# Aeroplane ATPL Systems And Performance Test: Quiz

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If you are a member of the air force, you need to be conversant with the ATPL systems and monitor them and notice changes; how attentive have you been in your training so far? Do you feel confident enough to take this trivia on airplane ATPL systems and performance? Do give it a try, and keep on revising!

• 1.

### If X is the speed for max L/D, the speed you would fly at for best angle of climb is:

• A.

X

• B.

Greater than X

• C.

Less than X

• D.

1.32 times X

A. X
Explanation
The speed for maximum lift-to-drag ratio (L/D) is the most efficient speed for level flight. The best angle of climb, on the other hand, requires the maximum amount of altitude gain per unit of distance traveled. This is achieved by flying at a slower speed, which generates more lift and allows for a steeper climb angle. Therefore, the speed for the best angle of climb would be less than the speed for maximum L/D.

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• 2.

### A jet flying at the appropriate speed for max L/D will achieve the best performance for:

• A.

Angle of climb and endurance

• B.

Angle of climb and range

• C.

Rate of climb and range

• D.

Rate of climb and endurance

A. Angle of climb and endurance
Explanation
A jet flying at the appropriate speed for maximum lift-to-drag ratio (L/D) will achieve the best performance for angle of climb and endurance. This means that the aircraft will be able to climb at the steepest angle while also maintaining the longest possible flight time. The L/D ratio is a measure of the efficiency of the aircraft, and flying at the speed that maximizes this ratio allows for optimal performance in both climbing and endurance.

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• 3.

### Vmca of a twin-engine turboprop aircraft is determined on control after engine failure under a number of conditions, one of which is CG position which shall be:

• A.

Most forward

• B.

Most rearward

• C.

At the CP position

• D.

Mid range

B. Most rearward
Explanation
The CG position of a twin-engine turboprop aircraft during control after engine failure should be most rearward. This is because when an engine fails, the remaining engine generates more thrust, causing the aircraft to yaw towards the failed engine. Moving the CG position rearward helps counteract this yawing moment and improves the aircraft's stability and control during the single-engine operation.

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• 4.

### In a turbojet, the right engine fails after takeoff in IMC. The pilot maintains balance control of aircraft with rudder input and 5 degrees bank towards the live engine. The bank minimises -

• A.

The weight side force

• B.

The asymmetric thrust

• C.

The side slip force

• D.

The torque effect

C. The side slip force
Explanation
The pilot's decision to maintain a 5-degree bank towards the live engine helps minimize the side slip force. Side slip force is the force that acts on the aircraft when it is not flying straight and level, causing it to move sideways. By banking towards the live engine, the pilot is effectively reducing the angle between the aircraft's longitudinal axis and the direction of motion, thereby reducing the side slip force. This allows the pilot to maintain balance control of the aircraft despite the failure of the right engine.

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• 5.

### A control surface activated by a main control linkage with a hinge moment causing deflection of the primary control surface is called a -

• A.

Trim tab

• B.

Servo tab

• C.

• D.

Lagging tab

B. Servo tab
Explanation
A control surface activated by a main control linkage with a hinge moment causing deflection of the primary control surface is called a servo tab. A servo tab is a small control surface attached to the trailing edge of a larger control surface, such as an aileron or elevator. It moves in the opposite direction of the main control surface, helping to balance the forces and reduce the control forces required by the pilot.

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• 6.

### Stalling speed is relatively higher for an aircraft with wing sweep because of the effective —

• A.

Increase in chordwise airflow

• B.

Decrease in chordwise airflow

• C.

Decrease in spanwise airflow

• D.

Increase in spanwise airflow

B. Decrease in chordwise airflow
Explanation
An aircraft with wing sweep experiences a decrease in chordwise airflow. Wing sweep refers to the angle at which the wings are positioned backward from the fuselage. This configuration causes the air to flow more parallel to the wings rather than directly across them. As a result, the chordwise airflow, which is the airflow along the length of the wing, decreases. This decrease in chordwise airflow leads to a higher stalling speed for the aircraft. Stalling speed is the minimum speed at which the aircraft can maintain level flight, and it increases when there is a decrease in chordwise airflow.

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• 7.

### The system used in large aircraft to prevent over stressing of the trailing edge flaps is —

• A.

• B.

The flap lockout system

• C.

