3P071 Volume 3(Map Quiz)
Volume 3
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What information on a map is much like the instruction book that comes with a piece of equipment?
- A.
Topographical.
- B.
Geographical.
- C.
Marginal.
- D.
Index.
Correct Answer
C. Marginal.Explanation
The information on a map that is much like the instruction book that comes with a piece of equipment is the marginal information. Marginal information provides important details and explanations about the map, such as symbols, scales, legends, and other key information that helps the user understand and interpret the map accurately. Just like an instruction book provides guidance on how to use and operate a piece of equipment, marginal information on a map serves as a guide for understanding and utilizing the map effectively.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which color, found on a map, represents man-made features?
- A.
Yellow.
- B.
Green.
- C.
Orange.
- D.
Black.
Correct Answer
D. Black.Explanation
Black is the color that represents man-made features on a map. This is because black is commonly used to depict roads, highways, buildings, and other human-made structures on maps. It provides a clear contrast against the natural features depicted in other colors like green for vegetation, yellow for deserts, and orange for mountains. By using black to represent man-made features, it helps users easily identify and distinguish between natural and artificial elements on a map.Rate this question:
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- 3.
On a map, what is represented by a solid blue line with a thin black line as the bank?
- A.
A river.
- B.
A lake.
- C.
A stream.
- D.
A dry pond.
Correct Answer
A. A river.Explanation
A solid blue line on a map typically represents a body of water, such as a river. The thin black line alongside the blue line indicates the bank of the river. Therefore, the representation of a solid blue line with a thin black line as the bank signifies a river on the map.Rate this question:
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- 4.
If a map shows contour lines on the opposite side of a hill so close that they almost appear as a single line, these lines denote a
- A.
Small ridge or plateau.
- B.
Vertical/near vertical cliff.
- C.
Small hill with a gentle slope.
- D.
Depression in the terrain.
Correct Answer
B. Vertical/near vertical cliff.Explanation
When contour lines on a map are close together and almost appear as a single line on the opposite side of a hill, it indicates a vertical or near-vertical cliff. This means that there is a steep drop or wall on that side of the hill, rather than a small ridge, plateau, or depression.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is not one of the three types of contour lines shown on a Defense Mapping Agency map?
- A.
Supplementary.
- B.
Intermediate.
- C.
Secondary.
- D.
Index.
Correct Answer
C. Secondary.Explanation
The Defense Mapping Agency map shows three types of contour lines: supplementary, intermediate, and index. The term "secondary" is not mentioned as one of the types of contour lines on the map. Therefore, "secondary" is the correct answer as it is not one of the three types of contour lines shown on the map.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which major terrain feature is a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground?
- A.
Depression.
- B.
Ridge.
- C.
Valley.
- D.
Saddle.
Correct Answer
D. Saddle.Explanation
A saddle is a major terrain feature that is a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground. It is similar to a saddle on a horse's back, where the dip between the two higher areas resembles the seat of a saddle. This term is commonly used in geography and topography to describe such a feature. A depression refers to a lower area surrounded by higher ground, a ridge is a long and narrow elevated landform, and a valley is a low area between hills or mountains.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge is called a
- A.
Spur.
- B.
Hill.
- C.
Cliff.
- D.
Slope.
Correct Answer
A. Spur.Explanation
A short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge is called a spur. This term is commonly used in geography and topography to describe a landform that extends outward from a ridge or mountain. It is characterized by its gradual slope and can often be seen as a smaller, secondary ridge branching off from the main ridge. The term "spur" accurately describes this landform and is the correct answer in this context.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What are the two other grid systems that are used as the basis for the Military Grid Reference System?
- A.
The universal traveling map and the universal plotting scheme.
- B.
The universal transverse mercator and the universal polar stereographic.
- C.
The unit transverse mercator and the unit polar stereographic.
- D.
The universal transit mercator and the universal polarity stereographic.
