2ax5x V2 CDCS Quiz

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2ax5x Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?
    • A. 

      B-1

    • B. 

      B-2

    • C. 

      B-4

    • D. 

      B-5

  • 2. 
    Which of these is a scissor-type maintenance stand?Type question here
    • A. 

      B-1

    • B. 

      B-2

    • C. 

      B-4

    • D. 

      C-1

  • 3. 
    What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support?
    • A. 

      7,000.

    • B. 

      8,000.

    • C. 

      9,000.

    • D. 

      10,000.

  • 4. 
    On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is
    • A. 

      10 mph.

    • B. 

      15 mph.

    • C. 

      20 mph.

    • D. 

      25 mph.

  • 5. 
    What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?
    • A. 

      Tail

    • B. 

      Axle.

    • C. 

      Nose.

    • D. 

      Fixed-height.

  • 6. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented?
    • A. 

      AGE personnel.

    • B. 

      Aircrew personnel.

    • C. 

      Shift supervisor.

    • D. 

      Everyone.

  • 7. 
    GOX high-pressure cylinders are painted
    • A. 

      White with a green band near the bottom.

    • B. 

      Green with a white band near the bottom.

    • C. 

      White with a green band near the top.

    • D. 

      Green with a white band near the top.

  • 8. 
    When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by
    • A. 

      AGE personnel only.

    • B. 

      The highest ranking person on shift.

    • C. 

      Qualified operators only.

    • D. 

      Any person.

  • 9. 
    What is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering SGNSC?
    • A. 

      39

    • B. 

      49

    • C. 

      59

    • D. 

      69

  • 10. 
    What is the maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high-pressure nitrogen?
    • A. 

      3,000 psig.

    • B. 

      3,500 psig.

    • C. 

      4,400 psig.

    • D. 

      5,200 psig.

  • 11. 
    The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to
    • A. 

      200 psi.

    • B. 

      350 psi.

    • C. 

      3,200 psi.

    • D. 

      3,500 psi.

  • 12. 
    The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of
    • A. 

      200 psi.

    • B. 

      300 psi.

    • C. 

      3,500 psi.

    • D. 

      3,600 psi.

  • 13. 
    The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from
    • A. 

      100 to 230 degrees F.

    • B. 

      115 to 250 degrees F.

    • C. 

      125 to 270 degrees F.

    • D. 

      150 to 280 degrees F.

  • 14. 
    What is the maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner?
    • A. 

      5 mph.

    • B. 

      10 mph.

    • C. 

      15 mph.

    • D. 

      20 mph.

  • 15. 
    The C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air in a range from
    • A. 

      47 to 150 degrees F.

    • B. 

      47 to 200 degrees F.

    • C. 

      57 to 150 degrees F.

    • D. 

      57 to 200 degrees F.

  • 16. 
    The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces
    • A. 

      25.5 VDC.

    • B. 

      27.5 VDC.

    • C. 

      28.5 VDC.

    • D. 

      30.5 VDC.

  • 17. 
    What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance?
    • A. 

      A/M32A-95.

    • B. 

      A/M32A-86

    • C. 

      A/M32A-60

    • D. 

      AF/M-32R-3

  • 18. 
    Which technical order has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60?
    • A. 

      1-1A-8.

    • B. 

      25C2-3-372-11.

    • C. 

      32A1-4.219-45

    • D. 

      35C2-3-372-11.

  • 19. 
    The FL-1D floodlight consists of two
    • A. 

      100 watt lamp fixtures.

    • B. 

      1,000 watt lamp fixtures.

    • C. 

      10,000 watt lamp fixtures.

    • D. 

      100,000 watt lamp fixtures.

  • 20. 
    What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smotth surfaces?
    • A. 

      5 mph.

    • B. 

      10 mph.

    • C. 

      15 mph.

    • D. 

      20 mph.

  • 21. 
    What is used to drive the MK-3A-1?
    • A. 

