908 7-level CDC Prep Test #2

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| By Timothyhill101

Timothyhill101

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 148

| Attempts: 68

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1/65 Questions

An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
- 30
- 15
- 45
- 60

About This Quiz

The '908 7-Level CDC prep test #2' assesses knowledge crucial for military maintenance personnel. It covers system notifications, training phases, training status updates, recertification timelines, and responsibilities of training managers, focusing on application problems, training structure, and manpower allocations.

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2.

Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
- Unit training manager
- Operations officer
- Group commander
- Maintenance training flight commander or chief
Correct Answer

A. Unit training manager

Explanation

The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). This interview is important to assess the trainee's readiness for the course and to ensure that the supervisor supports the trainee's participation in the CDC. The unit training manager is in charge of coordinating and overseeing training activities within the unit, making them the appropriate person to conduct this interview.

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3.

Manpower authorizations are?
- Funded
- Unfunded
- Unvalidated
- Both funded and unfunded
Correct Answer

A. Funded

Explanation

Manpower authorizations refer to the allocation of resources, specifically human resources, within an organization. When manpower authorizations are "funded," it means that the organization has allocated the necessary financial resources to support the authorized positions. This indicates that the organization has the budget and funding in place to hire and maintain the required number of employees. Therefore, the correct answer is "funded."

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4.

The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander approval is?
- 12 hours
- 13 hours
- 14 hours
- 15 hours
Correct Answer

A. 12 hours

Explanation

The maximum continuous duty time without maintenance group commander approval is 12 hours. This means that workers can work for a maximum of 12 hours straight without needing permission from the maintenance group commander.

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5.

Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12 hour shift up to?
- 16 hours
- 14 hours
- 15 hours
- 18 hours
Correct Answer

A. 16 hours

Explanation

Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for extended work hours beyond the standard 12-hour shift, the maintenance group commander has the authority to grant approval for a maximum of 16 hours. This allows for flexibility in scheduling and ensures that any necessary maintenance tasks can be completed within a reasonable timeframe.

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6.

What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman and training detachment courses?
- Maintenance qualification
- Maintenance refresher
- On-the-job
- Ancillary
Correct Answer

A. Maintenance qualification

Explanation

Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement the initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman and training detachment courses. This type of training focuses on maintaining and enhancing the qualifications of maintenance personnel. It ensures that they stay up-to-date with the latest techniques, procedures, and technologies in their field. Maintenance qualification training helps individuals maintain their proficiency and expertise in their respective maintenance roles, enabling them to perform their duties effectively and efficiently.

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7.

When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin, supply personnel notify the?
- MOC
- Flight chief
- Operations officer
- AMU PSD dedicated scheduler
Correct Answer

A. MOC

Explanation

When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin, supply personnel notify the MOC (Maintenance Operations Center). The MOC is responsible for coordinating and managing all maintenance activities, including the availability of necessary parts and equipment. Therefore, it is important for supply personnel to inform the MOC about the issuance of a MICAP part so that it can be properly tracked and incorporated into the maintenance schedule.

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8.

Once a Category 1 deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report must be submitted to the screening point within?
- 24 hours
- 8 hours
- 16 hours
- 32 hours
Correct Answer

A. 24 hours

Explanation

A Category 1 deficiency is a severe issue that needs immediate attention. To ensure prompt action, a deficiency report must be submitted within 24 hours to the screening point. This allows for quick identification and resolution of the problem, minimizing any potential risks or further complications.

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9.

How many digits make up an equipment identification designator code used to identify tools and equipment?
- 9
- 8
- 10
- 11
Correct Answer

A. 9

Explanation

The equipment identification designator code is used to identify tools and equipment. To determine the number of digits in this code, we need to understand that each digit represents a specific characteristic or attribute of the equipment. Therefore, the code must have enough digits to accommodate all the possible characteristics or attributes that need to be identified. Since the code has 9 digits, it suggests that there are 9 different characteristics or attributes that can be identified using this code.

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10.

Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the DOPP?
- Explosive munitions
- Bolt
- Panel
- Safety pin
Correct Answer

A. Explosive munitions

Explanation

Explosive munitions are not considered a dropped object under the DOPP because they are intentionally released or deployed during aircrew operations, rather than being accidentally dropped. The DOPP typically refers to objects that are unintentionally dropped and pose a potential hazard to personnel or equipment.

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11.