Correct Answer
B. The universal transverse mercator and the universal polar stereographic.Explanation
The correct answer is the universal transverse mercator and the universal polar stereographic. These two grid systems are used as the basis for the Military Grid Reference System. The universal transverse mercator is a cylindrical projection that divides the world into 60 zones, each with its own transverse mercator projection. The universal polar stereographic is a polar projection that covers the areas near the North and South poles. These grid systems provide a standardized way to reference locations on a map, which is essential for military operations and navigation.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Plotting a six-digit grid coordinate will get you within how many meters of the point you wish to identify?
- A.
1,000.
- B.
100.
- C.
10
- D.
1
Correct Answer
B. 100.Explanation
Plotting a six-digit grid coordinate will get you within 100 meters of the point you wish to identify. This means that if you have a six-digit grid coordinate, the point you are looking for will be within a 100-meter radius of that coordinate.Rate this question:
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- 10.
In land navigation, which north is your starting point or baseline.
- A.
Geographic.
- B.
Magnetic.
- C.
Polar.
- D.
True.
Correct Answer
D. True.Explanation
The correct answer is "True" because the starting point or baseline for land navigation is usually determined by using True North, which is the direction towards the North Pole. True North is a fixed point on the Earth's surface and is not affected by magnetic variations or any other factors. Therefore, when using land navigation techniques, it is important to reference True North as the starting point or baseline for accurate navigation.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is an azimuth?
- A.
A vertical angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north.
- B.
A horizontal angle measured counterclockwise from true north, magnetic north.
- C.
A horizontal angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north.
- D.
A vertical angle measured counterclockwise from magnetic north or grid north.
Correct Answer
C. A horizontal angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north.Explanation
An azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north. This means that it is a measurement of the angle between a reference direction (true north, magnetic north, or grid north) and a given point, with the rotation being in a clockwise direction. This definition helps to clarify what an azimuth is and how it is measured.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How do you convert a grid azimuth to a magnetic azimuth?
- A.
Subtract the 3.5 degrees from your azimuth.
- B.
Add the 3.5-degree grid magnet angle to the azimuth.
- C.
Subtract 3.5 degrees from your back azimuth.
- D.
Subtract the 5.5 degrees from your azimuth.
Correct Answer
A. Subtract the 3.5 degrees from your azimuth.Explanation
To convert a grid azimuth to a magnetic azimuth, you need to subtract the 3.5 degrees from your azimuth. This adjustment is necessary because there is a difference between the grid north and the magnetic north. By subtracting the 3.5 degrees, you are aligning your azimuth with the magnetic north, ensuring accurate navigation using magnetic bearings.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the most important thing to look for when inspecting your lensatic compass?
- A.
There is no dirt in the dial.
- B.
The numbers are easy to read.
- C.
The arrows can be seen at night.
- D.
The dial or arrow moves freely.
Correct Answer
D. The dial or arrow moves freely.Explanation
When inspecting a lensatic compass, the most important thing to look for is whether the dial or arrow moves freely. This is crucial because a compass that is stuck or has a stiff dial/arrow will not provide accurate readings. The ability for the dial or arrow to move freely ensures that the compass is functioning properly and will give reliable directions.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which method of movement gives you the lowest silhouette?
- A.
High crawl.
- B.
Low crawl.
- C.
Rush.
- D.
Roll.
Correct Answer
B. Low crawl.Explanation
The low crawl method of movement gives you the lowest silhouette. This means that when you are low crawling, your body is closest to the ground, minimizing your visibility and making it harder for the enemy to spot you. This technique is commonly used in military and tactical situations where staying hidden and maintaining a low profile is crucial for survival and success.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which movement technique requires a great deal of patience?
- A.
Low crawl.
- B.
Moving at night.
- C.
Moving with stealth
- D.
Moving with precision.
Correct Answer
C. Moving with stealthExplanation
Moving with stealth requires a great deal of patience because it involves moving silently and carefully to avoid being detected. It requires controlling one's movements, being aware of surroundings, and taking slow and deliberate steps. Patience is necessary to maintain a slow and steady pace, to avoid making noise or sudden movements that could give away one's position. It also requires waiting for the right moment to move and being patient in observing and assessing the situation before taking action. Overall, moving with stealth requires a high level of patience to ensure success and avoid detection.Rate this question:
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- 16.
