements, such as its weight, speed, and takeoff/landing distances. By considering the runway lengths at airports of intended use, pilots can make informed decisions about their flight plans and choose suitable airports that can safely accommodate their aircraft.

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  • 36. 

    The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to:

    • A.

      Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density

    • B.

      Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.

    • C.

      Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density.

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density
    Explanation
    At higher altitudes, the air density decreases, which means there is less oxygen available for combustion. In order to maintain the correct fuel/air ratio for efficient combustion, the fuel flow needs to be decreased. This ensures that the engine is not running too rich, which could lead to incomplete combustion and reduced performance. Therefore, decreasing the fuel flow compensates for the decreased air density at altitude.

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  • 37. 

    What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

    • A.

      Never-exceed speed

    • B.

      Maneuvering speed.

    • C.

      Turbulence or rough-air speed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Never-exceed speed
    Explanation
    The red line on an airspeed indicator represents the never-exceed speed. This is the maximum speed at which an aircraft should never exceed, as going beyond this speed could result in structural damage or failure. It serves as a safety limit to prevent the aircraft from being pushed beyond its design limits and ensures the pilot operates within safe parameters.

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  • 38. 

    An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would:

    • A.

      Probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lightning system, and avionics equipment.

    • B.

      Probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current

    • C.

      Experience avionics equipment failure.

    Correct Answer
    C. Experience avionics equipment failure.
    Explanation
    In the given scenario of an electrical system failure, it is likely that the avionics equipment would fail. Avionics equipment refers to the electronic systems used in aircraft, such as navigation instruments, communication systems, and flight management systems. Since the electrical system failure includes the battery and alternator, which are crucial components for powering the avionics equipment, it is reasonable to expect their failure in this situation. The other options mention specific failures like engine ignition system, fuel gauges, and radio equipment, but they do not encompass the entire range of avionics equipment that would be affected.

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  • 39. 

    Excessively high engine temperatures will:

    • A.

      Cause loss power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engines damage.

    • B.

      Cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.

    • C.

      Not appreciably affect engine.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cause loss power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engines damage.
    Explanation
    Excessively high engine temperatures can cause various negative effects. Loss of power occurs because the engine is not able to operate efficiently at higher temperatures. Excessive oil consumption may happen as the heat can break down the oil, leading to increased oil consumption. Possible permanent internal engine damage can occur due to the extreme heat, which can cause components to warp or fail. Therefore, the correct answer is that excessively high engine temperatures will cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

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  • 40. 

    What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

    • A.

      Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

    • B.

      Place the magneto origination switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.

    • C.

      Test each break and the parking brake.

    Correct Answer
    A. Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
    Explanation
    After starting an aircraft engine, the first action should be to adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges. This is important to ensure that the engine is running at the correct speed and that all the engine gauges are showing the expected readings. By doing this, the pilot can verify that the engine is functioning correctly and is ready for flight.

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  • 41. 

    The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is:

    • A.

      Magnetic deviation.

    • B.

      Magnetic variation.

    • C.

      Compass acceleration error.

    Correct Answer
    B. Magnetic variation.
    Explanation
    The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is referred to as magnetic variation. This variation occurs due to the movement of the Earth's magnetic poles, causing the magnetic north to deviate from the true north. It is important for navigational purposes to account for this difference in order to accurately determine direction using a compass. Magnetic deviation, on the other hand, refers to the error caused by local magnetic fields, while compass acceleration error is unrelated to the angular difference between true north and magnetic north.

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  • 42. 

    What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?

    • A.

      Reduce climb speed increase RPM.

    • B.

      Increase climb speed and increase RPM.

    • C.

      Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

    Correct Answer
    C. Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
    Explanation
    When an engine is overheating during a climb, reducing the rate of climb and increasing airspeed can aid in cooling the engine. By reducing the rate of climb, the engine is subjected to less stress and workload, which can help lower its temperature. Increasing airspeed improves the flow of air over the engine, enhancing the cooling process. These actions allow the engine to dissipate heat more effectively and prevent further overheating.

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  • 43. 

    What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?

    • A.

      Maneuvering speed

    • B.

      Never-exceed speed.

    • C.

      Maximum Structural cruising speed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maneuvering speed
    Explanation
    Maneuvering speed is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators. This speed represents the maximum speed at which the aircraft can be safely maneuvered without risking structural damage. It is typically indicated by a single white line on the airspeed indicator. Exceeding this speed can lead to structural failure or loss of control, making it crucial for pilots to be aware of and adhere to this limitation.

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  • 44. 

    What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?

    • A.

      The next lower octane aviation gas.

    • B.

      Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.

    • C.

      The next higher-octane aviation gas

    Correct Answer
    C. The next higher-octane aviation gas
    Explanation
    If the recommended octane fuel is not available for an aircraft, the next higher-octane aviation gas can be used as a substitute. This is because higher-octane fuel has a higher resistance to detonation, which is important for aircraft engines to prevent engine knocking or pinging. Using a lower-octane fuel could potentially cause engine damage or performance issues. Therefore, using the next higher-octane aviation gas ensures the proper functioning and safety of the aircraft.

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  • 45. 

    If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?

    • A.

      The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

    • B.

      The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and slip indicator.

    • C.

      The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and slip indicator.

    Correct Answer
    A. The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
    Explanation
    If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, it would affect the altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator. The pitot tube measures the dynamic pressure of the air to determine the airspeed, while the static vents measure the static pressure of the air to determine the altitude and vertical speed. If these instruments are unable to receive accurate pressure readings due to clogging, their readings would be affected.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 11, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 12, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Rion Sigaya
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