      A diesel engine.

    • B. 

      An electric motor.

    • C. 

      A gasoline engine.

    • D. 

      A hydraulic motor.

  • 22. 
    How are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand designated?
    • A. 

      Primary and Secondary.

    • B. 

      Primary and Alternate.

    • C. 

      Number 1 and Number 2.

    • D. 

      Left and right.

  • 23. 
    The MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid?
    • A. 

      19 gallons.

    • B. 

      27 gallons.

    • C. 

      30 gallons.

    • D. 

      60 gallons.

  • 24. 
    The MB-4 Coleman incorporates
    • A. 

      Two-wheel steering, two wheel drive.

    • B. 

      Two-wheel steering, four-wheel drive.

    • C. 

      Four-wheel steering, two-wheel drive.

    • D. 

      Four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive.

  • 25. 
    What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman?
    • A. 

      15 mph.

    • B. 

      20 mph.

    • C. 

      25 mph.

    • D. 

      55 mph.

  • 26. 
    • A. 

      Mechanical.

    • B. 

      Pneumatic.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic.

    • D. 

      Electrical.

  • 27. 
    Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low torque applications?
    • A. 

      Reduce shearing.

    • B. 

      Prevent vibration.

    • C. 

      Prevent corrosion.

    • D. 

      Reduce shimming.

  • 28. 
    How are special bolts identified?
    • A. 

      By a zinc-plated nickel steel covering.

    • B. 

      By a galvanized-plated steel covering.

    • C. 

      The bolt head is marked with a triangle.

    • D. 

      The bolt head is marked with the letter S.

  • 29. 
    Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems?
    • A. 

      Stud.

    • B. 

      Clevis.

    • C. 

      Eyebolt.

    • D. 

      Hexhead.

  • 30. 
    Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?
    • A. 

      A stud.

    • B. 

      An eyebolt.

    • C. 

      A hexhead.

    • D. 

      An internal wrenching type.

  • 31. 
    Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the
    • A. 

      Knurl beside the fork.

    • B. 

      Groove by the cable eye.

    • C. 

      Knurl beside the pin eye.

    • D. 

      Groove on the end of the barrel.

  • 32. 
    Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal?
    • A. 

      Soft rubber.

    • B. 

      Phenolic mix.

    • C. 

      Non-magnetic.

    • D. 

      Thermosetting plastic.

  • 33. 
    A permanent magnet is produced from a material with
    • A. 

      Low reluctance and low permeability.

    • B. 

      High reluctance and low permeability.

    • C. 

      High reluctance and high permeability.

    • D. 

      High permeability and low retentivity.

  • 34. 
    When soft iron is brought close to a permanent magnet it is
    • A. 

      Charged.

    • B. 

      Repelled.

    • C. 

      Energized.

    • D. 

      Magnetized.

  • 35. 
    The greater the current flow through an electromagnet, the
    • A. 

      Less the strength.

    • B. 

      Greater the strength.

    • C. 

      Greater the retentivity.

    • D. 

      Higher the reluctance of the core.

  • 36. 
    Current flow in the most aircraft circuits is controlled by
    • A. 

      Fuses.

    • B. 

      Signals.

    • C. 

      Batteries.

    • D. 

      Switches.

  • 37. 
    The majority of aircraft circuit protection devices are normally located
    • A. 

      In the aircraft cabin.

    • B. 

      In the nose wheel well.

    • C. 

      In the utility compartments.

    • D. 

      As far as possible from the unit being protected.

  • 38. 
    What term describes current that reverses its direction at regularly recurring intervals?
    • A. 

      Direct.

    • B. 

      Inductive.

    • C. 

      Reversing.

    • D. 

      Alternating.

  • 39. 
    The methods used to cool brushless alternating current (AC) generators are
    • A. 

      Blast air and ram air.

    • B. 

      Engine oil and blast air.

    • C. 

