CDC 2ax5x Volume 1 Aerospace Maintenance

124 Questions

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Aerospace Quizzes & Trivia

Aerospace Maintenance General Subjects


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 2. 
    What is the percentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      70

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      98

  • 3. 
    Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?
    • A. 

      Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks

    • B. 

      TOs, manuals, and CDCs

    • C. 

      Manuals, TOs and handbooks

    • D. 

      TOs, handbooks, and CDCs

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      Initial

    • B. 

      General

    • C. 

      Supervisor's

    • D. 

      Sustained job safety

  • 5. 
    A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDCs if concentrations are greater than
    • A. 

      -2.0 percent

    • B. 

      -1.0 percent

    • C. 

      0.1 percent

    • D. 

      1.0 percent

  • 6. 
    Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by
    • A. 

      The US Air Force

    • B. 

      Each MAJCOM

    • C. 

      DOD

    • D. 

      EPA

  • 7. 
    Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannott exceed
    • A. 

      30 days

    • B. 

      60 days

    • C. 

      90 days

    • D. 

      120 days

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      Strength of emission, time of day and, input power.

    • B. 

      Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.

    • C. 

      Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area.

    • D. 

      Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units

  • 9. 
    The recommended procedure for cooling and overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then
    • A. 

      Spray with cold water.

    • B. 

      Cool with forced air from a blower.

    • C. 

      Cool with high pressure compressed air.

    • D. 

      Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.

  • 10. 
    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of
    • A. 

      15 degrees

    • B. 

      45 degrees

    • C. 

      65 degrees

    • D. 

      95 degrees

  • 11. 
    Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?
    • A. 

      Dizziness

    • B. 

      Emotional irritability

    • C. 

      A feeling of emptiness

    • D. 

      Impaired mental concetration

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      Crew chief

    • B. 

      Flight engineer.

    • C. 

      Weapons personnel.

    • D. 

      Only senior personnel on special orders.

  • 13. 
    Before moving an explosives-loading aircraft into a hangar you must
    • A. 

      Install shorting plugs and clips

    • B. 

      Install mechanical safetying devices.

    • C. 

      Remove all ammunition and explosives.

    • D. 

      Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF

  • 14. 
    All composite material-related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT form?
    • A. 

      55

    • B. 

      457

    • C. 

      623

    • D. 

      1297

  • 15. 
    The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to
    • A. 

      Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly.

    • B. 

      Follow MAJCOM guidelines.

    • C. 

      Identify all possible sources of FOD

    • D. 

      Educate all personnel

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      Logistics and operations group commanders.

    • B. 

      Immediate supervisor

    • C. 

      Wing commander.

    • D. 

      Everyone

  • 17. 
    When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the
    • A. 

      Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent

    • B. 

      Wing vice commander

    • C. 

      Group commander

    • D. 

      Wing commander

  • 18. 
    In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?
    • A. 

      The FOD prevention office.

    • B. 

      The operations commander.

    • C. 

      The flight safety officer.

    • D. 

      QA

  • 19. 
    The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the
    • A. 

      Red markings

    • B. 

      Black markings

    • C. 

      Green markings

    • D. 

      Orange markings

  • 20. 
    Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a
    • A. 

      15-foot radius

    • B. 

      20-foot radius

    • C. 

      25-foot radius

    • D. 

      50-foot radius

  • 21. 
    • A. 

      Operations

    • B. 

      The aircrew

    • C. 

      Supervision

    • D. 

      The ground crew

  • 22. 
    When serving as a fireguard, you position yourself even with the
    • A. 

      Tail of the aircraft and at a 30degree angle inboard of the engine being started.

    • B. 

      Tail of the aircraft and at a 30degree angle outboard of the engine being started.

    • C. 

      Nose of the aircraft and at a 45degree angle inboard of the engine being started.

    • D. 

      Nose of the aircraft and at a 45degree angle outboard of the engine being started.

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      AFI 23-106

    • B. 

      AFI 11-218

    • C. 

      TO 00-25-172

    • D. 

      TO00-25-212

  • 24. 
    During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?
    • A. 

      Supervisor or vehicle operator.

    • B. 

      Supervisor or brake operator.

    • C. 

      Supervisor of wing walkers.

