Amt Practice Exam

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1. A patient's implied consent usually covers which one of the following procedures?

Explanation

Implied consent refers to a situation where a patient's consent is assumed based on their actions or behavior. In the context of medical procedures, a blood test is a common and relatively non-invasive procedure that is often included within the scope of implied consent. Since it does not involve significant risks or potential harm to the patient, it is generally considered acceptable to proceed with a blood test based on implied consent. However, it is important for healthcare professionals to communicate and obtain explicit consent whenever possible to ensure patient autonomy and understanding.

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About This Quiz
Medical Training Quizzes & Trivia

The AMT Practice Exam assesses key medical knowledge areas including anatomy, physiology, and medical terminologies. It is designed to prepare candidates for rigorous medical training, focusing on essential... see moreconcepts like bone fractures, blood pressure, and vitamin production. see less

2. The avoidance of confronting a personal problem or reality by acting as if the problem or reality never existed is a defense mechanism known as

Explanation

Denial is a defense mechanism where an individual refuses to acknowledge or accept a personal problem or reality. It involves avoiding the truth and acting as if the problem or reality never existed. This can be a way for individuals to protect themselves from the discomfort or anxiety that comes with facing difficult situations. Denial allows them to maintain a sense of control and avoid dealing with the emotional or psychological impact of the problem or reality.

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3. Permanent adult dentition consists of _______ teeth.

Explanation

Permanent adult dentition consists of 32 teeth. This is because a full set of permanent teeth in adults includes 8 incisors, 4 canines, 8 premolars, and 12 molars (including 4 wisdom teeth). This totals to 32 teeth in total.

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4. Under this doctrine, physicians are legally responsible for the acts of their employees when they are acting within the scope of their duties or employment.

Explanation

Respondeat superior is a legal doctrine that holds physicians responsible for the actions of their employees when those employees are performing their job duties. This means that if a physician's employee, such as a nurse or medical assistant, commits a negligent act or makes a mistake while carrying out their job responsibilities, the physician can be held legally accountable for the employee's actions. This doctrine is based on the idea that the employer should be responsible for the actions of their employees while they are acting within the scope of their employment.

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5. Patient education for minor burn care involves all of the following EXCEPT

Explanation

Patient education for minor burn care involves gentle cleansing of the wound with a bactericidal solution (Betadine), covering the wound with an antibiotic ointment (silver sulfadiazine), and paying attention to signs of infection such as fever, malaise, inflammation, swelling, increased pain, odor, and draining from the burn area. However, eating a low-calorie, low-protein diet is not directly related to promoting healing in minor burn care.

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6. The lining of the uterus is called the

Explanation

The lining of the uterus is called the endometrium. This is the innermost layer of the uterus and plays a crucial role in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy. The endometrium thickens and prepares for implantation of a fertilized egg during the menstrual cycle. If pregnancy does not occur, the endometrium is shed during menstruation. If pregnancy occurs, the endometrium provides nourishment and support to the developing embryo.

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7. Substitution of another surgeon without the patient's consent when the patient has already received anesthesia and has no idea that a substitution has been made is called

Explanation

Ghost surgery refers to the practice of substituting another surgeon without the patient's consent while they are under anesthesia, without their knowledge. This unethical practice is considered a violation of the patient's autonomy and trust, as they have the right to know and consent to the medical professionals involved in their care. The term "ghost surgery" implies that the original surgeon appears to be performing the procedure, while in reality, someone else is doing the work.

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8. Dr. Martin agrees to perform an appendectomy on Mrs. O'Hara.  Mrs. O'Hara has received anesthesia and is prepped for surgery.  Dr. Martin is double-booked so he allows the Chief Resident, Dr. Thompson, to perform Mrs. O'Hara's appendectomy.  The practice of substituting another surgeon without the patient's consent is considered

Explanation

Ghost surgery refers to the practice of allowing another surgeon to perform a procedure without the patient's knowledge or consent, while the original surgeon takes credit for the surgery. In this scenario, Dr. Martin allows Dr. Thompson to perform the appendectomy without informing Mrs. O'Hara, which is an example of ghost surgery.

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9. The statue that defines what is included in the practice of medicine, establishes the requirements for licensure, and establishes the grounds for suspension or revocation of a license is called the 

Explanation

The correct answer is Medical Practice Act. The Medical Practice Act is a statute that sets out the guidelines and regulations for the practice of medicine. It defines what is included in the practice of medicine, such as diagnosing and treating patients, and establishes the requirements for licensure for medical professionals. It also outlines the grounds for suspension or revocation of a medical license, ensuring that healthcare providers adhere to ethical and professional standards in their practice.

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10. The physician tells you to auscultate for a full minute.  What is he wanting you to do?

Explanation

The physician wants you to listen to the patient's body sounds using a stethoscope for a full minute. This is an important diagnostic technique that allows the physician to assess the patient's heart, lungs, and other internal organs. By auscultating, the physician can detect any abnormal sounds or murmurs that may indicate underlying health conditions. It is a crucial step in a physical examination and helps in making an accurate diagnosis.

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11. Which of the following cases would exemplify the concept of res ipsa loquitur?

Explanation

Res ipsa loquitur is a legal doctrine that allows a plaintiff to establish a presumption of negligence on the part of the defendant based on the occurrence of an accident or injury. In this case, the surgeon leaving a sponge in a patient's abdominal cavity after abdominal surgery would exemplify res ipsa loquitur because it is an obvious and preventable error that would not occur in the absence of negligence. The fact that a foreign object was left inside the patient's body is strong evidence of the surgeon's negligence.

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12. The internal folds of the stomach are known as

Explanation

The internal folds of the stomach are known as rugae. These rugae are important for increasing the surface area of the stomach, allowing it to expand and accommodate more food. They also help in the mixing and digestion of food by increasing the contact between the stomach lining and the food particles. The term "villi" refers to small finger-like projections found in the small intestine, "cilia" are hair-like structures involved in movement, and "convolutions" are the folds in the brain.

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13. A medical assistant makes a medication error while under the physician's direction.  The patient is injured and files a medical malpractice lawsuit.  The court determines that the physician is liable for the medical assistant's negligence.  This is known as the doctrine of 

Explanation

The correct answer is respondeat superior. Respondeat superior is a legal doctrine that holds an employer or superior liable for the negligent actions of their employees or subordinates. In this case, the physician is held liable for the medication error made by the medical assistant while working under their direction. This doctrine recognizes that employers have a responsibility to ensure that their employees act with due care and can be held accountable for any harm caused by their negligence.

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14. A discussion involving the physician providing the patient or the patient's legal representation with a deeper understanding of the patient's condition, a full explanation of the plan for treatment, and enough information to

Explanation

Informed consent refers to a discussion between the physician and the patient or their legal representative, where the patient is provided with a thorough understanding of their condition and a detailed explanation of the treatment plan. Sufficient information is given to the patient so that they can make an educated decision about their medical care. This ensures that the patient is fully aware of the risks, benefits, and alternatives involved in the proposed treatment, allowing them to provide their consent based on their understanding.

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15. The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery?

Explanation

The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through the aorta. The aorta is the largest artery in the body and carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. It branches out into smaller arteries, supplying oxygen and nutrients to various organs and tissues. The carotid artery carries blood to the head and neck, the coronary arteries supply blood to the heart muscle, and the pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.

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16. Encephalopathy is defined as

Explanation

Encephalopathy is a broad term that encompasses any dysfunction or abnormality in the brain. It can be caused by various factors such as infections, toxins, metabolic disorders, or traumatic brain injuries. This condition can lead to a wide range of symptoms including cognitive impairment, memory loss, seizures, and changes in behavior or personality. Therefore, "any dysfunction of the brain" is an accurate and comprehensive definition for encephalopathy.

