Amt Practice Exam

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  • 1/236 Questions

    A patient's implied consent usually covers which one of the following procedures?

    • Blood test
    • Lumbar puncture
    • Organ donation
    • Breast biopsy
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Medical Training Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

The AMT Practice Exam assesses key medical knowledge areas including anatomy, physiology, and medical terminologies. It is designed to prepare candidates for rigorous medical training, focusing on essential concepts like bone fractures, blood pressure, and vitamin production.

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  • 2. 

    The avoidance of confronting a personal problem or reality by acting as if the problem or reality never existed is a defense mechanism known as

    • Displacement

    • Denial

    • Physical avoidance

    • Projection

    Correct Answer
    A. Denial
    Explanation
    Denial is a defense mechanism where an individual refuses to acknowledge or accept a personal problem or reality. It involves avoiding the truth and acting as if the problem or reality never existed. This can be a way for individuals to protect themselves from the discomfort or anxiety that comes with facing difficult situations. Denial allows them to maintain a sense of control and avoid dealing with the emotional or psychological impact of the problem or reality.

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  • 3. 

    Permanent adult dentition consists of _______ teeth.

    • 32

    • 30

    • 20

    • 18

    Correct Answer
    A. 32
    Explanation
    Permanent adult dentition consists of 32 teeth. This is because a full set of permanent teeth in adults includes 8 incisors, 4 canines, 8 premolars, and 12 molars (including 4 wisdom teeth). This totals to 32 teeth in total.

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  • 4. 

    Patient education for minor burn care involves all of the following EXCEPT

    • Gentile cleansing of the wound with bactericidal solution (Betadine)

    • Covering the wound with an antibiotic ointment (silver sulfadiazine)

    • Eating a low-calorie, low-protein diet to promote healing

    • Paying attention to fever, malaise, inflammation, swelling, increased pain, odor, and draining from the burn area

    Correct Answer
    A. Eating a low-calorie, low-protein diet to promote healing
    Explanation
    Patient education for minor burn care involves gentle cleansing of the wound with a bactericidal solution (Betadine), covering the wound with an antibiotic ointment (silver sulfadiazine), and paying attention to signs of infection such as fever, malaise, inflammation, swelling, increased pain, odor, and draining from the burn area. However, eating a low-calorie, low-protein diet is not directly related to promoting healing in minor burn care.

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  • 5. 

    Under this doctrine, physicians are legally responsible for the acts of their employees when they are acting within the scope of their duties or employment.

    • Respondeat superior

    • Reciprocity

    • The Occupational Safety and Health Act

    • Patient's Bill of Rights

    Correct Answer
    A. Respondeat superior
    Explanation
    Respondeat superior is a legal doctrine that holds physicians responsible for the actions of their employees when those employees are performing their job duties. This means that if a physician's employee, such as a nurse or medical assistant, commits a negligent act or makes a mistake while carrying out their job responsibilities, the physician can be held legally accountable for the employee's actions. This doctrine is based on the idea that the employer should be responsible for the actions of their employees while they are acting within the scope of their employment.

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  • 6. 

    The statue that defines what is included in the practice of medicine, establishes the requirements for licensure, and establishes the grounds for suspension or revocation of a license is called the 

    • Nursing and Advance Practice Nursing Act

    • Medical Practice Act

    • Patient's BIll of Rights

    • National Health Planning and Resources Development Act

    Correct Answer
    A. Medical Practice Act
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Medical Practice Act. The Medical Practice Act is a statute that sets out the guidelines and regulations for the practice of medicine. It defines what is included in the practice of medicine, such as diagnosing and treating patients, and establishes the requirements for licensure for medical professionals. It also outlines the grounds for suspension or revocation of a medical license, ensuring that healthcare providers adhere to ethical and professional standards in their practice.

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  • 7. 

