3P071 Volume 1(Training)
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Volume 1
- 1.When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?
- A.
The first duty day following completion.
- B.
Within 30 days of completion.
- C.
72 hours after completion.
- D.
48 hours after completion.
- 2.The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibility of the flight
- A.
Commander.
- B.
Supervisor.
- C.
SNCO.
- D.
Chief.
- 3.Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?
- A.
SFS.
- B.
SFM.
- C.
SFO.
- D.
SFT.
- 4.The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior
- A.
Security patrol.
- B.
Security force members.
- C.
SRT member.
- D.
ART member.
- 5.What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
- A.
Internal SRT.
- B.
Immediate visual assessment sentries
- C.
Close boundary sentry.
- D.
External SRT.
- 6.What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
- A.
Internal SRT.
- B.
Immediate visual assessment sentries.
- C.
Close boundary sentry.
- D.
External SRT.
- 7.When a two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single-person
- A.
Fire teams.
- B.
Internal SRTs.
- C.
Security patrols.
- D.
Close boundary sentries.
- 8.What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?
- A.
Assess exterior IDS by line-of-sight or CCTV.
- B.
Act as a subordinate C3 center for security forces posted during normal operations.
- C.
Control entry into structures, alert shelters and individual resources protected with IDS when alarm monitor do not exist in the designated area.
- D.
Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas.
- 9.What does SEI stand for?
- A.
Security entry identifier.
- B.
Security experience index.
- C.
Special delivery identifier.
- D.
Special experience identifier.
- 10.Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resource boundary is the responsibility of the
- A.
MSCFO.
- B.
IVA.
- C.
CCTV.
- D.
CBS.
- 11.The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify
- A.
Existing resources capable of deploying, avoiding unnecessarily inspecting the UMD.
- B.
Manpower critical resources that meet the average requirements for a contingency as well as manage needs.
- C.
Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs.
- D.
How many of one specialty is assigned to one squadron.
- 12.What are the three main branches of most SF units?
- A.
SFT, SFO and SFL.
- B.
SFO, SFOA and SFT.
- C.
SFO, SFT and SFA.
- D.
SFS, CSF and SFM.
- 13.The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office under SFO?
- A.
Report of survey office of investigation.
- B.
Air Force office of investigation.
- C.
Security forces training team.
- D.
Security forces investigations.
- 14.Which specialists develop guidance for security systems operations and conduct operator training?
- A.
Phoenix ravens.
- B.
Security systems operators.
- C.
Electronic security systems.
- D.
Antiterrorism/force protection.
- 15.What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?
- A.
Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.
- B.
Monitors both delays in finishing qualification training and progress in skill-level upgrade training.
- C.
Identifies local training needs and trains unit personnel to meet mission requirements.
- D.
Informs Stan-Eval that individuals have completed their qualification training.
- 16.Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?
- A.
Investigations.
- B.
Crime prevention.
- C.
Resource protection.
- D.
Reports and analysis.
- 17.Which regulation governs the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program?
- A.
AFI 36–2225.
- B.
AFI 36–2226.
- C.
AFI 36–2227.
- D.
AFI 36–2525.
- 18.What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
- A.
Analysis.
- B.
Feedback.
- C.
Evaluation.
- D.
Cross-feed.
- 19.How many days does the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training?
- A.
120.
- B.
90.
- C.
60.
- D.
30.
- 20.After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the section have to conduct a reevaluation?
- A.
30.
- B.
21.
- C.
15.
- D.
3.
- 21.The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability to
- A.
Enforce military laws and regulations.
- B.
Detect classified information.
- C.
Suppress illegal drug use.
- D.
Detect explosives.
- 22.Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?
- A.
OUT and IN.
- B.
SIT and STAY.
- C.
OUT and HEEL.
- D.
STAY and HEEL.
- 23.When used in security operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?
- A.
Deterrence.
- B.
Detention.
- C.
Decoying.
- D.