    • D. 

      Supervisor only

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      Departmental, intermediate, and field.

    • B. 

      Organizational , field, and intermediate.

    • C. 

      Organizational, intermediate, and depot.

    • D. 

      Departmental, organizational, and depot.

  • 26. 
    • A. 

      Unscheduled.

    • B. 

      Preventive

    • C. 

      Corrective

    • D. 

      Protective

  • 27. 
    Objective of the MDD system include
    • A. 

      Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

    • B. 

      Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

    • C. 

      Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

    • D. 

      Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      Damaged and spare items.

    • B. 

      Expired and outdated items.

    • C. 

      Recurring and repeat replacement items.

    • D. 

      Select serially controlled and time change items.

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      781A

    • B. 

      781F

    • C. 

      781H

    • D. 

      781J

  • 30. 
    The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder
    • A. 

      Before the first flight of the day.

    • B. 

      Before each thru flight inspection,.

    • C. 

      After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.

    • D. 

      After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number.

  • 31. 
    Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO
    • A. 

      781G

    • B. 

      781J

    • C. 

      781M

    • D. 

      781P

  • 32. 
    • A. 

      Base supply coordinator.

    • B. 

      Critical item liaison.

    • C. 

      Equipment liaison.

    • D. 

      Item managers.

  • 33. 
    The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the
    • A. 

      MAJCOM level.

    • B. 

      Wing level

    • C. 

      Base level

    • D. 

      Unit level

  • 34. 
    The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by
    • A. 

      Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty

    • B. 

      Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training

    • C. 

      Helping evaluate the training of new personnel.

    • D. 

      Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training

  • 35. 
    The GAS is normally sent out
    • A. 

      90 days after graduation

    • B. 

      6 months after graduation

    • C. 

      Within 10 work days after graduation

    • D. 

      Within 10 calendar days after graduation

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      CFETP, Part I.

    • B. 

      AFJQS

    • C. 

      Command JQS

    • D. 

      CFETP,Part II.

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      Within 60 of arrival

    • B. 

      6 months after graduation

    • C. 

      Within 10 work days after graduation

    • D. 

      Within 10 calendar day after graduation

  • 38. 
    The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
    • A. 

      Access to Distance Learning courseware

    • B. 

      Access to special certification roster criteria listings.

    • C. 

      Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide

    • D. 

      Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.

  • 39. 
    Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?
    • A. 

      Training

    • B. 

      Aircraft

    • C. 

      Reference

    • D. 

      Operational.

  • 40. 
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 41. 
    Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses?
    • A. 

      Trouble

    • B. 

      Remedy

    • C. 

      Section II

    • D. 

      Probable Cause

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      Record

    • B. 

      Urgent action

    • C. 

      Routine action

    • D. 

      Immediate action

  • 43. 
    Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22?
    • A. 

      00-1-01

    • B. 

      00-5-1

    • C. 

      00-20 series

    • D. 

      00-25 series

  • 44. 
    Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency?
    • A. 

      Waiver.

    • B. 

      Urgent

    • C. 

      Routine

    • D. 

      Emergency

  • 45. 
    Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?
    • A. 

      Directory

    • B. 

      Pamphlet

    • C. 

      Instruction

    • D. 

      Supplement

  • 46. 
    Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?
    • A. 

      B-1

    • B. 

      B-2

    • C. 

      B-4

    • D. 

      B-5

  • 47. 
    Which of these is a scissor-type maintenance stand?
    • A. 

      B-1

    • B. 

      B-2

    • C. 

      B-4

    • D. 

      C-1

  • 48. 
    • A. 

      7,000

    • B. 

      8,000

    • C. 

      9,000

    • D. 

      10,000

  • 49. 
    On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is
    • A. 

      10 MPH

    • B. 

      15 MPH

    • C. 

      20 MPH

    • D. 

      25 MPH

  • 50. 
    • A. 

      Tail

    • B. 

      Axle

    • C. 

      Nose

    • D. 

      Fixed-height

  • 51. 
    • A. 

      AGE personnel.

    • B. 

      Aircrew personnel

    • C. 

      Shift supervisor

    • D. 

      Everyone

  • 52. 
    GOX high-pressure cylinders are painted
    • A. 