    Substitution of another surgeon without the patient's consent when the patient has already received anesthesia and has no idea that a substitution has been made is called

    • Legal waiver

    • Contractual relationship

    • Reparation

    • Ghost surgery

    Correct Answer
    A. Ghost surgery
    Explanation
    Ghost surgery refers to the practice of substituting another surgeon without the patient's consent while they are under anesthesia, without their knowledge. This unethical practice is considered a violation of the patient's autonomy and trust, as they have the right to know and consent to the medical professionals involved in their care. The term "ghost surgery" implies that the original surgeon appears to be performing the procedure, while in reality, someone else is doing the work.

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  • 8. 

    The lining of the uterus is called the

    • Myometrium

    • Endometrium

    • Peritoneum

    • Mycardium

    Correct Answer
    A. Endometrium
    Explanation
    The lining of the uterus is called the endometrium. This is the innermost layer of the uterus and plays a crucial role in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy. The endometrium thickens and prepares for implantation of a fertilized egg during the menstrual cycle. If pregnancy does not occur, the endometrium is shed during menstruation. If pregnancy occurs, the endometrium provides nourishment and support to the developing embryo.

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  • 9. 

    A medical assistant makes a medication error while under the physician's direction.  The patient is injured and files a medical malpractice lawsuit.  The court determines that the physician is liable for the medical assistant's negligence.  This is known as the doctrine of 

    • Respondeat superior

    • Res ispa loquitur

    • Locum tenens

    • Res judicata

    Correct Answer
    A. Respondeat superior
    Explanation
    The correct answer is respondeat superior. Respondeat superior is a legal doctrine that holds an employer or superior liable for the negligent actions of their employees or subordinates. In this case, the physician is held liable for the medication error made by the medical assistant while working under their direction. This doctrine recognizes that employers have a responsibility to ensure that their employees act with due care and can be held accountable for any harm caused by their negligence.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following cases would exemplify the concept of res ipsa loquitur?

    • A physician writes a schedule II drug prescription with no refills

    • A health care provider consults another provider for a patient requiring a specialist

    • A surgeon leaves a sponge in a patient's abdominal cavity after abdominal surgery

    • A physician advises against unnecessary surgery

    Correct Answer
    A. A surgeon leaves a sponge in a patient's abdominal cavity after abdominal surgery
    Explanation
    Res ipsa loquitur is a legal doctrine that allows a plaintiff to establish a presumption of negligence on the part of the defendant based on the occurrence of an accident or injury. In this case, the surgeon leaving a sponge in a patient's abdominal cavity after abdominal surgery would exemplify res ipsa loquitur because it is an obvious and preventable error that would not occur in the absence of negligence. The fact that a foreign object was left inside the patient's body is strong evidence of the surgeon's negligence.

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  • 11. 

    Dr. Martin agrees to perform an appendectomy on Mrs. O'Hara.  Mrs. O'Hara has received anesthesia and is prepped for surgery.  Dr. Martin is double-booked so he allows the Chief Resident, Dr. Thompson, to perform Mrs. O'Hara's appendectomy.  The practice of substituting another surgeon without the patient's consent is considered

    • Surgical fee splitting

    • Contingent surgery

    • Ghost surgery

    • Surgical professional courtesy

    Correct Answer
    A. Ghost surgery
    Explanation
    Ghost surgery refers to the practice of allowing another surgeon to perform a procedure without the patient's knowledge or consent, while the original surgeon takes credit for the surgery. In this scenario, Dr. Martin allows Dr. Thompson to perform the appendectomy without informing Mrs. O'Hara, which is an example of ghost surgery.

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  • 12. 

    "Determining where the document should be filed and deciding on the filing caption" is what part of the filing process?

    • Conditioning

    • Releasing

    • Indexing

    • Coding

    Correct Answer
    A. Indexing
    Explanation
    Indexing is the part of the filing process where the location of a document is determined and a filing caption is assigned. This involves organizing and categorizing documents based on their content or subject matter, and assigning them a specific place within the filing system. By indexing documents, it becomes easier to retrieve and locate them when needed.

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  • 13. 