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17. The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from

Explanation

The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from civil and criminal liability. This means that if a healthcare provider acts in good faith to provide First Aid to someone in need, they cannot be held legally responsible for any harm or injury that may occur during the process. This protection encourages healthcare providers to assist in emergency situations without fear of facing legal consequences for their actions.

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18. The part of the pharynx that is a passageway for air only is the 

Explanation

The nasopharynx is the correct answer because it is the part of the pharynx that serves as a passageway for air only. It is located behind the nasal cavity and above the oropharynx. The nasopharynx is responsible for conducting air from the nasal passages into the rest of the respiratory system, while the oropharynx and laryngopharynx are involved in both air and food passage. The larynx, on the other hand, is the structure commonly known as the voice box and is responsible for sound production.

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19. Growth hormone is produced in the

Explanation

The growth hormone is produced in the pituitary gland. The pituitary gland is a small, pea-sized gland located at the base of the brain. It is often referred to as the "master gland" because it produces and releases several important hormones that regulate various bodily functions, including growth. The growth hormone, also known as somatotropin, plays a crucial role in stimulating growth and development in children and adolescents. It also helps regulate metabolism, body composition, and muscle and bone growth in both children and adults.

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20. "Determining where the document should be filed and deciding on the filing caption" is what part of the filing process?

Explanation

Indexing is the part of the filing process where the location of a document is determined and a filing caption is assigned. This involves organizing and categorizing documents based on their content or subject matter, and assigning them a specific place within the filing system. By indexing documents, it becomes easier to retrieve and locate them when needed.

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21. Match the following
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22. Match the following 
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23. The vitamin produced by the normal flora of the colon in amounts sufficient to meet a person's daily need, is vitamin

Explanation

The correct answer is K. The normal flora of the colon produces vitamin K in amounts sufficient to meet a person's daily need. Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting and plays a role in bone health. It is mainly produced by bacteria in the large intestine and can also be obtained through diet, particularly from leafy green vegetables.

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24. What is the medical term for "baby teeth"?

Explanation

Deciduous is the correct answer because it is the medical term used to describe "baby teeth." Deciduous teeth are the first set of teeth that erupt in children, and they are eventually replaced by permanent teeth. The term "deciduous" is derived from Latin, meaning "to fall off," which refers to the fact that these teeth will eventually be shed.

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25. "Ostomy" is a 

Explanation

"Ostomy" is a suffix because it is a word part that is added to the end of a word to modify its meaning. In medical terminology, the suffix "ostomy" is commonly used to indicate a surgical procedure that creates an artificial opening in the body for the passage of waste material. Examples include colostomy, ileostomy, and urostomy.

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26. The medical term for indigestion is

Explanation

Dyspepsia is the correct answer because it is the medical term for indigestion. It refers to a condition characterized by discomfort or pain in the upper abdomen, bloating, and feeling full quickly during meals. Dyspahagia refers to difficulty swallowing, stomatitis refers to inflammation of the mouth, and ascites refers to the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity.

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27. Night blindness may be caused by a deficiency of 

Explanation

Night blindness is a condition where an individual has difficulty seeing in low light or darkness. It is commonly caused by a deficiency of vitamin A. Vitamin A is essential for the functioning of the retina, the part of the eye that is responsible for vision in low light conditions. A deficiency of vitamin A can lead to a deterioration of the retina, resulting in night blindness. Therefore, the correct answer is vitamin A.

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28. A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called

Explanation

A "non-duplication of benefits" refers to the coordination of benefits between multiple insurance plans to prevent duplicate payments for the same medical expenses. This means that when a person has multiple insurance plans, the coordination of benefits ensures that the total amount reimbursed does not exceed the actual cost of the medical service. Therefore, the correct answer is "coordination of benefits."

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29. Match the following four types of connective tissues:
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30. A protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is

Explanation

Keratin is a protein found in the epidermal cells of the skin. It forms a protective layer that helps to make the skin relatively waterproof. Keratin is known for its structural properties and is responsible for the strength and resilience of the skin, hair, and nails. It helps to prevent excessive water loss from the skin and protects it from external factors such as chemicals and pathogens.

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31. What type of immunization is the only one given at birth?

Explanation

Hepatitis B (Hep B) is the only type of immunization given at birth. This vaccine is administered to newborns to protect them against the hepatitis B virus, which can cause liver damage and other serious health problems. Giving the vaccine at birth helps to ensure early protection for the baby, as the virus can be transmitted from mother to child during childbirth. The other options listed, such as MMR, VZV, and HIB, are typically given at later ages as part of the regular childhood immunization schedule.

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32. Res ipsa loqiutur, "The thing speaks for itself" is an example of what common law of negligence?

Explanation

The correct answer is option 4 because the concept of "res ipsa loquitur" in common law of negligence refers to situations where the mere occurrence of an accident or injury implies negligence. In this case, the surgeon closing the abdominal cavity without removing the gauze indicates negligence as it is a clear and obvious mistake that should not have occurred in a standard surgical procedure.

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33. The most important digestive enzyme in the gastric juice is the 

Explanation

Pepsin is the most important digestive enzyme in gastric juice because it plays a crucial role in breaking down proteins into smaller peptides. It is secreted as an inactive form called pepsinogen, which is activated by the acidic environment in the stomach. Once activated, pepsin starts breaking down proteins into smaller fragments, facilitating their digestion and absorption in the small intestine. Without pepsin, proper protein digestion would be compromised, leading to nutrient deficiencies and digestive issues.

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34. The prefix "ad" means

Explanation

The prefix "ad" in this context means "to add to". This prefix is commonly used in words like "adhesive" (to stick or attach) and "advance" (to move forward or progress). It indicates that something is being added or joined with another thing, implying an increase or enhancement.

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35. What medication is an agent that blocks parasympathetic nerve impulses?

Explanation

An anticholinergic medication is a type of drug that blocks the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that is involved in transmitting parasympathetic nerve impulses. By blocking these impulses, anticholinergic drugs can have various effects on the body, such as reducing involuntary muscle movements, decreasing saliva production, and relaxing smooth muscles. Therefore, an anticholinergic medication is an agent that blocks parasympathetic nerve impulses.

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36. Match the following
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37. A medical assistant taking a pulse by listening to the heart is taking a 

Explanation

The correct answer is apical pulse. This is because when a medical assistant listens to the heart, they are specifically listening to the apical pulse. The apical pulse is taken by placing a stethoscope on the chest near the apex of the heart, usually at the fifth intercostal space. This allows the medical assistant to hear the heart sounds and determine the rate and rhythm of the heartbeat. The other options, radial pulse, pedal pulse, and carotid pulse, refer to different pulse points in the body, but they are not specifically related to listening to the heart.

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38. A hernia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called

Explanation

A hernia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called rectocele. This condition occurs when the muscles and tissues that support the rectum weaken, allowing the rectum to bulge into the vagina. It can cause symptoms such as difficulty in passing stool, a sensation of incomplete bowel movement, and pelvic pressure. Rectocele is commonly seen in women, especially those who have given birth or have chronic constipation. Treatment options include lifestyle changes, pelvic floor exercises, and in severe cases, surgery.

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39. A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is

Explanation

A comminuted fracture is a type of bone fracture where the bone is broken into multiple fragments. This can occur due to high-impact trauma or a direct blow to the bone. In a comminuted fracture, the bone shatters into several pieces, making it more difficult to treat and heal compared to other types of fractures. This type of fracture often requires surgical intervention to realign and stabilize the bone fragments for proper healing.

