AHS 305 - Lectures 5-9

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  • 1/57 Questions

    What is the functional unit of the kidney?

    • Nephron
    • Glomerulus
    • Bowman's Capsule
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About This Quiz


Hemostasis, Clinical Enzymology, Electrolytes, Calcium/Phosphorus/Magnesium, Glucose, Urinary System

AHS 305 - Lectures 5-9 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Vasoconstriction ________ blood pressure, as does sodium and water retention.

    • Decreases

    • Increases

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases
    Explanation
    Vasoconstriction refers to the narrowing of blood vessels, which leads to an increase in blood pressure. This is because when the blood vessels constrict, the space for blood flow decreases, causing an increase in pressure within the vessels. Additionally, sodium and water retention can also contribute to an increase in blood pressure as the excess fluid volume leads to increased pressure on the vessel walls. Therefore, both vasoconstriction and sodium and water retention can increase blood pressure.

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  • 3. 

    Antidiuretic hormone is secreted by the ________ to cause reabsorption of H2O in the distal tubule

    • Pituitary glands

    • Thyroid

    • Pancreas

    • Adrenal glands

    Correct Answer
    A. Pituitary glands
    Explanation
    Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted by the pituitary glands to cause reabsorption of water in the distal tubule. The pituitary glands are responsible for regulating various hormones in the body, including ADH. ADH acts on the kidneys to increase water reabsorption, reducing the amount of urine produced and helping to maintain water balance in the body. The secretion of ADH is controlled by the hypothalamus in response to changes in blood osmolality and blood volume.

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  • 4. 

    Renin stimulates the formation of _________

    • Angiotensinogen

    • Aldosterone

    • Cortisol

    • Angiotensin II

    Correct Answer
    A. Angiotensinogen
    Explanation
    Renin stimulates the formation of Angiotensinogen. Renin is an enzyme produced by the kidneys that acts on angiotensinogen, a protein produced by the liver, to convert it into angiotensin I. This is the first step in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. Angiotensinogen is then further converted into angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor, by the action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE).

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  • 5. 

    An increase in Angiotenstionegen will ___________production of Aldosterone from the adrenals, thus __________ the retention of sodium and water.

    • Increase, increasing

    • Decrease, decreasing

    • Increase, decreasing

    • Decrease, increasing

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase, increasing
    Explanation
    An increase in Angiotensinogen will stimulate the production of Aldosterone from the adrenals, thus promoting the retention of sodium and water.

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  • 6. 

    Elevations of _________ are usd as an estimate of GFR.

    Correct Answer
    urea
    Explanation
    Urea is used as an estimate of GFR because it is freely filtered by the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed or secreted by the renal tubules. This means that the amount of urea excreted in the urine is directly proportional to the GFR. Therefore, measuring the concentration of urea in the blood can provide an estimate of GFR.

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  • 7. 

    Pre-renal azotemia expected USG

    • > 1.030

    • 1.007-1.013

    • 1.001-1.008

    Correct Answer
    A. > 1.030
    Explanation
    The expected urine specific gravity (USG) for pre-renal azotemia is greater than 1.030. Pre-renal azotemia refers to a condition where there is a decrease in blood flow to the kidneys, leading to impaired kidney function. In this condition, the kidneys conserve water and concentrate the urine, resulting in a higher USG. A USG greater than 1.030 indicates concentrated urine, which is a characteristic feature of pre-renal azotemia.

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  • 8. 

    In the glomerulus, the 25% of plasma that is removed from the blood each minute is toxin-ridden and will be removed and excreted in the urine.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Most of the 25%will be reabsorbed.

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  • 9. 

    Renal azotemia expected USG

    • >1.030

    • 1.007-1.013

    • 1.001-1.008

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.007-1.013
    Explanation
    The expected USG for renal azotemia falls within the range of 1.007-1.013. This indicates that the kidneys are not properly concentrating urine, leading to a low specific gravity. Renal azotemia is a condition where there is a buildup of nitrogenous waste products in the blood due to impaired kidney function. The low specific gravity suggests that the kidneys are unable to effectively reabsorb water and concentrate urine, resulting in the excretion of dilute urine.

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  • 10. 