    The part of the pharynx that is a passageway for air only is the 

    • Nasopharynx

    • Oropharynx

    • Laryngopharynx

    • Larynx

    Correct Answer
    A. Nasopharynx
    Explanation
    The nasopharynx is the correct answer because it is the part of the pharynx that serves as a passageway for air only. It is located behind the nasal cavity and above the oropharynx. The nasopharynx is responsible for conducting air from the nasal passages into the rest of the respiratory system, while the oropharynx and laryngopharynx are involved in both air and food passage. The larynx, on the other hand, is the structure commonly known as the voice box and is responsible for sound production.

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  • 14. 

    The internal folds of the stomach are known as

    • Villi

    • Rugae

    • Cilia

    • Convolutions

    Correct Answer
    A. Rugae
    Explanation
    The internal folds of the stomach are known as rugae. These rugae are important for increasing the surface area of the stomach, allowing it to expand and accommodate more food. They also help in the mixing and digestion of food by increasing the contact between the stomach lining and the food particles. The term "villi" refers to small finger-like projections found in the small intestine, "cilia" are hair-like structures involved in movement, and "convolutions" are the folds in the brain.

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  • 15. 

    A discussion involving the physician providing the patient or the patient's legal representation with a deeper understanding of the patient's condition, a full explanation of the plan for treatment, and enough information to

    • Implied consent

    • Informed consent

    • Reasonable consent

    Correct Answer
    A. Informed consent
    Explanation
    Informed consent refers to a discussion between the physician and the patient or their legal representative, where the patient is provided with a thorough understanding of their condition and a detailed explanation of the treatment plan. Sufficient information is given to the patient so that they can make an educated decision about their medical care. This ensures that the patient is fully aware of the risks, benefits, and alternatives involved in the proposed treatment, allowing them to provide their consent based on their understanding.

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  • 16. 

    A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called

    • Major medical

    • Service benefit plan

    • Co-payment plan

    • Coordination of benefits

    Correct Answer
    A. Coordination of benefits
    Explanation
    A "non-duplication of benefits" refers to the coordination of benefits between multiple insurance plans to prevent duplicate payments for the same medical expenses. This means that when a person has multiple insurance plans, the coordination of benefits ensures that the total amount reimbursed does not exceed the actual cost of the medical service. Therefore, the correct answer is "coordination of benefits."

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  • 17. 

    The physician tells you to auscultate for a full minute.  What is he wanting you to do?

    • Listen with your stethoscope

    • Gently tap the back chest region

    • Feel the area

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Listen with your stethoscope
    Explanation
    The physician wants you to listen to the patient's body sounds using a stethoscope for a full minute. This is an important diagnostic technique that allows the physician to assess the patient's heart, lungs, and other internal organs. By auscultating, the physician can detect any abnormal sounds or murmurs that may indicate underlying health conditions. It is a crucial step in a physical examination and helps in making an accurate diagnosis.

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  • 18. 

    Growth hormone is produced in the

    • Thymus

    • Thyroid

    • Pancreas

    • Pituitary

    Correct Answer
    A. Pituitary
    Explanation
    The growth hormone is produced in the pituitary gland. The pituitary gland is a small, pea-sized gland located at the base of the brain. It is often referred to as the "master gland" because it produces and releases several important hormones that regulate various bodily functions, including growth. The growth hormone, also known as somatotropin, plays a crucial role in stimulating growth and development in children and adolescents. It also helps regulate metabolism, body composition, and muscle and bone growth in both children and adults.

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  • 19. 

    Encephalopathy is defined as

    • Swelling of the brain

    • Deterioration of the brain

    • Inflammation of the brain

    • Any dysfunction of the brain

    Correct Answer
    A. Any dysfunction of the brain
    Explanation
    Encephalopathy is a broad term that encompasses any dysfunction or abnormality in the brain. It can be caused by various factors such as infections, toxins, metabolic disorders, or traumatic brain injuries. This condition can lead to a wide range of symptoms including cognitive impairment, memory loss, seizures, and changes in behavior or personality. Therefore, "any dysfunction of the brain" is an accurate and comprehensive definition for encephalopathy.

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  • 20. 