The flap asymmetry system

• D.

The flap brake

A. The flap load relief system
Explanation
The correct answer is the flap load relief system. This system is used in large aircraft to prevent over stressing of the trailing edge flaps. It works by automatically adjusting the flap position based on the aerodynamic loads experienced during flight, thus reducing the risk of damage or failure to the flaps. This system helps to ensure the safe and efficient operation of the aircraft's flaps.

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• 8.

### The purpose for a large commercial turbo jet aeroplane extending leading edge slats during approach is to increase -

• A.

CD by controlling chordwise airflow over the wings

• B.

CL by controlling chordwise airflow over the wings

• C.

CD by controlling spanwise airflow over the wings

• D.

CL by controlling spanwise airflow over the wings

B. CL by controlling chordwise airflow over the wings
Explanation
When a large commercial turbo jet airplane extends leading edge slats during approach, it is done to increase the coefficient of lift (CL) by controlling chordwise airflow over the wings. The leading edge slats create a slot between the wing and the slat, which allows high-pressure air from below the wing to flow over the top surface, delaying the onset of stall and increasing lift. By controlling the chordwise airflow, the slats help to generate more lift, allowing the airplane to maintain a safe and controlled approach.

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• 9.

### A typical flight control system uses 3 separate and independent hydraulic systems to power flight controls. All functions are normal. The systems which the pilot controls are powered from are —

• A.

All systems at all times

• B.

One system at a time

• C.

Two systems at all times

• D.

The system with the highest pressure

A. All systems at all times
Explanation
In a typical flight control system, all three separate and independent hydraulic systems are used to power flight controls. This means that all systems are active and providing power to the pilot-controlled functions at all times. This redundancy ensures that even if one or two systems fail, there will still be at least one system functioning properly to maintain control of the aircraft. Therefore, the pilot can rely on all systems simultaneously for powering the flight controls.

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• 10.

### In a supersonic airstream, the static pressure behind the expansion wave —

• A.

Decreases

• B.

Increases

• C.

Remains constant

A. Decreases
Explanation
In a supersonic airstream, the static pressure behind the expansion wave decreases. This is because the expansion wave causes the air particles to spread out, leading to a decrease in density. As the density decreases, the pressure also decreases according to the ideal gas law. Therefore, the static pressure behind the expansion wave decreases.

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• 11.

### The action of the turbine in the air cycle machine on pressure and temperature of bleed air supplied from engines is to:

• A.

Increase pressure and temperature

• B.

Decrease pressure and temperature

• C.

Decrease pressure, increase temperature

• D.

Increase pressure, decrease temperature

B. Decrease pressure and temperature
Explanation
The action of the turbine in the air cycle machine is to decrease the pressure and temperature of the bleed air supplied from the engines. This is because the turbine extracts energy from the air, causing a decrease in both pressure and temperature.

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• 12.

### In order to be able to provide the desired pressure schedule in aircraft, what ranges can the cabin pressure control system operate in:

• A.

Isobaric and differential ranges

• B.

Positive and differential ranges

• C.

Positive and negative ranges

• D.

Negative and differential ranges

A. Isobaric and differential ranges
Explanation
The cabin pressure control system in aircraft can operate in isobaric and differential ranges. Isobaric refers to maintaining a constant pressure inside the cabin, while differential refers to the ability to adjust the pressure difference between the cabin and the outside environment. This allows the system to provide the desired pressure schedule for the comfort and safety of the passengers and crew during flight.

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• 13.

### Modern airline aircraft have tubeless tires fitted with fusible alloy plugs. The function of the plug is:

• A.

An emergency plug for puncture inflicted on landing

• B.

For pressure relief during conditions of excessive tyre heat

• C.

As temperature cooling valve during conditions of excessive tyre heat

• D.

As an indicator of excessive hard braking during landing

B. For pressure relief during conditions of excessive tyre heat
Explanation
Tubeless tires fitted with fusible alloy plugs serve as a pressure relief mechanism during conditions of excessive tire heat. When the tire temperature rises to a dangerous level, the fusible alloy plug melts, allowing air to escape and relieving the pressure. This helps prevent the tire from bursting or causing further damage.

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• 14.

### The component in the hydraulic system which can prevent excessive hydraulic fluid loss is the:

• A.

Shuttle valve

• B.

Check valve

• C.