      Blast air and generator oil.

    • D. 

      Generator oil and engine oil.

  • 40. 
    The output of the constant speed drive (CSD) used to drive a 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator is approcimately
    • A. 

      4,000 RPM.

    • B. 

      6,000 RPM.

    • C. 

      8,000 RPM.

    • D. 

      10,000 RPM.

  • 41. 
    The underspeed switch (USS) on the 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator constant speed drive (CSD) actuates at
    • A. 

      325 Hz.

    • B. 

      345 Hz.

    • C. 

      365 Hz.

    • D. 

      395 Hz.

  • 42. 
    What supplies rotary power to the input gear of the constant speed drive (CSD)?
    • A. 

      Accessory gearbox.

    • B. 

      Transmission shaft.

    • C. 

      Torque converter.

    • D. 

      Hydraulic gear.

  • 43. 
    A battery's internal component that is a grid or framework which supports the active chemical materials is called the
    • A. 

      Plate.

    • B. 

      Separator.

    • C. 

      Electrolyte.

    • D. 

      Chemical solution.

  • 44. 
    A 24-volt nickel-cadmium battery has
    • A. 

      12 cells.

    • B. 

      19 cells.

    • C. 

      20 cells.

    • D. 

      24 cells.

  • 45. 
    The nickel-cadmium battery can be fully charged only by
    • A. 

      Pulsating current.

    • B. 

      Constant current.

    • C. 

      Varying current.

    • D. 

      Eddy current.

  • 46. 
    What type of motor can operate on alternating current (AC) or direct current (DC)?
    • A. 

      Shunt.

    • B. 

      Circuit.

    • C. 

      Universal.

    • D. 

      Compound.

  • 47. 
    A shunt-type motor has
    • A. 

      Less speed regulation than a universal motor.

    • B. 

      A field winding in a series with the armature.

    • C. 

      Low starting torque and good speed regulation.

    • D. 

      High starting torque and poor speed regulation.

  • 48. 
    The three stages of matter are
    • A. 

      Liquids, gases, and minerals.

    • B. 

      Gases, solids, and minerals.

    • C. 

      Gases, solids, and organics.

    • D. 

      Liquids, gases, and solids.

  • 49. 
    When any force causes a solid to change permanently, the solid is said to have
    • A. 

      Passed the elastic limit.

    • B. 

      Lost the ability to expand.

    • C. 

      Failed to meet elastic limit.

    • D. 

      Passed the compression limit.

  • 50. 
    The most outstanding characteristic of a liquid is its
    • A. 

      Rigidity.

    • B. 

      Usability.

    • C. 

      Ability to compress within its container.

    • D. 

      Ability to conform to the shape of its container.

  • 51. 
    What usually produces flow in a pneudraulic system?
    • A. 

      Relief valve in the lines.

    • B. 

      Piston pushing the fluid.

    • C. 

      Scupper pushing the fluid.

    • D. 

      Selector valve in the lines.

  • 52. 
    Who was the first to study the compressibility of gases?
    • A. 

      Hook.

    • B. 

      Boyle.

    • C. 

      Pascal.

    • D. 

      Charles.

  • 53. 
    If 50 psi of cylinder pressure acts on a 5-square-inch piston head, what will the resulting force be?
    • A. 

      150 pounds.

    • B. 

      200 pounds.

    • C. 

      250 pounds.

    • D. 

      300 pounds.

  • 54. 
    When an 8-square-inch piston moves 5 inches within a cylinder, what volume of liquid is displaced?
    • A. 

      4 cubic inches

    • B. 

      40 cubic inches.

    • C. 

      400 cubic inches.

    • D. 

      4,000 cubic inches.

  • 55. 
    Turbulence affects fluid-flow in a hydraulic line by
    • A. 

      Increasing velocity and viscosity.

    • B. 

      Increasing volume and displacement.

    • C. 

      Creating resistance and loss of energy.

    • D. 

