B777 Low Visibilty Operation

34 Questions | Total Attempts: 161

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B777 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following system(s) must be operative for an automatic approach in Cat II condition?
    • A. 

      Two source of electrical power (the APU may not be used as a substitute for the left or right source)

    • B. 

      2 operation engines

    • C. 

      SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS EICAS message displayed

    • D. 

      LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated

  • 2. 
    What operating condition is required for category IIIa operations?
    • A. 

      Two engines operating for a flaps 20 landing.

    • B. 

      One engine operating for a flaps 20 or 30 landing.

    • C. 

      APU as the only source of electrical power

    • D. 

      Display of SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS, SGL SOURCE RAD ALT, SGL SOURCE ILS EICAS message

  • 3. 
    Which of the following system is required to be operative for a flight director (FD) approach in Cat II conditions?
    • A. 

      Normal flight controls

    • B. 

      Antiskid operative

    • C. 

      Autothrottle engaged

    • D. 

      Two autoland status annunciators

  • 4. 
    Which is not an element of a stabilized approach?
    • A. 

      Only small changes in heading/pitch are required to maintain the correct flight path.

    • B. 

      Indicated airspeed is not less than VREF or more than VREF+20 knots

    • C. 

      The airplane is in the correct landing configuration.

    • D. 

      Airplane sink rate is less than 1100 fpm.

  • 5. 
    What actions must a pilot take on a category IIIb approach when the AUTOTHROTTLE DISC EICAS message is displayed?
    • A. 

      Above the Alert Height, re-engaged the autothrottle and continue.

    • B. 

      Below the Alert Height execute a go-around if you do not have a visual reference established.

    • C. 

      During rollout discontinue use of reverse thrust.

    • D. 

      Below the Alert Height continue the approach using manual throttle control until you have a visual reference established or execute a go-around at minimums.

  • 6. 
    The EICAS message AUTOPILOT is displayed passing the Alert Height on a category IIIA approach and visual reference is not established, what should the pilot do?
    • A. 

      Continue the approach with autopilot disengaged.

    • B. 

      Re-engaged the autopilot and continue the approach.

    • C. 

      Execute an immediate manual go-around.

    • D. 

      Execute an immediate go around.

  • 7. 
    The GS will not capture before LOC capture when the localizer intercept angle exceeds what value?
    • A. 

      80 degrees

    • B. 

      90 degrees

    • C. 

      60 degrees

    • D. 

      120 degrees

  • 8. 
    Which of the following is correct during an ILS approach with TAC inoperative?
    • A. 

      Pilot rudder pedal pressure and rudder trim inputs are required to control yaw after 1500-foot radio altitude with localizer and glideslope capture.

    • B. 

      Roper trim includes a slideslip and the control wheel will not be centered.

    • C. 

      Rudder trim inputs are not effective in the LOC or ROLLOUT modes.

    • D. 

      Engaged autopilots control the yaw using the rudder before LAND 2 or LAND 3 are annunciated.

  • 9. 
    For straight in approaches, what is the 777 minima category ________?
    • A. 

      A (-200) B (-300)

    • B. 

      B (-200) C (-300)

    • C. 

      C (-200 & -300)

    • D. 

      C (-200) D(-300)

  • 10. 
    What weather conditions require ILS critical areas to be restricted from all vehicle or aircraft operation?
    • A. 

      Less than 800 foot ceiling and / or 2 miles visibility

    • B. 

      Less than 600 foot ceiling and / or 1.5 miles visibility

    • C. 

      Less than 1000 foot ceiling and / or 2 miles visibility

    • D. 

      Less than 200 foot ceiling and / or RVR 2,000

  • 11. 
    Cat II flight director approaches may be conducted with which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Using flight control Secondary operation

    • B. 

      With SGL SOURCE RAD ALT EICAS message displayed.

    • C. 

      During SAARU only operation

    • D. 

      With SGL SOURCE F/D EICAS message not displayed

  • 12. 
    The GS will not capture before LOC capture when the localizer intercept angle exceeds what value?
    • A. 

      80 degrees

    • B. 

      90 degrees

    • C. 

      It can not capture without LOC already captured.

    • D. 

      120 degrees

  • 13. 
    What does the EICAS message NO LAND 3 indicate when FLARE and ROLL OUT are armed and displayed on the FMA?
    • A. 

      The autopilot disconnect switch has been pushed.

    • B. 

      The autopilot is inoperative and a manual landing is required

    • C. 

