2ax5x CDC V3 Trivia Quiz

116 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
2ax5x Quizzes & Trivia

This is your description.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A push-pull rod end engagement is checked by
    • A. 

      Using a depth gage to check end play.

    • B. 

      Ensuring that no lateral movement exists.

    • C. 

      Using an inside caliper to check the rod end bearing.

    • D. 

      Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal.

  • 2. 
    What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing?
    • A. 

      15 to 20 inches.

    • B. 

      20 to 25 inches.

    • C. 

      25 to 30 inches.

    • D. 

      30 to 35 inches.

  • 3. 
    The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than
    • A. 

      10 percent of wall thickness.

    • B. 

      15 percent of wall thickness.

    • C. 

      20 percent of wall thickness.

    • D. 

      25 percent of wall thickness.

  • 4. 
    Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for what pressure?
    • A. 

      200 psi and below.

    • B. 

      300 psi and below.

    • C. 

      500 psi and below.

    • D. 

      1,000 psi and below.

  • 5. 
    The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series when using the single-wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a
    • A. 

      10 inch length of wire.

    • B. 

      12 inch length of wire.

    • C. 

      24 inch length of wire.

    • D. 

      36 inch length of wire.

  • 6. 
    When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in series?
    • A. 

      3.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      5.

    • D. 

      6.

  • 7. 
    Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them?
    • A. 

      Snap rings.

    • B. 

      Spiral retaining rings.

    • C. 

      Beveled retaining rings.

    • D. 

      Axially assembled retaining ring.

  • 8. 
    Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the grove?
    • A. 

      Snap ring.

    • B. 

      Spiral retaining ring.

    • C. 

      Beveled retaining ring.

    • D. 

      Axially assembled retaining ring.

  • 9. 
    What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?
    • A. 

      Metal shells.

    • B. 

      Connector halves.

    • C. 

      Dielectric contacts.

    • D. 

      Pin-and-socket contacts.

  • 10. 
    In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12_10PW, the letter P indicates
    • A. 

      Pin.

    • B. 

      Plain.

    • C. 

      Primary.

    • D. 

      Pratt and Whitney.

  • 11. 
    What torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied?
    • A. 

      Indicating type.

    • B. 

      Breakaway type.

    • C. 

      Screwdriver type.

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching type.

  • 12. 
    Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached?
    • A. 

      Indicating type.

    • B. 

      Breakaway type.

    • C. 

      Screwdriver type.

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching type.

  • 13. 
    Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the
    • A. 

      Maximum setting at least four times.

    • B. 

      Maximum setting at least six times.

    • C. 

      Lowest setting at least four times.

    • D. 

      Lowest setting at least six times.

  • 14. 
    What are two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened?
    • A. 

      Extension and flexion.

    • B. 

      Tension and torsion.

    • C. 

      Torque and friction.

    • D. 

      Push and pull.

  • 15. 
    Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving?
    • A. 

      Static.

    • B. 

      Tension.

    • C. 

      Dynamic.

    • D. 

      Rotational.

  • 16. 
    Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to
    • A. 

      Check the AC voltages only.

    • B. 

      Check the DC voltages only.

    • C. 

      Initiate the tough-hold mode.

    • D. 

      Move the decimal point.

  • 17. 
    When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display, the
    • A. 

      Manual range mode is indicated.

    • B. 

      Touch-hold mode is in use.

    • C. 

      Ohms function is selected.

    • D. 

      Meter is zeroing itself.

  • 18. 
    Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?
    • A. 

      Multimeter.

    • B. 

      Depth gauge.

    • C. 

      Feeler gauge.

    • D. 

      Torque wrench.

  • 19. 
    What is the longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil?
    • A. 

      0.5 inch.

    • B. 

      1.0 inch.

    • C. 

      1.5 inch.

    • D. 

      2.0 inch.

  • 20. 
    Which caliper is joined by a strong hinge, screw, and, adjustment nut?
    • A. 

      Simple calipers.

    • B. 

      Transfer calipers.

    • C. 

      Spring-joint calipers.

    • D. 

      Odd-leg calipers.

  • 21. 
    Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders?
    • A. 

      Slide caliper.

    • B. 

      Center caliper.

    • C. 

      Spring-joint caliper.

    • D. 

      Odd-leg caliper.

  • 22. 
    Which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame?
    • A. 

      Slide caliper.

    • B. 

      Simple caliper.

