4N051 Set A Vol 2

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Cell Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    How does the anatomical lateral postition differ from the term medial?

    • A.

      At the back of the body or body part

    • B.

      Toward the back of the body or body part

    • C.

      Away from the midline of the body or body part

    • D.

      Toward the head or area of the body that is closer to the head

    Correct Answer
    C. Away from the midline of the body or body part
    Explanation
    The anatomical lateral position refers to being away from the midline of the body or body part. This means that when an object or body part is in the anatomical lateral position, it is located further away from the center line of the body. In contrast, the term medial refers to being closer to the midline of the body or body part. Therefore, the anatomical lateral position and the term medial are opposite in terms of their location relative to the midline.

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  • 2. 

    A line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best describes which of the following body movements?

    • A.

      Circumduction

    • B.

      Range of motion

    • C.

      Longitudinal axis

    • D.

      Axis of joint rotation

    Correct Answer
    D. Axis of joint rotation
    Explanation
    The term "axis of joint rotation" refers to a line that is perpendicular to the plane of motion. This line represents the axis around which a joint rotates during movement. It is an important concept in understanding the mechanics of joint movement and is commonly used in biomechanics and anatomy. The other options, such as circumduction and range of motion, are related to joint movement but do not specifically describe the line perpendicular to the plane of motion.

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  • 3. 

    You are double-checking the doctor's orders before going into one of your patients, Mrs. Jones room. what would it mean for Mrs. Jones if the doctor's orders are written as NPO?

    • A.

      May walk around as desired

    • B.

      Should increase her fluid intake

    • C.

      May not have anything to eat or drink

    • D.

      May not get out of bed without assistance

    Correct Answer
    C. May not have anything to eat or drink
    Explanation
    If the doctor's orders are written as NPO, it would mean that Mrs. Jones is not allowed to have anything to eat or drink.

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  • 4. 

    You have just completed screening a patient with an appointment for blurred vision in the right eye. How should you document this information correctly?

    • A.

      Patient complains of blurred vision-OD

    • B.

      Patient complains of blurred vision-AD

    • C.

      Patient complains of blurred vision-right eye

    • D.

      The technician informs the provider but does not document

    Correct Answer
    C. Patient complains of blurred vision-right eye
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "patient complains of blurred vision-right eye." This answer accurately documents the patient's complaint of blurred vision specifically in the right eye. The other options either use different abbreviations (OD and AD) or do not specify the eye affected. The technician informing the provider without documenting does not fulfill the requirement of correctly documenting the information.

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  • 5. 

    You would not find which of the following components in the cytoplasm of a cell? 

    • A.

      Nucleus

    • B.

      Centrosomes

    • C.

      Golgi apparatus

    • D.

      Endoplasmic reticulum

    Correct Answer
    A. Nucleus
    Explanation
    The nucleus is not found in the cytoplasm of a cell. It is a membrane-bound organelle that is located in the center of the cell and contains the cell's genetic material. The cytoplasm, on the other hand, refers to the fluid-like substance that fills the cell and surrounds the organelles. The other components listed in the question (centrosomes, golgi apparatus, and endoplasmic reticulum) are all found in the cytoplasm of a cell.

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  • 6. 

    The network of tubules that moves molecules within the cell is the

    • A.

      Vesicles

    • B.

      Centrosomes

    • C.

      Golgi apparatus

    • D.

      Endoplasmic reticulum

    Correct Answer
    D. Endoplasmic reticulum
    Explanation
    The endoplasmic reticulum is a network of tubules within the cell that plays a crucial role in the movement of molecules. It is responsible for the synthesis, folding, and transport of proteins, as well as the synthesis of lipids. The endoplasmic reticulum is connected to the nuclear envelope and extends throughout the cytoplasm, allowing for the efficient transport of molecules within the cell. Therefore, it is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 7. 

    What part of the cell provides the primary source of cellular energy?

    • A.

      Ribosomes

    • B.

      Lysosomes

    • C.

      Peroxisomes

    • D.