Detection.
- 24.When using dogs on detection screen posts, where do you position them to get maximum usage?
- A.
In low contact areas, so they don’t give away your position to the enemy by barking.
- B.
Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize there smelling capability.
- C.
At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.
- D.
Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy.
- 25.What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?
- A.
Location and size of area.
- B.
Time and terrain features.
- C.
Wind speed and direction.
- D.
Experience of canine and handler.
- 26.What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?
- A.
Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern.
- B.
Decreases the patrols you would normally have to post per shift.
- C.
Allows the MWD team to relieve others posts for breaks.
- D.
Makes it easy to perform post checks on the team.
- 27.From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?
- A.
Upwind.
- B.
Crosswind.
- C.
Downwind.
- D.
Wind direction doesn’t matter.
- 28.When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?
- A.
Danger to the canine.
- B.
Time left in patrol shift.
- C.
Type and size of building.
- D.
Weather conditions just prior to the search.
- 29.When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous
- A.
Physical deterrent.
- B.
Physicians deterrent.
- C.
Physiological deterrent.
- D.
Psychological deterrent.
- 30.Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?
- A.
They should be tolerant of people.
- B.
They should not be used often in daylight hours.
- C.
The presence of a large number of people should not significantly reduce the dog’s usefulness.
- D.
Patrol dogs should be able to walk among people, stand guardmount, and show no outward sign of aggression.
- 31.When is the military working dog’s detection ability more effective?
- A.
During daylight hours – they can use sight and sound.
- B.
During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions.
- C.
High traffic areas where there are many bystanders and several distractions.
- D.
During periods of dense fog and darkness, to heighten their psychological effect.
- 32.
- A.
On the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving.
- B.
In a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup truck.
- C.
Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle.
- D.
On leash, laying down on the back seat.
- 33.If an apprehension is made, in what position will the handler place the dog?
- A.
Sit/Stay.
- B.
Guard.
- C.
Heel.
- D.
Out.
- 34.Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?
- A.
AF Forms 629 and 1297.
- B.
AF Forms 629 and 1473.
- C.
AF Forms 1297 and 1473.
- D.
AF Forms 1437 and 1279.
- 35.When should unit personnel clean their weapons?
- A.
Just prior to any outside agency inspection of the armory and its programs.
- B.
After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed.
- C.
Before firing, after a three day break, and when directed by the armory.
- D.
Weapons are only cleaned by armory personnel.
- 36.What installations are required to have an ISP?
- A.
Only installations with a flying mission are required to develop an ISP.
- B.
The base commander determines whether the installation requires an ISP or not.
- C.
All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan.
- D.
Installations located overseas are required to have an ISP to coincide with local procedures.
- 37.Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and implemented as an installation instruction?
- A.
Wing plans and programs section.
- B.
Installation security police chief.
- C.
Installation commander.
- D.
MAJCOM commander.
- 38.What is not included in the ISP?
- A.
Threat estimate, a terrain and weather analysis of the installation and its surroundings.
- B.
Assessment of the installation’s vulnerability to terrorist acts or sabotage.
- C.
A cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment.
- D.
An estimate of support from friendly forces.
- 39.The information security program permits the disclosure of classified information only to
- A.
Personnel who can demonstrate a need to know.
- B.
Personnel who have requested a Freedom of Information Act request.
- C.
Cleared personnel who need the information to perform official duties.
- D.
An individual who has the appropriate clearance to view the material in question.
- 40.What is not a required storage procedure for Top Secret information?
- A.
Alarmed areas affording protection equal to or better than the other approved options.
- B.
Class A vault or vault-type room as prescribed by Air Force guidance.
- C.
Two-person concept, guarding the material behind a locked door.
- D.
GSA-approved security container.
- 41.Who may delegate authority to approve escorting or hand-carrying classified material on commercial aircraft outside the United States, its territories, or Canada?
- A.
Only the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff.
- B.