      White with a green band near the bottom

    • B. 

      Green with a white band near the bottom

    • C. 

      White with a green band near the top

    • D. 

      Green with a white band near the top

  • 53. 
    • A. 

      AGE personnel only

    • B. 

      The highest ranking person on the shift

    • C. 

      Qualified operators only

    • D. 

      Any person

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      39

    • B. 

      49

    • C. 

      59

    • D. 

      69

  • 55. 
    • A. 

      3,000 psig

    • B. 

      3,500 psig

    • C. 

      4,400 psig

    • D. 

      5,200 psig

  • 56. 
    The usable pressure range of the MCA-1A air compressor is 0 to
    • A. 

      200 psi

    • B. 

      350 psi

    • C. 

      3,200 psi

    • D. 

      3,500 psi

  • 57. 
    The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of
    • A. 

      200 psi

    • B. 

      300 psi

    • C. 

      3,500 psi

    • D. 

      3,600 psi

  • 58. 
    The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from
    • A. 

      100 to 230 degrees F.

    • B. 

      115 to 250 degrees F.

    • C. 

      125 to 270 degrees F

    • D. 

      150 to 280 degrees F.

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      5MPH

    • B. 

      10MPH

    • C. 

      15MPH

    • D. 

      20MPH

  • 60. 
    The C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air in a range from
    • A. 

      47 to 150 degrees F.

    • B. 

      47 to 200 degrees F.

    • C. 

      57 to 150 degrees F.

    • D. 

      57 to 200 degrees F.

  • 61. 
    The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces
    • A. 

      25.5 VDC

    • B. 

      27.5 VDC

    • C. 

      28.5 VDC

    • D. 

      30.5 VDC

  • 62. 
    • A. 

      A/M32A-95

    • B. 

      A/M32A-86

    • C. 

      A/M32A-60

    • D. 

      AF/M-32R-3

  • 63. 
    Which technical order has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60?
    • A. 

      1-1A-8

    • B. 

      25C2-3-372-11

    • C. 

      32A1-4.219-45

    • D. 

      35C2-3-372-11

  • 64. 
    The FL-1D floodlight consists of two
    • A. 

      100 watt lamp fixtures

    • B. 

      1,000 watt lamp fixtures

    • C. 

      10,000 watt lamp fixtures

    • D. 

      100,000 watt lamp fixtures

  • 65. 
    • A. 

      5 MPH

    • B. 

      10 MPH

    • C. 

      15 MPH

    • D. 

      20 MPH

  • 66. 
    • A. 

      A diesel engine

    • B. 

      An electric motor

    • C. 

      A gasoline engine

    • D. 

      A hydraulic motor

  • 67. 
    • A. 

      Primary and Secondary

    • B. 

      Primary and Alternate

    • C. 

      Number 1 and Number 2

    • D. 

      Left and Right

  • 68. 
    The MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid?
    • A. 

      19 gallons

    • B. 

      27 gallons

    • C. 

      30 gallons

    • D. 

      60 gallons

  • 69. 
    The MB-4 Coleman incorporates
    • A. 

      Two-wheel steering, two wheel drive

    • B. 

      Two-wheel steering, four wheel drive

    • C. 

      Four-wheel steering, two wheel drive

    • D. 

      Four-wheel steering, four wheel drive

  • 70. 
    • A. 

      15 MPH

    • B. 

      20 MPH

    • C. 

      25 MPH

    • D. 

      55 MPH

  • 71. 
    • A. 

      Mechanical

    • B. 

      Pneumatic

    • C. 

      Hydraulic

    • D. 

      Electrical

  • 72. 
    • A. 

      Reduce shearing

    • B. 

      Prevent vibration

    • C. 

      Prevent corrosion

    • D. 

      Reduce shimming

  • 73. 
    • A. 

      By a zinc-plated nickel steel covering

    • B. 

      By a galvanized-plated steel covering

    • C. 

      The bolt head is marked with a triangle

    • D. 

      The bolt head is marked with the letter S

  • 74. 
    Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems?
    • A. 

      Stud

    • B. 

      Clevis

    • C. 

      Eyebolt

    • D. 

      Hexhead

  • 75. 
    Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?
    • A. 

      Stud

    • B. 