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40. Abnormal widening of the atrial wall that is weak and bulges defines the term

Explanation

An aneurysm refers to an abnormal widening of the atrial wall that is weak and bulges. This condition occurs when there is a localized weakness in the blood vessel wall, causing it to balloon out and potentially rupture. Aneurysms can occur in various parts of the body, but in this case, it specifically refers to the atrial wall. Embolism, phlebitis, and arteriosclerosis are unrelated conditions and do not involve the bulging of the atrial wall.

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41. Of the following medications, which is used to treat angina?

Explanation

Norvasc is used to treat angina. It belongs to a class of medications called calcium channel blockers, which work by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, allowing more blood and oxygen to flow to the heart. This helps to reduce the frequency and severity of angina attacks. Lasix is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention, Toprol-XL is a beta blocker used to treat high blood pressure and heart problems, and Xanax is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety disorders.

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42. Match the following
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43. What is the acceptable range of bleeding time when performing blood tests?

Explanation

The acceptable range of bleeding time when performing blood tests is 2-7 minutes. This range indicates the normal duration for bleeding to stop after a blood test is performed. If the bleeding time exceeds 7 minutes, it may suggest a potential bleeding disorder or other underlying health issues. Conversely, if the bleeding time is less than 2 minutes, it could indicate a potential clotting disorder. Therefore, the range of 2-7 minutes is considered acceptable for a normal bleeding time during blood tests.

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44. The rod-shaped bacteria, Bacillus, causes which of the following?

Explanation

The rod-shaped bacteria, Bacillus, is known to cause multiple diseases including tuberculosis, tetanus, and otitis externa. These bacteria are capable of infecting various parts of the body and can lead to different symptoms and complications depending on the affected area. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as Bacillus can cause all the mentioned diseases.

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45. What is the tube volumes range from?

Explanation

The tube volumes range from 2 to 15 mL. This means that the tubes can hold a minimum of 2 mL and a maximum of 15 mL of liquid.

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46. Match the following
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47. What type of insurance is intended to cover Medicare deductible, coinsurance, and other uncovered items?

Explanation

MediGap insurance is specifically designed to cover the expenses that are not covered by Medicare, such as deductibles, coinsurance, and other out-of-pocket costs. It works as a supplemental insurance policy to fill the gaps in Medicare coverage. Medicaid, HMO, and PPO are not intended to cover Medicare deductibles, coinsurance, and uncovered items.

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48. Match the following
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49. Which statement best describes the practice known as "fee splitting"?

Explanation

"Fee splitting" is the unethical practice in which physicians are paid for referring patients. This means that physicians receive a financial incentive for sending patients to specific healthcare providers or facilities. This practice is considered unethical because it can compromise the physician's objectivity and potentially lead to unnecessary referrals or treatments. It undermines the trust between physicians and patients and can prioritize financial gain over the patient's best interests.

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50. Polydipsia is seen in conjunction with what condition?

Explanation

Polydipsia refers to excessive thirst and is a common symptom of diabetes. In diabetes, the high levels of glucose in the blood cause the body to try and dilute it by increasing fluid intake, leading to increased thirst. Therefore, polydipsia is seen in conjunction with diabetes.

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51. Medicine prescriptions include a superscription area.  What information is listed in this area?

Explanation

The superscription area of a medicine prescription includes the symbol Rx.

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52. The right lung is divided into how many sections?

Explanation

The right lung is divided into three sections, known as lobes. These lobes are the superior, middle, and inferior lobes. Each lobe has its own separate blood supply and is further divided into smaller segments. The division of the lung into lobes allows for efficient ventilation and distribution of air throughout the lung.

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53. Match the following
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54. The committee on Medicolegal Problems of the American Medical Association has determined that patients must present evidence of four elements before negligence has been proven.  Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of negligence? 

Explanation

Defamation is not one of the four elements of negligence. The four elements that patients must present evidence of before negligence can be proven are duty, direct cause, damages, and breach of duty. Defamation refers to making false statements that harm someone's reputation, but it is not directly related to negligence.

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55. What is an example of a smooth muscle?

Explanation

Arrector pili is an example of smooth muscle. Smooth muscles are involuntary muscles found in various organs and structures of the body. Arrector pili muscles are small muscles attached to hair follicles and are responsible for causing hair to stand up, creating "goosebumps" on the skin. They are composed of smooth muscle tissue, which is non-striated and under involuntary control. Triceps, biceps, and pectoralis are examples of skeletal muscles, which are striated and under voluntary control.

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56. Match the following
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57. Which of the following tubes contains the anticoagulant potassium oxalate or sodium fluoride and is used for blood glucose determination?

Explanation

The gray stopper tube contains the anticoagulant potassium oxalate or sodium fluoride and is used for blood glucose determination. This tube is specifically designed to prevent the blood from clotting and contains substances that preserve the glucose levels in the blood. The use of anticoagulants in this tube ensures that the blood sample remains stable and accurate for glucose testing.

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58. When an HMO hires physicians and pays them a salary to provide medical services, what HMO model is being implemented?

Explanation

When an HMO hires physicians and pays them a salary to provide medical services, the HMO model being implemented is the Staff model. In this model, the physicians are directly employed by the HMO and receive a salary, rather than being independent contractors or receiving payment based on a fee-for-service arrangement. This allows the HMO to have more control over the physicians' practice patterns and ensures that they are focused on providing care within the HMO's guidelines and objectives.

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59. _______ matter is the nervous tissue of the brain and spinal cord.  It is made up of cell bodies and dendrites of nerve cells.

Explanation

Grey matter is the correct answer because it is the nervous tissue of the brain and spinal cord that is composed of cell bodies and dendrites of nerve cells. Grey matter is responsible for processing information in the central nervous system and plays a crucial role in various cognitive functions such as memory, attention, and perception.

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60. Match the following
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61. Where do peristaltic waves occur?

Explanation

Peristaltic waves occur in the esophagus. These waves are rhythmic contractions of the smooth muscles in the esophagus that help to propel food from the mouth to the stomach. The muscles contract in a coordinated wave-like fashion, pushing the food downward through the esophagus. This process is essential for the movement of food through the digestive system and allows for efficient digestion and absorption of nutrients.

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62. The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is the

Explanation

The renal pelvis is the correct answer because it is the cavity within the kidney that collects urine. It is a funnel-shaped structure that connects the kidney to the ureter, which then transports the urine to the urinary bladder. The renal pelvis serves as a reservoir for urine before it is eliminated from the body. Bowman's capsule, on the other hand, is a part of the nephron in the kidney that filters blood to form urine.

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63. Match the following
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64. Match the following plasma content
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65. Which of the following amounts does the metric prefix -hecto stand for?

Explanation

The metric prefix "hecto" represents the amount of one hundred. It is used to denote a multiple of 100 in the metric system.

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66. At what point does systolic pressure occur?

Explanation

Systolic pressure occurs during ventricular contraction. This is when the heart's ventricles contract and pump blood out of the heart and into the arteries. The contraction of the ventricles causes the highest pressure in the arteries, which is known as systolic pressure. This is the first number recorded when measuring blood pressure, representing the pressure when the heart is actively pumping blood.

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67. With respect to education on the functions of minerals in the body, which combination of mineral to sources in incorrect?

Explanation

The given combination of mineral to sources is incorrect for Iron. Nuts, whole grains, and veggies are good sources of iron, but coffee, tea, cocoa, and egg yolks are not. These foods can actually inhibit the absorption of iron in the body. Therefore, it is important to avoid consuming them with iron-rich foods to ensure proper absorption.