      Mitochondria

    Correct Answer
    D. Mitochondria
    Explanation
    Mitochondria are known as the "powerhouses" of the cell because they are responsible for producing the majority of the cell's energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) through a process called cellular respiration. This process occurs in the inner membrane of the mitochondria, where nutrients are broken down and converted into ATP. Therefore, mitochondria provide the primary source of cellular energy. Ribosomes, lysosomes, and peroxisomes do not play a direct role in energy production.

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  • 8. 

    What part of the cell plays an important role in processing proteins with the cell and other areas of the body? 

    • A.

      Ribosomes

    • B.

      Centrosomes

    • C.

      Cilia and flagella

    • D.

      Endoplasmic reticulum

    Correct Answer
    A. Ribosomes
    Explanation
    Ribosomes play an important role in processing proteins within the cell and other areas of the body. They are responsible for protein synthesis, where they read the genetic information from the DNA and assemble amino acids into proteins. Ribosomes can be found in the cytoplasm of the cell or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. They are essential for the proper functioning of cells and are involved in various cellular processes.

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  • 9. 

    Which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus of the cell is actually dividing?

    • A.

      Anaphase

    • B.

      Prophase

    • C.

      Telephase

    • D.

      Metaphase

    Correct Answer
    A. Anaphase
    Explanation
    Anaphase is the phase of mitosis where the chromosomes separate and move towards opposite ends of the cell. This signifies that the nucleus of the cell is actually dividing because the chromosomes are being physically separated into two distinct sets. In prophase, the chromosomes condense but do not yet separate. In metaphase, the chromosomes align in the middle of the cell but do not divide. In telophase, the chromosomes reach opposite ends of the cell but are not yet fully divided. Therefore, anaphase is the phase that signifies the actual division of the nucleus.

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  • 10. 

    In what part of the cell life would the cell continue to grow until it divided again?

    • A.

      Mitosis

    • B.

      Interphase

    • C.

      Metabolism

    • D.

      Cell differentiation

    Correct Answer
    B. Interphase
    Explanation
    During interphase, the cell continues to grow until it divides again. Interphase is the longest phase of the cell cycle and consists of three stages: G1, S, and G2. During G1, the cell grows in size, synthesizes proteins, and carries out its normal functions. In the S phase, DNA replication occurs, resulting in the doubling of the genetic material. Lastly, during G2, the cell continues to grow and prepares for cell division. Therefore, interphase is the phase where the cell actively grows and prepares for division, making it the correct answer.

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  • 11. 

    The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as

    • A.

      Interphase

    • B.

      Metaphase

    • C.

      Cell differentiation

    • D.

      Cytoplasmic division

    Correct Answer
    C. Cell differentiation
    Explanation
    Cell differentiation is the correct answer because it refers to the process by which cells undergo specialization to perform specific functions in an organism. During cell differentiation, cells acquire distinct characteristics and structures that enable them to carry out specific tasks. This process is crucial for the development and functioning of multicellular organisms, as it allows for the formation of various types of cells, such as muscle cells, nerve cells, and blood cells, each with unique properties and roles.

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  • 12. 

    What type of tissue is found in the spinal cord?

    • A.

      Cardiac

    • B.

      Smooth

    • C.

      Skeletal

    • D.

      Nervous

    Correct Answer
    D. Nervous
    Explanation
    The correct answer is nervous. The spinal cord is a part of the central nervous system and is composed of nervous tissue. Nervous tissue is responsible for transmitting signals between different parts of the body, allowing for communication and coordination. It is made up of specialized cells called neurons, which are capable of conducting electrical impulses. These neurons are supported by other types of cells called glial cells, which provide structural support and help in the functioning of neurons.

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  • 13. 

    What type of tissue can change its shape?

    • A.

      Muscle

    • B.

      Nervous

    • C.

      Epithilial

    • D.

      Connective

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscle
    Explanation
    Muscle tissue is able to change its shape. This is because muscle cells, also known as muscle fibers, have the unique ability to contract and relax. When the muscle contracts, it becomes shorter and thicker, causing the tissue to change its shape. This ability allows muscle tissue to generate force and movement in the body. Nervous tissue, epithelial tissue, and connective tissue do not have the same contractile properties as muscle tissue, and therefore cannot change their shape in the same way.

