AHS 305 - Lectures 5-9
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Hemostasis, Clinical Enzymology, Electrolytes, Calcium/Phosphorus/Magnesium, Glucose, Urinary System
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What is the functional unit of the kidney?
- A.
Nephron
- B.
Glomerulus
- C.
Bowman's Capsule
Correct Answer
A. NephronExplanation
The functional unit of the kidney is the nephron. The nephron is responsible for filtering waste products from the blood, reabsorbing necessary substances, and producing urine. It consists of the glomerulus, which filters the blood, and the Bowman's capsule, which collects the filtered fluid. Together, these structures play a crucial role in maintaining the body's fluid balance and regulating waste elimination.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Vasoconstriction ________ blood pressure, as does sodium and water retention.
- A.
Decreases
- B.
Increases
Correct Answer
B. IncreasesExplanation
Vasoconstriction refers to the narrowing of blood vessels, which leads to an increase in blood pressure. This is because when the blood vessels constrict, the space for blood flow decreases, causing an increase in pressure within the vessels. Additionally, sodium and water retention can also contribute to an increase in blood pressure as the excess fluid volume leads to increased pressure on the vessel walls. Therefore, both vasoconstriction and sodium and water retention can increase blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Antidiuretic hormone is secreted by the ________ to cause reabsorption of H2O in the distal tubule
- A.
Pituitary glands
- B.
Thyroid
- C.
Pancreas
- D.
Adrenal glands
Correct Answer
A. Pituitary glandsExplanation
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted by the pituitary glands to cause reabsorption of water in the distal tubule. The pituitary glands are responsible for regulating various hormones in the body, including ADH. ADH acts on the kidneys to increase water reabsorption, reducing the amount of urine produced and helping to maintain water balance in the body. The secretion of ADH is controlled by the hypothalamus in response to changes in blood osmolality and blood volume.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Renin stimulates the formation of _________
- A.
Angiotensinogen
- B.
Aldosterone
- C.
Cortisol
- D.
Angiotensin II
Correct Answer
A. AngiotensinogenExplanation
Renin stimulates the formation of Angiotensinogen. Renin is an enzyme produced by the kidneys that acts on angiotensinogen, a protein produced by the liver, to convert it into angiotensin I. This is the first step in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. Angiotensinogen is then further converted into angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor, by the action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE).Rate this question:
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- 5.
An increase in Angiotenstionegen will ___________production of Aldosterone from the adrenals, thus __________ the retention of sodium and water.
- A.
Increase, increasing
- B.
Decrease, decreasing
- C.
Increase, decreasing
- D.
Decrease, increasing
Correct Answer
A. Increase, increasingExplanation
An increase in Angiotensinogen will stimulate the production of Aldosterone from the adrenals, thus promoting the retention of sodium and water.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Elevations of _________ are usd as an estimate of GFR.
Correct Answer
ureaExplanation
Urea is used as an estimate of GFR because it is freely filtered by the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed or secreted by the renal tubules. This means that the amount of urea excreted in the urine is directly proportional to the GFR. Therefore, measuring the concentration of urea in the blood can provide an estimate of GFR.Rate this question:
- 7.
Pre-renal azotemia expected USG
- A.
> 1.030
- B.
1.007-1.013
- C.
1.001-1.008
Correct Answer
A. > 1.030Explanation
The expected urine specific gravity (USG) for pre-renal azotemia is greater than 1.030. Pre-renal azotemia refers to a condition where there is a decrease in blood flow to the kidneys, leading to impaired kidney function. In this condition, the kidneys conserve water and concentrate the urine, resulting in a higher USG. A USG greater than 1.030 indicates concentrated urine, which is a characteristic feature of pre-renal azotemia.Rate this question:
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- 8.
In the glomerulus, the 25% of plasma that is removed from the blood each minute is toxin-ridden and will be removed and excreted in the urine.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Most of the 25%will be reabsorbed.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Renal azotemia expected USG
- A.
>1.030
- B.
1.007-1.013
- C.
1.001-1.008
Correct Answer
B. 1.007-1.013Explanation
The expected USG for renal azotemia falls within the range of 1.007-1.013. This indicates that the kidneys are not properly concentrating urine, leading to a low specific gravity. Renal azotemia is a condition where there is a buildup of nitrogenous waste products in the blood due to impaired kidney function. The low specific gravity suggests that the kidneys are unable to effectively reabsorb water and concentrate urine, resulting in the excretion of dilute urine.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Azotemia with appropriately concentrated urine
- A.