When writing paragraph 2 - mission in the operations order, how often do you state the mission?
- A.
One time.
- B.
Two times.
- C.
Three times.
- D.
Four times.
Correct Answer
B. Two times.Explanation
In paragraph 2 of an operations order, the mission is typically stated twice. This is done to ensure clarity and understanding among the personnel involved in the mission. By restating the mission, it serves as a reminder and helps to reinforce the objective and goals that need to be achieved. Additionally, stating the mission twice allows for any potential misunderstandings or confusion to be addressed and corrected, ensuring that everyone is on the same page and working towards a common purpose.Rate this question:
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- 17.
In paragraph 3 - execution of the operations order, how should you write the concept of operations?
- A.
Detailed and understandable and describe how the unit will finish its mission.
- B.
Concise and understandable and describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission.
- C.
Concise describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission from start to finish.
- D.
Concise and understandable and describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission from the start to finish.
Correct Answer
D. Concise and understandable and describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission from the start to finish.Explanation
The concept of operations should be written in a concise and understandable manner, providing a general description of how the unit will accomplish its mission from start to finish. This means that the explanation should be clear and easy to comprehend, while also providing a high-level overview of the unit's planned actions and objectives throughout the mission.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In which paragraph of the operations order is the mechanics of the operations addressed in detail?
- A.
Execution.
- B.
Maneuver.
- C.
Offensive.
- D.
Defensive.
Correct Answer
B. Maneuver.Explanation
In the operations order, the paragraph that addresses the mechanics of the operations in detail is the "Maneuver" paragraph. This paragraph outlines the specific movements, actions, and tactics that will be employed during the operation. It provides detailed instructions on how the forces will maneuver, coordinate, and execute their tasks to achieve the mission objectives.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which paragraph in the operations order addresses service and support, as needed, to clarify the service and support concept?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
D. 4Explanation
Paragraph 4 in the operations order addresses service and support, as needed, to clarify the service and support concept.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Why would a leader issue a fragmentary order?
- A.
To change an existing order.
- B.
To order a fragmentary grenade.
- C.
To advise personnel of a fragile operation.
- D.
To indicate a change in the command structure of the unit.
Correct Answer
A. To change an existing order.Explanation
A leader would issue a fragmentary order to change an existing order. A fragmentary order, also known as a FRAGO, is a type of order that is used to modify or update a previous order. It is typically issued when there is a need to make changes or adjustments to the original plan or instructions. By issuing a fragmentary order, the leader can communicate the necessary changes to the personnel and ensure that everyone is aware of the updated instructions. This allows for flexibility and adaptability in the execution of operations.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which presentation shows the control measures and key terrain in relation to each other as well as a large rough drawing of the objective areas?
- A.
Rough draft.
- B.
Concept sketch.
- C.
Operations overlay.
- D.
Terrain Scale model.
Correct Answer
B. Concept sketch.Explanation
A concept sketch is a type of presentation that shows the control measures and key terrain in relation to each other, as well as a large rough drawing of the objective areas. This type of sketch provides a visual representation of the overall concept and layout of the operation, allowing for better understanding and planning. It is different from a rough draft, which typically focuses on the initial ideas and structure of the presentation, an operations overlay, which is a map overlay used for planning and coordination, and a terrain scale model, which is a physical model of the terrain used for analysis and visualization.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which element or team of the combat patrol provides direct fire support and may control indirect fires for the squad or flight?
- A.
Assault.
- B.
Support.
- C.
Breach.
- D.
Demolition.
Correct Answer
B. Support.Explanation
The correct answer is "Support." In a combat patrol, the support element or team is responsible for providing direct fire support to the squad or flight. They may also have the authority to control indirect fires, such as artillery or airstrikes, to assist the squad or flight in their mission. The support element plays a crucial role in enhancing the combat effectiveness and firepower of the squad or flight during operations.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Attacks on a position or installation followed by a plan withdrawal, defines
- A.