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  • 14. 

    Because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue?

    • A.

      Nervous

    • B.

      Epithial

    • C.

      Smooth muscle

    • D.

      Cardiac muscle

    Correct Answer
    D. Cardiac muscle
    Explanation
    Cardiac muscle is similar to skeletal muscle tissue because of its striated appearance. Both cardiac and skeletal muscles have a striped or striated appearance due to the arrangement of contractile proteins within the muscle fibers. This striation allows for coordinated and efficient contraction of the muscle. The other options, nervous, epithelial, and smooth muscle, do not have a striated appearance and therefore are not similar to skeletal muscle tissue in this aspect.

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  • 15. 

    Which muscle is attached to the eyelid?

    • A.

      Levator palebrae superioris

    • B.

      Superior oblique

    • C.

      Anterior oblique

    • D.

      Lateral rectus

    Correct Answer
    A. Levator palebrae superioris
    Explanation
    The muscle attached to the eyelid is the levator palpebrae superioris. This muscle is responsible for raising the upper eyelid and opening the eye. When this muscle contracts, it lifts the eyelid, allowing for better vision and eye movement. The superior oblique muscle is responsible for rotating the eye downward and away from the midline, while the anterior oblique and lateral rectus muscles are not directly involved in eyelid movement.

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  • 16. 

    Aqueous humor fills the space bewteen the cornea and the

    • A.

      Iris

    • B.

      Sclera

    • C.

      Macula

    • D.

      Conjunctiva

    Correct Answer
    A. Iris
    Explanation
    The aqueous humor is a clear fluid that fills the space between the cornea and the iris. It helps maintain the shape of the eyeball and provides nutrients to the cornea and lens. The iris, on the other hand, is the colored part of the eye that controls the size of the pupil and regulates the amount of light entering the eye. Therefore, it makes sense that the aqueous humor would be located between the cornea and the iris.

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  • 17. 

    What part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images?

    • A.

      Rods

    • B.

      Cones

    • C.

      Anterior portion of the iris

    • D.

      Posterior portion of the iris

    Correct Answer
    A. Rods
    Explanation
    The rods in the eye are largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images. Unlike cones, which are responsible for color vision and work best in bright light, rods are more sensitive to low levels of light and are therefore better suited for viewing in dimly lit environments. This allows us to perceive shapes and objects in low light conditions, even though our ability to discern color is limited.

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  • 18. 

    What nerve is the pathway to vision?

    • A.

      Posterior

    • B.

      Anterior

    • C.

      Sclera

    • D.

      Optic

    Correct Answer
    D. Optic
    Explanation
    The optic nerve is the pathway to vision. It carries visual information from the retina to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret visual stimuli.

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  • 19. 

    The auditory ossicles are located in the

    • A.

      Cochlea

    • B.

      Inner ear

    • C.

      Middle ear

    • D.

      Semicircular canals

    Correct Answer
    C. Middle ear
    Explanation
    The auditory ossicles are located in the middle ear. The middle ear is the part of the ear that is located between the outer ear and the inner ear. It consists of three small bones called the ossicles: the malleus, incus, and stapes. These bones are responsible for transmitting sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear. The cochlea, inner ear, and semicircular canals are all parts of the inner ear, not the middle ear.

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  • 20. 

    Movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the

    • A.

      Pinna

    • B.

      Cochlea

    • C.

      Malleus

    • D.

      Organ of corti

    Correct Answer
    B. Cochlea
    Explanation
    The cochlea is responsible for converting sound vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. When the stapes, one of the three tiny bones in the middle ear, moves in response to sound waves, it causes the fluid within the cochlea to move. This movement stimulates the hair cells within the organ of Corti, which are responsible for detecting different frequencies of sound. Therefore, the correct answer is cochlea.

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  • 21. 

    What is the system of chambers and tubes within the inner ear called?

    • A.

      Cochlea

    • B.

      Labyrinth

    • C.

      Vestibule

    • D.

      Semicircular canal

    Correct Answer
    B. Labyrinth
    Explanation
    The correct answer is labyrinth. The labyrinth is the system of chambers and tubes within the inner ear. It includes structures such as the cochlea, vestibule, and semicircular canals. These structures are responsible for transmitting sound and maintaining balance in the body.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is a nasal air passageway?