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68. Match the following respirations:
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69. HIPAA requires covered entities to submit Medicare claims 

Explanation

HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) requires covered entities to submit Medicare claims through electronic data exchange. This means that healthcare providers and other covered entities must use electronic means, such as electronic claims submission systems or clearinghouses, to transmit Medicare claims information securely and efficiently. This requirement aims to ensure the privacy and security of patient health information while streamlining the claims process for faster and more accurate reimbursement.

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70. Educating female patients on signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction includes all of the following except

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that educating female patients on signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction includes all of the listed options except for the feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum. The other options, such as back pain or aching and throbbing in the biceps or forearms, shortness of breath, and dizziness (vertigo) - unexplained lightheadedness or syncopal episodes, are all symptoms that can be associated with a myocardial infarction. However, feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum is not a commonly reported symptom of a heart attack.

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71. Match the following normal range of iron testing:
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72. Testing for urobilinogen and porphyrins requires a(n)

Explanation

Light sensitive

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73. OSHA recommends that this is used in order to decontaminate blood spills.

Explanation

Sodium hypochlorite is recommended by OSHA for decontaminating blood spills. Sodium hypochlorite, commonly known as bleach, is a strong disinfectant that can effectively kill pathogens, including bloodborne pathogens. It is a commonly used chemical for sanitizing and disinfecting surfaces in healthcare settings. Its strong oxidizing properties make it an effective agent for decontamination purposes.

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74. Acetylcholine is what?

Explanation

Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter. Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers that transmit signals between neurons in the brain and nervous system. Acetylcholine specifically plays a crucial role in various cognitive functions such as learning, memory, and muscle movement. It is released by nerve cells and binds to receptors on target cells, transmitting the signal across synapses. Therefore, acetylcholine is correctly classified as a neurotransmitter.

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75. How are reference materials filed?

Explanation

Reference materials are filed by subject to ensure easy access and organization. This method allows related materials to be grouped together, making it convenient for users to locate information on a specific topic. By organizing materials in this way, users can quickly find the relevant resources they need without having to search through unrelated materials. This filing system also facilitates efficient retrieval and promotes effective knowledge management.

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76. Which type of specimen MOST likely needs to be stored in an anaerobic environment?

Explanation

Suprapubic aspiration is a procedure used to collect urine directly from the bladder using a needle inserted through the abdominal wall. This type of specimen is more likely to contain anaerobic bacteria, which thrive in the absence of oxygen. Therefore, it is necessary to store the specimen in an anaerobic environment to maintain the viability of these bacteria for further analysis.

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77. What does Medicare part A cover for the patient?

Explanation

Medicare Part A covers hospitalization for the patient. This means that it includes expenses related to inpatient care, such as hospital stays, skilled nursing facility care, hospice care, and limited home health services. It does not cover physician office visits or clinical laboratory services, which are typically covered under Medicare Part B.

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78. Which type of swab is used for a viral culture?

Explanation

Dacron swabs are commonly used for viral cultures because they have a high absorption capacity and are less likely to interfere with the growth of viruses. Dacron is a synthetic material that does not contain any substances that could inhibit viral growth, making it an ideal choice for collecting samples for viral culture. Additionally, Dacron swabs are flexible and easy to handle, allowing for efficient and accurate sample collection.

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79. Match the following
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80. The word root myc/o means:

Explanation

The word root "myc/o" is derived from the Greek word "mykes" which means fungus or mold. This root is commonly used in medical terminology to refer to conditions related to fungal infections or diseases caused by fungi. Therefore, "fungus or mold" is the correct meaning of the word root "myc/o".

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81. Of the following, what bacterium causes chancroid?

Explanation

Haemophilus ducreyi is the bacterium that causes chancroid, a sexually transmitted infection characterized by painful genital ulcers. Escherichia coli is a common bacterium found in the intestines and is not associated with chancroid. Rickettsia rickettsii is the bacterium that causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever, not chancroid. Salmonella typhi is responsible for causing typhoid fever, which is also unrelated to chancroid. Therefore, Haemophilus ducreyi is the correct answer for the bacterium that causes chancroid.

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82. Medicare part B covers

Explanation

Medicare Part B covers prescription medical equipment. This refers to durable medical equipment (DME) that is prescribed by a doctor for use at home, such as wheelchairs, walkers, oxygen equipment, and hospital beds. Medicare Part B helps to cover the cost of these necessary medical devices to assist patients in managing their health conditions and improving their quality of life. It does not cover prescription drugs, routine eye examinations, or elective cosmetic surgery.

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83. Match the following types of medical office bonding: 
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84. A normal spirometry test is which percentage of the predicted value?

Explanation

A normal spirometry test is expected to be above 80 percent of the predicted value. This means that if a person's spirometry test result falls below 80 percent of the predicted value, it may indicate a potential respiratory issue or impairment. It is important for individuals to have spirometry tests within the normal range to ensure proper lung function.

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85. Match the following
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86. What is NOT an anabolic hormone?

Explanation

Cortisol is not an anabolic hormone because it has catabolic effects on the body. While anabolic hormones promote growth, cortisol is responsible for breaking down tissues and increasing blood sugar levels. It also suppresses the immune system and has anti-inflammatory effects. Therefore, cortisol does not fit the definition of an anabolic hormone.

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87. How many tarsal bones are there?

Explanation

There are seven tarsal bones in the human body. These bones are located in the foot and include the talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, and three cuneiform bones. These tarsal bones play a crucial role in providing stability, support, and flexibility to the foot, allowing for various movements such as walking, running, and jumping.

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88. How does the Federal Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 describe Schedule I drugs?

Explanation

The Federal Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 describes Schedule I drugs as drugs that have no acceptable medical use. This means that these drugs are not recognized as having any legitimate medical purpose and are considered to be highly dangerous and prone to abuse.

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89. What is NOT a treatment for Crohns disease?

Explanation

Vasodilators are not a treatment for Crohn's disease because they primarily work by widening blood vessels and increasing blood flow, which is not a targeted approach for the underlying inflammation and immune system dysfunction in Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease is typically treated with medications that reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system, such as steroids and anti-inflammatories. Vitamin B12 may also be used as a supplement to address deficiencies caused by malabsorption in Crohn's disease.

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90. Of the following, which tells when, where, why or how something was done?

Explanation

Adverbs are words that modify verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs. They provide information about when, where, why, or how something was done. Therefore, of the given options, adverbs are the only ones that fit this description. Nouns are not related to the action or manner of an event, while verbs and adjectives describe actions or qualities but do not specifically provide information on when, where, why, or how something was done.

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91. This term is used to define serum or plasma that's brownish-yellow in color because of hyperbilirubinemia.

Explanation

Icterus is the correct answer because it is the term used to define serum or plasma that is brownish-yellow in color due to hyperbilirubinemia. Hyperbilirubinemia is a condition characterized by an excess of bilirubin in the blood, which can cause yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes. Therefore, the term icterus is used to describe the brownish-yellow coloration resulting from this condition.

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92. Which of the following is the most common eye condition associated with aging?

Explanation

Presbyopia is the most common eye condition associated with aging. It is a natural part of the aging process and occurs when the lens of the eye becomes less flexible, resulting in difficulty focusing on close objects. This condition typically becomes noticeable around the age of 40 and gradually worsens over time. It is different from other vision problems like astigmatism, glaucoma, and conjunctivitis, which can affect individuals of all ages.