An ambush.
- B.
An assault.
- C.
A hasty.
- D.
A raid.
Correct Answer
D. A raid.Explanation
A raid is an attack on a position or installation followed by a planned withdrawal. It involves a swift and surprise attack on the enemy's territory or stronghold, with the intention of causing damage or capturing valuable resources, and then quickly retreating to avoid prolonged engagement. This tactic is often used to disrupt enemy operations and weaken their defenses.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following is not a type of reconnaissance patrol?
- A.
Area.
- B.
Silent.
- C.
Zone.
- D.
Route.
Correct Answer
B. Silent.Explanation
Silent is not a type of reconnaissance patrol because reconnaissance patrols are designed to gather information about enemy positions, movements, and activities. They typically involve making noise and engaging with the enemy to gather intelligence. Silent patrols, on the other hand, prioritize stealth and avoiding detection, which is more characteristic of a surveillance or covert operation rather than a reconnaissance patrol.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which type of reconnaissance patrol is performed to obtain information on enemy, terrain, and routes within a specified zone?
- A.
Zone.
- B.
Route.
- C.
Area.
- D.
Silent.
Correct Answer
A. Zone.Explanation
A reconnaissance patrol is performed to gather information about the enemy, terrain, and routes within a specific area. In this context, the term "zone" refers to a designated area that the patrol focuses on. By conducting a zone reconnaissance patrol, the objective is to gather detailed information about the enemy's activities, the nature of the terrain, and the available routes within that specific zone. This type of patrol allows for a more focused and thorough analysis of a specific area, enabling better planning and decision-making in military operations.Rate this question:
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- 26.
When leading a reconnaissance patrol, what technique positions surveillance teams in locations where they can collectively observe the entire zone long-term, continuously gathering information?
- A.
Multiple area reconnaissance.
- B.
Successive sector method.
- C.
Converging routes method.
- D.
Stationary teams.
Correct Answer
D. Stationary teams.Explanation
Stationary teams are positioned in locations where they can collectively observe the entire zone long-term and continuously gather information. This technique allows for a more comprehensive and continuous surveillance of the area, ensuring that no important information is missed. The other options mentioned, such as multiple area reconnaissance, successive sector method, and converging routes method, do not specifically focus on positioning surveillance teams in a stationary manner for long-term observation.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Before attempting to maneuver, when employing fire and maneuver techniques, units must establish a base
- A.
Of fire.
- B.
Support plan.
- C.
Camp retrograde.
- D.
Deflection maneuver.
Correct Answer
A. Of fire.Explanation
When employing fire and maneuver techniques, units must establish a base of fire. This means that before attempting any maneuvers, the unit needs to establish a position from which they can provide suppressive fire on the enemy. This base of fire acts as a support and provides cover for the maneuvering elements of the unit. It allows them to advance and engage the enemy while minimizing their own exposure to enemy fire. Without a base of fire, the unit would be vulnerable and unable to effectively execute their maneuvers.Rate this question:
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- 28.
In fire and maneuver operations, from where does most of the maneuvering forces fire support come?
- A.
Mortars, MK19s, and M2.50 calibers.
- B.
Your support team weapons.
- C.
Fire and maneuver elements.
- D.
Your team’s own weapons.
Correct Answer
D. Your team’s own weapons.Explanation
In fire and maneuver operations, the maneuvering forces rely on their own weapons for fire support. This means that the team's own weapons, such as rifles, machine guns, and other individual firearms, are used to provide cover and suppressive fire while the maneuvering forces advance or change positions. This allows for coordinated movement and provides the necessary firepower to support the maneuver element's objectives.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Why do squads use formations?
- A.
For control flexibility and security.
- B.
Flexibility and movement.
- C.
Flexibility only.
- D.
For control only.