    • A.

      Olfactory bulb

    • B.

      Middle meatus

    • C.

      Antorior meatus

    • D.

      Olfactory receptor

    Correct Answer
    B. Middle meatus
    Explanation
    The middle meatus is a nasal air passageway located in the middle region of the nasal cavity. It is one of the three meatuses, along with the anterior and posterior meatuses, that help to direct and regulate the flow of air through the nasal passages. The olfactory bulb is responsible for the sense of smell, while the olfactory receptor is a specialized cell that detects odors. Therefore, neither of these options are nasal air passageways.

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  • 23. 

    Odors are described as belonging to which of these groups?

    • A.

      Seven primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them

    • B.

      Six primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them

    • C.

      Five primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them

    • D.

      Four primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them

    Correct Answer
    A. Seven primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them
    Explanation
    Odors are described as belonging to seven primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them. This means that odors can be categorized into seven main groups, but it is also possible for an odor to be a combination of two or more of these primary odors.

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  • 24. 

    What part of the nasal cavity does the superior meatus, middle meatus and inferior meatus make up?

    • A.

      Nasal conchae

    • B.

      Cribiform plate

    • C.

      Nerve pathways

    • D.

      Olfactory receptors

    Correct Answer
    A. Nasal conchae
    Explanation
    The correct answer is nasal conchae. The nasal conchae are bony structures that protrude into the nasal cavity, creating three curved shelves known as the superior, middle, and inferior meatus. These meatuses help to increase the surface area of the nasal cavity, which aids in the filtration, humidification, and warming of inhaled air. They also play a role in directing airflow and enhancing the sense of smell.

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  • 25. 

    The layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the

    • A.

      Stratum basale

    • B.

      Stratum corneum

    • C.

      Stratum spinosum

    • D.

      Srtatum granulosum

    Correct Answer
    C. Stratum spinosum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is stratum spinosum. The stratum spinosum is the layer of the epidermis that is located just above the deepest layer, the stratum basale. It is characterized by its spiny appearance due to the presence of desmosomes, which are intercellular junctions that provide strength and support to the skin. The stratum spinosum plays a crucial role in the production of keratinocytes, the main cells of the epidermis, and provides protection against external factors.

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  • 26. 

    Which glands play a role in keeping the hair and skin soft and waterproof?

    • A.

      Sebaceous

    • B.

      Apocrine

    • C.

      Eccrine

    • D.

      Sweat

    Correct Answer
    A. Sebaceous
    Explanation
    Sebaceous glands play a role in keeping the hair and skin soft and waterproof. These glands are responsible for producing sebum, an oily substance that lubricates and moisturizes the hair and skin. Sebum helps to maintain the skin's natural moisture barrier, preventing it from drying out and protecting it from external factors such as water and harsh environmental conditions. Therefore, sebaceous glands are essential for maintaining the softness and waterproofing properties of both hair and skin.

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  • 27. 

    The nail grows outward from the white area at the base called the

    • A.

      Nail plate

    • B.

      Dermis

    • C.

      Lunula

    • D.

      Nail bed

    Correct Answer
    C. Lunula
    Explanation
    The nail grows outward from the white area at the base called the lunula. The lunula is a crescent-shaped area located at the base of the nail, near the cuticle. It appears white because it is the thickest part of the nail and blocks the underlying blood vessels. As the nail grows, new cells are produced in the nail matrix, which is located beneath the lunula. These cells push the existing nail forward, causing it to grow outward from the lunula towards the fingertip.

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  • 28. 

    What substance is secreted by the sabaceous gland?

    • A.

      sebum

    • B.

      Sweat

    • C.

      Follicle

    • D.

      Adipose

    Correct Answer
    A. sebum
    Explanation
    Sebum is the correct answer because it is the substance secreted by the sebaceous gland. The sebaceous gland is responsible for producing sebum, an oily substance that helps lubricate and protect the skin and hair. Sweat is produced by sweat glands, not sebaceous glands. Follicle refers to a small cavity or sac in the body, and adipose refers to fatty tissue. Therefore, sebum is the substance specifically secreted by the sebaceous gland.