Only MAJCOM commanders.
- C.
Only wing commanders.
- D.
No one.
- 42.When someone enters the Air Force, which security clearance investigation is performed?
- A.
A NAC.
- B.
SSBI.
- C.
An ENTNAC.
- D.
NACI.
- 43.SSBIs are required for personnel requiring what clearance?
- A.
Secret.
- B.
Classified.
- C.
Top Secret.
- D.
Confidential.
- 44.The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to
- A.
Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission.
- B.
Ensure an equitable distribution of the president’s budget for the next fiscal year.
- C.
Determine what type of budget Congress is up against when their session starts.
- D.
Ensure the Air Force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.
- 45.All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked, have emergency lights, sirens, and a
- A.
Spare tire.
- B.
Public address system.
- C.
Set of keys hidden in the dash.
- D.
NCIC computer.
- 46.All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have
- A.
SF badges applied to both the front doors.
- B.
Emergency lights, floodlights, and mobile radios.
- C.
Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system.
- D.
A cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD.
- 47.Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying
- A.
Voluntarily.
- B.
Unwillingly.
- C.
Mandatorily.
- D.
Involuntarily.
- 48.Which code is not an alarm response code?
- A.
4.
- B.
3.
- C.
2.
- D.
1.
- 49.Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?
- A.
Terminate response.
- B.
Immediately secure the area.
- C.
Search for suspicious individuals.
- D.
Search the exterior for open doors or windows.
- 50.Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas with owner/users being primarily responsible for security?
- A.
PL1.
- B.
PL2.
- C.
PL3.
- D.
PL4.
- 51.What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection after the command “Open Ranks, MARCH”?
- A.
The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element also stands fast and automatically executes a dress right.
- B.
The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes two, four, or six paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.
- C.
The last element stands fast and automatically executes a dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.
- D.
The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.
- 52.During an open ranks inspection, when do you give the command, “Close Ranks, MARCH”?
- A.
When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed.
- B.
Immediately after the forth rank has been inspected.
- C.
At the completion of the guardmount briefing.
- D.
Upon departure of the inspecting official.
- 53.Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking to see if the individual is
- A.
Fit for duty.
- B.
Prepared to present a post briefing.
- C.
Complying with appearance directives.
- D.
In possession of all required equipment.
- 54.As a leader and supervisor, you should avoid asking questions that could be open for
- A.
Interpretation.
- B.
Discussion.
- C.
Argument.
- D.
Debate.
- 55.What is the unit flight schedule based on?
- A.
Deployment/operations tempo.
- B.
Flight TDY/leave schedule.
- C.
Individual needs.
- D.
Unit needs.
- 56.Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with sound
- A.
COMSEC practices.
- B.
INFOSEC practices.
- C.
HUMINT practices.
- D.
OPSEC practices.
- 57.It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified to do in order to maintain
- A.
Proficiency.
- B.
Discipline.
- C.
Fairness.
- D.
Control.
- 58.Adequate and fair post rotations can assist you in keeping
- A.
Flight moral high.
- B.
Duty position assignments limited.
- C.
The same highly skilled person at the same post.
- D.
A new flight member focused on a particular duty position.
- 59.
- A.
Precedence, from least important to most important, as outlined in the ISI.
- B.
Precedence as outlined in ISP.
- C.
Rank precedence as outlined in the ISP.
- D.
Precedence as outlined in the ISI.
- 60.What is the publication reference for The Tongue and Quill?
- A.
AFH 32–336.
- B.
AFI 32–336.
- C.
AFH 33–337.
- D.
AFI 33–337.
- 61.In terms of readability, what two tests do your communications need to meet?
- A.
Length and neatness.
- B.
Simplicity and directness.
- C.
Correct details and factual statements.
- D.
Clear statements and proper grammar.
- 62.Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?
- A.
Unit training section.
- B.
Chief of security forces.
- C.
Senior security forces NCOs.
- D.