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93. Match the following
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94. Of the following additives, which accompanies an evacuated tube with a red stopper for test such as AIDS and blood chemistries.

Explanation

The correct answer is "None" because an evacuated tube with a red stopper is typically used for serum tests, which require the blood sample to clot before it is centrifuged. Therefore, no additives are needed in this type of tube, as they are used in other types of tubes for different tests such as AIDS and blood chemistries.

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95. Which QC test does not have a control limit?

Explanation

The correct answer is Leads test. A Leads test is a type of test used in medical diagnostics to determine the presence or absence of certain substances in a patient's blood or urine. Unlike other QC tests such as Specimen test, Quantitative test, and Qualitative test, a Leads test does not have a control limit. This means that there is no specific range or threshold that the test results need to fall within to be considered acceptable. Instead, the presence or absence of the substance being tested for is simply determined based on the appearance of a positive or negative result.

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96. Match the following temperatures:
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97. The Consumer Credit Protection Act of 1967 known as the "Truth and Lending Act" allow installment arrangements without interest. 

Explanation

May charge interest for installment arrangements

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98. Sputum should be refrigerated when?

Explanation

Sputum should be refrigerated after one hour because it is important to preserve the sample for accurate testing. After one hour, the sputum may start to degrade and bacteria or other pathogens present in the sample may begin to multiply, leading to inaccurate results. Refrigerating the sputum helps to slow down the growth of bacteria and preserve the integrity of the sample until it can be properly analyzed.

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99. Match the following
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100. Of the following, which is the second phase of the blood pressure sound?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Sounds develop into a squeaking quality." This is because the second phase of the blood pressure sound is known as the "murmur" phase, where the sounds change from a crisp quality to a more turbulent and squeaking quality.

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101. Which of the followings NOT a Phenolic used to disinfect walls, furniture, floors, as well as laboratory work surfaces?

Explanation

Sodium hypochlorite is not a phenolic compound used for disinfection purposes. Phenolic compounds, such as phenic acid, phenylic acid, and hydroxybenzene, are commonly used as disinfectants for various surfaces. Sodium hypochlorite, on the other hand, is a chemical compound commonly known as bleach and is used as a disinfectant for water and other substances, but not specifically for walls, furniture, floors, or laboratory work surfaces.

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102. A patient is terminally ill.  A family member does not wish for the patient to be told of said illness. A physician would violate which of the following ethical principles if she does not inform her patient of the correct diagnosis? 

Explanation

The physician would violate the ethical principle of veracity if she does not inform her patient of the correct diagnosis. Veracity refers to the duty to tell the truth and be honest with patients. By withholding the information about the patient's terminal illness, the physician would be failing to fulfill her obligation to be truthful and transparent with the patient.

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103. What is the abbreviate for "seizure".

Explanation

The correct abbreviation for "seizure" is "Sz".

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104. The justification behavior with socially-acceptable reasons and the tendency to ignore the real reasons underlying the behavior is a defense mechanism called 

Explanation

Rationalization is a defense mechanism where individuals justify their behavior by providing socially-acceptable reasons, even if those reasons do not reflect the true underlying motives. This helps individuals avoid feelings of guilt or anxiety by creating a more acceptable narrative for their actions. It allows them to maintain a positive self-image and preserve their self-esteem.

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105. Match the following
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106. Of the following health care data sets, which deals with the care provided to patients who return home on the day of service?

Explanation

UACDS, or Uniform Ambulatory Care Data Set, deals with the care provided to patients who return home on the day of service. This data set is specifically designed to collect information on outpatient services and is used to track and analyze ambulatory care provided to patients who are not admitted to a hospital or other healthcare facility. It includes data on diagnoses, procedures, and other relevant information related to outpatient care.

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107. What two digit modifier is used to describe two surgeons?

Explanation

The two-digit modifier 62 is used to describe two surgeons who work together as primary surgeons during a surgical procedure. This modifier indicates that each surgeon has a distinct role and is responsible for a separate part of the procedure. The use of modifier 62 allows for appropriate billing and reimbursement for the services provided by both surgeons.

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108. Where should a wound specimens be taken?

Explanation

Wound specimens should be taken from the base or edge of the wound. This is because the base and edge of a wound are the areas where the highest concentration of bacteria and other microorganisms are typically found. By collecting specimens from these areas, healthcare professionals can obtain a more accurate representation of the microorganisms present in the wound, which can help guide appropriate treatment decisions.

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109. In catheter urine collection, what should NOT be included?

Explanation

In catheter urine collection, the catheter tip should not be included because it is the part of the catheter that is inserted into the patient's body to collect urine. Including the catheter tip in the collection would not provide an accurate representation of the patient's urine sample.

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110. Match the following units for alphabetical indexing of names:
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111. Which electrode goes at the fifth intercostal space, left of the midclavicular line?

Explanation

V4 is the correct answer because it is the electrode placement that goes at the fifth intercostal space, left of the midclavicular line. The V1, V2, and V3 electrode placements are located in different intercostal spaces or lines and are not the correct placements for this specific location.

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112. Match the following
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113. An electrocardiogram on a male patient with a twelve lead ECG involves information recorded from:

Explanation

An electrocardiogram (ECG) is a test that records the electrical activity of the heart. It is used to detect any abnormalities in the heart's rhythm and structure. In a twelve lead ECG, ten electrodes are placed on the patient's body to record the electrical signals from different angles or views of the heart. These views include the frontal plane (six leads) and the horizontal plane (four leads). Each lead provides unique information about the heart's electrical activity, allowing for a comprehensive assessment of its function. Therefore, the correct answer is 10 electrodes, 12 views of the heart.

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114. Medical Malpractice Acts are laws enacted to

Explanation

Medical Malpractice Acts are laws enacted to define what is included in the practice of medicine. These acts establish the legal boundaries and standards for medical professionals, outlining their responsibilities, scope of practice, and acceptable standards of care. By clearly defining what falls under the practice of medicine, these laws aim to protect patients from potential harm and ensure that healthcare providers are held accountable for any negligence or malpractice.

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115. Correctly identify the F to C conversion formula.

Explanation

The correct formula for converting Fahrenheit to Celsius is (F - 32) X 5 / 9= C. This formula subtracts 32 from the Fahrenheit temperature, then multiplies the result by 5 and divides it by 9 to get the equivalent Celsius temperature.

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116. Match the following prefixes 
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117. What is the name of a non-cancerious growth of the conjunctiva?

Explanation

A pterygium is a non-cancerous growth of the conjunctiva, which is the clear tissue that lines the eyelids and covers the white part of the eye. It usually appears as a fleshy, triangular-shaped tissue on the inner or outer corner of the eye. Pterygiums are typically caused by prolonged exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light, such as from sunlight, and can cause symptoms like redness, irritation, and blurred vision. Treatment options include lubricating eye drops, steroid eye drops, and surgery in severe cases.

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118. What is the action of a cathartic medication?

Explanation

A cathartic medication is a type of laxative that is used to stimulate bowel movements and relieve constipation. It works by irritating the lining of the bowel, which increases the movement of the intestines and promotes the elimination of waste. This irritation helps to soften the stool and make it easier to pass.

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119. The most common cause of sudden cardiac death is:

Explanation

Ventricular fibrillation is the correct answer because it is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death. Ventricular fibrillation is a condition in which the heart's electrical signals become chaotic, causing the heart to quiver instead of pumping blood effectively. This can lead to a sudden loss of consciousness and, if not treated immediately, can be fatal. Drowning and choking accidents can also cause sudden death, but ventricular fibrillation is the primary cause in most cases. Myocardial infarction, or a heart attack, can lead to ventricular fibrillation, making it a potential cause of sudden cardiac death as well.