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  • 29. 

    Pigmintation is attributed to

    • A.

      Melanin

    • B.

      Dermal cells

    • C.

      Subcutaneous cells

    • D.

      Sebaceous gland secretions

    Correct Answer
    A. Melanin
    Explanation
    Melanin is responsible for pigmentation. It is a pigment produced by specialized cells called melanocytes, which are located in the epidermis (outer layer of the skin). Melanin provides color to the skin, hair, and eyes. It protects the skin from harmful UV radiation by absorbing and scattering the rays. The amount and type of melanin produced by melanocytes determine the color of an individual's skin, hair, and eyes. Therefore, melanin is the correct answer for the attribution of pigmentation.

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  • 30. 

    What substance does melanocyte produce?

    • A.

      Sebum

    • B.

      Melanin

    • C.

      Adipose

    • D.

      Pigmintation

    Correct Answer
    B. Melanin
    Explanation
    Melanocytes are specialized cells found in the skin that produce a pigment called melanin. Melanin is responsible for giving color to the skin, hair, and eyes. It helps protect the skin from harmful UV radiation by absorbing and scattering the UV rays. The amount of melanin produced by melanocytes determines a person's skin color. People with more melanin have darker skin, while those with less melanin have lighter skin. Melanin also plays a role in the development of freckles, moles, and other skin pigmentation.

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  • 31. 

    Where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system

    • A.

      Bone ends

    • B.

      Sesamoid bones

    • C.

      Medullary canal

    • D.

      Outermost portion of the bone

    Correct Answer
    A. Bone ends
    Explanation
    The bone ends refer to the rounded or irregularly shaped parts of the bone, such as the epiphysis. These areas are mainly composed of spongy or cancellous bone, which has a lattice-like structure with spaces filled with bone marrow. Compact bone, which is dense and hard, is primarily found in the shaft or diaphysis of long bones. Therefore, the bone ends would have very little compact bone and mainly consist of spongy bone.

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  • 32. 

    Where are nerves and blood vessels contained in the bone?

    • A.

      Articular

    • B.

      Periosteum

    • C.

      Cancellous bone

    • D.

      Medullary cavity

    Correct Answer
    D. Medullary cavity
    Explanation
    The medullary cavity is the correct answer because it is the central cavity within the bone that contains nerves and blood vessels. This cavity is filled with bone marrow and is surrounded by compact bone. The nerves and blood vessels in the medullary cavity provide nourishment and oxygen to the bone cells and help in the transmission of signals throughout the bone.

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  • 33. 

    What bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied?

    • A.

      Long

    • B.

      Short

    • C.

      Irregular

    • D.

      Sesamoid

    Correct Answer
    D. Sesamoid
    Explanation
    Sesamoid bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied. These small, round bones help to reduce friction and provide leverage in areas of high stress, such as the hands, feet, and knees. They are embedded within tendons and act as pulleys, allowing smooth movement and reducing wear and tear on the surrounding tissues.

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  • 34. 

    What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint?

    • A.

      Patella

    • B.

      Fibula

    • C.

      Femur

    • D.

      Tibia

    Correct Answer
    A. Patella
    Explanation
    The correct answer is patella. The patella, also known as the kneecap, is a triangular-shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint. It acts as a protective cover for the knee joint and helps in the smooth movement of the knee during activities such as walking, running, and jumping.

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  • 35. 

    The epimysium is located beneath the

    • A.

      Fascia

    • B.

      Fascicles

    • C.

      Perimysium

    • D.

      Endomysium

    Correct Answer
    A. Fascia
    Explanation
    The correct answer is fascia. The epimysium is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle. It is located beneath the fascia, which is another layer of connective tissue that surrounds the muscle but is more superficial. The fascia helps to separate and protect the muscles and other structures in the body. The fascicles, perimysium, and endomysium are all layers of connective tissue that are found within the muscle itself, rather than surrounding it.

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  • 36. 

    What type of muscle is skeletal muscle?

    • A.