HQ Air Force Security Forces Center.
- 63.Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?
- A.
Unit training section.
- B.
Individual supervisors.
- C.
Senior security forces NCOs.
- D.
HQ Air Force Security Forces Center.
- 64.Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a specific duty position?
- A.
Individual skills.
- B.
Collective skills.
- C.
Contingency skills.
- D.
Ground combat skills.
- 65.Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on stains, or destroy footprints or tire marks at a crime scene
- A.
Would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.
- B.
Could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.
- C.
Could be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location.
- D.
Would have no effect and allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker and a suspect found faster.
- 66.The benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected is that it allows
- A.
Photographs to be taken.
- B.
Responding patrols to better piece together events.
- C.
The investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery.
- D.
The investigator to perform advisement of rights to personnel at the scene.
- 67.Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not been involved in the preliminary investigation
- A.
Interferes with the ongoing investigation.
- B.
Allows for a fair share of the responsibilities within your flight.
- C.
Adds realism to the training environment for a new patrol officer.
- D.
Brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.
- 68.At what point during a search do you establish your game plan?
- A.
Prior to arriving on scene.
- B.
During the initial briefing.
- C.
While conducting a search.
- D.
During the preliminary visual examination.
- 69.Your choice of search method is determined by the intent of the search and by the
- A.
Number of personnel available.
- B.
Size of the item to be found.
- C.
Amount of time available.
- D.
Area to be covered.
- 70.What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?
- A.
The amount of time necessary to obtain a confession.
- B.
There is no time limit set on an interview.
- C.
No more than 30 minutes.
- D.
No more than 60 minutes.
- 71.How many investigators should be present during a suspect interview?
- A.
At least three and one should be of the same sex.
- B.
You are only required to have one investigator.
- C.
As many as it takes to intimidate the suspect.
- D.
An interview is limited to two investigators.
- 72.When questioning a juvenile, what action do you take if you cannot find a parent or the parent cannot respond in a timely manner?
- A.
Seek CSP advice.
- B.
Seek ADC advice.
- C.
Seek SJA advice.
- D.
Question them with a witness.
- 73.What should you do if a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and suspect during an interview?
- A.
Let another investigator conduct the interview.
- B.
Nothing because the suspect does not have to like you.
- C.
Step out for a few minutes to let the suspect calm down.
- D.
Place them in a holding cell until they are ready to continue.
- 74.Which approach to questioning do you use for interviews when a subject is not willing or ready to provide information?
- A.
Combination.
- B.
Alternating.
- C.
Indirect.
- D.
Direct.
- 75.An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a
- A.
Habitual offender.
- B.
First time offender.
- C.
Psychotic offender.
- D.
Professional offender.
- 76.What is a confession?
- A.
An admission of guilt that is a self-incriminating statement.
- B.
Any statement made by the accused as to the elements of a crime.
- C.
A complete acknowledgement of guilt of all elements of an offense.
- D.
An involuntary comment made by the accused pertaining to criminal activity.
- 77.The personal attributes that are essential when testifying are skill,
- A.
Tact, poise, and self-assurance.
- B.
Tact, poise, and self-confidence.
- C.
Reliance, poise, and self-confidence.
- D.
Cockiness, poise, and self-confidence.
- 78.What is not one of the three sources you can use when testifying in court?
- A.
Personal knowledge.
- B.
Tape recordings.
- C.
Memoranda.
- D.
Notes.
- 79.Who must the controller keep informed of all activities, incidents, and the status of each?
- A.
Flight commander and supervisor.
- B.
Flight chief and flight commander.
- C.
Flight chief and senior patrol officer.
- D.
Flight commander and operations superintendent.
- 80.Other than making the situation worse, if the occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may have time to
- A.
Leave
- B.
Call a lawyer.
- C.
Get their story straight.
- D.
Conceal evidence of a crime.
- 81.When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden movements or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be
- A.
Hiding drugs.