Pressure relief valve

• D.

Hydraulic fuse

D. Hydraulic fuse
Explanation
A hydraulic fuse is a component in a hydraulic system that is designed to prevent excessive hydraulic fluid loss. It acts as a safety device by automatically shutting off the flow of fluid if there is a sudden or significant loss of pressure in the system. This helps to prevent damage to the system and potential hazards caused by fluid leakage. Unlike other components listed, such as the shuttle valve, check valve, and pressure relief valve, a hydraulic fuse specifically focuses on preventing excessive fluid loss rather than regulating pressure or flow.

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• 15.

### Stator vanes in an axial flow compressor convert airstream velocity into pressure by use of —

• A.

Divergent passages

• B.

Axial force

• C.

Air foil sections

• D.

Convergent passages

A. Divergent passages
Explanation
Stator vanes in an axial flow compressor convert airstream velocity into pressure by using divergent passages. Divergent passages are designed to gradually increase the cross-sectional area of the airflow, which leads to a decrease in velocity and an increase in pressure. This conversion is essential for the efficient operation of the compressor, as it helps to maintain a steady flow of compressed air.

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• 16.

### It is necessary to use cross over tubes (interconnectors) in can and can—annu|ar combustion chamber systems to-

• A.

Equalise pressure and propagate fuel through all flame tubes

• B.

Equalise temperature and propagate fuel through all flame tubes

• C.

Equalise pressure and propagate combustion through all flame tubes

• D.

Equalise temperature and propagate flame through all flame tubes

C. Equalise pressure and propagate combustion through all flame tubes
Explanation
Cross over tubes, also known as interconnectors, are necessary in can and can-annular combustion chamber systems to equalize pressure and propagate combustion through all flame tubes. These tubes help ensure that the pressure is evenly distributed across all flame tubes, allowing for a consistent and efficient combustion process. Additionally, the interconnectors facilitate the flow of combustion products from one flame tube to another, ensuring that the combustion process is propagated throughout all flame tubes.

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• 17.

### In gas turbine engines, effective power in reverse thrust is less than fonzvard thrust for the same throttle angle because during reverse the

• A.

Exhaust gas discharge angle is aerodynamically limited

• B.

Engine is rpm limited

• C.

Turbine is not as effective due to building up of backpressure

• D.

Ingestion of exhaust gas causes loss of engine efficiency

A. Exhaust gas discharge angle is aerodynamically limited
Explanation
During reverse thrust, the exhaust gas discharge angle is aerodynamically limited. This means that the angle at which the exhaust gases are expelled from the engine is restricted due to the design of the engine and the surrounding aerodynamics. This limitation reduces the effectiveness of the reverse thrust compared to the forward thrust generated at the same throttle angle.

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• 18.

### The warning flags that appear on a conventional ADI may include:

• A.

Gs, gyro and comp

• B.

Gs, vor/loc and comp

• C.

Vor/loc, compass and comp

• D.

Gyro, compass and comp

A. Gs, gyro and comp
Explanation
The warning flags that appear on a conventional ADI may include gs (glideslope), gyro (gyroscope), and comp (compass). These warning flags are used to alert the pilot of any malfunctions or discrepancies in these specific instruments. The gs flag indicates a problem with the glideslope indicator, the gyro flag indicates a problem with the gyroscope, and the comp flag indicates a problem with the compass. These warning flags are important for the pilot to be aware of in order to ensure the accuracy and reliability of the instrument readings.

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• 19.

### The performance speed in a jet aircraft that is not controlled by the autothrottle is:

• A.

Vertical speed

• B.

Approach speed

• C.

Descent speed

• D.

Engine rotation speed

A. Vertical speed
Explanation
The performance speed in a jet aircraft that is not controlled by the autothrottle is referred to as the vertical speed. Vertical speed is the rate at which the aircraft is climbing or descending vertically. It is measured in feet per minute and is controlled by adjusting the aircraft's pitch. This speed is independent of other factors such as engine rotation speed or approach speed, which are related to different aspects of the aircraft's performance.

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• 20.

### The autopilot depends on devices to measure aircraft attitude changes so that info may be used to achieve controlled flight. Accelerometers assist in:

• A.

A coordinated turn

• B.

A set rate of climb and descent

• C.

Coordinated climb and descent

• D.