      Voluntary; striated

    • B.

      Voluntary; non striated

    • C.

      Involuntary; striated

    • D.

      Involuntary; non striated

    Correct Answer
    A. Voluntary; striated
    Explanation
    Skeletal muscle is a type of muscle that is under voluntary control, meaning we have conscious control over its movements. It is also striated, which means it has a striped appearance due to the arrangement of its muscle fibers. This type of muscle is responsible for movements of the body, such as walking and lifting weights.

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  • 37. 

    The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the

    • A.

      Fascia

    • B.

      Tendon

    • C.

      Perimysium

    • D.

      Endomysium

    Correct Answer
    C. Perimysium
    Explanation
    The perimysium is the correct answer because it is the muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium. The epimysium is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle, and the perimysium is the layer that surrounds individual bundles of muscle fibers called fascicles. This layer provides support and protection to the muscle fibers within the fascicles.

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  • 38. 

    What attaches skeletal muscles to the bone?

    • A.

      Tendons

    • B.

      Ligaments

    • C.

      Aponeutoses

    • D.

      Visceral muscles

    Correct Answer
    A. Tendons
    Explanation
    Tendons are the correct answer because they are the fibrous connective tissues that attach skeletal muscles to bones. They are strong and flexible, allowing for the transmission of force from muscles to bones, enabling movement and stability. Ligaments, on the other hand, connect bones to other bones, aponeuroses are flat tendons that attach muscles to other structures, and visceral muscles are found in the internal organs, not attached to bones.

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  • 39. 

    What type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and fibula?

    • A.

      Condyloid

    • B.

      Gomphosis

    • C.

      Syndesmosis

    • D.

      Synchondrosis

    Correct Answer
    C. Syndesmosis
    Explanation
    A syndesmosis is a type of joint that connects two bones with a fibrous ligament, allowing limited movement between the bones. In this case, the distal end of the tibia and fibula are joined by a syndesmosis, which provides stability to the ankle joint while still allowing for some flexibility and movement.

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  • 40. 

    What type of joint connects the sternum and first rib?

    • A.

      Condyloid

    • B.

      Gomphosis

    • C.

      Syndesmosis

    • D.

      Synchondrosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Synchondrosis
    Explanation
    A synchondrosis joint is a type of joint that connects two bones with hyaline cartilage. In the case of the sternum and first rib, they are connected by a synchondrosis joint called the first sternocostal joint. This joint allows for limited movement and provides stability to the rib cage. The other options, condyloid, gomphosis, and syndesmosis, are not the correct types of joints that connect the sternum and first rib.

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  • 41. 

    What fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint?

    • A.

      Gomphosis

    • B.

      Synovial

    • C.

      Mucosal

    • D.

      Blood

    Correct Answer
    B. Synovial
    Explanation
    Synovial fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint. It helps reduce friction between the bones and provides nourishment to the cartilage, which lacks its own blood supply. This fluid is produced by the synovial membrane, which lines the joint cavity and secretes the synovial fluid. It plays a crucial role in maintaining joint health and proper functioning.

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  • 42. 

    The valve that leads from the right atrium to the right ventricleis the

    • A.

      Aortic valve

    • B.

      Mitral valve

    • C.

      Tricuspid valve

    • D.

      Pulmonary valve

    Correct Answer
    C. Tricuspid valve
    Explanation
    The tricuspid valve is the correct answer because it is the valve that leads from the right atrium to the right ventricle. This valve has three leaflets or cusps that open and close to allow blood to flow in one direction, preventing backflow. It is responsible for regulating the flow of blood between the two chambers of the right side of the heart. The aortic valve, mitral valve, and pulmonary valve are all located in different parts of the heart and serve different functions.

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  • 43. 

    What is the term for the muscular portion of the heart?

    • A.

      Septum

    • B.

      Pericardium

    • C.

      Myocardium

    • D.

      Endocardium

    Correct Answer
    C. Myocardium
    Explanation
    The term for the muscular portion of the heart is myocardium. The myocardium is the middle layer of the heart wall and is responsible for the contraction and pumping of blood. It is composed of specialized cardiac muscle tissue that is thicker in the left ventricle, which is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body. The myocardium plays a crucial role in maintaining the heart's function and ensuring proper blood circulation throughout the body.