    A protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is

    • Elastin

    • Keratin

    • Melanin

    • Collagen

    Correct Answer
    A. Keratin
    Explanation
    Keratin is a protein found in the epidermal cells of the skin. It forms a protective layer that helps to make the skin relatively waterproof. Keratin is known for its structural properties and is responsible for the strength and resilience of the skin, hair, and nails. It helps to prevent excessive water loss from the skin and protects it from external factors such as chemicals and pathogens.

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  • 21. 

    What is the medical term for "baby teeth"?

    • Deciduous

    • Small Teeth

    • Fake Teeth

    • Bicuspid

    Correct Answer
    A. Deciduous
    Explanation
    Deciduous is the correct answer because it is the medical term used to describe "baby teeth." Deciduous teeth are the first set of teeth that erupt in children, and they are eventually replaced by permanent teeth. The term "deciduous" is derived from Latin, meaning "to fall off," which refers to the fact that these teeth will eventually be shed.

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  • 22. 

    The medical term for indigestion is

    • Dyspepsia

    • Dyspahagia

    • Stomatitis

    • Ascites

    Correct Answer
    A. Dyspepsia
    Explanation
    Dyspepsia is the correct answer because it is the medical term for indigestion. It refers to a condition characterized by discomfort or pain in the upper abdomen, bloating, and feeling full quickly during meals. Dyspahagia refers to difficulty swallowing, stomatitis refers to inflammation of the mouth, and ascites refers to the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity.

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  • 23. 

    The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from

    • Loss of credentials

    • Civil and criminal liability

    • Contracting diseases

    • Accidental injury

    Correct Answer
    A. Civil and criminal liability
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from civil and criminal liability. This means that if a healthcare provider acts in good faith to provide First Aid to someone in need, they cannot be held legally responsible for any harm or injury that may occur during the process. This protection encourages healthcare providers to assist in emergency situations without fear of facing legal consequences for their actions.

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  • 24. 

    A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is

    • An open fracture

    • A compound fracture

    • A comminuted fracture

    • A greenstick fracture

    Correct Answer
    A. A comminuted fracture
    Explanation
    A comminuted fracture is a type of bone fracture where the bone is broken into multiple fragments. This can occur due to high-impact trauma or a direct blow to the bone. In a comminuted fracture, the bone shatters into several pieces, making it more difficult to treat and heal compared to other types of fractures. This type of fracture often requires surgical intervention to realign and stabilize the bone fragments for proper healing.

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  • 25. 

    The vitamin produced by the normal flora of the colon in amounts sufficient to meet a person's daily need, is vitamin

    • A

    • E

    • K

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. K
    Explanation
    The correct answer is K. The normal flora of the colon produces vitamin K in amounts sufficient to meet a person's daily need. Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting and plays a role in bone health. It is mainly produced by bacteria in the large intestine and can also be obtained through diet, particularly from leafy green vegetables.

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  • 26. 

    Night blindness may be caused by a deficiency of 

    • Niacin

    • Thiamin

    • Vitamin A

    • Vitamin D

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitamin A
    Explanation
    Night blindness is a condition where an individual has difficulty seeing in low light or darkness. It is commonly caused by a deficiency of vitamin A. Vitamin A is essential for the functioning of the retina, the part of the eye that is responsible for vision in low light conditions. A deficiency of vitamin A can lead to a deterioration of the retina, resulting in night blindness. Therefore, the correct answer is vitamin A.

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  • 27. 

    The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery?

    • Aorta

    • Carotid

    • Coronary

    • Pulmonary

    Correct Answer
    A. Aorta
    Explanation
    The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through the aorta. The aorta is the largest artery in the body and carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. It branches out into smaller arteries, supplying oxygen and nutrients to various organs and tissues. The carotid artery carries blood to the head and neck, the coronary arteries supply blood to the heart muscle, and the pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.

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  • 28. 