      Eyebolt

    • C. 

      Hexhead

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching type

  • 76. 
    Left handed threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the
    • A. 

      Knurl beside the fork

    • B. 

      Groove by the cable eye

    • C. 

      Knurl beside the pin eye

    • D. 

      Groove on the end of the barrel

  • 77. 
    Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal?
    • A. 

      Soft rubber

    • B. 

      Phenolic mix

    • C. 

      Non-magnetic

    • D. 

      Thermosetting plastic

  • 78. 
    A push-pull rod engagement is check by
    • A. 

      Using a depth gage to check end play

    • B. 

      Ensuring that no lateral movement exists

    • C. 

      Using a inside caliper to check the rod end bearing

    • D. 

      Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal

  • 79. 
    • A. 

      15 to 20 inches

    • B. 

      20 to 25 inches

    • C. 

      25 to 30 inches

    • D. 

      30 to 35 inches

  • 80. 
    The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than
    • A. 

      10 percent of wall thickness

    • B. 

      15 percent of wall thickness

    • C. 

      20 percent of wall thickness

    • D. 

      25 percent of wall thickness

  • 81. 
    Generally, low pressure hoses are used for what pressures?
    • A. 

      200 psi and below

    • B. 

      300 psi and below

    • C. 

      500 psi and below

    • D. 

      1,000 psi and below

  • 82. 
    The limit for securing closely spaced blots in series when using the single-wire safety method is the maximum number of blots that can be secured using a
    • A. 

      10 inch length of wire

    • B. 

      12 inch length of wire

    • C. 

      24 inch length of wire

    • D. 

      36 inch length of wire

  • 83. 
    When securing widely spaced blots by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 84. 
    Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them?
    • A. 

      Snap rings

    • B. 

      Spiral retaining ring

    • C. 

      Beveled retaining rings

    • D. 

      Axially assembled retaining rings

  • 85. 
    • A. 

      Metal shells

    • B. 

      Connector halves

    • C. 

      Dielectric contacts

    • D. 

      Pin-and-socket contacts

  • 86. 
    Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the grove?
    • A. 

      Snap ring

    • B. 

      Spiral retaining ring

    • C. 

      Beveled retaining ring

    • D. 

      Axially assembled retaining ring

  • 87. 
    In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates
    • A. 

      Pin

    • B. 

      Plain

    • C. 

      Primary

    • D. 

      Pratt and Whitney

  • 88. 
    Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied?
    • A. 

      Indicating type

    • B. 

      Breakaway type

    • C. 

      Screwdriver type

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching type

  • 89. 
    Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached?
    • A. 

      Indicating type

    • B. 

      Breakaway type

    • C. 

      Screwdriver type

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching type

  • 90. 
    Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the
    • A. 

      Maximum setting at least 4 times

    • B. 

      Maximum setting at least 6 times

    • C. 

      Lowest setting at least 4 times

    • D. 

      Lowest setting at least 6 times

  • 91. 
    Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving?
    • A. 

      Static

    • B. 

      Tension

    • C. 

      Dynamic

    • D. 

      Rotational

  • 92. 
    • A. 

      Extension and flexion

    • B. 

      Tension and torsion

    • C. 

      Torque and friction

    • D. 

      Push and pull

  • 93. 
    Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to
    • A. 

      Check the AC voltages only

    • B. 

      Check the DC voltages only

    • C. 

      Initiate the tough-hold mode

    • D. 

      Move the decimal point

  • 94. 
    • A. 

      Manual range mode is indicated

    • B. 

      Touch-hold mode is in use

    • C. 

      Ohms function is selected

    • D. 

      Meter is zeroing itself

  • 95. 
    Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?
    • A. 

      Multimeter

    • B. 

      Depth gauge

    • C. 

      Feeler gauge

    • D. 

      Torque wrench

  • 96. 
    • A. 

      0.5 inch

    • B. 

      1.0 inch

    • C. 

      1.5 inch

    • D. 

      2.0 inch

  • 97. 
    Which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut?
    • A. 

      Simple calipers

    • B. 

      Transfer calipers

    • C. 

      Spring-joint calipers

    • D. 

      Off-leg caliper

  • 98. 
    Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders?
    • A. 