A level turn

B. A set rate of climb and descent
Explanation
Accelerometers are devices used to measure changes in the aircraft's attitude or acceleration. In the context of the autopilot system, accelerometers assist in achieving a set rate of climb and descent. This means that they provide information on the aircraft's vertical movement, allowing the autopilot to maintain a specific rate of ascent or descent during flight. By using this information, the autopilot can adjust the aircraft's controls to achieve a controlled and stable climb or descent.

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• 21.

• A.

Increase rate and angle of climb

• B.

Increase angle of climb

• C.

Increase rate of climb

• D.

Not change angle or rate of climb

B. Increase angle of climb
Explanation
An increase in headwind component during a steady climb will increase the angle of climb. This is because the headwind creates a resistance force that opposes the forward motion of the aircraft. As the headwind component increases, the resistance force also increases, causing the aircraft to pitch up and increase its angle of climb in order to maintain the same rate of climb. The rate of climb, however, remains unaffected by the increase in headwind component.

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• 22.

### In an aircraft without a digital data bus, the autopilot altitude information for altitude hold mode is taken from —

• A.

The captain’s altimeter

• B.

The co-pilot’s altimeter

• C.

• D.

The autopilot aneroid

D. The autopilot aneroid
Explanation
The autopilot aneroid is responsible for providing altitude information for altitude hold mode in an aircraft without a digital data bus.

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• 23.

### In a B767 with 3 autopilots, for a fail-operational autoland approach, the number of separate electrical systems required to power the autopilots are:

• A.

1 AC/ DC system

• B.

2 AC/DCÂ»systems

• C.

3 AC/ DC systems

• D.

4 AC/ DC systems

C. 3 AC/ DC systems
Explanation
For a fail-operational autoland approach, the autopilots in a B767 require 3 separate electrical systems to power them. This means that there are 3 independent sources of electrical power that are needed to ensure the autopilots can continue functioning in the event of a failure in one of the systems. Having multiple systems provides redundancy and increases the reliability of the autopilots during critical phases of flight, such as during an autoland approach.

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• 24.

### In a steady-state climb, the distribution of forces is:

• A.

Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag

• B.

Lift is greater than weight and thrust is greater than drag

• C.

Lift is less than weight and thrust is less than drag

• D.

Lift is less than weight and thrust is greater than drag

D. Lift is less than weight and thrust is greater than drag
Explanation
In a steady-state climb, the distribution of forces is such that lift is less than weight and thrust is greater than drag. This means that the upward force generated by the wings (lift) is not enough to completely counteract the downward force of gravity (weight), resulting in a net upward force. Additionally, the forward force generated by the engines (thrust) is greater than the opposing force of air resistance (drag), allowing the aircraft to maintain its forward motion while climbing.

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• 25.

### A typical EHSI displays heading and track information. If the Heading reference switch is selected on NORMAL, and the airplane is flying from Melbourne to Danzvin, the following EHSI mode which will NOT display magnetic track UP is:

• A.

Plan

• B.

Map

• C.

VOR

C. VOR
Explanation
When the Heading reference switch is selected on NORMAL, the EHSI will display the heading information based on the aircraft's compass. However, the VOR mode on the EHSI displays the magnetic track, which is different from the heading. Therefore, if the airplane is flying from Melbourne to Danzvin and the Heading reference switch is on NORMAL, the VOR mode on the EHSI will not display the magnetic track UP.

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• 26.

### A typical FMS incorporates two FMCs and two EHSIs. The pilots both have the MAP mode displayed on their respective EHSIs but have different range scales selected. The left FMC suddenly fails but the crew does NOT intervene with any manual corrective action. The following statement which is correct regarding the display on the left EHSI after the failure is

• A.

It will be totally blank

• B.

It will switch to the display currently existing on the right EHSI

• C.

It will be unaffected

• D.

It will display a MAP failure flag

D. It will display a MAP failure flag
Explanation
After the left FMC fails, the left EHSI will display a MAP failure flag. This indicates that there is a failure in the MAP mode display on the left EHSI. The flag serves as a warning to the pilots that the display is not functioning properly.

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• 27.

### Hot air for engine and nacelle anti-icing is normally obtained from the:

• A.

High pressure compressor stages

• B.

Low pressure compressor stages

• C.

Turbine outlet

• D.

