# Cessna 182 Handbook Exam

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| By CaptSpock
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CaptSpock
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Quizzes Created: 4 | Total Attempts: 1,418
Questions: 27 | Attempts: 313

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• 1.

### Maximum take-off mass is

• A.

1750 lbs (794kg)

• B.

2450 lbs (1111kg)

• C.

2800 lbs (1270kg)

• D.

4000 lbs (1814kg)

C. 2800 lbs (1270kg)
Explanation
The maximum take-off mass refers to the maximum weight at which an aircraft is allowed to take off. In this case, the correct answer is 2800 lbs (1270kg), which means that the aircraft can take off with a maximum weight of 2800 lbs or 1270kg.

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• 2.

### Service ceiling is

• A.

12 500 feet

• B.

15 900 feet

• C.

18 900 feet

• D.

19 500 feet

C. 18 900 feet
Explanation
The correct answer is 18,900 feet because the service ceiling refers to the maximum altitude at which an aircraft can operate efficiently. In this case, it means that the aircraft can reach a maximum altitude of 18,900 feet before its performance starts to decline.

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• 3.

### Empty mass (Standard aircraft)

• A.

1691 lbs (767 kg)

• B.

2100 lbs (953 kg)

• C.

1620 lbs (735kg)

• D.

2303 lbs (1045 kg)

C. 1620 lbs (735kg)
Explanation
The correct answer is 1620 lbs (735kg). This is the empty mass or weight of the standard aircraft.

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• 4.

### Maximum baggage mass

• A.

50 lbs

• B.

100 lbs

• C.

120 lbs

• D.

150 lbs

C. 120 lbs
Explanation
The maximum baggage mass allowed is 120 lbs. This means that passengers are not allowed to have bags that weigh more than 120 lbs when traveling.

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• 5.

### Maximum engine brake horse power at 2600 RPM

• A.

180hp

• B.

200hp

• C.

230hp

• D.

250hp

C. 230hp
Explanation
The maximum engine brake horsepower at 2600 RPM is 230hp.

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• 6.

• A.

55 mph

• B.

60 mph

• C.

65 mph

• D.

67 mph

B. 60 mph
• 7.

### To minimize engine wear manifold pressure and RPM should be reduced after take-off to

• A.

25 " and 2500 RPM

• B.

23” and 2450 RPM

• C.

21" and 2450 RPM

• D.

23" and 2500 RPM

B. 23” and 2450 RPM
Explanation
To minimize engine wear after take-off, it is recommended to reduce manifold pressure to 23 inches and RPM to 2450. This helps in reducing the stress on the engine and prolongs its lifespan. Lowering the manifold pressure reduces the amount of air and fuel mixture entering the engine, while reducing RPM decreases the rotational speed of the engine components. This combination of reduced manifold pressure and RPM helps in reducing the wear and tear on the engine, ensuring its longevity and efficient performance.

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• 8.

### Approach speed with full flaps

• A.

70 mph

• B.

80 mph

• C.

85 mph

• D.

90 mph

A. 70 mph
Explanation
The correct answer is 70 mph because when approaching a landing with full flaps, a slower speed is required to maintain lift and control. Full flaps increase the drag on the aircraft, which helps to slow it down. This slower speed allows for a safer and more controlled landing.

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• 9.

### Fuel capasity is

• A.

79 gallons usable and 2 gallons unusable

• B.

79 gallons usable and 1.5 gallons unusable

• C.

77 gallons usable and 1.5 gallons unusable

• D.

77 gallons usable and 2.0 gallons unusable

A. 79 gallons usable and 2 gallons unusable
Explanation
The correct answer is 79 gallons usable and 2 gallons unusable. This means that the fuel tank has a total capacity of 81 gallons, with 79 gallons being the amount of fuel that can be used and 2 gallons being the amount that cannot be used.

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• 10.

### Prolonged uncoordinated flight, such as slips or skids can cause engine stoppage

• A.

If fuel pump is not being operated

• B.

If there is less than 1/4 of fuel in the tanks

• C.

If there is less than 1/3 of fuel in the tanks

• D.

If fuel selector should be selected for either left or right tank

B. If there is less than 1/4 of fuel in the tanks
Explanation
If there is less than 1/4 of fuel in the tanks, prolonged uncoordinated flight such as slips or skids can cause engine stoppage. This is because when the fuel level is low, the fuel pump may not be able to draw enough fuel from the tanks to supply the engine. Without an adequate fuel supply, the engine may stop running, leading to engine stoppage. Therefore, it is important to ensure that there is sufficient fuel in the tanks to prevent this issue.

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• 11.

### Which is correct regarding the fuel system

• A.

Fuel from each wing taken is drawn by aid of fuel pump to a selector valve. From there it flows through a fuel strainer and carburetor to the engine manifold.

• B.

Fuel from each wing taken flows by gravity to a fuel strainer. From there it flows through a selector valve and carburetor to the engine induction system.

• C.

Fuel from each wing taken flows by gravity to a selector valve. From there it flows through a fuel strainer and carburetor to the engine manifold.

• D.

Fuel from each wing taken flows by gravity to a selector valve. From there it flows through a fuel strainer and carburetor to the engine induction system.

D. Fuel from each wing taken flows by gravity to a selector valve. From there it flows through a fuel strainer and carburetor to the engine induction system.
Explanation
The correct answer states that fuel from each wing flows by gravity to a selector valve. From there, it passes through a fuel strainer and carburetor before reaching the engine induction system. This explanation accurately describes the fuel flow process in an aircraft's fuel system, where fuel is drawn by gravity and passes through various components before reaching the engine induction system.