    Azotemia with appropriately concentrated urine

    • Prerenal

    • Renal

    • Postrenal

    Correct Answer
    A. Prerenal
    Explanation
    Prerenal azotemia refers to a condition where there is a decrease in blood flow to the kidneys, leading to impaired kidney function. This can be caused by factors such as dehydration, low blood volume, or decreased cardiac output. In this condition, the kidneys are still able to concentrate urine appropriately, meaning that the urine is concentrated despite the decrease in blood flow. This is in contrast to renal azotemia, where the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine due to intrinsic kidney damage, and postrenal azotemia, where there is obstruction of the urinary tract preventing urine flow.

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  • 11. 

    Direct damage to kidneys by inflammation, toxins, drugs, infection, or reduced blood supply

    • Prerenal

    • Renal

    • Postrenal

    Correct Answer
    A. Renal
    Explanation
    Renal refers to direct damage to the kidneys. This can be caused by various factors such as inflammation, toxins, drugs, infection, or reduced blood supply. Unlike prerenal and postrenal causes, which refer to issues occurring before or after the kidneys, renal damage specifically indicates damage to the kidneys themselves.

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  • 12. 

    Sudden obstruction of urine flow due to enlarged prostate, kidney stones, bladder tumor, or injury

    • Prerenal

    • Renal

    • Postrenal

    Correct Answer
    A. Postrenal
    Explanation
    Postrenal refers to conditions or factors that occur after the urine is formed in the kidneys. In this case, sudden obstruction of urine flow can occur due to various reasons such as an enlarged prostate, kidney stones, bladder tumor, or injury. These conditions can block the passage of urine from the kidneys to the bladder, leading to a sudden obstruction of urine flow. This can cause symptoms such as difficulty urinating, pain, and potentially kidney damage if not treated promptly.

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  • 13. 

    A good estimate of GFR is the __________ Clearance Test.

    • Glucose

    • Creatinine

    • Protein

    • Urea

    Correct Answer
    A. Creatinine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Creatinine. A good estimate of GFR (glomerular filtration rate) can be obtained through the Creatinine Clearance Test. This test measures the amount of creatinine (a waste product produced by muscles) in the blood and urine. Since creatinine is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys, the rate at which it is cleared from the body can provide an estimate of the kidney's filtration function. Therefore, the Creatinine Clearance Test is commonly used to assess kidney function and estimate GFR.

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  • 14. 

    Chronic renal insufficiency 

    • GFR 20-50% of normal function

    • GFR 20-25% of normal function

    • GFR

    Correct Answer
    A. GFR 20-50% of normal function
    Explanation
    This answer suggests that chronic renal insufficiency is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) that is 20-50% of normal function. The GFR is a measure of how well the kidneys are filtering waste from the blood. Therefore, a GFR of 20-50% indicates that the kidneys are functioning at a reduced capacity, but still able to filter some waste.

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  • 15. 

    Chronic renal failure

    • 20-50% of normal function

    • 20-25% of normal function

    Correct Answer
    A. 20-25% of normal function
    Explanation
    Chronic renal failure refers to the gradual and irreversible loss of kidney function over time. The answer choice "20-25% of normal function" indicates that the individual with chronic renal failure has only a small percentage of their kidneys' normal functioning capacity remaining. This suggests that their kidneys are significantly impaired and unable to effectively filter waste and toxins from the blood, leading to various complications and symptoms associated with kidney failure.

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  • 16. 

    End-stage renal disease

    • 20-50% of normal function

    • 20-25% of normal function

    Correct Answer
    A.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "End-stage renal disease." This condition occurs when the kidneys have lost nearly all of their function, typically less than 10% of normal. It is the final stage of chronic kidney disease and requires treatment such as dialysis or a kidney transplant to maintain life.

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  • 17. 

    In end stage renal failure, _______ is usually decreased and ___________ is elevated.

    • Calcium, phosphorous

    • Phosphorous, calcium

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium, phosphorous
    Explanation
    In end stage renal failure, calcium levels are usually decreased and phosphorous levels are elevated. This is because the kidneys are responsible for regulating the levels of these minerals in the body. When the kidneys are not functioning properly, they are unable to remove phosphorous from the blood, leading to an increase in its levels. At the same time, the kidneys are unable to activate vitamin D, which is necessary for the absorption of calcium from the intestines. This results in decreased calcium levels in the blood.

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  • 18. 