Prerenal
- B.
Renal
- C.
Postrenal
Correct Answer
A. PrerenalExplanation
Prerenal azotemia refers to a condition where there is a decrease in blood flow to the kidneys, leading to impaired kidney function. This can be caused by factors such as dehydration, low blood volume, or decreased cardiac output. In this condition, the kidneys are still able to concentrate urine appropriately, meaning that the urine is concentrated despite the decrease in blood flow. This is in contrast to renal azotemia, where the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine due to intrinsic kidney damage, and postrenal azotemia, where there is obstruction of the urinary tract preventing urine flow.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Direct damage to kidneys by inflammation, toxins, drugs, infection, or reduced blood supply
- A.
Prerenal
- B.
Renal
- C.
Postrenal
Correct Answer
B. RenalExplanation
Renal refers to direct damage to the kidneys. This can be caused by various factors such as inflammation, toxins, drugs, infection, or reduced blood supply. Unlike prerenal and postrenal causes, which refer to issues occurring before or after the kidneys, renal damage specifically indicates damage to the kidneys themselves.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Sudden obstruction of urine flow due to enlarged prostate, kidney stones, bladder tumor, or injury
- A.
Prerenal
- B.
Renal
- C.
Postrenal
Correct Answer
C. PostrenalExplanation
Postrenal refers to conditions or factors that occur after the urine is formed in the kidneys. In this case, sudden obstruction of urine flow can occur due to various reasons such as an enlarged prostate, kidney stones, bladder tumor, or injury. These conditions can block the passage of urine from the kidneys to the bladder, leading to a sudden obstruction of urine flow. This can cause symptoms such as difficulty urinating, pain, and potentially kidney damage if not treated promptly.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A good estimate of GFR is the __________ Clearance Test.
- A.
Glucose
- B.
Creatinine
- C.
Protein
- D.
Urea
Correct Answer
B. CreatinineExplanation
The correct answer is Creatinine. A good estimate of GFR (glomerular filtration rate) can be obtained through the Creatinine Clearance Test. This test measures the amount of creatinine (a waste product produced by muscles) in the blood and urine. Since creatinine is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys, the rate at which it is cleared from the body can provide an estimate of the kidney's filtration function. Therefore, the Creatinine Clearance Test is commonly used to assess kidney function and estimate GFR.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Chronic renal insufficiency
- A.
GFR 20-50% of normal function
- B.
GFR 20-25% of normal function
- C.
GFR
Correct Answer
A. GFR 20-50% of normal functionExplanation
This answer suggests that chronic renal insufficiency is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) that is 20-50% of normal function. The GFR is a measure of how well the kidneys are filtering waste from the blood. Therefore, a GFR of 20-50% indicates that the kidneys are functioning at a reduced capacity, but still able to filter some waste.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Chronic renal failure
- A.
20-50% of normal function
- B.
20-25% of normal function
- C.
Correct Answer
B. 20-25% of normal functionExplanation
Chronic renal failure refers to the gradual and irreversible loss of kidney function over time. The answer choice "20-25% of normal function" indicates that the individual with chronic renal failure has only a small percentage of their kidneys' normal functioning capacity remaining. This suggests that their kidneys are significantly impaired and unable to effectively filter waste and toxins from the blood, leading to various complications and symptoms associated with kidney failure.Rate this question:
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- 16.
End-stage renal disease
- A.
20-50% of normal function
- B.
20-25% of normal function
- C.
Correct Answer
C.Explanation
The correct answer is "End-stage renal disease." This condition occurs when the kidneys have lost nearly all of their function, typically less than 10% of normal. It is the final stage of chronic kidney disease and requires treatment such as dialysis or a kidney transplant to maintain life.Rate this question:
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- 17.
In end stage renal failure, _______ is usually decreased and ___________ is elevated.
- A.
Calcium, phosphorous
- B.
Phosphorous, calcium
Correct Answer
A. Calcium, phosphorousExplanation
In end stage renal failure, calcium levels are usually decreased and phosphorous levels are elevated. This is because the kidneys are responsible for regulating the levels of these minerals in the body. When the kidneys are not functioning properly, they are unable to remove phosphorous from the blood, leading to an increase in its levels. At the same time, the kidneys are unable to activate vitamin D, which is necessary for the absorption of calcium from the intestines. This results in decreased calcium levels in the blood.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Diabetes insipidus is associated with a lack of ADH secretions from the pituitary gland.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Diabetes insipidus is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination. It occurs when the body doesn't produce enough antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or when the kidneys are unable to respond to ADH. ADH is produced by the pituitary gland and helps regulate the amount of water in the body. Therefore, a lack of ADH secretions from the pituitary gland is associated with diabetes insipidus.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Struvite crystals form in ________ (acidic/alkaline) urine
Correct Answer
alkalineExplanation
Struvite crystals are formed in alkaline urine. This is because struvite crystals are composed of magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate, and these components tend to precipitate out of solution in alkaline conditions. Acidic urine, on the other hand, is more likely to form other types of crystals such as uric acid or calcium oxalate.Rate this question:
- 20.