    • C. 

      Transfer caliper.

    • D. 

      Spring-joint caliper.

  • 23. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?
    • A. 

      Base commanders.

    • B. 

      Squadron commanders.

    • C. 

      Supervisors at all levels.

    • D. 

      Squadron QA section.

  • 24. 
    Bench stock levels are established to provide a
    • A. 

      15-day usage.

    • B. 

      30-day usage.

    • C. 

      60-day usage.

    • D. 

      90-day usage.

  • 25. 
    Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specific periods?
    • A. 

      AF 2005.

    • B. 

      AF Form 2413.

    • C. 

      AF IMT 1297.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348-6.

  • 26. 
    All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?
    • A. 

      PDC.

    • B. 

      AAC.

    • C. 

      PACC.

    • D. 

      ERRC.

  • 27. 
    Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and
    • A. 

      DD Form 1348-6.

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 349.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1131.

  • 28. 
    Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters?
    • A. 

      1577-2 and 1577-3.

    • B. 

      1576 and 1576-1.

    • C. 

      1574 and 1574-1.

    • D. 

      1575 and 1575-1.

  • 29. 
    Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for
    • A. 

      200 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.

    • B. 

      100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.

    • C. 

      200 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt.

    • D. 

      100 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt.

  • 30. 
    Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle?
    • A. 

      Phased.

    • B. 

      Periodic.

    • C. 

      Isochronal.

    • D. 

      Hourly postflight.

  • 31. 
    Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections?
    • A. 

      Phased.

    • B. 

      Periodic.

    • C. 

      Isochronal.

    • D. 

      Hourly postflight.

  • 32. 
    Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements?
    • A. 

      Phased.

    • B. 

      Periodic.

    • C. 

      Isochronal.

    • D. 

      Programmed depot maintenance.

  • 33. 
    Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in
    • A. 

      Sequence charts.

    • B. 

      Inspection workcards.

    • C. 

      -06 work unit code manuals.

    • D. 

      -6 technical order inspection manuals.

  • 34. 
    Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of systems?
    • A. 

      In progress.

    • B. 

      PR.

    • C. 

      TH.

    • D. 

      EOR.

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period.

    • B. 

      After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled.

    • C. 

      Immediately prior to a BPO.

    • D. 

      After the last flight of a specified flying period.

  • 36. 
    Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days?
    • A. 

      Phase.

    • B. 

      Special.

    • C. 

      Calender.

    • D. 

      Acceptance.

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      Phase.

    • B. 

      Special.

    • C. 

      Calender.

    • D. 

      Acceptance.

  • 38. 
    • A. 

      126.

    • B. 

      1149.

    • C. 

      2691.

    • D. 

      2692.

  • 39. 
    Which TO should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance?
    • A. 

      1-21-101.

    • B. 

      1-1-691.

    • C. 

      1-1B-50.

    • D. 

      1-1-5.

  • 40. 
    What is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity?
    • A. 

      Mission requirements.

    • B. 

      Aircraft dimensions.

    • C. 

      Structure strength.

    • D. 

      Aircraft weight.

  • 41. 
    Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?
    • A. 

      "EMERGENCY".

    • B. 

      "DIAGNOSE".

    • C. 

      "TRIAGE".

    • D. 

      "STAT".

  • 42. 
    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is
    • A. 

      Exposed to moist air.

    • B. 

      Exposed to a chemical.

    • C. 

      Connected to another part.

    • D. 

      Fabricated and manufactured.

  • 43. 
    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is
    • A. 

      Painted.

    • B. 

      Heat treated.

    • C. 

      Chemically treated.

    • D. 

      Exhausted or salvaged.

  • 44. 
    What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains?
    • A. 

      Pitting.

    • B. 

      Galvanic.

    • C. 

      Exfoliation.

    • D. 

      Crevice/concentration cell.

  • 45. 
    What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal?
    • A. 

      Stress.

    • B. 

      Intergranular.

    • C. 

      Oxygen concentration cell.

    • D. 

      Metal ion concentration cell.

  • 46. 
    Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in
    • A. 

      TO 00-20-1.

    • B. 

      TO 1-1-3.

    • C. 

      TO 1-1A-8

    • D. 

      TO 1-1-691.

  • 47. 
    After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?
    • A. 

      Potassium hydroxide.

    • B. 

      Aluminum hydroxide.

    • C. 

      Sodium bicarbonate.

    • D. 

      Boric acid.