    "Ostomy" is a 

    • Root

    • Prefix

    • Suffix

    • Combing form

    Correct Answer
    A. Suffix
    Explanation
    "Ostomy" is a suffix because it is a word part that is added to the end of a word to modify its meaning. In medical terminology, the suffix "ostomy" is commonly used to indicate a surgical procedure that creates an artificial opening in the body for the passage of waste material. Examples include colostomy, ileostomy, and urostomy.

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  • 29. 

    A medical assistant taking a pulse by listening to the heart is taking a 

    • Radial pulse

    • Pedal pulse

    • Carotid pulse

    • Apical pulse

    Correct Answer
    A. Apical pulse
    Explanation
    The correct answer is apical pulse. This is because when a medical assistant listens to the heart, they are specifically listening to the apical pulse. The apical pulse is taken by placing a stethoscope on the chest near the apex of the heart, usually at the fifth intercostal space. This allows the medical assistant to hear the heart sounds and determine the rate and rhythm of the heartbeat. The other options, radial pulse, pedal pulse, and carotid pulse, refer to different pulse points in the body, but they are not specifically related to listening to the heart.

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  • 30. 

    The most important digestive enzyme in the gastric juice is the 

    • Rennin

    • Gastrin

    • CCK

    • Pepsin

    Correct Answer
    A. Pepsin
    Explanation
    Pepsin is the most important digestive enzyme in gastric juice because it plays a crucial role in breaking down proteins into smaller peptides. It is secreted as an inactive form called pepsinogen, which is activated by the acidic environment in the stomach. Once activated, pepsin starts breaking down proteins into smaller fragments, facilitating their digestion and absorption in the small intestine. Without pepsin, proper protein digestion would be compromised, leading to nutrient deficiencies and digestive issues.

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  • 31. 

    A hernia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called

    • Rectocele

    • Rectolingual

    • Rectostenosis

    • Rectouretheral

    Correct Answer
    A. Rectocele
    Explanation
    A hernia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called rectocele. This condition occurs when the muscles and tissues that support the rectum weaken, allowing the rectum to bulge into the vagina. It can cause symptoms such as difficulty in passing stool, a sensation of incomplete bowel movement, and pelvic pressure. Rectocele is commonly seen in women, especially those who have given birth or have chronic constipation. Treatment options include lifestyle changes, pelvic floor exercises, and in severe cases, surgery.

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  • 32. 

    What type of immunization is the only one given at birth?

    • Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)

    • Varicalla zoster (VZV)

    • Hepatitis B (Hep B)

    • Haemophilus influenza (HIB)

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis B (Hep B)
    Explanation
    Hepatitis B (Hep B) is the only type of immunization given at birth. This vaccine is administered to newborns to protect them against the hepatitis B virus, which can cause liver damage and other serious health problems. Giving the vaccine at birth helps to ensure early protection for the baby, as the virus can be transmitted from mother to child during childbirth. The other options listed, such as MMR, VZV, and HIB, are typically given at later ages as part of the regular childhood immunization schedule.

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  • 33. 

    Abnormal widening of the atrial wall that is weak and bulges defines the term

    • Embolism

    • Phlebitis

    • Aneurysm

    • Arteriosclerosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Aneurysm
    Explanation
    An aneurysm refers to an abnormal widening of the atrial wall that is weak and bulges. This condition occurs when there is a localized weakness in the blood vessel wall, causing it to balloon out and potentially rupture. Aneurysms can occur in various parts of the body, but in this case, it specifically refers to the atrial wall. Embolism, phlebitis, and arteriosclerosis are unrelated conditions and do not involve the bulging of the atrial wall.

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  • 34. 

    Of the following medications, which is used to treat angina?

    • Lasix

    • Norvasc

    • Toprol- XL

    • Xanax

    Correct Answer
    A. Norvasc
    Explanation
    Norvasc is used to treat angina. It belongs to a class of medications called calcium channel blockers, which work by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, allowing more blood and oxygen to flow to the heart. This helps to reduce the frequency and severity of angina attacks. Lasix is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention, Toprol-XL is a beta blocker used to treat high blood pressure and heart problems, and Xanax is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety disorders.

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  • 35. 