Compressor outlet

B. Low pressure compressor stages
Explanation
The hot air for engine and nacelle anti-icing is normally obtained from the low-pressure compressor stages. This is because the low-pressure compressor stages provide air at a lower temperature and pressure, which is suitable for anti-icing purposes. Using air from the high-pressure compressor stages or turbine outlet would result in higher temperatures and pressures, which may not be ideal for anti-icing and could potentially cause damage to the engine or nacelle. The compressor outlet may also provide air at a higher temperature and pressure, making it less suitable for anti-icing.

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• 28.

• A.

Shorter charge time

• B.

Less Corrosive

• C.

Do not require venting

• D.

A. Shorter charge time
Explanation
NiCad batteries have a shorter charge time compared to lead-acid batteries. This means that NiCad batteries can be charged more quickly, allowing for a faster turnaround time. This advantage is beneficial in situations where a quick recharge is needed, such as in portable electronic devices or emergency power backup systems. Shorter charge time ensures that the batteries can be used again sooner, providing convenience and efficiency.

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• 29.

### An aircraft is fitted with a typical flight control system using three separate and independent hydraulic systems to power the primary flight control surfaces. If all components are functioning normally, the system(s) the pilot flight controls are powered from are —

• A.

Each pilot's flight controls are powered from a separate hydraulic system; the third system is on standby, cutting in automatically if one of the first two systems fail

• B.

Both pilot's flight controls are powered from a primary hydraulic system; the other two systems are on standby, cutting in automatically if the primary system fails

• C.

Both pilot's flight controls are powered from all three systems simultaneously

• D.

Both pilot's flight controls are powered from two main hydraulic systems simultaneously; the third system is on standby; cutting in automatically if any of the two main systems fail

C. Both pilot's flight controls are powered from all three systems simultaneously
Explanation
In this scenario, both pilot's flight controls are powered from all three hydraulic systems simultaneously. This means that even if one or two of the hydraulic systems fail, the flight controls will still have power from the remaining functioning systems. This redundancy ensures that the aircraft can maintain control and maneuverability even in the event of hydraulic system failures.

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• 30.

### The environmental effect which will increase VMCA in a multi-engine airplane is an increase in:

• A.

Temperature

• B.

Density

• C.

Pressure altitude

• D.

Aerodrome altitude

B. Density
Explanation
An increase in density will increase VMCA in a multi-engine airplane. VMCA, or minimum control speed in the air, is the minimum speed at which the pilot can maintain control of the aircraft with one engine inoperative. Density refers to the air density, which is the mass of air molecules per unit volume. As density increases, the air becomes thicker, resulting in increased drag and reduced lift. This requires the aircraft to generate more lift and thrust to maintain control, leading to an increase in VMCA.

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• 31.

### To achieve max angle of the climb to achieve obstacle clearance after takeoff a jet aircraft must climb at:

• A.

Minimum drag speed with zero flap

• B.

Minimum drag speed with takeoff flap

• C.

The minimum safe speed with zero flap

• D.

The minimum safe speed with takeoff flap

A. Minimum drag speed with zero flap
Explanation
To achieve the maximum angle of climb and ensure obstacle clearance after takeoff, a jet aircraft must climb at the minimum drag speed with zero flap. This is because the minimum drag speed allows the aircraft to maintain the highest possible climb rate, which is essential for clearing obstacles. The absence of flaps reduces the drag, further optimizing the climb performance. Using takeoff flap or compromising the safe speed may result in reduced climb performance and hinder obstacle clearance.

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• 32.

### A large jet transport aircraft is in cruise at high altitude with stabilizer trim set correctly for a relatively aft CofG, the position of the elevator would be:

• A.

Up

• B.

Down

• C.

Faired

• D.

C. Faired
Explanation
When the stabilizer trim is set correctly for a relatively aft Center of Gravity (CofG), the elevator position would be "faired." This means that the elevator is in a neutral position, neither up nor down. The correct trim setting ensures that the aircraft maintains its desired pitch attitude without the need for constant control input from the pilot.

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• 33.

### The Right engine fails after takeoff in IMC. With no corrective action the balance ball will:

• A.

Move left

• B.

Move right

• C.

Stay centered

• D.