In the Islet of Langerhans in the pancreas, beta cells produce _________ and alpha cells produce ________
- A.
Insulin, glucagon
- B.
Glucagon, insulin
Correct Answer
A. Insulin, glucagonExplanation
In the Islet of Langerhans in the pancreas, beta cells produce insulin and alpha cells produce glucagon. Insulin is responsible for regulating blood sugar levels by allowing cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream. Glucagon, on the other hand, raises blood sugar levels by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose. This balance between insulin and glucagon helps to maintain stable blood sugar levels in the body.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Causes gluconeogenesis and creates insulin resistence, thus elevating blood glucose
- A.
Glucagon
- B.
Catecholamine
- C.
Insulin
- D.
Cortisol
Correct Answer
D. CortisolExplanation
Cortisol is a hormone that is released in response to stress. It has several effects on the body, including causing gluconeogenesis, which is the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources. This leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. Additionally, cortisol can also create insulin resistance, meaning that the body's cells are less responsive to the effects of insulin, leading to further elevation of blood glucose levels. Therefore, cortisol is the correct answer as it causes both gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance, ultimately elevating blood glucose levels.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What does insulin drive into the cell?
- A.
Potassium
- B.
Sodium
- C.
Glucose
- D.
Iron
Correct Answer(s)
A. Potassium
C. GlucoseExplanation
Insulin drives glucose into the cell. Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that helps regulate blood sugar levels. It acts as a key to unlock the cell membrane, allowing glucose to enter the cell and be used for energy production. This process helps to lower blood sugar levels and maintain normal cellular function. Potassium is not directly driven into the cell by insulin, although insulin does play a role in maintaining potassium balance in the body.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Insulin ________ blood glucose. Glucagon __________ blood glucose.
- A.
Lowers, raises
- B.
Raises, lowers
- C.
Lowers, lowers
Correct Answer
A. Lowers, raisesExplanation
Insulin is a hormone that helps lower blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells. On the other hand, glucagon is a hormone that raises blood glucose levels by stimulating the release of stored glucose from the liver. Therefore, insulin lowers blood glucose, while glucagon raises blood glucose.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Increased values of which of the following will lead to increased blood glucose?
- A.
Glucagon
- B.
Cortisol
- C.
Epinephrine
- D.
Insulin
Correct Answer(s)
A. Glucagon
B. Cortisol
C. EpinephrineExplanation
Increased levels of glucagon, cortisol, and epinephrine will lead to increased blood glucose. Glucagon is a hormone that stimulates the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream. Cortisol is a stress hormone that increases blood glucose levels by promoting the breakdown of glycogen and inhibiting glucose uptake by cells. Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, stimulates the breakdown of glycogen and increases glucose production in the liver. Insulin, on the other hand, lowers blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake by cells and inhibiting glucose production in the liver.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Glycogenolysis is followed by a decrease in blood glucose.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Glycogenolysis is stimulated by GH, glucagon,and epinephrine, causing the break down of glycogen to glucose = rise in blood glucose.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Glucose entering leukocytes, platelets, and erythrocytes is an insulin-independent process.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Glucose entering leukocytes, platelets, and erythrocytes is an insulin-independent process. This means that these cells are able to take up glucose from the bloodstream without the need for insulin. Insulin is typically required for glucose uptake by most other cells in the body, but leukocytes, platelets, and erythrocytes have specific glucose transporters that allow them to take up glucose independently of insulin.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Type _____ Diabetes Mellitus is characterized by beta-cell destruction. Is most common in dogs.
Correct Answer
1
one - 28.
Appropriate tube for blood glucose determination.
- A.
Sodium fluoride - grey
- B.
EDTA - purple
- C.
Citrate - blue
- D.
Heparin - green
Correct Answer
A. Sodium fluoride - greyExplanation
Sodium fluoride is the appropriate tube for blood glucose determination because it contains an anticoagulant that prevents the blood from clotting and a preservative that inhibits the breakdown of glucose in the blood sample. The grey color of the tube indicates the presence of sodium fluoride.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Diabetic ketoacidosis can lead to a _________ acidosis.
