Airline Transport Pilot Licence Test

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Airline Transport Pilot Licence Test - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What Privileges may be exercised by an ATPL pilot whose category 1 Medical Certificate expires?

    • A.

      Commercial Pilot Privileges.

    • B.

      Private Pilot Privileges.

    • C.

      All flying privileges will be immediately suspended.

    • D.

      Recreational Pilot Privileges.

    Correct Answer
    B. Private Pilot Privileges.
    Explanation
    When an ATPL (Airline Transport Pilot License) pilot's category 1 Medical Certificate expires, they are still allowed to exercise their Private Pilot Privileges. This means that they can continue to fly as a private pilot, but they will not be able to exercise the privileges of a commercial pilot or any other higher-level privileges. The expiration of the category 1 Medical Certificate does not result in the immediate suspension of all flying privileges, but rather restricts the pilot to the privileges associated with a private pilot license.

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  • 2. 

    With respect to Flight Duty Time extensions, who is permitted to extend the Flight Duty Day beyond the normal 14 hour maximum?

    • A.

      The Operations Manager.

    • B.

      The pilot in Command.

    • C.

      The Cheif Pilot.

    • D.

      The Duty Dispatcher.

    Correct Answer
    C. The Cheif Pilot.
    Explanation
    The Chief Pilot is permitted to extend the Flight Duty Day beyond the normal 14 hour maximum. This is because the Chief Pilot is responsible for overseeing and managing all flight operations, including scheduling and ensuring compliance with regulations. They have the authority to make decisions regarding flight duty time extensions based on factors such as crew availability, operational requirements, and safety considerations.

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  • 3. 

    At the completion of each Initial Ground Training phase provided by an Air Carrier, the proficiency of each pilot shall be determined by;

    • A.

      A flight test.

    • B.

      A simulator test.

    • C.

      A written test.

    • D.

      An oral test.

    Correct Answer
    C. A written test.
    Explanation
    The proficiency of each pilot at the completion of each Initial Ground Training phase provided by an Air Carrier is determined by a written test. This test assesses the pilot's knowledge and understanding of the training material covered during the ground training phase. It tests their ability to recall information, apply concepts, and demonstrate their understanding of the subject matter. The written test ensures that pilots have a solid foundation of knowledge before moving on to the next phase of their training.

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  • 4. 

    Each person on board the aircraft shall be wearing an 02 mask and using supplemental 02 for the duration of that portion of any flight which takes place at cabin pressure altitudes above;

    • A.

      18,000 feet ASL

    • B.

      15,000 feet ASL

    • C.

      13,000 feet ASL

    • D.

      12,000 feet ASL

    Correct Answer
    C. 13,000 feet ASL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 13,000 feet ASL. At cabin pressure altitudes above 13,000 feet ASL, each person on board the aircraft is required to wear an O2 mask and use supplemental O2. This is necessary to ensure that individuals receive enough oxygen to maintain normal bodily functions at higher altitudes where the air is thinner and oxygen levels are lower.

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  • 5. 

    The "Operator" of any aircraft is;

    • A.

      The pilot in command

    • B.

      The owner of the aircraft

    • C.

      The person in possession of the aircraft

    • D.

      The lessee of the aircraft

    Correct Answer
    C. The person in possession of the aircraft
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the person in possession of the aircraft." This means that the individual who has physical control or custody of the aircraft at a given time is considered the operator. It may not necessarily be the pilot in command or the owner of the aircraft. The operator could be someone who is temporarily in possession of the aircraft, such as a renter or a borrower.

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  • 6. 

    The number of entries from the previous Journey Log to be carried forward to become the first entries of a new Journey Log would be;

    • A.

      A sufficient number of revevant entries to ensure some sort of meaningful continuity.

    • B.

      The last 5 entries.

    • C.

      The number of consecutive entries required to include the last maintenance action performed on the aircraft.

    • D.

      The last page of entries.

    Correct Answer
    A. A sufficient number of revevant entries to ensure some sort of meaningful continuity.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a sufficient number of relevant entries to ensure some sort of meaningful continuity. This means that the number of entries carried forward should be enough to maintain a logical sequence and provide a smooth transition between the previous and new journey logs. It ensures that important information is not lost and allows for proper tracking and documentation of the aircraft's maintenance history. The other options, such as the last 5 entries or the last maintenance action, may not necessarily guarantee meaningful continuity and could result in missing crucial information.