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  • 44. 

    What is the valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle?

    • A.

      Aortic

    • B.

      Mitral

    • C.

      Tricuspid

    • D.

      Pulmonary

    Correct Answer
    B. Mitral
    Explanation
    The valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is called the mitral valve. It is also known as the bicuspid valve due to its two flaps. The mitral valve ensures that blood flows in one direction, from the left atrium to the left ventricle, preventing any backflow. It opens during the heart's relaxation phase (diastole) to allow blood to fill the left ventricle and closes during the contraction phase (systole) to prevent blood from flowing back into the atrium.

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  • 45. 

    What cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood?

    • A.

      Plasma

    • B.

      Platelets

    • C.

      Leukocytes

    • D.

      Erythrocytes

    Correct Answer
    B. Platelets
    Explanation
    Platelets are responsible for the clotting action in blood. When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets rush to the site and form a plug to stop bleeding. They release chemicals that activate other clotting factors and help in the formation of a fibrin mesh, which further strengthens the clot. This process is essential for preventing excessive bleeding and promoting wound healing. Plasma, leukocytes, and erythrocytes do not play a direct role in clotting.

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  • 46. 

    The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions is the

    • A.

      Pulse pressure

    • B.

      Residual pressure

    • C.

      Systolic blood pressure

    • D.

      Diastolic blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    D. Diastolic blood pressure
    Explanation
    Diastolic blood pressure refers to the pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions. It represents the lowest pressure in the arteries during the cardiac cycle. This is the time when the heart relaxes and refills with blood. Monitoring diastolic blood pressure is important as it reflects the pressure on the arteries when the heart is not actively pumping. It is typically measured as the second number in a blood pressure reading, with the systolic blood pressure representing the pressure during a contraction.

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  • 47. 

    What vein returns blood back to the heart from the lower body?

    • A.

      Capillaries

    • B.

      Pulmonary vein

    • C.

      Superior vena cava

    • D.

      Inferior vena cava

    Correct Answer
    D. Inferior vena cava
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the inferior vena cava. The inferior vena cava is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower body back to the heart. It collects blood from the lower limbs, pelvis, and abdominal organs, and delivers it to the right atrium of the heart.

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  • 48. 

    What is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood?

    • A.

      Aorta

    • B.

      Pulmonary

    • C.

      Superior vena cava

    • D.

      Inferior vena cava

    Correct Answer
    B. Pulmonary
    Explanation
    The pulmonary vein is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood. It receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs and transports it back to the heart. This is in contrast to other veins, such as the superior and inferior vena cava, which carry deoxygenated blood from the body back to the heart. The aorta is an artery that carries oxygenated blood away from the heart to the rest of the body.

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  • 49. 

    What is the purpose of the lymphatic system?

    • A.

      Removes excess fliud and assist in blood clotting

    • B.

      Removes waste products and assist in blood clotting

    • C.

      Defends the body against infection and removes excess fliud

    • D.

      Defends the body against infection and remove waste products

    Correct Answer
    C. Defends the body against infection and removes excess fliud
    Explanation
    The purpose of the lymphatic system is to defend the body against infection by producing and transporting lymphocytes, which are a type of white blood cell that fight off pathogens. Additionally, the lymphatic system removes excess fluid from tissues, helping to maintain fluid balance in the body.

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  • 50. 

    Vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called

    • A.

      Lymphatic ducts

    • B.

      Lymphatic capillaries

    • C.

      Afferent lymphatic vessels

    • D.

      Efferent lymphatic vessels

    Correct Answer
    D. Efferent lymphatic vessels
    Explanation
    Efferent lymphatic vessels are the correct answer because they are the vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes. Lymphatic ducts are large vessels that drain lymph from multiple lymph nodes into the circulatory system. Lymphatic capillaries are small, thin-walled vessels that collect lymph from tissues. Afferent lymphatic vessels carry lymph into the lymph nodes. Therefore, the vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called efferent lymphatic vessels.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 19, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Jgroat7
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