Remain half a ball out to the right

A. Move left
Explanation
In the given scenario, if the right engine fails after takeoff in IMC (Instrument Meteorological Conditions), the balance ball will move left. This is because the failed engine will cause an imbalance in thrust, resulting in a yawing motion to the left. The balance ball, also known as the inclinometer or slip indicator, is designed to indicate any lateral imbalance or sideslip in the aircraft. Therefore, with the right engine failure, the ball will move left indicating the need for corrective action to maintain balance and control the aircraft.

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• 34.

### On the EADI, Brown and blue colors disappear because:

• A.

• B.

The screens are overheating

• C.

The power source has failed

• D.

The symbol generator has failed

B. The screens are overheating
Explanation
The correct answer is that the screens are overheating. When screens overheat, it can cause the colors to disappear, particularly brown and blue. This is because overheating can affect the display's ability to accurately reproduce certain colors.

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• 35.

### To achieve maximum endurance when holding, the ideal altitude should be -

• A.

As high as possible

• B.

As low as possible

• C.

Lower rather than higher

• D.

Higher rather than lower

D. Higher rather than lower
Explanation
To achieve maximum endurance when holding, it is ideal to fly at a higher altitude rather than a lower one. This is because flying at a higher altitude provides several advantages. Firstly, the air is thinner at higher altitudes, resulting in less drag on the aircraft, which allows it to maintain its speed more efficiently. Secondly, flying at a higher altitude can also help avoid other air traffic, reducing the chances of any potential conflicts or delays. Therefore, choosing a higher altitude when holding can help maximize endurance and efficiency during the holding procedure.

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• 36.

### An aircraft has 2 FMC's which the pilots access through 2 control display units (CDUs), the CDU's will NOT allow the pilot's to:

• A.

Simultaneously enter inputs to the FMC's subsystems

• B.

Enter the fuel on board and the required flight fuel reserves

• C.

Input the AUW and CG position

• D.

Change the original entered flight plan while in-flight

• E.

Specify ETA's for destination and enroute waypoints

E. Specify ETA's for destination and enroute waypoints
Explanation
The CDUs will not allow the pilots to specify ETA's for destination and enroute waypoints.

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• 37.

### In the normal automatic mode of the B767 pressurization system, the required inputs from the pilot preflight are:

• A.

Landing airfield elevation and cabin rate of change

• B.

Cabin altitude and cruise altitude

• C.

Required differential pressure and landing altitude

• D.

Cruise altitude and cabin rate of change

A. Landing airfield elevation and cabin rate of change
Explanation
The correct answer is landing airfield elevation and cabin rate of change. These inputs are necessary for the B767 pressurization system to maintain a safe and comfortable cabin environment during flight. The landing airfield elevation is important because it helps the system adjust the cabin altitude accordingly to prevent discomfort or health issues for the passengers and crew upon landing. The cabin rate of change is also crucial as it allows the system to regulate the rate at which the cabin altitude changes during ascent and descent, ensuring a smooth and gradual transition for the occupants.

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• 38.

### An increase in gross weight will cause the position of the total drag curve to move:

• A.

Up and left

• B.

Up and right

• C.

Down and left

• D.

Down and right

B. Up and right
Explanation
An increase in gross weight will cause the position of the total drag curve to move up and right. This means that as the weight of the object increases, the total drag force acting on it also increases. The object will experience more resistance to its motion and will require more power to overcome the increased drag. The up and right movement of the curve indicates that both the drag force and the speed of the object will increase with the increase in weight.

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• 39.

### The deployment of spoilers will cause the position of the total drag curve to move:

• A.

Up and left

• B.

Up and right

• C.

Down and left

• D.

Down and right

A. Up and left
Explanation
When spoilers are deployed, they disrupt the airflow over the wings, reducing the lift generated by the wings. This results in an increase in the overall drag of the aircraft. Moving the drag curve up indicates an increase in drag, while moving it to the left suggests a decrease in speed. Therefore, the correct answer is "up and left".

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• 40.

### The extension of landing gear will cause the position of the total drag curve to move:

• A.

Up and left

• B.

Up and right

• C.

Down and left

• D.

Down and right

A. Up and left
Explanation
When the landing gear is extended, it increases the overall drag of the aircraft. This means that the total drag curve will shift upwards, indicating a higher drag force acting on the aircraft. Additionally, the curve will shift to the left, indicating that the aircraft will experience more drag at lower airspeeds. Therefore, the correct answer is "up and left".

