2AX5X CDC V3 Trivia Quiz
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
A push-pull rod end engagement is checked by
- A.
Using a depth gage to check end play.
- B.
Ensuring that no lateral movement exists.
- C.
Using an inside caliper to check the rod end bearing.
- D.
Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal.
Correct Answer
D. Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal. -
- 2.
What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing?
- A.
15 to 20 inches.
- B.
20 to 25 inches.
- C.
25 to 30 inches.
- D.
30 to 35 inches.
Correct Answer
A. 15 to 20 inches.Explanation
The correct interval for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing is 15 to 20 inches. This means that the cushion clips should be spaced 15 to 20 inches apart along the tubing. This spacing ensures that the tubing is properly supported and secured, preventing any potential damage or failure.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than
- A.
10 percent of wall thickness.
- B.
15 percent of wall thickness.
- C.
20 percent of wall thickness.
- D.
25 percent of wall thickness.
Correct Answer
B. 15 percent of wall thickness.Explanation
The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is 15 percent of the wall thickness. This means that any nicks or scratches on the tubing should not exceed 15 percent of the thickness of the tubing's wall. This limit is set to ensure the structural integrity and safety of the aircraft tubing, as deeper nicks or scratches could weaken the tubing and potentially lead to failure or damage during flight.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for what pressure?
- A.
200 psi and below.
- B.
300 psi and below.
- C.
500 psi and below.
- D.
1,000 psi and below.
Correct Answer
B. 300 psi and below.Explanation
Low-pressure hoses are generally used for pressures that are 300 psi and below. This means that these hoses are suitable for applications where the pressure does not exceed 300 psi. Using low-pressure hoses for higher pressures can result in hose failure and potential safety hazards. Therefore, it is important to select the appropriate hose based on the pressure requirements of the application.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series when using the single-wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a
- A.
10 inch length of wire.
- B.
12 inch length of wire.
- C.
24 inch length of wire.
- D.
36 inch length of wire.
Correct Answer
C. 24 inch length of wire.Explanation
The single-wire safety method involves securing bolts in series using a length of wire. The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series is determined by the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a certain length of wire. In this case, the correct answer is 24 inch length of wire, which means that the maximum number of bolts that can be secured in series using this method is determined by the length of a 24 inch wire.Rate this question:
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- 6.
When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in series?
- A.
3.
- B.
4.
- C.
5.
- D.
6.
Correct Answer
A. 3.Explanation
When securing bolts by the double-twist safetying method, the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in series is 3. This means that you can connect up to 3 bolts together using wire to secure them. Wiring more than 3 bolts in series may compromise the effectiveness of the safetying method and increase the risk of bolts coming loose. Therefore, it is recommended to wire a maximum of 3 bolts in series to ensure proper security.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them?
- A.
Snap rings.
- B.
Spiral retaining rings.
- C.
Beveled retaining rings.
- D.
Axially assembled retaining ring.
Correct Answer
D. Axially assembled retaining ring.Explanation
Axially assembled retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them. This type of retaining ring is designed to be assembled in an axial direction, meaning it is inserted into a groove in a shaft or housing and then expanded to secure the assembly. The small holes in the lugs allow for easy removal and installation using pliers, making it a convenient option for certain applications.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the grove?
- A.
Snap ring.
- B.
Spiral retaining ring.
- C.
Beveled retaining ring.
- D.
Axially assembled retaining ring.
Correct Answer
B. Spiral retaining ring.Explanation
Spiral retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the groove. This means that the ring wraps around the entire circumference of the groove, providing a secure and uniform grip. Snap rings, beveled retaining rings, and axially assembled retaining rings may not make full contact with the groove, making them less suitable for applications requiring complete 360-degree contact. Therefore, the correct answer is spiral retaining ring.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?
- A.
Metal shells.
- B.
Connector halves.
- C.
Dielectric contacts.
- D.
Pin-and-socket contacts.