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  • 7. 

    A multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane that was manufactured after October 11th 1991, configured for 10 or more passengers and for which a minimum of 2 crew is required by the type  certificate, must have which of the following types of equipment aboard?

    • A.

      Flight Data Recorder only.

    • B.

      Cockpit Voice Recorder only.

    • C.

      Flight Data Recorder and Cockpit Voice recorder.

    • D.

      Flight Data Recorder and Enhanced GPWS.

    Correct Answer
    C. Flight Data Recorder and Cockpit Voice recorder.
    Explanation
    A multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane that was manufactured after October 11th 1991, configured for 10 or more passengers and for which a minimum of 2 crew is required by the type certificate, must have both Flight Data Recorder and Cockpit Voice recorder aboard. This is because these two equipment are crucial for recording and analyzing flight data and cockpit communications, which can be used for accident investigations and improving aviation safety.

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  • 8. 

    When the altitude Alerting System of a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane, that requires such a device aboard is unserviceable, what type of flights are permitted if no MEL has been approved for this aircraft?

    • A.

      Only flights that will operate in teh low level airspace structure.

    • B.

      Only those flights that are designated as test flights, Pilot Proficiency Checks or training flights.

    • C.

      Any flight that is restricted to day VFR conditions.

    • D.

      Any flight crew training flights.

    Correct Answer
    B. Only those flights that are designated as test flights, Pilot Proficiency Checks or training flights.
    Explanation
    If the altitude Alerting System of a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane is unserviceable and no MEL (Minimum Equipment List) has been approved for this aircraft, only flights that are designated as test flights, Pilot Proficiency Checks, or training flights are permitted. This means that regular commercial flights or flights operating in low level airspace structure or restricted to day VFR conditions are not allowed. The reason for this is that these specific flights require the altitude Alerting System to ensure the safety and proficiency of the flight crew.

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  • 9. 

    The farthest distance that a land aeroplane may operate from shore without having to carry a life preserver or flotation device for each person on board is;

    • A.

      200 nm

    • B.

      100 nm

    • C.

      50 nm

    • D.

      25 nm

    Correct Answer
    C. 50 nm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 50 nm. This is because according to international regulations, a land aeroplane is required to carry a life preserver or flotation device for each person on board if it is operating more than 50 nm from shore. Therefore, if the distance is less than or equal to 50 nm, the aeroplane does not need to carry these devices.

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  • 10. 

    A serviceable  transponder with automatic pressure-altitude reporting equipment is required by all aircraft that intend to operate within;

    • A.

      The Canadian high level airspace.

    • B.

      All Class A,B and C airspace as well as within any class D or E that has been specified as transponder airspace.

    • C.

      Any controlled low level airspace above 9,500 feet ASL

    • D.

      All Class B, C and D airspace and within any active Restricted airspace.

    Correct Answer
    B. All Class A,B and C airspace as well as within any class D or E that has been specified as transponder airspace.
    Explanation
    A serviceable transponder with automatic pressure-altitude reporting equipment is required by all aircraft that intend to operate within all Class A, B, and C airspace, as well as within any class D or E airspace that has been specified as transponder airspace. This means that any aircraft flying in these types of airspace must have a functioning transponder with the capability to report its altitude automatically. This requirement ensures proper communication and surveillance of aircraft in these controlled airspaces, enhancing safety and efficiency of air traffic control operations.

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  • 11. 

    Pilots of IFR aircraft within controlled or uncontrolled high level airspace shall, unless otherwise instructed by ATC, adjust their transponder to reply on Mode A, Code:

    • A.

      1000 and on Mode C

    • B.

      1500 and on Mode C

    • C.

      2000 and on Mode C

    • D.

      3000 and on Mode C

    Correct Answer
    C. 2000 and on Mode C
    Explanation
    Pilots of IFR aircraft within controlled or uncontrolled high level airspace are required to adjust their transponder to reply on Mode A, Code 2000 and on Mode C. This means that their transponder should be set to Mode A with a code of 2000, and also set to Mode C. Mode C allows the aircraft's altitude to be transmitted to air traffic control, which is important for maintaining separation between aircraft. Therefore, the correct answer is 2000 and on Mode C.