      The autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland.

    • D. 

      NO LAND 3 means the airplane is more than 3 miles from landing.

  • 14. 
    Which statement is not correct concerning the rollout mode?
    • A. 

      Rollout is armed below 1500 feet RA.

    • B. 

      ROLLOUT replaces the FLARE mode annunciation.

    • C. 

      Rollout guidance continues until the autopilots are disengaged.

    • D. 

      The rollout mode engages below 2 feet RA.

  • 15. 
    Which statement is not correct concerning the flare mode?
    • A. 

      Flare engages between 60 and 40 feet RA.

    • B. 

      The PFD autothrottle annunciation changed from SPD to IDLE.

    • C. 

      Between 25 and 50 feet RA the autothrottle begins retarding the thrust levers to idle.

    • D. 

      Flare commands can be used during a Flight Director approach and landing.

  • 16. 
    Which statement is correct concerning the AFDS status annunciation?
    • A. 

      Below 200 feet it can change from LAND 3 to LAND 2

    • B. 

      Below 500 feet, changes in autoland status are inhibited.

    • C. 

      Below 200 feet, changes in autoland status are inhibited other than a transition to NO AUTOLAND.

  • 17. 
    Which statement is correct concerning an automatic approach in Cat II conditions?
    • A. 

      2 engines must be operating

    • B. 

      EICAS message SGL SOURCE DISPLAY must not be displayed and LAND 3 or LAND 2 is annunciated.

    • C. 

      Minimums must be referenced to radio altitude.

    • D. 

      LAND 3 must be annunciated.

  • 18. 
    The 777 is certified for category III a operations and requires all but which of the following for an autoland approach?
    • A. 

      The autothrottle engaged.

    • B. 

      Two autoland status annunciators

    • C. 

      LAND 3 or LAND 4 annunciated.

    • D. 

      SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS, SGL SOURCE RAD ALT, SGL SOURCE ILS EICAS messages not displayed.

  • 19. 
    What action must the pilot take when the EICAS message AUTOPILOT is displayed below 500 feet RA on a category III approach?
    • A. 

      Continue the approach with the autopilot disengaged.

    • B. 

      Re-engaged the autopilot and continue the approach. The autothrotlle engaged.

    • C. 

      Continue the approach to minimums and go-around

    • D. 

      Execute a go-around

  • 20. 
    Which one of the following statements is required for an automatic approach in category II conditions?
    • A. 

      Two sources of electrical power operating (the APU may not be used as a substitute for the left or right source).

    • B. 

      Two operating engines are required.

    • C. 

      SGL SOURCE IS – EICAS message is not displayed.

    • D. 

      LAND 3 or LAND 2 does not have to be annunciated, only LAND1.

  • 21. 
    What equipment must be operating for category IIIa operations?
    • A. 

      LAND 3 status is annunciated only on the Captain’s PFD.

    • B. 

      Two hydraulic systems must be operating normally.

    • C. 

      APU is operating.

    • D. 

      LAND 2 status is annunciated on both PFD’s.

  • 22. 
    In Order to be stabilized, an additional constraint placed on category II approaches is:
    • A. 

      The ILS approach is flown within the expanded localizer band.

    • B. 

      The vertical speed is within 200 feet per minute of the published value.

    • C. 

      Heading changes do not exceed 5 degrees of the approach course.

    • D. 

      The glideslope is flown within a quarter dot.

  • 23. 
    When must an immediate missed approach must be executed?
    • A. 

      When on an ILS approach and radio communication is lost.

    • B. 

      When a navigation radio or flight instrument failure occurs which affects the ability to safely complete the approach in instrument conditions.

    • C. 

      When the navigation instruments show significant disagreement, but visual contact with the runway is made.

    • D. 

      When on an ILS approach, the localizer shows half scale deflection.

  • 24. 
    Which of the following systems is required to be operative for flight director (FD) approach in category II   conditions?
    • A. 

      FTCM/Holding, approach a Center and Right hydraulic system are operating normally.

    • B. 

      Antiskids is operative

    • C. 

      Autothrottle is engaged.

    • D. 

      ADIRU is operating.

  • 25. 
    Which of the following equipment is not required to be operational for an autopilot approach in category III conditions using autoland?
    • A. 

      EICAS message SGLSOURCE ILS is not displayed.

    • B. 

      Both engines are operating.

    • C. 

      EICAS message SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS is not displayed.

    • D. 

      An FMA is displayed for each pilot.

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