Correct Answer
D. Pin-and-socket contacts.Explanation
Pin-and-socket contacts complete the electrical circuit in a cannon plug. These contacts consist of pins on one half of the connector and sockets on the other half. When the plug is inserted into the corresponding socket, the pins and sockets make contact, allowing the flow of electricity between the two halves of the connector. This completes the electrical circuit and enables the transfer of signals or power through the cannon plug.Rate this question:
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- 10.
In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12_10PW, the letter P indicates
- A.
Pin.
- B.
Plain.
- C.
Primary.
- D.
Pratt and Whitney.
Correct Answer
A. Pin.Explanation
In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12_10PW, the letter P indicates "pin". The letter P is commonly used in electrical connectors to denote the pin configuration. In this case, it suggests that the connector has pins for electrical connections.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied?
- A.
Indicating type.
- B.
Breakaway type.
- C.
Screwdriver type.
- D.
Internal wrenching type.
Correct Answer
A. Indicating type.Explanation
An indicating type torque wrench is designed to show the amount of torque or twisting action being applied. This type of wrench typically has a gauge or display that provides a visual indication of the torque being applied, allowing the user to accurately measure and control the amount of torque being used. This is useful in applications where precise torque is required to ensure proper fastening or assembly.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached?
- A.
Indicating type.
- B.
Breakaway type.
- C.
Screwdriver type.
- D.
Internal wrenching type.
Correct Answer
B. Breakaway type.Explanation
A breakaway type torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached. This type of torque wrench is commonly used in applications where over-tightening can cause damage or failure. When the desired torque is reached, the wrench will "breakaway" or disengage, preventing any further torque from being applied. This feature ensures that the torque is accurately and consistently applied without the risk of over-tightening.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the
- A.
Maximum setting at least four times.
- B.
Maximum setting at least six times.
- C.
Lowest setting at least four times.
- D.
Lowest setting at least six times.
Correct Answer
B. Maximum setting at least six times.Explanation
The correct answer is to cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the maximum setting at least six times. This is because cycling the torque wrench multiple times helps to ensure that it is properly calibrated and ready for use. By doing this at the maximum setting, any potential issues or inconsistencies in the torque wrench can be identified and addressed. Cycling it six times provides a more thorough check and increases the likelihood of detecting any problems.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What are two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened?
- A.
Extension and flexion.
- B.
Tension and torsion.
- C.
Torque and friction.
- D.
Push and pull.
Correct Answer
B. Tension and torsion.Explanation
When a fastener is tightened, it experiences tension and torsion stresses. Tension refers to the stretching force applied to the fastener, while torsion refers to the twisting or rotational force applied to it. These stresses are important to consider because they can affect the integrity and strength of the fastener, ensuring that it can securely hold the components together.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving?
- A.
Static.
- B.
Tension.
- C.
Dynamic.
- D.
Rotational.
Correct Answer
A. Static.Explanation
Static friction is the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving. It is the friction that acts on objects that are not in motion. When an object is at rest, the static friction force will match and oppose any force applied to it, preventing the object from moving. Once the applied force exceeds the maximum static friction force, the object will start to move and dynamic friction will come into play.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to
- A.
Check the AC voltages only.
- B.
Check the DC voltages only.
- C.
Initiate the tough-hold mode.
- D.
Move the decimal point.
Correct Answer
D. Move the decimal point.Explanation
The range button on the Fluke multimeter is used to adjust the measurement range of the meter. By pressing the range button, the user can change the scale of the display, which can include moving the decimal point. This allows for more accurate readings of different voltage levels, as the user can select the appropriate range to match the voltage being measured. Therefore, the correct answer is to move the decimal point.Rate this question:
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- 17.
When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display, the
- A.
Manual range mode is indicated.
- B.
Touch-hold mode is in use.
- C.
Ohms function is selected.
- D.
Meter is zeroing itself.