- B.
Looking for an escape.
- C.
Cold and wants a jacket.
- D.
Hiding an injured family member or a weapon.
- 82.What is not an indication of child neglect?
- A.
Lack of medical care.
- B.
Inadequate nourishment.
- C.
Signs of impoverishment.
- D.
Insufficient clothing, lack of supervision.
- 83.Ignoring, threatening, terrorizing, or blatantly rejecting a child are indicators of
- A.
Neglect.
- B.
Sexual abuse.
- C.
Physical abuse.
- D.
Emotional maltreatment.
- 84.It is important that you pay special attention to a crime victim who has experienced
- A.
An intense financial trauma.
- B.
An intense physical trauma.
- C.
A serious violent crime.
- D.
An emotional trauma.
- 85.The installation commander can delegate the LRO duties and responsibilities to the
- A.
SJA.
- B.
CSP.
- C.
OSI.
- D.
SFOI.
- 86.What tone should your first impression set when you arrive on-scene?
- A.
Calm, positive, and helpful.
- B.
Agitated, positive, and helpful.
- C.
Uncaring, bothered, and hurried.
- D.
Aggressive, hostile, and immediate.
- 87.Who is responsible for ensuring the accomplishment of required training by all local agencies
- A.
RO.
- B.
SJA.
- C.
CSP.
- D.
LRO.
- 88.On the battlefield, who retains the option for immediate use of lethal weapons when the onscene commander deems it appropriate?
- A.
DFC.
- B.
LOAC.
- C.
Geneva Convention.
- D.
United States.
- 89.If any individual appears to be emotional, distraught, or stunned following any interview, to which person can the individual be released?
- A.
Medical personnel.
- B.
Roommate.
- C.
Supervisor.
- D.
Spouse.
- 90.Tying up loose ends and ensuring nothing was missed during an investigation is called
- A.
A hearing.
- B.
A case review.
- C.
An additional interviews.
- D.
A follow-up investigation.
- 91.The member needs to develop an investigative strategy for conducting additional investigative steps of an incident when the member is
- A.
Reviewing and analyzing all previous reports prepared.
- B.
Identifying and apprehending suspects.
- C.
Conducting additional interviews.
- D.
Collecting physical evidence.
- 92.What authorizes the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation?
- A.
Rules for courts-martial (RCM) 302(c) and Article 7b, UCMJ.
- B.
AF Form 3226, Authority to Apprehend in Private Dwelling.
- C.
Title 18, United States Code, and the US Constitution.
- D.
US Constitution and RCM 302(c).
- 93.The nuclear weapons mishap flag word “Dull Sword” identifies a nuclear weapons
- A.
Accident.
- B.
Incident.
- C.
Deficiency.
- D.
Occurrence.
- 94.Who is responsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major accident?
- A.
Law enforcement desk.
- B.
Security control.
- C.
Command post.
- D.
Base ops.
- 95.In what direction should personnel withdraw from an accident site?
- A.
Downwind or crosswind.
- B.
Crosswind or sidewind.
- C.
Upwind or downwind.
- D.
Upwind or crosswind.
- 96.Who is allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident?
- A.
Reporters.
- B.
Medical staff.
- C.
Photographers.
- D.
Key personnel.
- 97.Who is the lead agency for investigating and prosecuting alleged violations of the United States Code that occur on DOD installations or within DOD facilities?
- A.
FBI.
- B.
OSI.
- C.
CIA.
- D.
SJA.
- 98.From a hostage’s standpoint, the first 15 to 45 minutes are the most dangerous because this is when
- A.
The hostage negotiation team is attempting to make contact.
- B.
Most of the traveling occurs, after the hostage is abducted.
- C.
The hostage takers are still going through a panic reaction.
- D.
All deals are made for the release of the hostages.
- 99.POM submissions are done in
- A.
Odd years
- B.
Even years
- C.
Odd months
- D.
Even months
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