  • 48. 
    The reservoir supplies hydraulic fluid to a hand pump
    • A. 

      By gravity.

    • B. 

      By the suction effect of the pump.

    • C. 

      By gravity and the suction effect of the pump.

    • D. 

      In response to pressure demand and the suction effect of the pump.

  • 49. 
    When pressure in a hydraulic system with a variable-volume pump increases, the fluid-flow
    • A. 

      Stops.

    • B. 

      Increases.

    • C. 

      Decreases.

    • D. 

      Remains the same.

  • 50. 
    The purpose of the torsion links on a main landing gear is to
    • A. 

      Reduce oscillation during extension.

    • B. 

      Reduce oscillation during retraction.

    • C. 

      Allow the inner cylinder to rotate within the outer cylinder.

    • D. 

      Prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder.

  • 51. 
    How is the motion of the landing gear control lever transmitted to the selector valve?
    • A. 

      Electrically.

    • B. 

      By push-and-pull rods.

    • C. 

      By a cable system.

    • D. 

      Through hydraulic pressure.

  • 52. 
    What prevents the lock solenoid from energizing when the nose landing gear is off center?
    • A. 

      Safety relay.

    • B. 

      Safety switch.

    • C. 

      Centering relay.

    • D. 

      Centering switch.

  • 53. 
    Electromagnetic devices capable of sensing magnetically conducive metal targets on landing gears are known as
    • A. 

      Position switches.

    • B. 

      Proximity switches.

    • C. 

      Selector valves.

    • D. 

      Solenoid circuits.

  • 54. 
    A unit that is a combination of the landing gear shimmy damper and steering unit is known as
    • A. 

      A steer damper.

    • B. 

      An uplock control.

    • C. 

      A downlock control.

    • D. 

      A servo oscillating damper.

  • 55. 
    What position must the landing gear control handle be in before emergency extension of the landing gear?
    • A. 

      UP.

    • B. 

      DN.

    • C. 

      AUX.

    • D. 

      EMRG.

  • 56. 
    • A. 

      Dampering unit.

    • B. 

      Inline restrictor.

    • C. 

      Orifice check valve.

    • D. 

      Snubbing mechanism.

  • 57. 
    The purpose of the landing gear warning horn is to
    • A. 

      Alert the pilot to marker beacons.

    • B. 

      Sound when the gear are not safe.

    • C. 

      Sound when the gear is safe.

    • D. 

      Alert the pilot to a stall.

  • 58. 
    Brake fade is defined as a gradual braking action
    • A. 

      Loss due to overheating.

    • B. 

      Increase due to overheating.

    • C. 

      Loss due to pressure increase.

    • D. 

      Increase due to pressure reduction.

  • 59. 
    A major disadvantage of multiple disc brakes is that they
    • A. 

      Warp when overheated.

    • B. 

      Shatter during hard landings.

    • C. 

      Must be adjusted after each landing.

    • D. 

      Do not provide maximum stopping grip.

  • 60. 
    What automatically compensates for brake wear on the segmented rotor brake?
    • A. 

      Rotors.

    • B. 

      Stators.

    • C. 

      Actuators.

    • D. 

      Adjusters.

  • 61. 
    The purpose of the antiskid system is to
    • A. 

      Reduce friction between the wheel and tire.

    • B. 

      Increase friction between the wheel and tire.

    • C. 

      Prevent wheel skid by applying pressure to the skidding wheel.

    • D. 

      Prevent wheel skid by releasing pressure from the skidding wheel.

  • 62. 
    The purpose of deboosters is to
    • A. 

      Decrease fluid volume.

    • B. 

      Reduce braking pressure.

    • C. 

      Enlarge running clearance.

    • D. 

      Increase braking pressure.

  • 63. 
    Aircraft wheels are normally constructed of
    • A. 

      Steel and/or titanium alloys.

    • B. 

      Chromium and/or titanium alloys.

    • C. 

      Palladium and/or aluminum alloys.

    • D. 

      Magnesium and/or aluminum alloys.

  • 64. 
    Split wheels are balanced
    • A. 

      During buildup.

    • B. 

      As an assembly.

    • C. 

      Individually by halves.

    • D. 

      By a self-balancing system.

  • 65. 
    What maintains an airtight seal between split wheel halves?
    • A. 

      A rubber liner.

    • B. 

      An O-ring seal.

    • C. 

      A phenolic ring.