What MSET individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?
- PE
- Quality verification inspection
- Management inspection
- Special inspection
Correct Answer

A. PE

Explanation

PE stands for Performance Evaluation. In this context, the MSET individual assessment is a performance evaluation that involves an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task. This evaluation is conducted to ensure quality verification inspection, management inspection, and special inspection are being carried out correctly and efficiently.

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12.

What MSET individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?
- Quality verification inspection (QVI)
- Special inspection
- Management inspection
- PE
Correct Answer

A. Quality verification inspection (QVI)

Explanation

After a technician completes a task, a quality verification inspection (QVI) is performed to ensure that the task has been carried out correctly and meets the required standards. This inspection is conducted to verify the quality of the work performed by the technician and to ensure that it aligns with the expectations and specifications set by the organization. The purpose of the QVI is to identify any potential errors or deficiencies in the completed task and take appropriate corrective actions if necessary.

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13.

In the TBA, what type of notification does the "system messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?
- Application problems
- Open suspenses
- System upgrades
- Changes to your user roles
Correct Answer

A. Application problems

Explanation

The "system messages" board provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information. This means that users can be informed about any issues or glitches with the application and stay updated on its status.

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14.

How often does the maintenance training flight provide a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander?
- Monthly
- Quarterly
- Semi-annually
- Annually
Correct Answer

A. Monthly

Explanation

The maintenance training flight provides a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander on a monthly basis. This means that every month, the maintenance training flight updates the maintenance group commander on the current status of the training. This regular briefing allows the commander to stay informed and make any necessary adjustments or decisions related to the training program.

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15.

A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is normally held?
- Monthly
- Weekly
- Quarterly
- Semi-annually
Correct Answer

A. Monthly

Explanation

The meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is held monthly. This suggests that the group needs to regularly address and evaluate their manpower requirements and allocation. Holding monthly meetings allows them to stay updated on any staffing challenges, plan for future needs, and make necessary adjustments to ensure the smooth functioning of the maintenance group.

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16.

Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the?
- Logistics readiness squadron
- Maintenance squadron
- Aircraft maintenance squadron
- Maintenance operations squadron
Correct Answer

A. Logistics readiness squadron

Explanation

Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the logistics readiness squadron. This is because the logistics readiness squadron is responsible for managing the supply chain and ensuring that all necessary materials and equipment are available for maintenance operations. The maintenance supply liaison personnel work closely with the logistics readiness squadron to coordinate and facilitate the procurement, storage, and distribution of supplies needed for maintenance activities. By reporting directly to the commander of the logistics readiness squadron, they can effectively communicate and collaborate to meet the maintenance requirements of the unit.

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17.

The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
- 30
- 60
- 90
- 120
Correct Answer

A. 30

Explanation

The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide 30 days of supply. This means that the organization aims to have enough stock on hand to cover their needs for a 30-day period. By having this amount of supply, they can ensure that they have enough inventory to meet demand and avoid any disruptions in their operations.

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18.

Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
- Cloudy water
- Stains on the ground
- Oil sheen on standing water
- Stressed vegetation
Correct Answer

A. Cloudy water

Explanation

Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment or algae growth. While pollution can also cause water to become cloudy, it is not a definitive indicator as other factors can contribute to the cloudiness. Stains on the ground, oil sheen on standing water, and stressed vegetation are more commonly associated with pollution and are therefore considered obvious signs.

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19.

Which LRS office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
- Equipment liaison office (ELO)
- Flight service center (FSC)
- Command equipment management office (CEMO)
- Defense reutilization and marketing office (DRMO)
Correct Answer

A. Equipment liaison office (ELO)

Explanation

The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. The ELO is specifically tasked with overseeing the maintenance and repair of equipment, ensuring that it is properly accounted for and managed. This office is responsible for coordinating with other departments and agencies to ensure that SPRAM assets are properly maintained and available for use when needed. The ELO plays a crucial role in ensuring that equipment is properly managed and maintained, contributing to the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the organization.

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20.

Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?
- Host installation commander
- Aircraft commander
- Operations group commander
- Mission support group commander
Correct Answer

A. Host installation commander

Explanation

The host installation commander is responsible for authorizing the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual has the authority and oversight to ensure that proper security measures are in place to protect the classified material during transit. The host installation commander is in a position of leadership and has the necessary knowledge and authority to make informed decisions regarding the storage of classified material.

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21.