Correct Answer
A. For control flexibility and security.Explanation
Squads use formations for control flexibility and security because it allows them to maintain better coordination and organization during tactical operations. By adopting specific formations, squad members can strategically position themselves to cover different areas, provide support, and respond effectively to any threats or challenges they may encounter. This enhances their ability to control the situation, adapt to changing circumstances, and ensure the safety and success of the mission.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The basic formation for the fire team is the
- A.
File.
- B.
Wedge.
- C.
Squad file.
- D.
Squad line.
Correct Answer
B. Wedge.Explanation
The correct answer is "wedge". In military tactics, a fire team is a small unit that operates together. The wedge formation is commonly used by fire teams as it provides good visibility and allows for quick movement and maneuverability. In a wedge formation, the team members are positioned in a triangular shape, with the team leader at the front and the other members fanning out behind in a V shape. This formation is effective for advancing or assaulting an objective while maintaining good communication and covering multiple angles.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which squad formation provides maximum firepower to the front?
- A.
Column.
- B.
Wedge.
- C.
Line.
- D.
File.
Correct Answer
C. Line.Explanation
The line formation provides maximum firepower to the front because it allows all soldiers to face the enemy directly and engage in combat simultaneously. In a line formation, soldiers stand shoulder to shoulder, creating a continuous line of fire. This formation ensures that the maximum number of soldiers can engage the enemy at once, increasing the overall firepower and effectiveness of the unit. Additionally, the line formation provides better visibility and communication between soldiers, allowing for better coordination and tactical maneuvers.Rate this question:
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- 32.
When contact is possible, what movement technique should you choose for your squad?
- A.
Bounding overwatch.
- B.
Traveling overwatch.
- C.
Traverse overwatch.
- D.
Leap frog movements.
Correct Answer
B. Traveling overwatch.Explanation
When contact is possible, the best movement technique to choose for your squad is traveling overwatch. This technique involves one element of the squad moving while the other provides overwatch and covers their movement. It allows for continuous movement while maintaining security and minimizing the risk of ambushes or surprise attacks. By alternating between movement and overwatch, the squad can effectively advance and maintain situational awareness in a potentially hostile environment.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which bounding method is easier to control?
- A.
Alternate.
- B.
Successive.
- C.
Progressive.
- D.
Leap frog.
Correct Answer
B. Successive.Explanation
The correct answer is "Successive" because this term implies a step-by-step approach where each step builds upon the previous one. This method allows for better control and monitoring of the process as it progresses. On the other hand, alternate, progressive, and leap frog do not inherently suggest a systematic and controlled approach, making them less suitable for bounding methods.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which movement techniques are combined to cross an area so large the squad cannot bypass it due to the time required to accomplish the mission?
- A.
Overwatch and bounding overwatch.
- B.
Traveling overwatch and traversing overwatch.
- C.
Traveling overwatch and bounding overwatch.
- D.
Traversing overwatch and bounding overwatch.
Correct Answer
C. Traveling overwatch and bounding overwatch. -
- 35.
You and your squad have come across a small open area to cross. You decide to use a series of 90-degree turns to the right or left so the squad moves around the open area until the far side is reached, then continue the mission. Which movement method did you elect to use?
- A.
Night walking.
- B.
Detour bypass method.
- C.
Contact danger method.
- D.
Contouring around the open area.
Correct Answer
B. Detour bypass method.Explanation
The correct answer is Detour bypass method. This method involves using a series of 90-degree turns to the right or left in order to move around the open area until the far side is reached. This allows the squad to avoid crossing the open area directly and potentially exposing themselves to danger. By taking a detour, they can maintain cover and concealment while continuing their mission.Rate this question:
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- 36.
At squad level, which teams normally provide flank security as well as fires into the kill zone?
- A.
The security elements.
- B.
The outside buddy teams.
- C.
The inside buddy teams.
- D.
The ambush reserve teams.
Correct Answer
B. The outside buddy teams.Explanation
The outside buddy teams are responsible for providing flank security as well as fires into the kill zone at the squad level. They are positioned on the outer edges of the squad formation and are tasked with ensuring the squad's flanks are protected and engaging any enemy forces in the kill zone.Rate this question:
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- 37.