Correct Answer
B. Touch-hold mode is in use.Explanation
The H symbol on the Fluke multimeter display indicates that the touch-hold mode is in use. In this mode, the meter "freezes" the measurement value on the display until it is manually reset. This can be useful when taking measurements in difficult or dangerous conditions where it may be challenging to read the display in real-time.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?
- A.
Multimeter.
- B.
Depth gauge.
- C.
Feeler gauge.
- D.
Torque wrench.
Correct Answer
C. Feeler gauge.Explanation
A feeler gauge is a tool used to measure the gap between two parts. It consists of a series of thin metal strips of different thicknesses. By inserting the appropriate strip into the gap, the user can determine the size of the gap based on which strip fits snugly. This tool is commonly used in automotive and mechanical applications to ensure proper clearance between parts, such as spark plug gaps or valve clearances.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What is the longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil?
- A.
0.5 inch.
- B.
1.0 inch.
- C.
1.5 inch.
- D.
2.0 inch.
Correct Answer
B. 1.0 inch.Explanation
The longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil is 1.0 inch. This means that the micrometer can measure objects with a maximum thickness or length of 1.0 inch.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which caliper is joined by a strong hinge, screw, and, adjustment nut?
- A.
Simple calipers.
- B.
Transfer calipers.
- C.
Spring-joint calipers.
- D.
Odd-leg calipers.
Correct Answer
C. Spring-joint calipers.Explanation
Spring-joint calipers are joined by a strong hinge, screw, and adjustment nut. This type of caliper uses a spring mechanism to hold the jaws in place, allowing for easy adjustment and precise measurements. The hinge provides flexibility and the screw and adjustment nut allow for fine-tuning of the jaws' position. Simple calipers do not have these features, transfer calipers are used for transferring measurements, and odd-leg calipers have one fixed and one adjustable leg.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders?
- A.
Slide caliper.
- B.
Center caliper.
- C.
Spring-joint caliper.
- D.
Odd-leg caliper.
Correct Answer
D. Odd-leg caliper.Explanation
The odd-leg caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders. This type of caliper has one leg that is longer than the other, allowing it to be placed against a shoulder or center point while the other leg measures the distance. This makes it a useful tool for accurately determining the center of a shaft or locating specific points on a workpiece.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame?
- A.
Slide caliper.
- B.
Simple caliper.
- C.
Transfer caliper.
- D.
Spring-joint caliper.
Correct Answer
A. Slide caliper.Explanation
The slide caliper is the correct answer because it is the type of caliper that has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame. The "IN" and "OUT" markings on the slide caliper indicate the direction in which the sliding jaw moves to measure the inside and outside dimensions of an object.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?
- A.
Base commanders.
- B.
Squadron commanders.
- C.
Supervisors at all levels.
- D.
Squadron QA section.
Correct Answer
C. Supervisors at all levels.Explanation
Supervisors at all levels are responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced. This means that it is the duty of supervisors, regardless of their rank or position, to oversee and enforce proper supply management practices within their respective areas of responsibility. By doing so, supervisors can ensure that supplies are properly accounted for, stored, and distributed, minimizing waste and ensuring efficient use of resources. This responsibility extends to all levels of supervision, from base commanders down to squadron commanders, as they play a crucial role in promoting and maintaining good supply discipline.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Bench stock levels are established to provide a
- A.
15-day usage.
- B.
30-day usage.
- C.
60-day usage.
- D.
90-day usage.
Correct Answer
B. 30-day usage.Explanation
Bench stock levels are established to provide a 30-day usage. This means that the stock is maintained at a level that can cover the average demand for a period of 30 days. By having enough stock for 30 days, a company can ensure that they have an adequate supply of materials or products to meet their needs without experiencing shortages or delays. This level of stock is considered a balance between having enough inventory to meet demand and minimizing excess inventory costs.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specific periods?
- A.
AF 2005.
- B.
AF Form 2413.
- C.
AF IMT 1297.
- D.
DD Form 1348-6.