      Creating resistance and energy increase.

  • 56. 
    A tube whose cross-section area is gradually reduced to a smaller size diameter is called a
    • A. 

      Torus.

    • B. 

      Pipette.

    • C. 

      Vortex.

    • D. 

      Venturi.

  • 57. 
    The purposes of a hydraulic reservoir are to
    • A. 

      Store fluid and act as a surge chamber.

    • B. 

      Restrict fluid-flow in selected directions.

    • C. 

      Pressurize and direct fluid to an actuator.

    • D. 

      Replenish fluid, allow for thermal expansion, and provide a means of bleeding air from the system.

  • 58. 
    The purpose of a standpipe in a reservoir is to
    • A. 

      Protect the pump.

    • B. 

      Reserve fluid for the power pump.

    • C. 

      Reserve fluid for the emergency pump.

    • D. 

      Supply the pump during inverted flight.

  • 59. 
    The amount of fluid a pump produces on each cycle or revolution is called its
    • A. 

      Displacement.

    • B. 

      Purgement.

    • C. 

      Volume.

    • D. 

      Rating.

  • 60. 
    When referring to hydraulic hand pumps, double-action means
    • A. 

      Fluid-flow is created with each stroke of the pump handle.

    • B. 

      Fluid-flow is created with every other stroke of the pump handle.

    • C. 

      Double volume is displaced with each stroke of the pump handle.

    • D. 

      Double volume is displaced every other stroke of the pump handle.

  • 61. 
    Variable-volume pumps do not require a separate pressure-regulating device in the system because
    • A. 

      They deliver low pressure.

    • B. 

      They have an integral compensator.

    • C. 

      The case drain relieves high system pressure.

    • D. 

      There is no angle between the drive shaft and cylinder block.

  • 62. 
    What provides for cooler operation in a Stratopower variable-volume hydraulic pump?
    • A. 

      Foot valves.

    • B. 

      Oil radiator.

    • C. 

      Creep plates.

    • D. 

      Fluid radiator.

  • 63. 
    In the Stratopower variable-volume pump, what holds the pistons in contact with the cam plate?
    • A. 

      Fixed pivot.

    • B. 

      Nutating plate.

    • C. 

      Stationary bearing.

    • D. 

      Compensator piston.

  • 64. 
    The purpose of a hydraulic motor is to convert hydraulic pressure into
    • A. 

      Rotary mechanical motion.

    • B. 

      Kinetic flow motion.

    • C. 

      Straight-line motion.

    • D. 

      Fluid locomotion.

  • 65. 
    How is the piston installed in an accumulator?
    • A. 

      In either direction.

    • B. 

      Hollow end toward the air side of the accumulator.

    • C. 

      Hollow end toward the fluid side of the accumulator.

    • D. 

      Drilled passage toward the air side of the accumulator.

  • 66. 
    The size of one micron is four
    • A. 

      Tenths of an inch.

    • B. 

      Thousandths of an inch.

    • C. 

      Millionths of an inch.

    • D. 

      Billionths of an inch.

  • 67. 
    In a hydraulic system, the hydraulic manifold provides a location where the
    • A. 

      Return lines can join together.

    • B. 

      Pressure lines can join together.

    • C. 

      Common fluid lines can come together.

    • D. 

      Hydraulic test stand can be connected.

  • 68. 
    The purpose of an actuating cylinder is to transform fluid pressure into
    • A. 

      Angular motion.

    • B. 

      A mechanical force.

    • C. 

      A constant velocity.

    • D. 

      An electromotive force.

  • 69. 
    What pneudraulic system component uses a single-acting actuating cylinder?
    • A. 

      Rudder.

    • B. 

      Cargo door.

    • C. 

      Brake assembly.

    • D. 

      Nosewheel steering.

  • 70. 
    What pneudraulic system component uses a double-acting balanced actuating cylinder?
    • A. 

      Speed brake.