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  • 12. 

    The movemant area of an aerodrome includes;

    • A.

      The manoeuvring area plus aprons.

    • B.

      Only the taxiways and the ramp areas.

    • C.

      All runways and taxiways but excludes any aprons.

    • D.

      Only the aprons and any ramp surfaces used for engine run-ups.

    Correct Answer
    A. The manoeuvring area plus aprons.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the manoeuvring area plus aprons." The movement area of an aerodrome refers to the area where aircraft are allowed to move, and it includes both the manoeuvring area (which consists of runways and taxiways) and the aprons (which are the areas where aircraft are parked, loaded, and unloaded). This answer encompasses both components of the movement area, making it the correct choice.

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  • 13. 

    Determination of the appropriate altitude for crusing flight in the Northern Domestic Airspace is based on teh aircrafts;

    • A.

      Magnetic heading

    • B.

      True heading.

    • C.

      Mahnetic track.

    • D.

      True track.

    Correct Answer
    D. True track.
    Explanation
    The determination of the appropriate altitude for cruising flight in the Northern Domestic Airspace is based on the aircraft's true track. True track refers to the actual direction that the aircraft is moving over the ground, taking into account factors such as wind. By considering the true track, pilots can ensure that they maintain an appropriate altitude to avoid conflicts with other aircraft and to optimize their flight efficiency. Magnetic heading, true heading, and magnetic track are not directly related to determining the altitude for cruising flight in this context.

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  • 14. 

    The base of the Arctic Control Area is;

    • A.

      FL330

    • B.

      FL290

    • C.

      FL270

    • D.

      FL230

    Correct Answer
    C. FL270
    Explanation
    The base of the Arctic Control Area is FL270. This means that the lower limit of the controlled airspace in the Arctic region is at Flight Level 270. Flight levels are altitude measurements based on standard pressure settings, and FL270 represents an altitude of 27,000 feet above sea level. This specific altitude is likely determined based on factors such as aircraft performance, navigation capabilities, and airspace management requirements in the Arctic region.

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  • 15. 

    All high level controlled airspace above FL600 within the Canadian Domestic Airspace structure has been designated;

    • A.

      Class A

    • B.

      Class G

    • C.

      Class E

    • D.

      Class F

    Correct Answer
    C. Class E
    Explanation
    In the Canadian Domestic Airspace structure, all high level controlled airspace above FL600 has been designated as Class E. Class E airspace is typically controlled airspace that is not Class A, B, C, or D. It is used to separate IFR traffic from other IFR or VFR traffic and is generally found above Class D airspace. This designation ensures that there is proper control and separation of aircraft in this high-level airspace.

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  • 16. 

    Consider an airport with Class C control zome. What would be the status of this airport and it's control zome airspace classification when the tower is not operating?

    • A.

      Controlled airport; Class E airspace.

    • B.

      Controlled airport; Class D airspace.

    • C.

      Uncontrolled airport; Class E airspace.

    • D.

      Uncontrolled airport; Class G airspace.

    Correct Answer
    C. Uncontrolled airport; Class E airspace.
    Explanation
    When the tower of an airport with a Class C control zone is not operating, the airport is considered uncontrolled. The airspace classification in this scenario would be Class E. Class E airspace extends from the surface (or the base of the overlying controlled airspace) up to a certain altitude, and it is not controlled by air traffic control. Pilots are responsible for their own separation and must follow the applicable rules and regulations for operating in Class E airspace.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following types of controlled airspacethat are based in the Low Level airspace can extend upwards into the High Level airspace structure?

    • A.

      Victor Airways

    • B.

      Control Area Extensions.

    • C.

      Terminal Control Areas.

    • D.

      Class C control zomes associated with Canada's major airports.