Correct Answer
C. AF IMT 1297.Explanation
AF IMT 1297 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force form used to issue an item of equipment for short, specific periods. The other forms listed are not specifically used for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 26.
All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?
- A.
PDC.
- B.
AAC.
- C.
PACC.
- D.
ERRC.
Correct Answer
D. ERRC. -
- 27.
Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and
- A.
DD Form 1348-6.
- B.
AFTO Form 349.
- C.
AFTO Form 350.
- D.
DD Form 1131.
Correct Answer
C. AFTO Form 350. -
- 28.
Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters?
- A.
1577-2 and 1577-3.
- B.
1576 and 1576-1.
- C.
1574 and 1574-1.
- D.
1575 and 1575-1.
Correct Answer
A. 1577-2 and 1577-3.Explanation
DD forms 1577-2 and 1577-3 can be easily identified by their green margins and letters.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for
- A.
200 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.
- B.
100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.
- C.
200 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt.
- D.
100 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt.
Correct Answer
B. 100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.Explanation
Engines that have been overhauled by the depot are protected against any defects in workmanship for a period of 100 hours of operation or one year from the date they were received. This means that if any issues arise within this time frame, the depot will be responsible for addressing and resolving them.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle?
- A.
Phased.
- B.
Periodic.
- C.
Isochronal.
- D.
Hourly postflight.
Correct Answer
B. Periodic.Explanation
A periodic inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order. It is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle. This type of inspection ensures that the aircraft is in compliance with maintenance and safety standards and helps identify any potential issues or wear and tear that may have occurred during operation.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections?
- A.
Phased.
- B.
Periodic.
- C.
Isochronal.
- D.
Hourly postflight.
Correct Answer
C. Isochronal.Explanation
The correct answer is isochronal. Isochronal inspection is a type of phased inspection concept that uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule. It consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections. The isochronal inspection ensures that the aircraft is thoroughly inspected and maintained at regular intervals to prevent any potential issues or failures.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements?
- A.
Phased.
- B.
Periodic.
- C.
Isochronal.
- D.
Programmed depot maintenance.
Correct Answer
D. Programmed depot maintenance.Explanation
Programmed depot maintenance is the correct answer because it involves a comprehensive inspection of areas, components, and systems that goes beyond the requirements of a technical order inspection. This type of maintenance is typically performed at a depot-level facility and includes extensive testing, repairs, and upgrades to ensure the equipment or system is in optimal condition. Phased, periodic, and isochronal inspections may also involve inspections and maintenance activities, but they do not necessarily go beyond the technical order requirements to the same degree as programmed depot maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in
- A.
Sequence charts.
- B.
Inspection workcards.
- C.
-06 work unit code manuals.
- D.
-6 technical order inspection manuals.
Correct Answer
B. Inspection workcards.Explanation
The correct answer is inspection workcards. This is because inspection workcards provide detailed instructions and checklists for conducting aircraft inspections. They outline the specific areas and components that need to be inspected, as well as the procedures to be followed during the inspection process. Sequence charts may provide a general overview of the inspection process, but they do not provide the level of detail and specific instructions that inspection workcards do. Similarly, -06 work unit code manuals and -6 technical order inspection manuals may provide general guidelines for inspections, but they do not serve as the primary source of minimum inspection requirements.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of systems?
- A.
In progress.
- B.
PR.
- C.
TH.
- D.
EOR.
Correct Answer
D. EOR.Explanation
The correct answer is EOR. EOR stands for Engine-Off Run-up, which is an inspection usually performed just prior to takeoff. During this inspection, the engine is shut down and then restarted to check the operational systems such as the fuel, electrical, and hydraulic systems. This inspection ensures that all systems are functioning properly before the aircraft takes off.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The TH inspection is normally performed
- A.
Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period.
- B.
After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled.
- C.
Immediately prior to a BPO.
- D.
After the last flight of a specified flying period.