    • B. 

      Brake assembly.

    • C. 

      Cargo door system.

    • D. 

      Nosewheel steering.

  • 71. 
    Which actuator type slows down piston travel when the piston nears either end of the cylinder?
    • A. 

      Tandem.

    • B. 

      Internal locking.

    • C. 

      Internal snubber.

    • D. 

      Double-acting balanced.

  • 72. 
    Type question here
    • A. 

      Answer option 1

    • B. 

      Answer option 2

    • C. 

      Answer option 3

    • D. 

      Answer option 4

  • 73. 
    The major advantage of the manual slide-type hydraulic selector valve is its
    • A. 

      Damping ability.

    • B. 

      Metering ability.

    • C. 

      Ability to contain system pressure.

    • D. 

      Ability to relieve excess system pressure.

  • 74. 
    Normally, what positions hydraulic selector valves?
    • A. 

      Bus.

    • B. 

      Servos.

    • C. 

      Relay.

    • D. 

      Solenoid.

  • 75. 
    The advantage of an electrically controlled solenoid valve is its
    • A. 

      Reduced weight.

    • B. 

      Increased weight.

    • C. 

      Ability to reduce turbulence.

    • D. 

      Ability to increase turbulence.

  • 76. 
    The difference between a selector valve and a servo valve is that the
    • A. 

      Selector valve has four ports.

    • B. 

      Selector valve is more complex.

    • C. 

      Servo valve controls fluid-flow.

    • D. 

      Servo valve is electrically operated.

  • 77. 
    Another name for the flapper check valve is
    • A. 

      Ball check valve.

    • B. 

      Gate check valve.

    • C. 

      Cone check valve.

    • D. 

      Restrictor check valve.

  • 78. 
    What is the purpose of the arrow on a check valve?
    • A. 

      Show filter position within the system.

    • B. 

      Indicate left- and right-hand threading.

    • C. 

      Show the direction of the free flow through the valve.

    • D. 

      Indicate installation points in relation to the pump.

  • 79. 
    Which of these allows normal operating speed of a hydraulic actuator in one direction while limiting speed in the other direction?
    • A. 

      Automatic check valve.

    • B. 

      Restrictor check valve.

    • C. 

      Bypass valve.

    • D. 

      Relief valve.

  • 80. 
    What are the basic units of a hydraulic hand pump system?
    • A. 

      Pump, actuator, filter, and priority valve.

    • B. 

      Pump, actuator, shutoff, and metering valve.

    • C. 

      Reservoir, pump, actuator, and metering valve.

    • D. 

      Reservoir, pump, actuator, and manual shutoff valve.

  • 81. 
    In a dual-impeller fuel pump what prevents foreign objects from holding the bypass valve open?
    • A. 

      An inlet screen.

    • B. 

      An impeller screen.

    • C. 

      A one-way check valve.

    • D. 

      A two-way check valve.

  • 82. 
    What air refueling pump components depend on fuel for lubrication?
    • A. 

      Rotors.

    • B. 

      Stators.

    • C. 

      Bearings.

    • D. 

      Impellers.

  • 83. 
    What air refueling pump component removes fuel vapors caused by the centrifugal force of the impellers?
    • A. 

      Rotor.

    • B. 

      Stator.

    • C. 

      Accumulator.

    • D. 

      Vapor relief valve.

  • 84. 
    The arrow stamped on the body of a fuel system check valve indicates the
    • A. 

      Direction of free flow.

    • B. 

      Direction of restricted flow.

    • C. 

      Location of the drilled hole in the valve.

    • D. 

      Location of the manufacturer's data block.

  • 85. 
    A pressure-loaded fuel system check valve is used
    • A. 

      When a reverse flow of fuel is desired.

    • B. 

      To prevent the pump from overspeeding.

    • C. 

      When gravity flow through the valve is undesirable.

    • D. 

      To prevent excessive pressures when the pump overspeeds.