    • D. 

      Machined mated surfaces.

  • 66. 
    What prevents tire explosion from excessive heat buildup?
    • A. 

      Vent holes.

    • B. 

      Blowout caps.

    • C. 

      Wheel valve stems.

    • D. 

      Thermal relief plugs.

  • 67. 
    What type of bearings are used on aircraft wheels?
    • A. 

      Flat roller.

    • B. 

      Straight ball.

    • C. 

      Tapered roller.

    • D. 

      Recessed cone.

  • 68. 
    The bearing cone of an aircraft wheel bearing is also called the
    • A. 

      Outer race.

    • B. 

      Inner race.

    • C. 

      Bearing cup.

    • D. 

      Roller mount.

  • 69. 
    When cleaning aircraft wheels, you should not use
    • A. 

      A fiber brush.

    • B. 

      A wire brush.

    • C. 

      Clean rags.

    • D. 

      Fiber pads.

  • 70. 
    Installed bearing races should be free of scratches, dents, and
    • A. 

      Dye marks.

    • B. 

      Paint marks.

    • C. 

      Blister marks.

    • D. 

      Overheating marks.

  • 71. 
    The main parts of an aircraft tire are the tread and sidewall,
    • A. 

      Cord body, and beads.

    • B. 

      Valve core, and beads.

    • C. 

      Cord body, vent holes.

    • D. 

      Valve core, and cord body.

  • 72. 
    What prevents pressure buildup and separation of cord plies or tread rubber on an aircraft tire?
    • A. 

      Beads.

    • B. 

      Sidewalls.

    • C. 

      Vent holes.

    • D. 

      Blow out valves.

  • 73. 
    For tires 24 inches or greater outside diameter, the tire must be removed when wear reaches the bottom of any tread groove for a continuous length of
    • A. 

      4 inches.

    • B. 

      6 inches.

    • C. 

      12 inches.

    • D. 

      16 inches.

  • 74. 
    When the turbine wheel absorbs the fuel energy,
    • A. 

      50 percent is used for accessories.

    • B. 

      60 percent is used for accessories.

    • C. 

      The energy returns to the compressor.

    • D. 

      The energy operates the anti-ice system.

  • 75. 
    What effect does the divergent design of a jet engine diffuser have on pressure?
    • A. 

      Increase pressure.

    • B. 

      Decrease pressure.

    • C. 

      Results in pressure fluctuations.

    • D. 

      Has many effect on pressure.

  • 76. 
    Air and gases flowing through a jet engine require
    • A. 

      Low velocity at all times.

    • B. 

      Less velocity exiting than entering.

    • C. 

      Equal velocity entering and exiting.

    • D. 

      Greater velocity exiting than entering.

  • 77. 
    When a jet engine uses two or more turbine wheels, what is placed directly in front of each turbine wheel?
    • A. 

      Diffuser.

    • B. 

      Jet nozzle.

    • C. 

      Combustion liner.

    • D. 

      Nozzle diaphragm.

  • 78. 
    A jet engine derives its name from the fact that
    • A. 

      It is in effect a turbo-supercharger.

    • B. 

      The internal engine nozzles called jets.

    • C. 

      It uses turbine-type compressor to maintain power.

    • D. 

      It uses a exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor.

  • 79. 
    What are the two types of jet engine compressors?
    • A. 

      Axial-flow and radial.

    • B. 

      Centrifugal and radial.

    • C. 

      Axial-flow and divergent.

    • D. 

      Centrifugal and axial-flow.

  • 80. 
    After air is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal jet engine compressor, it is subjected to
    • A. 

      Radial and tangential forces.

    • B. 

      Rotational and tangential forces.

    • C. 

      Rotational and centrifugal forces.

    • D. 

      Tangential and centrifugal forces.

  • 81. 
    What determines the N2 compressor RPM of a dual-spool jet engine compressor?
    • A. 

      Starter.

    • B. 

      Fuel pump.

    • C. 

      Fuel control.

    • D. 

      Low-pressure turbine.

  • 82. 
    What is the purpose of a front-mounted fan in an axial-flow jet engine compressor?
    • A. 

      Add thrust and decrease efficiency.

    • B. 

      Add air to the engine and decrease efficiency.

    • C. 

      Increase thrust and engine RPM.

    • D. 

      Increase thrust and send air through the compressor core rotor.

  • 83. 
    The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine is usually between
    • A. 