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• 41.

### The failure of the bleed valve to close in gas turbine engine after start will result in:

• A.

EGT rise

• B.

Compressor surge

• C.

Compressor stall

• D.

Thrust increase

A. EGT rise
Explanation
If the bleed valve fails to close in a gas turbine engine after start, it means that the engine is unable to regulate the flow of air and fuel properly. This can lead to an increase in exhaust gas temperature (EGT). When the bleed valve is open, it allows some of the high-pressure air from the compressor to be diverted, which helps in controlling the EGT. However, if the valve remains open, the EGT will rise beyond the desired limits, potentially causing damage to the engine. Therefore, the correct answer is EGT rise.

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• 42.

### More range will be achieved in a gas turbine-powered aircraft with:

• A.

1 kg of AVTUR

• B.

1L of AVTUR

• C.

Neither, the range is the same for both

• D.

Either, it depends on the temperature

A. 1 kg of AVTUR
Explanation
The range of a gas turbine-powered aircraft will be greater with 1 kg of AVTUR fuel compared to 1L of AVTUR fuel. This is because the weight of the fuel (1 kg) is a more accurate measure of the amount of fuel available for combustion, whereas the volume of the fuel (1L) can vary depending on the temperature and pressure conditions. Therefore, using 1 kg of AVTUR fuel will provide a more consistent and reliable measure of the fuel available for the aircraft, resulting in a greater range.

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• 43.

### Under normal pressurization what will the position of the outflow valve be from takeoff to cruise:

• A.

Fully closed until the desired cruise altitude is reached

• B.

Automatically controlled by the cabin pressure controller

• C.

Fully closed until the desired cabin altitude is reached

• D.

Pilot selects position with an outflow valve knob

B. Automatically controlled by the cabin pressure controller
Explanation
The outflow valve is responsible for regulating the cabin pressure. Under normal pressurization, the position of the outflow valve will be automatically controlled by the cabin pressure controller. This means that the controller will adjust the position of the outflow valve as needed to maintain the desired cabin pressure throughout the flight, from takeoff to cruise. The pilot does not manually select the position of the outflow valve using a knob.

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• 44.

### The high-pressure turbine on a turbofan, compared to a turbojet of the same thrust output would be:

• A.

Smaller because of the smaller mass airflow

• B.

Larger because of the larger mass air flow

• C.

Larger because of the smaller mass airflow

• D.

Smaller because of the large mass air flow

A. Smaller because of the smaller mass airflow
Explanation
The high-pressure turbine on a turbofan is smaller because of the smaller mass airflow. In a turbofan engine, a portion of the incoming air bypasses the combustion chamber and is directed around the engine core. This bypass air provides additional thrust and cools the engine. As a result, the mass airflow through the high-pressure turbine is smaller compared to a turbojet engine of the same thrust output, leading to a smaller turbine size.

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• 45.

### In large jet aircraft, aeration in the fuel lines is prevented by:

• A.

Engine-driven pumps

• B.

The hand pump

• C.

Boost pumps

• D.

The Accumulator

C. Boost pumps
Explanation
Boost pumps are used in large jet aircraft to prevent aeration in the fuel lines. These pumps provide an additional boost of pressure to ensure a continuous flow of fuel to the engine. By maintaining a steady flow of fuel, the boost pumps help prevent air from entering the fuel lines, which can cause disruptions in the fuel system and potentially lead to engine failure. Therefore, boost pumps play a crucial role in ensuring the proper functioning and safety of the aircraft's fuel system.

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• 46.

### In the event of a total hydraulic failure with nose wheel steering, the safety valves:

• A.

Centralise the nose wheel

• B.

Limit the amount of turn

• C.

Allow the nose wheel to swivel

• D.

Prevents nosewheel shimmy

C. Allow the nose wheel to swivel
Explanation
The safety valves allow the nose wheel to swivel in the event of a total hydraulic failure with nose wheel steering. This means that even without hydraulic power, the nose wheel can still move and turn, providing some level of control to the pilot. This is important for maintaining directional control during landing and taxiing, as well as preventing potential accidents or damage that could occur if the nose wheel was locked in place.

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• Current Version
• Mar 21, 2023
Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
• Oct 13, 2011
Quiz Created by
Zulunia

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