A deliberate ambush is conducted when your team
- A.
Has a specific target and a predetermined location.
- B.
Deploys to attack an enemy in a single kill zone.
- C.
Deploys in two or more related point ambushes.
- D.
Makes visual contact with an enemy force and has time to establish an ambush.
Correct Answer
A. Has a specific target and a predetermined location.Explanation
A deliberate ambush is conducted when your team has a specific target and a predetermined location. This means that the team plans and prepares in advance to attack a specific target at a specific location. The team would have gathered intelligence and identified the target, as well as selected a location that provides tactical advantages for the ambush. By having a specific target and predetermined location, the team can effectively coordinate their actions and maximize the chances of a successful ambush.Rate this question:
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- 38.
During a deliberate ambush, which action is not taken by the assault element?
- A.
Identifying individual sectors of fire as assigned by you, the team leader.
- B.
Emplacing protective devices, such as early warning devices.
- C.
Emplacing protective devices, such as early warning device.
- D.
Emplacing grenadiers to cover dead space within the kill zone.
Correct Answer
C. Emplacing protective devices, such as early warning device.Explanation
In a deliberate ambush, the assault element is responsible for executing the attack. They are primarily focused on engaging the enemy and neutralizing threats. The other actions mentioned, such as identifying sectors of fire and emplacing grenadiers, are important tasks that are typically carried out by the support element or other members of the team. Emplacing protective devices, such as early warning devices, is not a task typically assigned to the assault element during a deliberate ambush. These devices are usually employed by the support element to provide early warning of approaching enemy forces.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which ambush uses limiting stakes to prevent friendly fires from hitting the assault element?
- A.
Point.
- B.
Linear.
- C.
I-shaped.
- D.
L-shaped.
Correct Answer
D. L-shaped.Explanation
The L-shaped ambush is the correct answer because it utilizes limiting stakes to prevent friendly fires from hitting the assault element. Limiting stakes are placed in a way that creates a safe zone for the assault element, protecting them from being accidentally hit by their own forces. This type of ambush formation is effective in minimizing the risk of friendly fire and maximizing the element of surprise against the enemy.Rate this question:
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- 40.
If there is any return fire once the assault element begins to search, they must be prepared to move across the kill zone using which movement technique?
- A.
Individual.
- B.
Fire team.
- C.
Teams organized.
- D.
Bounding fire team.
Correct Answer
A. Individual.Explanation
When the assault element begins to search and encounters return fire, they must be prepared to move across the kill zone using the individual movement technique. This technique involves each member of the assault element moving independently and using cover and concealment to advance towards the objective. It allows for greater flexibility and minimizes the risk of multiple casualties if the enemy is engaging with accurate fire.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Normally, how does a team withdraw from an ambush site?
- A.
In the reverse order that they established their positions.
- B.
In the order that they established their positions.
- C.
Two at a time so one can cover the other.
- D.
Simultaneously.
Correct Answer
A. In the reverse order that they established their positions.Explanation
When a team withdraws from an ambush site, they typically do so in the reverse order that they established their positions. This means that the team members who were the last to take up their positions will be the first ones to withdraw, while those who were the first to take up their positions will be the last ones to leave. This strategy allows for a more organized and controlled withdrawal, ensuring that each team member has cover and support as they retreat from the ambush site.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What does a delay in an economy-of-force operation create to allow other actions to take place?
- A.
Space.
- B.
Area.
- C.
Time.
- D.
Opportunity.
Correct Answer
C. Time.Explanation
A delay in an economy-of-force operation creates time for other actions to take place. This means that by delaying or slowing down the operation, it provides an opportunity for other actions or strategies to be implemented. It allows for more time to assess the situation, plan and coordinate additional actions, and potentially maximize the effectiveness of the overall operation.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What are the two types of withdrawals?
- A.
Fast and slow.
- B.
Aid and unaided.
- C.
Assisted and unassisted.
- D.
Forward and backward.