      60 and 70 percent.

    • B. 

      65 to 75 percent.

    • C. 

      75 to 95 percent.

    • D. 

      95 to 100 percent.

  • 84. 
    Engine design helps prevent igniter plug fouling by
    • A. 

      Splitting the electrode on the plug.

    • B. 

      Directing air around the plug electrode.

    • C. 

      Applying gold plating to plug the electrode.

    • D. 

      Applying ceramic coating on the plug electrode.

  • 85. 
    What forms the inner and outer surfaces of an annular-type combustion chamber?
    • A. 

      Interlocking stainless steel bands.

    • B. 

      The inner and outer diffuser case.

    • C. 

      A forged steel casing.

    • D. 

      Solid sheet metal.

  • 86. 
    Fuel that accumulates after a failed start or engine shutdown is
    • A. 

      Drained overboard by a drain system.

    • B. 

      Returned to the fuel control tubes.

    • C. 

      Burned on the next start attempt.

    • D. 

      Allowed to evaporate.

  • 87. 
    The three turbine designs used in jet engines are
    • A. 

      Shrouded, unshrouded, and fir tree.

    • B. 

      Shrouded, unshrouded, and corrugated.

    • C. 

      Impulse, reaction, and reaction-impulse.

    • D. 

      Impeller, impulse, and reaction-impulse.

  • 88. 
    On some jet engines, what secures the turbine bucket in place?
    • A. 

      Screws.

    • B. 

      Cables.

    • C. 

      Lockwire.

    • D. 

      Lockstrips.

  • 89. 
    The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the
    • A. 

      Fan duct.

    • B. 

      Jet nozzle.

    • C. 

      Fuel nozzle.

    • D. 

      Augmented the duct.

  • 90. 
    What is the purpose of the exhaust duct?
    • A. 

      Swirl exhaust gas-flow.

    • B. 

      Equalize exhaust gas-flow.

    • C. 

      Modulate exhaust gas-flow.

    • D. 

      Straighten exhaust gas-flow.

  • 91. 
    One type of variable-area orifice used on augmenters is the
    • A. 

      Flap.

    • B. 

      Segmented.

    • C. 

      Segmented flap.

    • D. 

      Segmented nozzle.

  • 92. 
    What augmenter component creates local turbulence and reduces gas velocity?
    • A. 

      Spraybar.

    • B. 

      Flameholder.

    • C. 

      Screech liner.

    • D. 

      Fuel manifold.

  • 93. 
    Which engine type used a lot during the early years of jet engine design is the most basic turbine engine design?
    • A. 

      Turbojet.

    • B. 

      Turbofan.

    • C. 

      Turboram.

    • D. 

      Turboprop.

  • 94. 
    A turbo fan engine with a bypass ratio of 3:1 is classified as
    • A. 

      Low bypass.

    • B. 

      Low-medium bypass.

    • C. 

      Medium bypass.

    • D. 

      Medium-high bypass.

  • 95. 
    The primary function of a hydromechanical fuel control on a jet engine is to
    • A. 

      Generate the proper fuel pressure for all ranges of engine operation.

    • B. 

      Prevent hot starts, overtemperatures, engine overspeeding, and flameouts.

    • C. 

      Propel the right amount of fuel to the fuel nozzels for correct combustion at all times.

    • D. 

      Meter the fuel, making certain that the engine gets the correct quantity for combustion at all times.

  • 96. 
    What type of fuel control uses thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids, to help control the engine?
    • A. 

      Pneumatic.

    • B. 

      Fuel injection.

    • C. 

      Hydromechanical.

    • D. 

      Electrohydromechanical.

  • 97. 
    The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to
    • A. 

      Heat the fuel and cool the oil.

    • B. 

      Cool the fuel and cool the oil.

    • C. 

      Heat the fuel and heat the oil.

    • D. 

      Cool the fuel and heat the oil.

  • 98. 
    When classified according to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump?
    • A. 

      Gear.

    • B. 

      Gerotor.

    • C. 

      Rotogear.

    • D. 

      Sliding vane.

  • 99. 
    What jet engine oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?
    • A. 

      Gear.

    • B. 

      Gerotor.

    • C. 

      Rotogear.

    • D. 

      Rotor-gear.

  • 100. 
    A micron is a metric linear measurement equal to
    • A. 

      1/25 of an inch.

    • B. 

      1/.25 of an inch.

    • C. 