Correct Answer
B. After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled.Explanation
The correct answer is after flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled. This means that the TH inspection is conducted after the completion of a flight when there is a plan for a quick turnaround or continuation flight. This ensures that the aircraft is thoroughly inspected and any necessary maintenance or repairs can be carried out before the next flight.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days?
- A.
Phase.
- B.
Special.
- C.
Calender.
- D.
Acceptance.
Correct Answer
C. Calender.Explanation
If an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days, a calendar inspection is required. This type of inspection is based on a specific time interval rather than the number of flight hours or cycles. It ensures that the aircraft is checked for any potential issues or maintenance requirements that may have arisen during its idle period. This is important to ensure the aircraft's safety and airworthiness before it is put back into service.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents?
- A.
Phase.
- B.
Special.
- C.
Calender.
- D.
Acceptance.
Correct Answer
A. Phase.Explanation
The correct answer is "Phase." In the context of the question, the term "inspection" refers to a systematic examination or review of historical documents. The word "phase" suggests that this inspection is part of a larger process or project, indicating that it is a comprehensive and thorough examination that ensures the completeness of historical documents. The other options - "Special," "Calender," and "Acceptance" - do not specifically relate to the concept of inspecting historical documents for completeness.Rate this question:
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- 38.
To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you sould use a DD Form
- A.
126.
- B.
1149.
- C.
2691.
- D.
2692.
Correct Answer
B. 1149.Explanation
To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD Form 1149.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which TO should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance?
- A.
1-21-101.
- B.
1-1-691.
- C.
1-1B-50.
- D.
1-1-5.
Correct Answer
C. 1-1B-50.Explanation
The correct answer is 1-1B-50. This TO (Technical Order) provides detailed information about weight and balance.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity?
- A.
Mission requirements.
- B.
Aircraft dimensions.
- C.
Structure strength.
- D.
Aircraft weight.
Correct Answer
D. Aircraft weight.Explanation
Aircraft weight is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity. The weight of the aircraft directly affects the performance and capabilities of the aircraft. It determines the size and power of the engines needed to propel the aircraft, the wing area required for lift, the strength and size of the landing gear needed to support the weight during landing and takeoff, and the payload capacity that the aircraft can carry. Therefore, aircraft weight is a crucial factor in the design process.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?
- A.
"EMERGENCY".
- B.
"DIAGNOSE".
- C.
"TRIAGE".
- D.
"STAT".
Correct Answer
C. "TRIAGE".Explanation
Triage is the process of determining the priority of patients' treatments based on the severity of their condition. It is a fundamental concept in emergency medicine and forms the basis of the ABDR (Assessment, Brief Intervention, and Referral to Treatment) assessment philosophy. Triage helps healthcare professionals allocate limited resources effectively and efficiently, ensuring that the most critical patients receive immediate attention.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is
- A.
Exposed to moist air.
- B.
Exposed to a chemical.
- C.
Connected to another part.
- D.
Fabricated and manufactured.
Correct Answer
D. Fabricated and manufactured.Explanation
When a metal part is fabricated and manufactured, it goes through various processes such as cutting, shaping, and joining. These processes can introduce imperfections or alter the surface of the metal, making it more susceptible to corrosion or deterioration. This is why the corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins once it has been fabricated and manufactured.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is
- A.
Painted.
- B.
Heat treated.
- C.
Chemically treated.
- D.
Exhausted or salvaged.
Correct Answer
D. Exhausted or salvaged.Explanation
Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is exhausted or salvaged. This means that the corrosion process will continue until the metal part is completely worn out or until it is salvaged, which involves repairing or restoring the part to its original condition. Painting, heat treatment, and chemical treatment may help prevent or slow down corrosion, but they do not completely stop it. Therefore, the only way to fully address the corrosion is by either using the part until it is no longer functional or salvaging it.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains?
- A.
Pitting.
- B.
Galvanic.
- C.
Exfoliation.
- D.
Crevice/concentration cell.