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120. What is choreia?

Explanation

Choreia refers to an involuntary movement. It is a neurological condition characterized by random, jerky, and uncontrollable movements of the body. These movements are often repetitive and may affect different parts of the body. Choreia can be caused by various factors, including genetic disorders, certain medications, or damage to the brain. The term choreia is derived from the Greek word "choreia," meaning dance, as the movements can resemble a dance-like pattern.

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121. "Negligent or intentional civil wrong not arising out of a contract or statute." is what type of law?

Explanation

The given definition describes a tort, which is a type of law that deals with civil wrongs that are not related to a contract or statute. In tort law, individuals who have been harmed by the actions of others can seek compensation for their damages. This can include cases of negligence, where someone fails to exercise reasonable care and causes harm to another person, as well as intentional wrongs like assault or defamation. Tort law aims to provide justice and compensation to those who have suffered harm due to the actions of others.

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122. What does the term suppurative describe?

Explanation

The term "suppurative" is used to describe something that contains pus. Pus is a thick yellowish or greenish fluid that is produced in response to an infection. When an area of the body becomes infected, white blood cells gather to fight off the infection, resulting in the formation of pus. Therefore, the term "suppurative" accurately describes a condition or situation where pus is present.

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123. Match the following five phases to the blood pressure know as Korotkoff sounds: 
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124. Which of the following is used to treat malignant hyperthermia?

Explanation

Dantrolene is used to treat malignant hyperthermia. Malignant hyperthermia is a potentially fatal reaction to certain medications used during general anesthesia. Dantrolene works by blocking the release of calcium in muscle cells, which helps to relax and prevent muscle contractions. It is the only medication specifically approved for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia. Baclofen, Danazol, and Danocine are not indicated for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia.

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125. Which of the following is pathogenic Gram-Positive bacterium?

Explanation

Clostridium botulinum is a pathogenic Gram-positive bacterium. It is responsible for causing botulism, a severe form of food poisoning. This bacterium produces a potent neurotoxin called botulinum toxin, which can lead to paralysis and even death if ingested. Clostridium botulinum is commonly found in soil and can contaminate improperly processed or preserved foods, such as canned goods. It is an anaerobic bacterium, meaning it thrives in environments with little to no oxygen.

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126. Match the following
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127. Match the following
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128. What is meant by "in situ"?

Explanation

"In situ" refers to something being in its normal or original location. This term is often used in medical and scientific contexts to describe a condition or process that occurs naturally or remains undisturbed in its usual place. It can be contrasted with situations where something is manipulated or removed from its original location, such as in a test tube, a living organism, or a surgical setting.

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129. Match the following eye conditions:
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130. Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow's "Hierarchy of Needs" starting from the bottom to the top?

Explanation

The correct order of Maslow's "Hierarchy of Needs" starting from the bottom to the top is physiological needs, safety and security, love and belonging, esteem and recognition, self-actualization. This hierarchy suggests that individuals must first satisfy their basic physiological needs such as food, water, and shelter before moving on to higher-level needs such as safety, love, esteem, and ultimately self-actualization. This order implies that individuals cannot fully focus on higher-level needs until their lower-level needs are met.

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131. Laboratory tests are classed by CLIA-waived tests, Level I tests, and Level II tests.  All of the following are Level I tests EXCEPT:

Explanation

Level I tests are the most complex and require a higher level of expertise to perform. They include tests such as coagulation studies, blood urea nitrogen, and red and white blood cell counts. Urine cultures for colony counts, on the other hand, are classified as Level II tests, which are less complex and can be performed by individuals with less training. Therefore, the correct answer is coagulation studies, as they are not classified as Level I tests.

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132. Which of the following blood specimens is from a tube with an anticoagulant that does not need to be centrifuged?

Explanation

Whole blood is the correct answer because it is collected in a tube with an anticoagulant, which prevents the blood from clotting. Since the anticoagulant is already present in the tube, there is no need to centrifuge the specimen to separate the blood components. This allows for the preservation of the blood's cellular and liquid components in their original state for further testing or analysis.

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133. Match the following 
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134. The ICD-9 contains the following volumes; 

Explanation

The ICD-9 contains four volumes which are used for different purposes in medical coding. Volume I is the Tabular list of diseases, which provides a comprehensive list of all diseases and their corresponding codes. Volume III is used for Inpatient coding, specifically for coding diseases and procedures related to hospital inpatient care. Volume II is the Alphabetical listing index of diseases, which allows users to look up diseases alphabetically and find their corresponding codes. Volume IV, mentioned in the question, does not exist in the ICD-9.

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135. Match the following
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136. Match the following
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137. Which prevention strategy against bloodborne pathogens is defined as "structural or mechanical devices that are designed to minimize exposure to bloodborne pathogens"?

Explanation

Engineering controls are defined as structural or mechanical devices that are designed to minimize exposure to bloodborne pathogens. These controls include things like sharps containers, self-sheathing needles, and biohazard waste disposal systems. They are put in place to eliminate or reduce the risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens in the workplace. Work practice controls, on the other hand, refer to procedures that are implemented to minimize the risk of exposure, such as hand hygiene and proper disposal of contaminated materials. Personal protective equipment refers to the protective clothing, gloves, masks, and eyewear that are worn to protect against exposure. Standard precautions are a set of infection control practices that are used to prevent the transmission of bloodborne pathogens and other infectious diseases.

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138. Match the following
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139. Match the following
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140. The outermost of the the pericardial membranes is the 

Explanation

The fibrous pericardium is the outermost of the pericardial membranes. It is a tough, fibrous layer that surrounds and protects the heart. The fibrous pericardium is made up of dense connective tissue and provides structural support to the heart, preventing overexpansion and protecting it from external forces. It also helps to anchor the heart in place within the chest cavity. The other options, such as the epicardium, visceral pericardium, and parietal pericardium, are all inner layers of the pericardial membranes.

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141. Cortisol is a _________ hormone. 

Explanation

Cortisol is a catabolic hormone because it promotes the breakdown of proteins, carbohydrates, and fats in the body. It helps to mobilize energy stores during times of stress or low blood sugar levels. This hormone also suppresses the immune system and has anti-inflammatory effects. Overall, cortisol plays a crucial role in regulating metabolism and responding to stress.

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142. Fried's rule for pediatric dose calculations is outlined as what?

Explanation

Fried's rule for pediatric dose calculations is outlined as the infant's age in months divided by 150 and multiplied by the average adult dose. This formula takes into account the age of the infant and adjusts the dose accordingly. By dividing the age in months by 150, it provides a more accurate dosage calculation for infants. Multiplying this result by the average adult dose ensures that the medication dosage is appropriate for the child's age and weight.

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143. Nutrients are primarily absorbed in which part of the intestines?

Explanation

The jejunum is the correct answer because it is the middle part of the small intestine where most of the absorption of nutrients takes place. It has a large surface area due to its long length and numerous folds, allowing for efficient absorption of nutrients such as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine where initial digestion occurs, but absorption is limited. The ileum is the last part of the small intestine where some absorption occurs, but it is not the primary site. The large intestines mainly absorb water and electrolytes, not nutrients.

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144. Match the following
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145. Each vertical block of an EKG represents how many millivolts?

Explanation

Each vertical block of an EKG represents 0.1 millivolts. This is a standard measurement used in electrocardiography to represent the electrical activity of the heart. The EKG graph is divided into small squares, with each square representing a certain voltage. In this case, each vertical block represents 0.1 millivolts, allowing healthcare professionals to analyze the electrical patterns and abnormalities of the heart.