      1/2,500 of an inch.

    • D. 

      1/25,000 of an inch.

  • 101. 
    The two types of oil coolers used in jet engine oil systems are air/oil and
    • A. 

      Fuel/oil.

    • B. 

      Freon/oil.

    • C. 

      Water/oil.

    • D. 

      Hydraulic/oil.

  • 102. 
    What do you use to create a static seal between two stationary parts in the oil system?
    • A. 

      Wadding.

    • B. 

      Packing.

    • C. 

      Gasket.

    • D. 

      Filler.

  • 103. 
    What engine component must be rotated to a predetermined speed in order for a jet engine starter to be considered effective?
    • A. 

      Center gearbox.

    • B. 

      Front gearbox.

    • C. 

      Compressor.

    • D. 

      Turbine.

  • 104. 
    The air turbine (impingement) starter used on jet engines
    • A. 

      Is usually mounted on the engine accessory drive.

    • B. 

      Uses a starter-clutch assembly to disengage the starter from the engine.

    • C. 

      Has the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starters.

    • D. 

      Requires high-pressure, low-volume air flow to produce torque necessary for engine start.

  • 105. 
    The cartridge-pneumatic starter is a gas-driven turbine wheel coupled to the engine through a reduction gear system and
    • A. 

      A power takeoff shaft.

    • B. 

      A single-entry air diverter.

    • C. 

      An overrunning clutch.

    • D. 

      A cartridge.

  • 106. 
    In a gearbox-type starter system, what transmits the torque supplied by the jet fuel starter to the engine gearbox?
    • A. 

      Power takeoff shaft.

    • B. 

      Single-entry air diverter.

    • C. 

      Pneumatic cartridge.

    • D. 

      Overrunning clutch.

  • 107. 
    What jet engine alternating current ignition system unit develops 20,000 volts delivered to the igniter plug?
    • A. 

      Inverter.

    • B. 

      Capacitor.

    • C. 

      Generator.

    • D. 

      Transformer.

  • 108. 
    A simple direct current ignition system consists of
    • A. 

      Vibrator, alternating current to DC converter, and transformer.

    • B. 

      Transformer, igniter plugs, and AC-to-DC converter.

    • C. 

      Vibrator, igniter plugs, and AC-to-DC converter.

    • D. 

      Vibrator, igniter plugs, and transformer.

  • 109. 
    Jet engine tachometer gauges are calibrated in percent of
    • A. 

      Minimum rotations per minute(RPM).

    • B. 

      Maximum torque.

    • C. 

      Minimum torque.

    • D. 

      Maximum RPM.

  • 110. 
    The purpose of the jet engine pressure ratio (EPR) indicating system is to give a reference to the engine"s
    • A. 

      Available thrust output.

    • B. 

      Compressor balance.

    • C. 

      Thermal efficiency.

    • D. 

      Turbine efficiency.

  • 111. 
    Exhaust gas temperature indicators indicate the engine EGT in
    • A. 

      British thermal units per hour.

    • B. 

      Pounds per square inch.

    • C. 

      Degrees Fahrenheit.

    • D. 

      Degrees Celsius.

  • 112. 
    The three benefits of of the Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP) are improved safety, reduced maintenance cost, and
    • A. 

      Recycling of used oil.

    • B. 

      Production of wear metals.

    • C. 

      Increased equipment availability.

    • D. 

      Increased length of time between oil changes.

  • 113. 
    Through the use of spectrometric oil analysis, aircraft will have a higher in-commission rate because there will be
    • A. 

      More oil sampling.

    • B. 

      More engine removals.

    • C. 

      Less unnecessary maintenance.

    • D. 

      Less wear metal found in the oil.

  • 114. 
    At a minimum, what should you wear when taking an oil sample?
    • A. 

      Goggles.

    • B. 

      Goggles and gloves.

    • C. 

      Gloves and long sleeves.

    • D. 

      Goggles and long sleeves.

  • 115. 
    What indicates lubricant system contamination by dirt and sand?
    • A. 

      A decrease in carbon.

    • B. 

      A increase in silicon.

    • C. 

      A decrease in graphite.

    • D. 

      An increase in synthetic oils.

  • 116. 
    What form must you fill out and submit to the non-destructive inspections (NDI) laboratory with all oil samples?
    • A. 

      DD Form 988.

    • B. 

      DD Form 2026.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 244.

    • D. 

      AFTO 781 series forms.