  • 86. 
    The fuel system components that prevent excessive pressure from building up in trapped lines or within the valve body are three
    • A. 

      Thermal-relief valves.

    • B. 

      Pressure-relief valves.

    • C. 

      One-way check valves.

    • D. 

      Spring-loaded relief valves.

  • 87. 
    The rotary plug valve can be removed and replaced
    • A. 

      Without draining the fuel lines or tanks.

    • B. 

      Only if the electric motor is in the off position.

    • C. 

      Only after the required fuel lines and tanks are drained.

    • D. 

      Only after removing the valve body and connecting lines.

  • 88. 
    What rotary plug valve part rotates and seals off the passage of the fuel during plug valve removal?
    • A. 

      Initial seal.

    • B. 

      Diaphragm seal.

    • C. 

      Primary seal sleeve.

    • D. 

      Secondary seal sleeve.

  • 89. 
    Another name for the disc type valve in a fuel system is
    • A. 

      Butterfly.

    • B. 

      Swivel vane.

    • C. 

      Sliding gate.

    • D. 

      Swinging disc.

  • 90. 
    In a piston-type fuel level control valve, what aids piston closure and prevents fuel from entering the tank?
    • A. 

      Float.

    • B. 

      Spring.

    • C. 

      Pilot valve.

    • D. 

      Diaphragm.

  • 91. 
    Some fuel level control valves have a dual-float system so that
    • A. 

      There will be a double safety factor.

    • B. 

      Two tanks can be filled at the same time.

    • C. 

      The tank can be filled to either of two levels.

    • D. 

      There is capability to fill or empty the tank.

  • 92. 
    The low-level shutoff valve prevents the reverse flow of fuel through the valve by what type of action?
    • A. 

      Spring.

    • B. 

      Venturi.

    • C. 

      Check valve.

    • D. 

      Hydromechanical.

  • 93. 
    Fuel-controlled switches normally control circuits that indicate
    • A. 

      Fuel-flow.

    • B. 

      Fuel level.

    • C. 

      Fuel pressure.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 94. 
    What most likely controls the automatic pump shutoff when all fuel is depleted from a fuel tank?
    • A. 

      Float valves.

    • B. 

      Float switches.

    • C. 

      Toggle switches.

    • D. 

      Pressure switches.

  • 95. 
    In a direct current, liquid-level fuel indicating system, what positions the wiper contact on the resistance strip?
    • A. 

      Signals from the amplifier.

    • B. 

      The movement of the float in the tanks.

    • C. 

      Voltage changes in the indicator circuit.

    • D. 

      The amount of bleed air pressure applied to the tank.

  • 96. 
    What capacitance-type, fuel-indicating system component allows for changes in fuel density?
    • A. 

      Inductor.

    • B. 

      Capacitor.

    • C. 

      Compensator.

    • D. 

      Potentiometer.

  • 97. 
    What prevents a fuel tank from collapsing if an air pressure regulator fails and excessive negative pressure develops?
    • A. 

      Quick-disconnect valve.

    • B. 

      Fuel-level control valve.

    • C. 

      Low-level shutoff valve.

    • D. 

      Pressure/vacuum relief valve.

  • 98. 
    A well-designed aircraft fuel system will ensure
    • A. 

      Positive and negative fuel-flow.

    • B. 

      Negative fuel-flow under all conditions.

    • C. 

      Positive fuel-flow under positive conditions.

    • D. 

      Positive and reliable fuel-flow under all conditions.

  • 99. 
    The three types of shutoff valves used in the crossfeed fuel system are the
    • A. 

      Rotary plug, disc, and check.

    • B. 

      Disc, check, and sliding gate.

    • C. 

      Sliding gate, rotary plug, and disc.

    • D. 

      Check, sliding gate, and rotary plug.

  • 100. 
    The three methods of transferring fuel are gravity flow,
    • A. 

      Air pressure, and pump.