Correct Answer
metabolicExplanation
Diabetic ketoacidosis is a condition that occurs in individuals with diabetes when there is a shortage of insulin in the body, leading to high blood sugar levels. This causes the body to break down fat for energy, resulting in the production of ketones. Metabolic acidosis occurs when there is an excess of ketones in the blood, leading to a decrease in pH levels. Therefore, the correct answer is "metabolic" acidosis.Rate this question:
- 30.
Spontaneous bovine ketosis is a....
- A.
Lactational hypoglycemia
- B.
Exertional hypoglycemia
- C.
Nutritional hypoglyemia
Correct Answer
A. Lactational hypoglycemiaExplanation
Spontaneous bovine ketosis refers to a condition in cows where they experience low blood sugar levels during lactation. This is known as lactational hypoglycemia. It occurs due to the increased energy demands of milk production, which can lead to a negative energy balance and a decrease in blood glucose levels.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Decreased viatmin D3 and calcium stimulate ___ production.
- A.
PTH
- B.
ADH
- C.
TSH
- D.
TRH
- E.
CRH
Correct Answer
A. PTHExplanation
Decreased vitamin D3 and calcium levels in the body stimulate the production of parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH helps to regulate calcium levels by increasing the absorption of calcium from the intestines, reabsorption of calcium from the kidneys, and release of calcium from the bones. Therefore, in response to low vitamin D3 and calcium, the body increases PTH production to maintain proper calcium balance.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A decrease in Calcium and an increase in PTH will stimulate the liver to activate 25-DHCC into 1,25-DHCC (Vitamin D).
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Vitamin D conversion/activation takes place in the kidney.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Increased _____ and ________ causes an increase in phosphorus mobilization from the bones.
- A.
PTH, Calcium
- B.
PTH, Vitamin D
- C.
Calcium, Vitamin D
Correct Answer
B. PTH, Vitamin DExplanation
Increased levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) and vitamin D can lead to an increase in phosphorus mobilization from the bones. PTH stimulates the release of calcium and phosphorus from the bones, while vitamin D helps in the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestines. Therefore, when both PTH and vitamin D levels are elevated, there is an increased release of phosphorus from the bones.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Decreased urinary PO4 excretion because of decreased GFR will lead to:
- A.
Hyperphosphatemia
- B.
Hypophosphatemia
Correct Answer
A. HyperphosphatemiaExplanation
Decreased urinary PO4 excretion due to decreased GFR means that less phosphate is being excreted in the urine. This leads to an accumulation of phosphate in the blood, resulting in hyperphosphatemia.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Hypoparathyroidism is typically secondary to kidney failure.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
HYPERparathyroidism. Decreased GFR leads to increased PO4 -> shuts off Vitamin D conversion = decreased Ca absorption -> increased PTH.Rate this question:
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- 36.
______ is the process by which molecules spread from areas of high concentration, to areas of low concentration. No energy is required.
Correct Answer
Diffusion
diffusionExplanation
Diffusion is the process by which molecules spread from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration. This occurs due to the random motion of molecules, where they move from an area where there are more molecules to an area where there are fewer molecules. No energy is required for diffusion as it is a passive process driven by the concentration gradient.Rate this question:
- 37.
_____ is the diffusion of water across a membrane.
Correct Answer
Osmosis
osmosisExplanation
Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a membrane. It is a process in which water molecules move from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration through a selectively permeable membrane. This movement occurs in order to equalize the concentration of solutes on both sides of the membrane.Rate this question:
- 38.
In this type of solution, the cell is in danger of lysing.
- A.
Isotonic
- B.
Hypertonic
- C.
Hypotonic
Correct Answer
C. HypotonicExplanation
In a hypotonic solution, the concentration of solutes outside the cell is lower than inside the cell. This causes water to move into the cell through osmosis, leading to an increase in the volume of the cell. As a result, the cell becomes swollen and may burst or lyse. Therefore, in this type of solution, the cell is in danger of lysing.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Inside and outside the membrane are at equal solute concentrations.
- A.
Isotonic
- B.
Hypertonic
- C.
Hypotonic
Correct Answer
A. IsotonicExplanation
The term "isotonic" refers to a solution where the solute concentration is equal both inside and outside the membrane. In this scenario, the concentration of solutes inside and outside the membrane is balanced, resulting in no net movement of water across the membrane. This means that the cell will neither gain nor lose water, maintaining its normal shape and size.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Cell crenation occurs in this type of solution.