    Diabetes insipidus is associated with a lack of ADH secretions from the pituitary gland.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Diabetes insipidus is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination. It occurs when the body doesn't produce enough antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or when the kidneys are unable to respond to ADH. ADH is produced by the pituitary gland and helps regulate the amount of water in the body. Therefore, a lack of ADH secretions from the pituitary gland is associated with diabetes insipidus.

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  • 19. 

    Struvite crystals form in ________ (acidic/alkaline) urine

    Correct Answer
    alkaline
    Explanation
    Struvite crystals are formed in alkaline urine. This is because struvite crystals are composed of magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate, and these components tend to precipitate out of solution in alkaline conditions. Acidic urine, on the other hand, is more likely to form other types of crystals such as uric acid or calcium oxalate.

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  • 20. 

    In the Islet of Langerhans in the pancreas, beta cells produce _________ and alpha cells produce ________

    • Insulin, glucagon

    • Glucagon, insulin

    Correct Answer
    A. Insulin, glucagon
    Explanation
    In the Islet of Langerhans in the pancreas, beta cells produce insulin and alpha cells produce glucagon. Insulin is responsible for regulating blood sugar levels by allowing cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream. Glucagon, on the other hand, raises blood sugar levels by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose. This balance between insulin and glucagon helps to maintain stable blood sugar levels in the body.

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  • 21. 

    Causes gluconeogenesis and creates insulin resistence, thus elevating blood glucose

    • Glucagon

    • Catecholamine

    • Insulin

    • Cortisol

    Correct Answer
    A. Cortisol
    Explanation
    Cortisol is a hormone that is released in response to stress. It has several effects on the body, including causing gluconeogenesis, which is the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources. This leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. Additionally, cortisol can also create insulin resistance, meaning that the body's cells are less responsive to the effects of insulin, leading to further elevation of blood glucose levels. Therefore, cortisol is the correct answer as it causes both gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance, ultimately elevating blood glucose levels.

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  • 22. 

    What does insulin drive into the cell?

    • Potassium

    • Sodium

    • Glucose

    • Iron

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Potassium
    A. Glucose
    Explanation
    Insulin drives glucose into the cell. Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that helps regulate blood sugar levels. It acts as a key to unlock the cell membrane, allowing glucose to enter the cell and be used for energy production. This process helps to lower blood sugar levels and maintain normal cellular function. Potassium is not directly driven into the cell by insulin, although insulin does play a role in maintaining potassium balance in the body.

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  • 23. 

    Insulin ________ blood glucose. Glucagon __________ blood glucose.

    • Lowers, raises

    • Raises, lowers

    • Lowers, lowers

    Correct Answer
    A. Lowers, raises
    Explanation
    Insulin is a hormone that helps lower blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells. On the other hand, glucagon is a hormone that raises blood glucose levels by stimulating the release of stored glucose from the liver. Therefore, insulin lowers blood glucose, while glucagon raises blood glucose.

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  • 24. 

    Increased values of which of the following will lead to increased blood glucose?

    • Glucagon

    • Cortisol

    • Epinephrine

    • Insulin

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Glucagon
    A. Cortisol
    A. Epinephrine
    Explanation
    Increased levels of glucagon, cortisol, and epinephrine will lead to increased blood glucose. Glucagon is a hormone that stimulates the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream. Cortisol is a stress hormone that increases blood glucose levels by promoting the breakdown of glycogen and inhibiting glucose uptake by cells. Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, stimulates the breakdown of glycogen and increases glucose production in the liver. Insulin, on the other hand, lowers blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake by cells and inhibiting glucose production in the liver.

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  • 25. 

    Glycogenolysis is followed by a decrease in blood glucose.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Glycogenolysis is stimulated by GH, glucagon,and epinephrine, causing the break down of glycogen to glucose = rise in blood glucose.

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  • 26. 

    Glucose entering leukocytes, platelets, and erythrocytes is an insulin-independent process.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Glucose entering leukocytes, platelets, and erythrocytes is an insulin-independent process. This means that these cells are able to take up glucose from the bloodstream without the need for insulin. Insulin is typically required for glucose uptake by most other cells in the body, but leukocytes, platelets, and erythrocytes have specific glucose transporters that allow them to take up glucose independently of insulin.

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  • 27. 

    Type _____ Diabetes Mellitus is characterized by beta-cell destruction. Is most common in dogs.

    Correct Answer
    1
    one
  • 28. 

    Appropriate tube for blood glucose determination.