    Correct Answer
    C. Terminal Control Areas.
    Explanation
    Terminal Control Areas (TCA) are a type of controlled airspace that can extend upwards into the High Level airspace structure. TCAs are typically established around busy airports to manage the flow of air traffic in and out of the airport. They have specific entry and exit procedures and are controlled by air traffic control. Victor Airways are airways that connect navigational aids and are typically located in the Low Level airspace. Control Area Extensions are areas that extend the boundaries of existing control areas. Class C control zones associated with Canada's major airports are specific types of controlled airspace but do not extend into the High Level airspace structure.

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  • 18. 

    The Pilot of an IFR aircraft that is climbing during departure out of Edmonton International Airport is cleared to climb to and maintain FL270. In this case, the pilot should set the aircraft altimeter to standard pressure (29.92" og Hg) immediately;

    • A.

      After level-off at FL270

    • B.

      After climbing through 18,000 feet ASL

    • C.

      Prior to reaching FL270

    • D.

      Prior to reaching 18,000 feet ASL

    Correct Answer
    B. After climbing through 18,000 feet ASL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is after climbing through 18,000 feet ASL. This is because when flying under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR), pilots are required to set their altimeters to the standard pressure (29.92" Hg) when they transition from the altitude-based system (where the altimeter is set to the local pressure) to the flight level system (where the altimeter is set to the standard pressure above 18,000 feet ASL). Therefore, the pilot should set the aircraft altimeter to standard pressure after climbing through 18,000 feet ASL.

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  • 19. 

    The maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft at an assigned altitude of 14,000 ASL is;

    • A.

      175 KIAS

    • B.

      200 KIAS

    • C.

      230 KIAS

    • D.

      265 KIAS

    Correct Answer
    C. 230 KIAS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 230 KIAS. The maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft at an assigned altitude of 14,000 ASL is 230 KIAS. This speed is determined by regulations and is designed to ensure safe and efficient operations during holding patterns. Holding at this speed allows for proper spacing between aircraft and helps maintain stability and control while in the holding pattern.

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  • 20. 

    With respect to the non-radar depature of a light aircraft from the threshold of teh same runway as a proceding medium aircraft, what spacing interval will ATC apply?

    • A.

      A four minute interval

    • B.

      A three minute interval

    • C.

      A two minute interval

    • D.

      No interval, but ATC will issue a wake turbulence advisory to the light aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    D. No interval, but ATC will issue a wake turbulence advisory to the light aircraft.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "no interval, but ATC will issue a wake turbulence advisory to the light aircraft." This means that ATC will not apply a specific spacing interval between the light aircraft and the medium aircraft, but they will provide a warning about the wake turbulence created by the medium aircraft. Wake turbulence refers to the disturbance in the air created by an aircraft's wings as it generates lift. It can be hazardous for smaller aircraft flying too close behind larger aircraft, so ATC will issue a warning to ensure the safety of the light aircraft.

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  • 21. 

    The Touchdown Zome of the landing runway comprises whichever is teh lesser of;

    • A.

      The first 3,500 feet or the first one-half of the runway.

    • B.

      The first 3,000 feet or the first third of the runway.

    • C.

      The first 2,000 feet or the first one-quarter of the runway.

    • D.

      The first 1,000 feet or the first one-fifth of teh runway.

    Correct Answer
    B. The first 3,000 feet or the first third of the runway.
    Explanation
    The Touchdown Zone of the landing runway is determined by the lesser of two options: the first 3,000 feet or the first third of the runway. This means that if the runway is shorter than 9,000 feet, the Touchdown Zone will be limited to the first 3,000 feet. However, if the runway is longer than 9,000 feet, the Touchdown Zone will be limited to the first third of the runway. This ensures that pilots have a designated area for landing and helps maintain safety during the landing process.

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  • 22. 

    North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace (NAT MNPSA) exists over the North Atlantic between;

    • A.

      FL180 and FL410

    • B.

      FL275 and FL410

    • C.

      FL230 and FL430

    • D.

      FL285 and FL420

    Correct Answer
    D. FL285 and FL420
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FL285 and FL420. The North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace (NAT MNPSA) is a designated airspace that exists over the North Atlantic between these flight levels. This airspace is established to ensure the safe and efficient operation of aircraft crossing the North Atlantic, and it requires specific navigation performance capabilities from aircraft operating within it.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 27, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 29, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Naden00
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