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146. The prefix -micro represents what?

Explanation

The prefix "micro-" represents a factor of 0.000001. It is commonly used in the metric system to denote one millionth of a unit. For example, a microgram is one millionth of a gram. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.000001.

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147. Match the following
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148. Match the following types of medical records:
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149. What test is NOT effective with induced sputum?

Explanation

The test that is NOT effective with induced sputum is the test for bacteria. Induced sputum is a method used to collect respiratory secretions from the lungs, which can be used for diagnosing various respiratory infections. However, bacteria cannot be effectively detected in induced sputum samples. Other tests such as Legionella, AFB (acid-fast bacilli), and fungal tests can be performed on induced sputum samples to detect specific pathogens or infections caused by them.

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150. Match the following metabolic byproducts:
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151. Match the following
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152. What is the abbreviation for blood (whole blood)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "B" because it is the most commonly used abbreviation for blood (whole blood). It is a simple and straightforward abbreviation that is widely recognized and understood in medical and healthcare settings.

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153. What dermatological agent is used to soothe skin and mucous membranes?

Explanation

Emollients are dermatological agents used to soothe and moisturize the skin and mucous membranes. They help to reduce dryness, itching, and inflammation, making them ideal for conditions such as eczema, psoriasis, and dry skin. Emollients work by forming a protective barrier on the skin, preventing moisture loss and promoting hydration. They are often used in creams, lotions, and ointments to provide relief and improve the overall condition of the skin and mucous membranes. Astringents, keratolytics, and antiseptics have different functions and are not specifically used for soothing the skin and mucous membranes.

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154. _______ matter is the nervous tissue of the brain and spinal cord.  It is made up of bundles of myelinated nerve cell processes.

Explanation

White matter is the correct answer because it refers to the nervous tissue of the brain and spinal cord that is made up of bundles of myelinated nerve cell processes. Myelinated nerve fibers appear white due to the presence of myelin, a fatty substance that surrounds and insulates the nerve fibers. White matter is responsible for transmitting signals between different parts of the brain and spinal cord, allowing for communication and coordination of various bodily functions.

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155. Match the following
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156. If blood appears in the syringe, pull the needle out carefully at the angle of entry and discard the syringe.  This is required for which type of injection?

Explanation

The correct answer is SQ (subcutaneous). Subcutaneous injections are administered into the layer of tissue just below the skin. If blood appears in the syringe during a subcutaneous injection, it indicates that the needle has entered a blood vessel. In such cases, it is necessary to remove the needle carefully and discard the syringe to avoid injecting medication into the bloodstream.

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157. Of the following, what agent prevents tissue seepage and secretions?

Explanation

Astringent is the correct answer because it is an agent that helps prevent tissue seepage and secretions. Astringents work by causing contraction of tissues, which helps to reduce fluid leakage and promote healing. They are commonly used to treat wounds, cuts, and other skin conditions where seepage and secretions need to be controlled. Emollients, on the other hand, are moisturizers that help to soften and soothe the skin. Keratolytics help to remove dead skin cells, and antiseptics are used to kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms.

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158. Match the following CLIA levels
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159. Match the following
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160. Which organization audits offices to make sure that they comply with the Security Rule?

Explanation

CMS, also known as the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, is responsible for auditing offices to ensure compliance with the Security Rule. The Security Rule, established under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), sets standards for protecting patients' electronic health information. CMS plays a crucial role in enforcing these standards and ensuring that healthcare organizations follow the necessary security measures to protect patient data.

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161. Match the following
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162. Match the following
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163. The intercalated disc is only in cells of which muscle?

Explanation

The intercalated disc is a specialized structure found only in cardiac muscle cells. It is responsible for connecting individual cardiac muscle cells together, allowing them to work as a coordinated unit. The intercalated disc contains gap junctions, which facilitate the rapid transmission of electrical signals between cells, enabling synchronized contraction of the heart. This unique feature is not present in skeletal, connective, or smooth muscle cells.

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164. Of the following, what is Niclocide used to treat?

Explanation

Niclocide is used to treat parasitic infections. Parasitic infections are caused by parasites, such as worms or protozoa, that invade and multiply within the body. Niclocide is an anthelmintic medication that works by killing or paralyzing the parasites, allowing the body to eliminate them. It is commonly used to treat infections caused by tapeworms and roundworms. Fungal infections are caused by fungi, viral infections are caused by viruses, and bacterial infections are caused by bacteria, so Niclocide is not used to treat these types of infections.

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165. Match the following four stages of AIDS infection cycle:
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166. Match the following pulse rates
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167. Match the following
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168. Match the following types of payroll:
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169. Match the following
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170. What is the C to F temperature conversion formula?

Explanation

The correct answer is (C X 9 / 5) + 32= F. This is the correct formula for converting temperature from Celsius to Fahrenheit. It involves multiplying the temperature in Celsius by 9/5 and then adding 32 to get the equivalent temperature in Fahrenheit.

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171. Match the following
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172. Match the following communication types and the percentage of the message received:
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173. What is the ligament that covers the surface of the spine?

Explanation

The ligament that covers the surface of the spine is the anterior longitudinal ligament. This ligament runs along the anterior (front) surface of the vertebral bodies and helps to stabilize and support the spine. It helps to prevent excessive movement and hyperextension of the spine, providing structural integrity to the vertebral column. The intervertebral ligaments and posterior sacroiliac ligament are not directly responsible for covering the surface of the spine.

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174. Match the following possible complication that can occur when a patient receives IV fluids. 
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175. Each horizontal block of an EKG represents how many seconds?

Explanation

Each horizontal block of an EKG represents 0.04 seconds. This is a standard measurement used in electrocardiography to represent time intervals on the EKG graph. The EKG graph is used to monitor the electrical activity of the heart and each horizontal block represents a specific duration of time, allowing healthcare professionals to analyze the heart's rhythm and detect any abnormalities.

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176. Match the following
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177. Match the following blood pressure:
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178. Match the following schedules of drugs:
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179. What is used for rapid respiratory virus testing?

Explanation

A flocked swab is used for rapid respiratory virus testing because it has a unique design that allows for better collection and release of the sample. The swab has short nylon fibers that are attached to the tip, creating a larger surface area for the sample to adhere to. This increases the sensitivity of the test and improves the accuracy of the results. Additionally, the flocked swab is more comfortable for the patient as it is softer and less likely to cause discomfort or irritation during the collection process.

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180. Match the following
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181. Match the following
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182. The main components of the eye are:
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183. Match the following
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184. Match the following
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185. Match the following
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186. Match the following 10 steps in the capillary puncture process:
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187. Match the following
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188. Match the following
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189. Match the following three phases of the wound healing process:
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190. The five C's of communication

Explanation

The five C's of communication are essential qualities that contribute to effective communication. "Complete" implies that the message should include all necessary information, leaving no room for confusion or ambiguity. "Clear" emphasizes the importance of using simple and understandable language to convey the message. "Concise" means expressing the message in a brief and to-the-point manner, avoiding unnecessary details. "Cohesive" suggests that the message should be logically organized and connected, maintaining a flow of information. "Courteous" highlights the significance of being respectful and considerate towards the recipient. These qualities ensure that communication is efficient, understandable, and respectful.

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191. Match the following stages of grief:
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192. What is NOT a procedure that needs to be calibrated?

Explanation

Prothrombin procedures do not need to be calibrated because they involve measuring the clotting time of the blood and do not require any specific calibration. On the other hand, microbiology cultures, urine sediment analysis, and KOH preparations all involve specific measurements and observations that require calibration to ensure accurate and reliable results.

