Pharmacology Final Part 1

39 Questions

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Pharmacology Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 2. 
    _______ is a measure of efficacy
    • A. 

      Emax

    • B. 

      Bmax

    • C. 

      EC50

    • D. 

      Kd

  • 3. 
    Which of the following is true?
    • A. 

      An inverse agonist is a partial agonist

    • B. 

      A partial agonist can produce the full effect as long as all receptors are bound

    • C. 

      A physiological antagonist binds to the same receptor as the agonist

    • D. 

      A partial agonist is inhibitory in the presence of a full agonist

  • 4. 
    When an agonist is in the presence of an irreversible competitive antagonist:
    • A. 

      Emax will decrease

    • B. 

      EC50 will decrease

    • C. 

      The dose response curve will shift to the right

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      B and C

    • F. 

      All of the above

  • 5. 
    Which receptor type achieves its physiological response the most rapidly?
    • A. 

      G protein

    • B. 

      Kinase linked receptors

    • C. 

      Ligand gated ion channel

    • D. 

      Nuclear receptors

  • 6. 
    Which drug is the most potent?
    • A. 

      Drug A

    • B. 

      Drug B

    • C. 

      Drug C

    • D. 

      Drug D

  • 7. 
    Which of the following receptors has only a single transmembrane region (subunit) capable of binding with the ligand?
    • A. 

      Tyrosine Kinase

    • B. 

      Tyrosine Phosphatase

    • C. 

      JAK-STAT

    • D. 

      Tyrosine kinase associaated

  • 8. 
    Which of the following receptors has intrinsic kinase ability?
    • A. 

      JAK-STAT

    • B. 

      Tyrosine-Kinase associated receptor

    • C. 

      Receptor Tyrosine Phosphatase

    • D. 

      Receptor Serine Threonine Kinase

  • 9. 
    Insulin is an example of a ligand for what receptor type?
    • A. 

      Intracellular receptor

    • B. 

      Receptor tyrosine kinase

    • C. 

      Cytokine receptor

    • D. 

      Receptor tyrosine phosphatase

  • 10. 
    Following G protein receptor activation, _________ dissociates from the alpha subunit and ______ binds to it causing dissociation of the alpha subunit from the beta-gamma subunit.
    • A. 

      GTP;GDP

    • B. 

      GDP;GTP

    • C. 

      ADP;ATP

    • D. 

      ATP;ADP

  • 11. 
    Which of the following would decrease the amount of norepinephrine in the synapse?
    • A. 

      Calcium moving into the synaptic terminal

    • B. 

      Reserpine

    • C. 

      Cocaine

    • D. 

      Amphetamine

  • 12. 
    Which of the following drug's effect would not be blocked or blunted by reserpine?
    • A. 

      Amphetamine

    • B. 

      Phenylephrine

    • C. 

      Ephedrine

    • D. 

      All of the above are blocked or blunted by reserpine

  • 13. 
    Which of the following is false?
    • A. 

      Substitution at the alpha carbon of a sympathomimetic amine results in MAO protection

    • B. 

      An increase in the size of the substituent on the N substituent of an sympathomimetic amine results in greater alpha activity

    • C. 

      An -OH group at the 3 and 4 position of the benzene ring of a sympathomimetic amine gives it greater alpha and beta activity

    • D. 

      An -OH group at the 3 and 4 position of the benzene ring of a sympathomimetic amine subjects it to COMT metabolism

  • 14. 
    Which of the following is the only available depolarizing nicotinic antagonist?
    • A. 

      D-tubocurarine

    • B. 

      Succinylcholine

    • C. 

      Pilocarpine

    • D. 

      Varenicline

  • 15. 
    Which of the following is an irreversible acetycholinesterase inhibitor that is used therapeutically?
    • A. 

      Echothiophate

    • B. 

      Sarin

    • C. 

      Parathion

    • D. 

      Physostigmine

  • 16. 
    An agonist of which of the following receptors would likely treat nasal congestion?
    • A. 

      A1

    • B. 

      A2

    • C. 

      B1

    • D. 

      B2

  • 17. 
    An agonist of which of the following receptors would likely treat hypertension?
    • A. 

      A1

    • B. 

      A2

    • C. 

      B1

    • D. 

      B2

  • 18. 
    An antagonist of which of the following receptors would have anti-arrhythmic activity?
    • A. 

      A1

    • B. 

      A2

    • C. 

      B1

    • D. 

      B2

  • 19. 
    Which of these is not a result of muscarinic antagonists binding to their receptor?
    • A. 

      Bronchodilation

    • B. 