When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, he/she must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every?
- 3 hours
- Hour
- 2 hours
- 4 hours
Correct Answer

A. 3 hours

Explanation

When the aircraft owner or user is not present with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, they must arrange for security checks to be conducted every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure that the equipment remains secure and protected from any unauthorized access or tampering. Regular security checks at frequent intervals help to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the equipment, reducing the risk of any potential security breaches.

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22.

Who is the final authority for reviewing a units list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
- LRS chief inspector
- Flight commander/chief
- Maintenance group commander
- MX officer/ MX superintendent
Correct Answer

A. LRS chief inspector

Explanation

The LRS chief inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. This individual is responsible for ensuring that all equipment is properly inspected and maintained to meet operational standards. They have the expertise and knowledge to determine which assets require these checks and programming, making them the ultimate authority in this process.

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23.

Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?
- A4U
- A4MT
- A4YE
- A4BM
Correct Answer

A. A4U

Explanation

A4U, or the Director of Air Force Manpower, Personnel, and Services, has the overall responsibility for Air Force policy governing the Training and Operations (TO) system. This individual is responsible for developing and implementing policies and procedures related to training, personnel, and services within the Air Force. They oversee the TO system to ensure its effectiveness and adherence to Air Force policies and regulations.

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24.

Red ball maintenance is not designed to prevent?
- Aircraft status changes
- Air aborts
- Late takeoffs
- Ground aborts
Correct Answer

A. Aircraft status changes

Explanation

Red ball maintenance is a term used in aviation to refer to urgent and critical maintenance tasks that need to be addressed immediately to ensure the safety and operational readiness of an aircraft. These tasks are typically related to essential systems and components that directly affect the aircraft's status and performance. Therefore, red ball maintenance is not specifically designed to prevent or address aircraft status changes, as it is primarily focused on addressing urgent maintenance issues.

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25.

Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation?
- Applicable impoundment authority
- MXG vice commander
- MXG impoundment release authority
- Applicable squadron commander
Correct Answer

A. Applicable impoundment authority

Explanation

The applicable impoundment authority designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation. This means that the authority responsible for overseeing the impoundment process is the one who selects the official to handle the situation. The other options, such as the MXG vice commander, MXG impoundment release authority, and applicable squadron commander, may have different roles within the impoundment process, but they are not specifically responsible for designating the Impoundment Official.

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26.

The wing FOD monitor is normally located within the?
- QA section
- Maintenance flight
- Engine management section
- MOC
Correct Answer

A. QA section

Explanation

The wing FOD monitor is normally located within the QA section. The QA section, or Quality Assurance section, is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance activities and procedures are carried out correctly and meet the required standards. As the FOD (Foreign Object Debris) monitor is a critical component in preventing foreign objects from entering and damaging the aircraft's wings, it makes sense for it to be located within the QA section where quality control and monitoring activities take place.

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27.

The wing FOD monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?
- 24
- 8
- 12
- 48
Correct Answer

A. 24

Explanation

The correct answer is 24. The wing FOD monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This is important to ensure that any FOD incidents are reported and addressed promptly, allowing for appropriate action to be taken to prevent further damage or accidents caused by foreign object debris on the runway or aircraft.

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28.

When a unit has received an unsatisfactory maintenance standardization and evaluation team rating, the maintenance group commander directs QA to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?
- 30
- 60
- 90
- 120
Correct Answer

A. 30

Explanation

The maintenance group commander directs QA to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within 30 days after receiving an unsatisfactory maintenance standardization and evaluation team rating. This allows for a timely assessment of the unit's progress in improving their maintenance standards and addressing any deficiencies identified in the initial evaluation.

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29.

Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
- AFTO form 20, Caution tag
- DD form 1574, serviceable tag material
- DD form 1577-1, unserviceable tag (condemned)
- DD form 1577-2, unserviceable tag (reparable)
Correct Answer

A. AFTO form 20, Caution tag

Explanation

The correct answer is AFTO form 20, Caution tag. The AFTO form 20 is used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. The Caution tag is attached to the part to indicate that it has been drained and/or purged and is ready for use. This helps to ensure that the part is properly prepared and prevents any potential issues or damage that could occur if the part was not drained or purged correctly. The AFTO form 20 and Caution tag are important tools for maintaining the safety and functionality of equipment.

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30.

Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?
- Customer
- Maintenance supply support
- Maintenance supply liaison
- LRS customer service
Correct Answer

A. Customer

Explanation

The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. As the end-user of the product or service, the customer is in the best position to assess their own needs and urgency. They can provide information about the criticality of the request and any time constraints that need to be considered. Therefore, it is up to the customer to prioritize their supply delivery based on their specific requirements.