    Res ipsa loqiutur, "The thing speaks for itself" is an example of what common law of negligence?

    • A patient becomes irate waiting three hours to see her doctor.

    • A surgeon closes an abdominal cavity after a surgery prior to removing a piece of gauze.

    • A provider is running due to car troubles and patients have already started to arrive.

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. A surgeon closes an abdominal cavity after a surgery prior to removing a piece of gauze.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is option 4 because the concept of "res ipsa loquitur" in common law of negligence refers to situations where the mere occurrence of an accident or injury implies negligence. In this case, the surgeon closing the abdominal cavity without removing the gauze indicates negligence as it is a clear and obvious mistake that should not have occurred in a standard surgical procedure.

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  • 36. 

    The prefix "ad" means

    • To move away from

    • To add to

    • Around

    • Removal of

    Correct Answer
    A. To add to
    Explanation
    The prefix "ad" in this context means "to add to". This prefix is commonly used in words like "adhesive" (to stick or attach) and "advance" (to move forward or progress). It indicates that something is being added or joined with another thing, implying an increase or enhancement.

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  • 37. 

    Which statement best describes the practice known as "fee splitting"?

    • It is the unethical practice of basing the physician's fee on the success of the treatment.

    • Is is the unethical practice in which physicians are paid for referring patients.

    • If refers to the lowering of the physician's fee as a way to help poor patients.

    • Is is an appropriate method of allowing two physicians to work together in treating a patient.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is is the unethical practice in which physicians are paid for referring patients.
    Explanation
    "Fee splitting" is the unethical practice in which physicians are paid for referring patients. This means that physicians receive a financial incentive for sending patients to specific healthcare providers or facilities. This practice is considered unethical because it can compromise the physician's objectivity and potentially lead to unnecessary referrals or treatments. It undermines the trust between physicians and patients and can prioritize financial gain over the patient's best interests.

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  • 38. 

    What medication is an agent that blocks parasympathetic nerve impulses?

    • A contraceptive

    • An antidiarrheal

    • An antimanic

    • An anticholinergic

    Correct Answer
    A. An anticholinergic
    Explanation
    An anticholinergic medication is a type of drug that blocks the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that is involved in transmitting parasympathetic nerve impulses. By blocking these impulses, anticholinergic drugs can have various effects on the body, such as reducing involuntary muscle movements, decreasing saliva production, and relaxing smooth muscles. Therefore, an anticholinergic medication is an agent that blocks parasympathetic nerve impulses.

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  • 39. 

    What is the tube volumes range from?

    • 2 to 15 mL

    • 10 to 20 mL

    • 15 to 25 mL

    • 2 to 6 mL

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 to 15 mL
    Explanation
    The tube volumes range from 2 to 15 mL. This means that the tubes can hold a minimum of 2 mL and a maximum of 15 mL of liquid.

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  • 40. 

    The right lung is divided into how many sections?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The right lung is divided into three sections, known as lobes. These lobes are the superior, middle, and inferior lobes. Each lobe has its own separate blood supply and is further divided into smaller segments. The division of the lung into lobes allows for efficient ventilation and distribution of air throughout the lung.

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  • 41. 

    Polydipsia is seen in conjunction with what condition?

    • Cataracts

    • Diabetes

    • Pregnancy

    • Alcoholism

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetes
    Explanation
    Polydipsia refers to excessive thirst and is a common symptom of diabetes. In diabetes, the high levels of glucose in the blood cause the body to try and dilute it by increasing fluid intake, leading to increased thirst. Therefore, polydipsia is seen in conjunction with diabetes.

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  • 42. 

    What is the acceptable range of bleeding time when performing blood tests?

    • 5- 10 min

    • 2-7 min

    • 15-20 min

    • 35-40 min

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-7 min
    Explanation
    The acceptable range of bleeding time when performing blood tests is 2-7 minutes. This range indicates the normal duration for bleeding to stop after a blood test is performed. If the bleeding time exceeds 7 minutes, it may suggest a potential bleeding disorder or other underlying health issues. Conversely, if the bleeding time is less than 2 minutes, it could indicate a potential clotting disorder. Therefore, the range of 2-7 minutes is considered acceptable for a normal bleeding time during blood tests.