    • Sodium fluoride - grey

    • EDTA - purple

    • Citrate - blue

    • Heparin - green

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium fluoride - grey
    Explanation
    Sodium fluoride is the appropriate tube for blood glucose determination because it contains an anticoagulant that prevents the blood from clotting and a preservative that inhibits the breakdown of glucose in the blood sample. The grey color of the tube indicates the presence of sodium fluoride.

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  • 29. 

    Diabetic ketoacidosis can lead to a _________ acidosis.

    Correct Answer
    metabolic
    Explanation
    Diabetic ketoacidosis is a condition that occurs in individuals with diabetes when there is a shortage of insulin in the body, leading to high blood sugar levels. This causes the body to break down fat for energy, resulting in the production of ketones. Metabolic acidosis occurs when there is an excess of ketones in the blood, leading to a decrease in pH levels. Therefore, the correct answer is "metabolic" acidosis.

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  • 30. 

    Spontaneous bovine ketosis is a....

    • Lactational hypoglycemia

    • Exertional hypoglycemia

    • Nutritional hypoglyemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Lactational hypoglycemia
    Explanation
    Spontaneous bovine ketosis refers to a condition in cows where they experience low blood sugar levels during lactation. This is known as lactational hypoglycemia. It occurs due to the increased energy demands of milk production, which can lead to a negative energy balance and a decrease in blood glucose levels.

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  • 31. 

    Decreased viatmin D3 and calcium stimulate ___ production.

    • PTH

    • ADH

    • TSH

    • TRH

    • CRH

    Correct Answer
    A. PTH
    Explanation
    Decreased vitamin D3 and calcium levels in the body stimulate the production of parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH helps to regulate calcium levels by increasing the absorption of calcium from the intestines, reabsorption of calcium from the kidneys, and release of calcium from the bones. Therefore, in response to low vitamin D3 and calcium, the body increases PTH production to maintain proper calcium balance.

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  • 32. 

    A decrease in Calcium and an increase in PTH will stimulate the liver to activate 25-DHCC into 1,25-DHCC (Vitamin D).

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Vitamin D conversion/activation takes place in the kidney.

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  • 33. 

    Increased _____  and ________ causes an increase in phosphorus mobilization from the bones.

    • PTH, Calcium

    • PTH, Vitamin D

    • Calcium, Vitamin D

    Correct Answer
    A. PTH, Vitamin D
    Explanation
    Increased levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) and vitamin D can lead to an increase in phosphorus mobilization from the bones. PTH stimulates the release of calcium and phosphorus from the bones, while vitamin D helps in the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestines. Therefore, when both PTH and vitamin D levels are elevated, there is an increased release of phosphorus from the bones.

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  • 34. 

    Decreased urinary PO4 excretion because of decreased GFR will lead to:

    • Hyperphosphatemia

    • Hypophosphatemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperphosphatemia
    Explanation
    Decreased urinary PO4 excretion due to decreased GFR means that less phosphate is being excreted in the urine. This leads to an accumulation of phosphate in the blood, resulting in hyperphosphatemia.

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  • 35. 

    Hypoparathyroidism is typically secondary to kidney failure.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    HYPERparathyroidism. Decreased GFR leads to increased PO4 -> shuts off Vitamin D conversion = decreased Ca absorption -> increased PTH.

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  • 36. 

    ______ is the process by which molecules spread from areas of high concentration, to areas of low concentration. No energy is required.

    Correct Answer
    Diffusion
    diffusion
    Explanation
    Diffusion is the process by which molecules spread from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration. This occurs due to the random motion of molecules, where they move from an area where there are more molecules to an area where there are fewer molecules. No energy is required for diffusion as it is a passive process driven by the concentration gradient.

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  • 37. 

    _____ is the diffusion of water across a membrane.

    Correct Answer
    Osmosis
    osmosis
    Explanation
    Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a membrane. It is a process in which water molecules move from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration through a selectively permeable membrane. This movement occurs in order to equalize the concentration of solutes on both sides of the membrane.

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  • 38. 

    In this type of solution, the cell is in danger of lysing.

    • Isotonic

    • Hypertonic

    • Hypotonic

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypotonic
    Explanation
    In a hypotonic solution, the concentration of solutes outside the cell is lower than inside the cell. This causes water to move into the cell through osmosis, leading to an increase in the volume of the cell. As a result, the cell becomes swollen and may burst or lyse. Therefore, in this type of solution, the cell is in danger of lysing.