      Decreased salivation

    • C. 

      Decreased GI motility

    • D. 

      Decreased Heart Rate

  • 20. 
    Which of the following mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer would involve the uptake of naked DNA from the environment by a competent bacteria?
    • A. 

      Transduction

    • B. 

      Transformation

    • C. 

      Conjugation

    • D. 

      Not horizontal but vertical gene transfer

  • 21. 
    Which of the following has a 6 membered ring (Dihydrothiazine ring) adjacent to its beta-lactam group?
    • A. 

      Monobactam

    • B. 

      Penicillin

    • C. 

      Carbapenem

    • D. 

      Cephalosporin

  • 22. 
    Which generation penicillin has best activity against enteric organisms?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 23. 
    The mechanism by which vancomycin treats bacterial infection is:
    • A. 

      Inhibition of transpeptidase

    • B. 

      Inhibition of transglucuronidase

    • C. 

      Inhibition of transglycosylase

    • D. 

      Inhibition of beta lactamase

  • 24. 
    Which of the following is a monobactam?
    • A. 

      Meropenem

    • B. 

      Ertapenem

    • C. 

      Imipenem

    • D. 

      Aztreonam

  • 25. 
    Which of the following is a 30S inhibitor?
    • A. 

      Erythromycin

    • B. 

      Gentamycin

    • C. 

      Vancomycin

    • D. 

      Telithromycin

  • 26. 
    Which of the following is a bacteriocidal agent that is known to cause photosensitivity?
    • A. 

      Doxycycline

    • B. 

      Levofloxacin

    • C. 

      Penicillin

    • D. 

      Paromomycin

  • 27. 
    Which of the following is an inhibitor of the 30S ribosomal subunit and has good gram negative activity?
    • A. 

      Minocycline

    • B. 

      Amikacin

    • C. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • D. 

      Streptogramins

  • 28. 
    Which of the following has weak MAOI activity?
    • A. 

      Streptogramins

    • B. 

      Linezolid

    • C. 

      Chloramphenicol

    • D. 

      Paromomycin

  • 29. 
    Which of these is not available parenterally?
    • A. 

      Doxycline

    • B. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • C. 

      Tigecycline

    • D. 

      Neomycin

  • 30. 
    Fluoroquinolones that inhibit Topoisomerase II have greater _____ activity 
    • A. 

      Gram positive

    • B. 

      Gram negative

    • C. 

      Anaerobic

    • D. 

      Aerobic

  • 31. 
    Which of the following inhibits DNA replication and could have a potential ADR of QT prolongation?
    • A. 

      Telithromycin

    • B. 

      Erythromycin

    • C. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • D. 

      Gentamicin

  • 32. 
    In which of the following does GI absorption decrease as dose increases?
    • A. 

      Macrolides

    • B. 

      Tetracyclines

    • C. 

      Fluoroquinolones

    • D. 

      Aminoglycosides

  • 33. 
    Which of the following would be an example of a 30S inhibitor that has an interaction with multivalent cations?
    • A. 

      Moxifloxacin

    • B. 

      Streptomycin

    • C. 

      Doxycycline

    • D. 

      Chloramphenicol

  • 34. 
    Which of the following has activity against E faecaelis and E faecium?
    • A. 

      Streptogramins

    • B. 

      Chloramphenicol

    • C. 

      Linezolid

    • D. 

      Clindamycin

  • 35. 
    Mutation of KatG (Catalase Peroxidase) would likely confer resistance to which of the following drugs?
    • A. 

      Rifampin

    • B. 

      Streptomycin

    • C. 

      Cycloserine

    • D. 

      Isoniazid

  • 36. 
    Which of the following mycobacterial agents has a potential ADR of optic neuritis and red-green color differentiation issues?
    • A. 

      Ethambutol

    • B. 

      Isoniazid

    • C. 

      Rifampin

    • D. 

      Cycloserine

  • 37. 
    Patients should be counseled to drink lots of water when taking this antimycobacterial drug to avoid crystalluria.
    • A. 

      Isoniazid

    • B. 

      P-aminosalicylic acid

    • C. 

      Cycloserine

    • D. 

      Rifampin

  • 38. 
    Which of the following is an inhibitor of CYP3A4?
    • A. 

      Azithromycin

    • B. 

      Rifampin

    • C. 

      Erythromycin

    • D. 

      None of the above are inhibitors

  • 39. 
    Which of the following is notable for its penetration into lung abscesses?
    • A. 

      Clindamycin

    • B. 

      Doxycycline

    • C. 

      Linezolid

    • D. 

      Gemifloxacin