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193. Match the following eye movements:
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194. Match the following additives and their corresponding color stoppers:
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195. Match the following contract laws:
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196. This managed care model is BEST described as a system that consists of affiliated providers (e.g. hospitals, clinics, etc) who offer joint services for subscribers?

Explanation

IDS stands for Integrated Delivery System, which is a managed care model that consists of affiliated providers such as hospitals and clinics who offer joint services for subscribers. In an IDS, these providers work together to coordinate and deliver comprehensive healthcare services to patients. This model promotes collaboration and integration among healthcare providers, ensuring seamless and efficient care for subscribers.

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197. Match the following ECG lead colors:
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198. Match the following
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199. Match the following
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200. Match the following levels of disinfection:
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A patient's implied consent usually covers which one of the...
The avoidance of confronting a personal problem or reality by...
Permanent adult dentition consists of _______ teeth.
Under this doctrine, physicians are legally responsible for...
Patient education for minor burn care involves all of the following...
The lining of the uterus is called the
Substitution of another surgeon without the patient's consent when...
Dr. Martin agrees to perform an appendectomy on Mrs. O'Hara....
The statue that defines what is included in the practice of medicine,...
The physician tells you to auscultate for a full minute.  What is...
Which of the following cases would exemplify the concept of res ipsa...
The internal folds of the stomach are known as
A medical assistant makes a medication error while under...
A discussion involving the physician providing the patient or the...
The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery?
Encephalopathy is defined as
The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare...
The part of the pharynx that is a passageway for air only is the 
Growth hormone is produced in the
"Determining where the document should be filed and deciding on...
Match the following
Match the following 
The vitamin produced by the normal flora of the colon in amounts...
What is the medical term for "baby teeth"?
"Ostomy" is a 
The medical term for indigestion is
Night blindness may be caused by a deficiency of 
A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called
Match the following four types of connective tissues:
A protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof...
What type of immunization is the only one given at birth?
Res ipsa loqiutur, "The thing speaks for itself" is an...
The most important digestive enzyme in the gastric juice is the 
The prefix "ad" means
What medication is an agent that blocks parasympathetic nerve...
Match the following
A medical assistant taking a pulse by listening to the heart is taking...
A hernia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called
A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is
Abnormal widening of the atrial wall that is weak and bulges defines...
Of the following medications, which is used to treat angina?
Match the following
What is the acceptable range of bleeding time when performing blood...
The rod-shaped bacteria, Bacillus, causes which of the following?
What is the tube volumes range from?
Match the following
What type of insurance is intended to cover Medicare deductible,...
Match the following
Which statement best describes the practice known as "fee...
Polydipsia is seen in conjunction with what condition?
Medicine prescriptions include a superscription area.  What...
The right lung is divided into how many sections?
Match the following
The committee on Medicolegal Problems of the American Medical...
What is an example of a smooth muscle?
Match the following
Which of the following tubes contains the anticoagulant potassium...
When an HMO hires physicians and pays them a salary to provide medical...
_______ matter is the nervous tissue of the brain and spinal...
Match the following
Where do peristaltic waves occur?
The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is the
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Which of the following amounts does the metric prefix -hecto stand...
At what point does systolic pressure occur?
With respect to education on the functions of minerals in the body,...
Match the following respirations:
HIPAA requires covered entities to submit Medicare claims 
Educating female patients on signs and symptoms of...
Match the following normal range of iron testing:
Testing for urobilinogen and porphyrins requires a(n)
OSHA recommends that this is used in order to decontaminate blood...
Acetylcholine is what?
How are reference materials filed?
Which type of specimen MOST likely needs to be stored in an anaerobic...
What does Medicare part A cover for the patient?
Which type of swab is used for a viral culture?
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The word root myc/o means:
Of the following, what bacterium causes chancroid?
Medicare part B covers
Match the following types of medical office bonding: 
A normal spirometry test is which percentage of the predicted value?
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What is NOT an anabolic hormone?
How many tarsal bones are there?
How does the Federal Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control...
What is NOT a treatment for Crohns disease?
Of the following, which tells when, where, why or how something...
This term is used to define serum or plasma that's brownish-yellow...
Which of the following is the most common eye condition associated...
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Of the following additives, which accompanies an evacuated tube with a...
Which QC test does not have a control limit?
Match the following temperatures:
The Consumer Credit Protection Act of 1967 known as the "Truth...
Sputum should be refrigerated when?
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Of the following, which is the second phase of the blood pressure...
Which of the followings NOT a Phenolic used to disinfect walls,...
A patient is terminally ill.  A family member does not wish for...
What is the abbreviate for "seizure".
The justification behavior with socially-acceptable reasons and the...
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Of the following health care data sets, which deals with the care...
What two digit modifier is used to describe two surgeons?
Where should a wound specimens be taken?
In catheter urine collection, what should NOT be included?
Match the following units for alphabetical indexing of names:
Which electrode goes at the fifth intercostal space, left of the...
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An electrocardiogram on a male patient with a twelve lead ECG involves...
Medical Malpractice Acts are laws enacted to
Correctly identify the F to C conversion formula.
Match the following prefixes 
What is the name of a non-cancerious growth of the conjunctiva?
What is the action of a cathartic medication?
The most common cause of sudden cardiac death is:
What is choreia?
"Negligent or intentional civil wrong not arising out of a...
What does the term suppurative describe?
Match the following five phases to the blood pressure know as...
Which of the following is used to treat malignant hyperthermia?
Which of the following is pathogenic Gram-Positive bacterium?
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What is meant by "in situ"?
Match the following eye conditions:
Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow's...
Laboratory tests are classed by CLIA-waived tests, Level I tests, and...
Which of the following blood specimens is from a tube with an...
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The ICD-9 contains the following volumes; 
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Which prevention strategy against bloodborne pathogens...
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The outermost of the the pericardial membranes is the 
Cortisol is a _________ hormone. 
Fried's rule for pediatric dose calculations is outlined as what?
Nutrients are primarily absorbed in which part of the intestines?
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Each vertical block of an EKG represents how many millivolts?
The prefix -micro represents what?
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Match the following types of medical records:
What test is NOT effective with induced sputum?
Match the following metabolic byproducts:
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What is the abbreviation for blood (whole blood)?
What dermatological agent is used to soothe skin and mucous...
_______ matter is the nervous tissue of the brain and spinal...
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If blood appears in the syringe, pull the needle out carefully at the...
Of the following, what agent prevents tissue seepage and...
Match the following CLIA levels
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Which organization audits offices to make sure that they comply with...
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The intercalated disc is only in cells of which muscle?
Of the following, what is Niclocide used to treat?
Match the following four stages of AIDS infection cycle:
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Match the following types of payroll:
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What is the C to F temperature conversion formula?
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Match the following communication types and the percentage of the...
What is the ligament that covers the surface of the spine?
Match the following possible complication that can occur when a...
Each horizontal block of an EKG represents how many seconds?
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Match the following blood pressure:
Match the following schedules of drugs:
What is used for rapid respiratory virus testing?
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The main components of the eye are:
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Match the following 10 steps in the capillary puncture process:
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Match the following three phases of the wound healing process:
The five C's of communication
Match the following stages of grief:
What is NOT a procedure that needs to be calibrated?
Match the following eye movements:
Match the following additives and their corresponding color stoppers:
Match the following contract laws:
This managed care model is BEST described as a system that consists of...
Match the following ECG lead colors:
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Match the following levels of disinfection:
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