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  • 43. 

    The rod-shaped bacteria, Bacillus, causes which of the following?

    • Tuberculosis

    • Tetanus

    • Otitis externa

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The rod-shaped bacteria, Bacillus, is known to cause multiple diseases including tuberculosis, tetanus, and otitis externa. These bacteria are capable of infecting various parts of the body and can lead to different symptoms and complications depending on the affected area. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as Bacillus can cause all the mentioned diseases.

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  • 44. 

    What type of insurance is intended to cover Medicare deductible, coinsurance, and other uncovered items?

    • Medicaid

    • HMO

    • MediGap

    • PPO

    Correct Answer
    A. MediGap
    Explanation
    MediGap insurance is specifically designed to cover the expenses that are not covered by Medicare, such as deductibles, coinsurance, and other out-of-pocket costs. It works as a supplemental insurance policy to fill the gaps in Medicare coverage. Medicaid, HMO, and PPO are not intended to cover Medicare deductibles, coinsurance, and uncovered items.

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  • 45. 

    When an HMO hires physicians and pays them a salary to provide medical services, what HMO model is being implemented?

    • Group

    • IPA

    • Network

    • Staff

    Correct Answer
    A. Staff
    Explanation
    When an HMO hires physicians and pays them a salary to provide medical services, the HMO model being implemented is the Staff model. In this model, the physicians are directly employed by the HMO and receive a salary, rather than being independent contractors or receiving payment based on a fee-for-service arrangement. This allows the HMO to have more control over the physicians' practice patterns and ensures that they are focused on providing care within the HMO's guidelines and objectives.

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  • 46. 

    What is an example of a smooth muscle?

    • Triceps

    • Arrector pilli

    • Biceps

    • Pectoralis

    Correct Answer
    A. Arrector pilli
    Explanation
    Arrector pili is an example of smooth muscle. Smooth muscles are involuntary muscles found in various organs and structures of the body. Arrector pili muscles are small muscles attached to hair follicles and are responsible for causing hair to stand up, creating "goosebumps" on the skin. They are composed of smooth muscle tissue, which is non-striated and under involuntary control. Triceps, biceps, and pectoralis are examples of skeletal muscles, which are striated and under voluntary control.

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  • 47. 

    The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is the

    • Ureter

    • Renal pelvis

    • Urinary bladder

    • Bowman's capsule

    Correct Answer
    A. Renal pelvis
    Explanation
    The renal pelvis is the correct answer because it is the cavity within the kidney that collects urine. It is a funnel-shaped structure that connects the kidney to the ureter, which then transports the urine to the urinary bladder. The renal pelvis serves as a reservoir for urine before it is eliminated from the body. Bowman's capsule, on the other hand, is a part of the nephron in the kidney that filters blood to form urine.

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  • 48. 

    The committee on Medicolegal Problems of the American Medical Association has determined that patients must present evidence of four elements before negligence has been proven.  Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of negligence? 

    • Duty

    • Defamation

    • Direct cause

    • Damages

    Correct Answer
    A. Defamation
    Explanation
    Defamation is not one of the four elements of negligence. The four elements that patients must present evidence of before negligence can be proven are duty, direct cause, damages, and breach of duty. Defamation refers to making false statements that harm someone's reputation, but it is not directly related to negligence.

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  • 49. 

    At what point does systolic pressure occur?

    • During ventricular relaxation

    • During ventricular contraction

    • During contraction of the aorta

    • During relaxation of the atria

    Correct Answer
    A. During ventricular contraction
    Explanation
    Systolic pressure occurs during ventricular contraction. This is when the heart's ventricles contract and pump blood out of the heart and into the arteries. The contraction of the ventricles causes the highest pressure in the arteries, which is known as systolic pressure. This is the first number recorded when measuring blood pressure, representing the pressure when the heart is actively pumping blood.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 30, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Jessicar77

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