Correct Answer
C. Assisted and unassisted.Explanation
The correct answer is "Assisted and unassisted." This is because the question is asking for the types of withdrawals, and "assisted" and "unassisted" are two distinct types of withdrawals. "Fast and slow," "aid and unaided," and "forward and backward" are not relevant to the concept of withdrawals.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which is not a method of disengaging from the enemy?
- A.
Under Enemy Pressure.
- B.
Thinning the lines.
- C.
Fire teams.
- D.
By squads.
Correct Answer
A. Under Enemy Pressure.Explanation
Under Enemy Pressure is not a method of disengaging from the enemy because it implies being under direct attack or intense pressure from the enemy. In such a situation, disengaging may not be a viable option as the focus would be on defending oneself or retaliating against the enemy. The other options, Thinning the lines, Fire teams, and By squads, suggest different strategies or tactics that can be employed to disengage from the enemy effectively.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which S-function is responsible for personnel management and development and maintenance of morale?
- A.
S–1.
- B.
S–2.
- C.
S–3.
- D.
S–4.
Correct Answer
A. S–1.Explanation
S-1 is responsible for personnel management and development and maintenance of morale.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which S-function gathers intelligence for air base defense force operations; predicts effects of nuclear, biological, and chemical attacks; and relays weather information?
- A.
S–4.
- B.
S–3.
- C.
S–2.
- D.
S–1.
Correct Answer
C. S–2.Explanation
The correct answer is S-2. The S-2 function is responsible for gathering intelligence for air base defense force operations, predicting the effects of nuclear, biological, and chemical attacks, and relaying weather information. This function plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and effectiveness of air base defense operations by providing valuable intelligence and predictions related to potential threats and weather conditions.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The S–4 is normally responsible for completing which paragraph of the squadron operations order?
- A.
Paragraph 4.
- B.
Paragraph 3.
- C.
Paragraph 2.
- D.
Paragraph 1.
Correct Answer
A. Paragraph 4.Explanation
The S-4 is responsible for completing paragraph 4 of the squadron operations order. This indicates that the S-4 is in charge of providing information related to logistics, such as supply, transportation, and maintenance, which are crucial for the successful execution of the squadron's operations.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The base commander form the base defense operations center with
- A.
Personnel from the augmentation force.
- B.
Personnel who are on temporary duty.
- C.
Personnel from the S-function staff.
- D.
Available base assets.
Correct Answer
D. Available base assets.Explanation
The base commander forms the base defense operations center with personnel from the augmentation force, personnel who are on temporary duty, personnel from the S-function staff, and available base assets. This means that the base commander utilizes all the resources and assets that are currently present at the base to establish and operate the defense operations center. These assets could include equipment, vehicles, weapons, and any other resources that can contribute to the defense and security of the base.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Who is the chief of the base defense operations center?
- A.
Commander, Security Forces.
- B.
Commander, Base Defense Force.
- C.
Commander, Area Defense Force.
- D.
Commander, Joint Response Task Force.
Correct Answer
B. Commander, Base Defense Force.Explanation
The correct answer is Commander, Base Defense Force. The base defense operations center is responsible for coordinating and overseeing all defense operations on the base. The commander of the Base Defense Force would be in charge of leading and managing these operations, ensuring the security and protection of the base.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The CIS is responsible for all plans, estimates, reports, and requests concerning ground combat intelligence. The S2 CIS is responsible for all
- A.
ABD affecting the GCI force.
- B.
Support and supply functions.
- C.
GCI affecting the ABD force.
- D.
Operational matters with the ABD force.
Correct Answer
C. GCI affecting the ABD force.Explanation
The S2 CIS is responsible for all operational matters with the ABD force. This means that they are in charge of handling any issues or concerns that arise in relation to the ABD force. This could include things like coordinating operations, addressing logistical needs, or managing any challenges that may arise during combat. The S2 CIS plays a crucial role in ensuring that the ABD force is able to effectively carry out their duties and achieve their objectives.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Oct 19, 2013Quiz Created by
Catherine Halcomb
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