    • B. 

      Check, and air pressure.

    • C. 

      Pump, and hydromechanical.

    • D. 

      Hydromechanical, and air pressure.

  • 101. 
    What is the basic purpose of the fuel vent system?
    • A. 

      Move fuel from tank to tank.

    • B. 

      Pressurize the fuel for transfer.

    • C. 

      Remove residual fuel from manifolds.

    • D. 

      Prevent fuel tank rupture or collapse.

  • 102. 
    The most prevalent method of refueling for ground servicing is
    • A. 

      Nozzle.

    • B. 

      Top-off.

    • C. 

      Single-point.

    • D. 

      Over-the-wing.

  • 103. 
    The air refueling (A/R) receptacle is operated
    • A. 

      Hydraulically, but controlled electrically.

    • B. 

      Electrically, but controlled hydraulically.

    • C. 

      Electrically, but controlled pneumatically.

    • D. 

      Hydraulically, and controlled pneumatically.

  • 104. 
    Fuel's ability to hold contaminants in suspension is increased with a higher
    • A. 

      Fuel to air ratio.

    • B. 

      Specific gravity.

    • C. 

      Temperature.

    • D. 

      Viscosity.

  • 105. 
    What type of foreign particle appears in the fuel in a crystalline, granular, or glasslike form?
    • A. 

      Rust.

    • B. 

      Sand or dust.

    • C. 

      Brass shavings.

    • D. 

      Aluminum or magnesium compounds.

  • 106. 
    What type of fuel contaminants can form red, brown, gray, or black slime in the fuel?
    • A. 

      Water.

    • B. 

      Sediment.

    • C. 

      Foreign particles.

    • D. 

      Microbial growth.

  • 107. 
    Specks or granules of sediment in fuel that are visible to the naked eye are approximately how many microns or larger?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      40

    • C. 

      50

    • D. 

      54

  • 108. 
    Classifications of fuel leaks is necessary in order to determine
    • A. 

      How much fuel is being wasted.

    • B. 

      The type contaminant that is in the fuel.

    • C. 

      Whether or not they constitute a flight safety hazard.

    • D. 

      Whether or not they constitute an environmental hazard.

  • 109. 
    How are fuel leaks categorized?
    • A. 

      Major and minor.

    • B. 

      Class 1 through 5.

    • C. 

      Class A through D.

    • D. 

      Internal and external.

  • 110. 
    Leak limits correspond to the
    • A. 

      Fuel type and location.

    • B. 

      Leak category and location.

    • C. 

      Leak category and fuel type.

    • D. 

      Location and corrective action.

  • 111. 
    In addition to the AFTO Form 781A or AFTO Form 781K, what form must you use to document fuel leaks when automatic data systems are not available?
    • A. 

      DD Form 2026.

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 422.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 427.

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 781J.

  • 112. 
    The resistance of an object to change its motion is a property of matter called
    • A. 

      Energy.

    • B. 

      Inertia.

    • C. 

      Friction.

    • D. 

      Potential.

  • 113. 
    The ability to do work is the definition of
    • A. 

      Energy.

    • B. 

      Inertia.

    • C. 

      Friction.

    • D. 

      Velocity.

  • 114. 
    An aircraft taxiing at a constant speed is an example of
    • A. 

      Bernoulli's Law.

    • B. 

      Newton's First Law of Motion.

    • C. 

      Newton's Second Law of Motion.

    • D. 

      Newton's Third Law of Motion.

  • 115. 
    Which of Newton's Laws of Motion is the best description of why an operating jet engine produces forward thrust?
    • A. 

      First.

    • B. 

      Second.

    • C. 

      Third.

    • D. 

      Fourth.

  • 116. 
    In a jet engine, what meters the fuel for combustion?
    • A. 

      Pressurizing and dump valve.

    • B. 

      Fuels nozzles.

    • C. 

      Fuel control.

    • D. 

      Fuel pump.