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  • 39. 

    Inside and outside the membrane are at equal solute concentrations.

    • Isotonic

    • Hypertonic

    • Hypotonic

    Correct Answer
    A. Isotonic
    Explanation
    The term "isotonic" refers to a solution where the solute concentration is equal both inside and outside the membrane. In this scenario, the concentration of solutes inside and outside the membrane is balanced, resulting in no net movement of water across the membrane. This means that the cell will neither gain nor lose water, maintaining its normal shape and size.

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  • 40. 

    Cell crenation occurs in this type of solution.

    • Isotonic

    • Hypertonic

    • Hypotonic

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypertonic
    Explanation
    In a hypertonic solution, there is a higher concentration of solutes outside the cell compared to inside the cell. This causes water to move out of the cell, leading to shrinkage and deformation of the cell membrane, a process known as crenation. Therefore, cell crenation occurs in a hypertonic solution.

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  • 41. 

    Compensated metabolic acidosis: pH = 7.35, pCO2 = 46, HCO3 = 29

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Compensated respiratory acidosis

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  • 42. 

    Increased enzyme levels are a good indicator of cell damage.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Increased enzyme levels are a good indicator of cell damage because enzymes are released into the bloodstream when cells are damaged. Enzymes are typically contained within cells and are not normally found in the bloodstream. Therefore, an increase in enzyme levels in the blood suggests that cells have been damaged and their contents, including enzymes, have been released. This can be useful in diagnosing and monitoring various medical conditions, as well as assessing the extent of tissue damage.

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  • 43. 

    Spectrophotometric analysis is a common test for

    • Enzymes

    • Electrolytes

    • Total Protein

    • MCV

    Correct Answer
    A. Enzymes
    Explanation
    Spectrophotometric analysis is a common test for measuring the activity of enzymes. This method involves measuring the absorbance of light by a sample at specific wavelengths, which allows for the quantification of enzyme activity. By using spectrophotometry, the concentration of enzymes in a sample can be determined, providing valuable information about their function and activity levels. Therefore, the correct answer is enzymes.

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  • 44. 

    Test for every clinically significant clotting factor except Factor VII

    • Activated Clotting Time/PTT

    • Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Times

    • PT

    • TT

    Correct Answer
    A. Activated Clotting Time/PTT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Activated Clotting Time/PTT. Activated Clotting Time (ACT) and Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) are laboratory tests used to evaluate the overall clotting function of the blood. They assess the activity of various clotting factors, including Factors VIII, IX, X, XI, and XII. These tests are commonly used to monitor anticoagulant therapy, assess bleeding disorders, and evaluate the risk of excessive bleeding during surgical procedures. However, they do not assess the activity of Factor VII, which is evaluated using the Prothrombin Time (PT) test.

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  • 45. 

    With an ACT test, normal dog coagulation time is ______

    Correct Answer
    A.
  • 46. 

    A primary assay for detection of platelet function abnormalities.

    • Activated Clotting Time/PTT

    • Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Times

    • PT

    • TT

    Correct Answer
    A. Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Times
    Explanation
    Buccal mucosal bleeding time is a primary assay used to detect platelet function abnormalities. This test involves making a small incision in the buccal mucosa (inside lining of the cheek) and measuring the time it takes for bleeding to stop. Platelet function abnormalities can lead to prolonged bleeding time, indicating a potential problem with platelet function. Therefore, buccal mucosal bleeding time is a useful test for evaluating platelet function abnormalities.

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  • 47. 

    With an BMBT test, normal dog coagulation time is ______

    Correct Answer
    A.
  • 48. 

    With an BMBT test, normal cat coagulation time is ______

    Correct Answer
    A.
  • 49. 

    Measures the extrinsic pathway

    • PTT

    • PT

    • ACT

    • BMBT

    • TT

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. PT
    A. TT
    Explanation
    The PT (prothrombin time) and TT (thrombin time) tests are used to measure the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. The extrinsic pathway is responsible for initiating the clotting process when there is tissue damage or trauma. The PT test measures the activity of factors involved in the extrinsic pathway, such as factors VII, X, V, and II (prothrombin). The TT test measures the time it takes for fibrinogen to be converted into fibrin, which is the final step in the clotting process. Therefore, both PT and TT tests are used to evaluate the functioning of the extrinsic pathway.

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  • Sep 27, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jun 09, 2011
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