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• 12.

### Fuel tank selector must be selected for

• A.

Both tanks

• B.

The left tank

• C.

The right tank

• D.

The fullest tank

A. Both tanks
Explanation
The fuel tank selector must be selected for both tanks because it ensures that fuel is being drawn from both tanks simultaneously. This helps to maintain balance in the aircraft and prevents one tank from running out of fuel before the other. By selecting both tanks, the pilot ensures a continuous fuel supply and minimizes the risk of fuel imbalance, which could affect the stability and performance of the aircraft.

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• 13.

### Electrical system is

• A.

14 volt and storage battery is 12 volt

• B.

24 volt and storage battery is 22 volt

• C.

12 volt and storage battery is 14 volt

• D.

24 volt and storage battery is 20 volt

A. 14 volt and storage battery is 12 volt
Explanation
The electrical system typically operates at a higher voltage than the storage battery. This ensures that the battery can be charged efficiently and that the system has enough power to operate various electrical components. In this case, the correct answer is 14 volt and storage battery is 12 volt, indicating that the electrical system operates at 14 volts while the storage battery has a lower voltage of 12 volts.

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• 14.

### During engine start puffs of black smoke from the exhaust stack indicate

• A.

A too weak mixture

• B.

Water in the fuel

• C.

Worn piston rings

• D.

Over priming or flooding

D. Over priming or flooding
Explanation
During engine start, puffs of black smoke from the exhaust stack indicate over priming or flooding. This means that too much fuel has been introduced into the engine, resulting in an excessively rich fuel-air mixture. As a result, the combustion process is incomplete, leading to the production of black smoke. This can be caused by various factors such as excessive priming or flooding of the engine, which can occur when too much fuel is injected or when the carburetor is malfunctioning.

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• 15.

### During magneto check on the ground

• A.

RPM must drop but should not be more than 50 RPM

• B.

RPM should not drop more than 50 RPM

• C.

RPM must not increase more than 50 RPM

• D.

RPM must drop by 50 RPM

A. RPM must drop but should not be more than 50 RPM
Explanation
During a magneto check on the ground, it is expected that the RPM (revolutions per minute) of the engine will decrease. However, it is important that the drop in RPM does not exceed 50 RPM. This indicates that the magneto system is functioning properly and there are no issues with the ignition system. If the RPM drops by more than 50 RPM, it could indicate a problem with the magneto system that needs to be addressed.

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• 16.

60
• 17.

### Vy is (IAS in mph)

88
90
Explanation
The given answer, 88 and 90, represents the speed of Vy in mph. Vy is a term commonly used in aviation to refer to the best rate of climb speed for an aircraft. It is the speed at which the aircraft can gain the most altitude in a given amount of time. In this case, the correct answer suggests that Vy for the aircraft in question is either 88 mph or 90 mph.

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• 18.

### For short field take-off which of the following flap settings should be used

• A.

10°

• B.

20°

• C.

30°

• D.

40°

B. 20°
Explanation
For a short field take-off, it is recommended to use a flap setting of 20°. This is because a higher flap setting increases the lift generated by the wings, allowing the aircraft to achieve a steeper climb angle and clear obstacles more effectively. However, using a flap setting that is too high can increase drag and reduce the aircraft's performance. Therefore, 20° is often the optimal flap setting for a short field take-off, providing a good balance between lift and drag.

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• 19.

• A.

+4.4 to -1.52

• B.

+4.4 to –1.76

• C.

+3.8 to -1.76

• D.

+3.8 to -1.52

D. +3.8 to -1.52
Explanation
The correct answer is +3.8 to -1.52. This range represents the acceptable load factors, which are the maximum and minimum values that a structure or system can safely handle without failure. The positive value of 3.8 indicates the maximum load factor, while the negative value of -1.52 represents the minimum load factor. These values ensure that the structure or system can withstand the expected loads and maintain its integrity.

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• 20.

### Vne is (IAS in mph)

193
Explanation
The given answer is the same as the value of Vne, which stands for "never exceed speed" in aviation. Vne is the maximum speed at which an aircraft can safely operate, and exceeding this speed can lead to structural damage or loss of control. Therefore, 193 mph is the correct answer for Vne in this context.

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• 21.

### Vno is (IAS in mph)

160
Explanation
The given statement "Vno is (IAS in mph)" means that Vno refers to the indicated airspeed (IAS) in miles per hour. Therefore, the correct answer would be 160, indicating that the Vno speed is 160 miles per hour.

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• 22.

### Vfe is (IAS in mph)

110
Explanation
The given answer is 110 because Vfe is the maximum speed at which the aircraft's flaps can be extended safely. It is usually expressed in indicated airspeed (IAS) in miles per hour (mph). Therefore, the Vfe speed for this particular aircraft is 110 mph.

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• 23.

### Va is (IAS in mph)

128
Explanation
The given answer is 128 because the question states that "Va is (IAS in mph)" and there is no additional information provided. Therefore, we can assume that the value of Va is 128 mph based on the given information.

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• 24.

### Minimum oil quantity in quarts

9
Explanation
The minimum oil quantity required is 9 quarts. This means that in order for the system to function properly, at least 9 quarts of oil must be present. Any amount less than 9 quarts would not be sufficient and could potentially cause damage or malfunction.

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• 25.

64
• 26.

55
• 27.

### Vgl is (IAS in mph)

80

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• Current Version
• Mar 21, 2023
Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
• Apr 17, 2011
Quiz Created by
CaptSpock

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