Correct Answer
C. Exfoliation.Explanation
Exfoliation corrosion is a type of corrosion that occurs when a metal's grains are lifted up or swollen. This type of corrosion typically happens in alloys, where one metal is more susceptible to corrosion than the other. The corrosion starts at the grain boundaries and progresses inward, causing the grains to lift up or swell. This can weaken the metal and lead to structural failure. Pitting corrosion, on the other hand, involves the formation of small pits or holes on the metal's surface. Galvanic corrosion occurs when two dissimilar metals are in contact in the presence of an electrolyte. Crevice or concentration cell corrosion occurs in narrow crevices or gaps where the concentration of corrosive agents is higher.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal?
- A.
Stress.
- B.
Intergranular.
- C.
Oxygen concentration cell.
- D.
Metal ion concentration cell.
Correct Answer
A. Stress.Explanation
Stress corrosion occurs when a metal is exposed to a corrosive environment and subjected to tensile stress. This type of corrosion appears as corroded cracks in the metal, which can lead to catastrophic failure if not detected and addressed. The combination of stress and corrosion weakens the metal, causing it to crack and corrode. This corrosion type is often found in materials such as stainless steel, aluminum alloys, and brass, and is commonly seen in industries such as aerospace, automotive, and marine.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in
- A.
TO 00-20-1.
- B.
TO 1-1-3.
- C.
TO 1-1A-8
- D.
TO 1-1-691.
Correct Answer
D. TO 1-1-691.Explanation
The correct answer is TO 1-1-691. This technical order specifies the alkaline and solvent cleaners that are authorized for use on our aircraft. It provides guidelines and instructions on the proper cleaning procedures and the approved cleaning agents to ensure the safety and maintenance of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 47.
After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?
- A.
Potassium hydroxide.
- B.
Aluminum hydroxide.
- C.
Sodium bicarbonate.
- D.
Boric acid.
Correct Answer
C. Sodium bicarbonate.Explanation
Sodium bicarbonate is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery. This is because sodium bicarbonate is a mild alkaline substance that can effectively neutralize the acidic electrolyte. It helps to restore the pH balance and prevent further damage to the affected areas. Potassium hydroxide, aluminum hydroxide, and boric acid are not commonly used for neutralizing electrolyte from a lead-acid battery.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The reservoir supplies hydraulic fluid to a hand pump
- A.
By gravity.
- B.
By the suction effect of the pump.
- C.
By gravity and the suction effect of the pump.
- D.
In response to pressure demand and the suction effect of the pump.
Correct Answer
C. By gravity and the suction effect of the pump.Explanation
The correct answer is "by gravity and the suction effect of the pump." This means that the reservoir supplies hydraulic fluid to the hand pump both through the force of gravity and the suction effect created by the pump. The force of gravity allows the fluid to flow from the reservoir to the pump, while the suction effect of the pump helps to draw the fluid into the pump for further use.Rate this question:
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- 49.
When pressure in a hydraulic system with a variable-volume pump increases, the fluid-flow
- A.
Stops.
- B.
Increases.
- C.
Decreases.
- D.
Remains the same.
Correct Answer
C. Decreases.Explanation
When pressure in a hydraulic system with a variable-volume pump increases, the fluid-flow decreases. This is because as the pressure increases, it becomes more difficult for the fluid to flow through the system. The increased pressure creates resistance, causing the fluid-flow to slow down or decrease.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The purpose of the torsion links on a main landing gear is to
- A.
Reduce oscillation during extension.
- B.
Reduce oscillation during retraction.
- C.
Allow the inner cylinder to rotate within the outer cylinder.
- D.
Prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder.
Correct Answer
D. Prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder.Explanation
The purpose of the torsion links on a main landing gear is to prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder. Torsion links are designed to provide structural support and limit rotational movement between the inner and outer cylinders of the landing gear. This prevents any unwanted rotation or twisting motion during the extension or retraction of the landing gear, ensuring the stability and proper functioning of the aircraft's landing gear system.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Oct 25, 2013Quiz Created by
Bigdawg
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