- A.
Isotonic
- B.
Hypertonic
- C.
Hypotonic
Correct Answer
B. HypertonicExplanation
In a hypertonic solution, there is a higher concentration of solutes outside the cell compared to inside the cell. This causes water to move out of the cell, leading to shrinkage and deformation of the cell membrane, a process known as crenation. Therefore, cell crenation occurs in a hypertonic solution.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Compensated metabolic acidosis: pH = 7.35, pCO2 = 46, HCO3 = 29
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Compensated respiratory acidosisRate this question:
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- 42.
Increased enzyme levels are a good indicator of cell damage.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Increased enzyme levels are a good indicator of cell damage because enzymes are released into the bloodstream when cells are damaged. Enzymes are typically contained within cells and are not normally found in the bloodstream. Therefore, an increase in enzyme levels in the blood suggests that cells have been damaged and their contents, including enzymes, have been released. This can be useful in diagnosing and monitoring various medical conditions, as well as assessing the extent of tissue damage.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Spectrophotometric analysis is a common test for
- A.
Enzymes
- B.
Electrolytes
- C.
Total Protein
- D.
MCV
Correct Answer
A. EnzymesExplanation
Spectrophotometric analysis is a common test for measuring the activity of enzymes. This method involves measuring the absorbance of light by a sample at specific wavelengths, which allows for the quantification of enzyme activity. By using spectrophotometry, the concentration of enzymes in a sample can be determined, providing valuable information about their function and activity levels. Therefore, the correct answer is enzymes.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Test for every clinically significant clotting factor except Factor VII
- A.
Activated Clotting Time/PTT
- B.
Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Times
- C.
PT
- D.
TT
Correct Answer
A. Activated Clotting Time/PTTExplanation
The correct answer is Activated Clotting Time/PTT. Activated Clotting Time (ACT) and Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) are laboratory tests used to evaluate the overall clotting function of the blood. They assess the activity of various clotting factors, including Factors VIII, IX, X, XI, and XII. These tests are commonly used to monitor anticoagulant therapy, assess bleeding disorders, and evaluate the risk of excessive bleeding during surgical procedures. However, they do not assess the activity of Factor VII, which is evaluated using the Prothrombin Time (PT) test.Rate this question:
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- 45.
With an ACT test, normal dog coagulation time is ______
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct Answer
A. -
- 46.
A primary assay for detection of platelet function abnormalities.
- A.
Activated Clotting Time/PTT
- B.
Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Times
- C.
PT
- D.
TT
Correct Answer
B. Buccal Mucosal Bleeding TimesExplanation
Buccal mucosal bleeding time is a primary assay used to detect platelet function abnormalities. This test involves making a small incision in the buccal mucosa (inside lining of the cheek) and measuring the time it takes for bleeding to stop. Platelet function abnormalities can lead to prolonged bleeding time, indicating a potential problem with platelet function. Therefore, buccal mucosal bleeding time is a useful test for evaluating platelet function abnormalities.Rate this question:
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- 47.
With an BMBT test, normal dog coagulation time is ______
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct Answer
D. -
- 48.
With an BMBT test, normal cat coagulation time is ______
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct Answer
B. -
- 49.
Measures the extrinsic pathway
- A.
PTT
- B.
PT
- C.
ACT
- D.
BMBT
- E.
TT
Correct Answer(s)
B. PT
E. TTExplanation
The PT (prothrombin time) and TT (thrombin time) tests are used to measure the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. The extrinsic pathway is responsible for initiating the clotting process when there is tissue damage or trauma. The PT test measures the activity of factors involved in the extrinsic pathway, such as factors VII, X, V, and II (prothrombin). The TT test measures the time it takes for fibrinogen to be converted into fibrin, which is the final step in the clotting process. Therefore, both PT and TT tests are used to evaluate the functioning of the extrinsic pathway.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Measures the intrinsic pathway
- A.
PTT
- B.
PT
- C.
ACT
- D.
BMBT
- E.
TT
Correct Answer(s)
A. PTT
C. ACTExplanation
PTT and ACT are both laboratory tests that measure the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. The intrinsic pathway is one of the two pathways involved in blood clotting. PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to evaluate the function of factors involved in the intrinsic pathway. ACT (Activated Clotting Time) is a similar test that measures the time it takes for blood to clot after adding an activating agent. Both tests are used to diagnose and monitor bleeding disorders and to assess the effectiveness of anticoagulant medications.Rate this question:
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