Airline Transport Pilot Licence Test

22 Questions | Total Attempts: 76

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Transportation Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What Privileges may be exercised by an ATPL pilot whose category 1 Medical Certificate expires?
    • A. 

      Commercial Pilot Privileges.

    • B. 

      Private Pilot Privileges.

    • C. 

      All flying privileges will be immediately suspended.

    • D. 

      Recreational Pilot Privileges.

  • 2. 
    With respect to Flight Duty Time extensions, who is permitted to extend the Flight Duty Day beyond the normal 14 hour maximum?
    • A. 

      The Operations Manager.

    • B. 

      The pilot in Command.

    • C. 

      The Cheif Pilot.

    • D. 

      The Duty Dispatcher.

  • 3. 
    At the completion of each Initial Ground Training phase provided by an Air Carrier, the proficiency of each pilot shall be determined by;
    • A. 

      A flight test.

    • B. 

      A simulator test.

    • C. 

      A written test.

    • D. 

      An oral test.

  • 4. 
    Each person on board the aircraft shall be wearing an 02 mask and using supplemental 02 for the duration of that portion of any flight which takes place at cabin pressure altitudes above;
    • A. 

      18,000 feet ASL

    • B. 

      15,000 feet ASL

    • C. 

      13,000 feet ASL

    • D. 

      12,000 feet ASL

  • 5. 
    The "Operator" of any aircraft is;
    • A. 

      The pilot in command

    • B. 

      The owner of the aircraft

    • C. 

      The person in possession of the aircraft

    • D. 

      The lessee of the aircraft

  • 6. 
    The number of entries from the previous Journey Log to be carried forward to become the first entries of a new Journey Log would be;
    • A. 

      A sufficient number of revevant entries to ensure some sort of meaningful continuity.

    • B. 

      The last 5 entries.

    • C. 

      The number of consecutive entries required to include the last maintenance action performed on the aircraft.

    • D. 

      The last page of entries.

  • 7. 
    A multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane that was manufactured after October 11th 1991, configured for 10 or more passengers and for which a minimum of 2 crew is required by the type  certificate, must have which of the following types of equipment aboard?
    • A. 

      Flight Data Recorder only.

    • B. 

      Cockpit Voice Recorder only.

    • C. 

      Flight Data Recorder and Cockpit Voice recorder.

    • D. 

      Flight Data Recorder and Enhanced GPWS.

  • 8. 
    When the altitude Alerting System of a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane, that requires such a device aboard is unserviceable, what type of flights are permitted if no MEL has been approved for this aircraft?
    • A. 

      Only flights that will operate in teh low level airspace structure.

    • B. 

      Only those flights that are designated as test flights, Pilot Proficiency Checks or training flights.

    • C. 

      Any flight that is restricted to day VFR conditions.

    • D. 

      Any flight crew training flights.

  • 9. 
    The farthest distance that a land aeroplane may operate from shore without having to carry a life preserver or flotation device for each person on board is;
    • A. 

      200 nm

    • B. 

      100 nm

    • C. 

      50 nm

    • D. 

      25 nm

  • 10. 
    A serviceable  transponder with automatic pressure-altitude reporting equipment is required by all aircraft that intend to operate within;
    • A. 

      The Canadian high level airspace.

    • B. 

      All Class A,B and C airspace as well as within any class D or E that has been specified as transponder airspace.

    • C. 

      Any controlled low level airspace above 9,500 feet ASL

    • D. 

      All Class B, C and D airspace and within any active Restricted airspace.

  • 11. 
    Pilots of IFR aircraft within controlled or uncontrolled high level airspace shall, unless otherwise instructed by ATC, adjust their transponder to reply on Mode A, Code:
    • A. 

      1000 and on Mode C

    • B. 

      1500 and on Mode C

    • C. 

      2000 and on Mode C

    • D. 

      3000 and on Mode C

  • 12. 
    The movemant area of an aerodrome includes;
    • A. 

      The manoeuvring area plus aprons.

    • B. 

      Only the taxiways and the ramp areas.

    • C. 

      All runways and taxiways but excludes any aprons.

    • D. 

      Only the aprons and any ramp surfaces used for engine run-ups.

  • 13. 
    Determination of the appropriate altitude for crusing flight in the Northern Domestic Airspace is based on teh aircrafts;
    • A. 

      Magnetic heading

    • B. 

      True heading.

    • C. 

      Mahnetic track.

    • D. 

      True track.

  • 14. 
    The base of the Arctic Control Area is;
    • A. 

      FL330

    • B. 

      FL290

    • C. 

      FL270

    • D. 

      FL230

  • 15. 
    All high level controlled airspace above FL600 within the Canadian Domestic Airspace structure has been designated;
    • A. 

      Class A

    • B. 

      Class G

    • C. 

      Class E

    • D. 

      Class F

  • 16. 
    Consider an airport with Class C control zome. What would be the status of this airport and it's control zome airspace classification when the tower is not operating?
    • A. 

      Controlled airport; Class E airspace.

    • B. 

      Controlled airport; Class D airspace.

    • C. 

      Uncontrolled airport; Class E airspace.

    • D. 

      Uncontrolled airport; Class G airspace.

  • 17. 
    Which of the following types of controlled airspacethat are based in the Low Level airspace can extend upwards into the High Level airspace structure?
    • A. 

      Victor Airways

    • B. 

      Control Area Extensions.

    • C. 

      Terminal Control Areas.

    • D. 

      Class C control zomes associated with Canada's major airports.

  • 18. 
    The Pilot of an IFR aircraft that is climbing during departure out of Edmonton International Airport is cleared to climb to and maintain FL270. In this case, the pilot should set the aircraft altimeter to standard pressure (29.92" og Hg) immediately;
    • A. 

      After level-off at FL270

    • B. 

      After climbing through 18,000 feet ASL

    • C. 

      Prior to reaching FL270

    • D. 

      Prior to reaching 18,000 feet ASL

  • 19. 
    The maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft at an assigned altitude of 14,000 ASL is;
    • A. 

      175 KIAS

    • B. 

      200 KIAS

    • C. 

      230 KIAS

    • D. 

      265 KIAS

  • 20. 
    With respect to the non-radar depature of a light aircraft from the threshold of teh same runway as a proceding medium aircraft, what spacing interval will ATC apply?
    • A. 

      A four minute interval

    • B. 

      A three minute interval

    • C. 

      A two minute interval

    • D. 

      No interval, but ATC will issue a wake turbulence advisory to the light aircraft.

  • 21. 
    The Touchdown Zome of the landing runway comprises whichever is teh lesser of;
    • A. 

      The first 3,500 feet or the first one-half of the runway.

    • B. 

      The first 3,000 feet or the first third of the runway.

    • C. 

      The first 2,000 feet or the first one-quarter of the runway.

    • D. 

      The first 1,000 feet or the first one-fifth of teh runway.

  • 22. 
    North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace (NAT MNPSA) exists over the North Atlantic between;
    • A. 

      FL180 and FL410

    • B. 

      FL275 and FL410

    • C. 

      FL230 and FL430

    • D. 

      FL285 and FL420

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