      Slide caliper

    • B. 

      Center caliper

    • C. 

      Spring-joint caliper

    • D. 

      Odd-leg-caliper

  • 99. 
    Which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame?
    • A. 

      Slide caliper

    • B. 

      Simple caliper

    • C. 

      Transfer caliper

    • D. 

      Spring-joint caliper

  • 100. 
    • A. 

      Base commanders

    • B. 

      Squadron commanders

    • C. 

      Supervisors at all levels

    • D. 

      Squadron QA section

  • 101. 
    Bench stock levels are established to provide a
    • A. 

      15-day usage

    • B. 

      30-day usage

    • C. 

      60-day usage

    • D. 

      90-day usage

  • 102. 
    Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods?
    • A. 

      AF 2005

    • B. 

      AF Form 2413

    • C. 

      AF IMT 1297

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348-6

  • 103. 
    All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?
    • A. 

      PDC

    • B. 

      AAC

    • C. 

      PACC

    • D. 

      ERRC

  • 104. 
    Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and
    • A. 

      DD Form1348-6

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 349

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • D. 

      DD Form 1131

  • 105. 
    Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters?
    • A. 

      1577-2 and 1577-3

    • B. 

      1576 and 1576-1

    • C. 

      1574 and 1574-1

    • D. 

      1575 and 1575-1

  • 106. 
    Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for
    • A. 

      200 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt

    • B. 

      100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt

    • C. 

      200 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt

    • D. 

      100 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt

  • 107. 
    Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operation hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Isochronal

    • D. 

      Hourly postflight

  • 108. 
    Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Isochronal

    • D. 

      Hourly postflight

  • 109. 
    Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Isochronal

    • D. 

      Programmed depot maintenance

  • 110. 
    Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in
    • A. 

      Sequence charts

    • B. 

      Inspection work cards

    • C. 

      -06 work unit code manuals

    • D. 

      -6 technical order inspection manuals

  • 111. 
    Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems?
    • A. 

      In progress

    • B. 

      PR

    • C. 

      TH

    • D. 

      EOR

  • 112. 
    The TH inspection is normally performed
    • A. 

      Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period

    • B. 

      After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled

    • C. 

      Immediately prior to a BPO

    • D. 

      After the last flight of a specified flying period

  • 113. 
    Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30or 90 days?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Special

    • C. 

      Calendar

    • D. 

      Acceptance

  • 114. 
    Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Special

    • C. 

      Calendar

    • D. 

      Acceptance

  • 115. 
    To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should us a DD Form
    • A. 

      126

    • B. 

      1149

    • C. 

      2691

    • D. 

      2692

  • 116. 
    Which To should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance?
    • A. 

      1-21-101

    • B. 

      1-1-691

    • C. 

      1-1B-50

    • D. 

      1-1-5

  • 117. 
    • A. 

      Mission requirements

    • B. 

      Aircraft dimensions

    • C. 

      Structure strength

    • D. 

      Aircraft weight

  • 118. 
    Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?
    • A. 

      EMERGENCY

    • B. 

      DIAGNOSE

    • C. 

      TRIAGE

    • D. 

      STRAT

  • 119. 
    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is
    • A. 

      Exposed to moist air

    • B. 

      Exposed to a chemical

    • C. 

      Connected to another part

    • D. 

      Fabricated or manufactored

  • 120. 
    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is
    • A. 

      Painted

    • B. 

      Heat treated

    • C. 

      Chemically treated

    • D. 

      Exhausted or salvaged

  • 121. 
    • A. 

      Pitting

    • B. 

      Galvanic

    • C. 

      Exfoliation

    • D. 

      Crevice/concentration cell

  • 122. 
    • A. 

      Stress

    • B. 

      Intergranular

    • C. 

      Oxygen concentration cell

    • D. 

      Metal ion concentration cell

  • 123. 
    Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in
    • A. 

      TO 00-20-1

    • B. 

      TO 1-1-3

    • C. 

      TO 1-1A-8

    • D. 

      TO 1-1-691

  • 124. 
    After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?
    • A. 

      Potassium hydroxide

    • B. 

      Aluminum hydroxide

    • C. 

      Sodium bicarbonate

    • D. 

      Boric acid