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31.

Which urgency justification codes are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit or shop replaceable unit spare?
- AR or BR
- 1A or 3A
- AA or AM
- BM or CM
Correct Answer

A. AR or BR

Explanation

The urgency justification codes AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit or shop replaceable unit spare. These codes indicate that the repair is needed urgently and require immediate attention to ensure the proper functioning of the unit.

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32.

What MOF section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?
- P,S, and D
- Maintenance supply liaison
- MOC
- Maintenance management analysis
Correct Answer

A. P,S, and D

Explanation

The correct answer is P, S, and D. P, S, and D stands for Program, Systems, and Data. This section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies. They are in charge of overseeing and analyzing the maintenance management system and ensuring that all necessary information is properly documented and managed.

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33.

Which is not normally a MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?
- Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required
- Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts
- Advising MXG/CC on TO availability
- Resolving TO availability problems
Correct Answer

A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required

Explanation

The MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) is responsible for various duties related to technical order distribution. This includes assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising the MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not a duty normally performed by the MXG TODO.

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34.

Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?
- Weapons loading operations
- Radiographic inspections
- Fuel system repair
- Aircraft on jacks
Correct Answer

A. Weapons loading operations

Explanation

Weapons loading operations do not institute a restricted maintenance area. Restricted maintenance areas are designated areas where specific maintenance tasks are performed, and access is restricted to authorized personnel only. Radiographic inspections, fuel system repair, and aircraft on jacks all involve maintenance tasks that require a restricted maintenance area due to safety and security concerns. However, weapons loading operations are typically conducted in a separate designated area, such as a weapons loading apron or a specific weapons maintenance facility, rather than within a restricted maintenance area.

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35.

Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?
- AFI 21-101, aircraft and equipment maintenance management
- AFI 33-103, requirements development and processing
- AFI 10-403, deployment planning and execution
- AFTTP 3-21.1, aircraft maintenance
Correct Answer

A. AFI 21-101, aircraft and equipment maintenance management

Explanation

AFI 21-101, aircraft and equipment maintenance management, provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication specifically focuses on the management of aircraft and equipment maintenance, including procedures for recovering and repairing damaged or disabled equipment. It outlines the steps and processes involved in executing a successful maintenance recovery operation, ensuring that maintenance personnel have the necessary guidance and resources to effectively restore equipment to operational status.

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36.

In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator's interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?
- Lead command
- AF mobility command
- QA
- Inspector general
Correct Answer

A. Lead command

Explanation

The lead command serves as the operator's interface with the single point manager for a weapons system in the modification management program. This means that the lead command is responsible for coordinating and communicating with the single point manager regarding any modifications or changes needed for the weapons system. They act as the main point of contact and facilitate the exchange of information and requirements between the operator and the single point manager.

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37.

Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
- Maintenance supply liaison
- Maintenance supply support
- Maintenance operations center
- Maintenance data system analysis
Correct Answer

A. Maintenance supply liaison

Explanation

A maintenance supply liaison is typically responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a point of contact between maintenance operations and the supply chain, ensuring that necessary supplies are available and addressing any issues that may arise. This role involves coordinating with various stakeholders to ensure smooth supply operations and efficient resolution of supply support problems.

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38.

Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty?
- Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
- Monitoring status of the back-ordered requisition
- Advising supervisors on supply management documents
- Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list
Correct Answer

A. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

Explanation

The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty because it does not involve the management or coordination of supplies and resources. The other options, such as monitoring the status of back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list, are all tasks that are typically performed by a maintenance supply liaison to ensure efficient supply chain management.

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39.

The assets in a high priority mission support kit should be transferred in to the host bases Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
- 30
- 15
- 45
- 60
Correct Answer

A. 30

Explanation

After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit should be transferred into the host bases Standard Base Supply System account.

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40.

What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a DIFM monitor?
- 2B
- 1
- 3
- 11A
Correct Answer

A. 2B

Explanation

An individual must receive block 2B of supply training before assuming duties as a DIFM monitor.

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41.

Which of the following is not a TO change priority category?
- Standard
- Urgent
- Routine
- Emergency
Correct Answer

A. Standard

Explanation

The given question is asking to identify the option that is not a TO (Task Order) change priority category. The options provided are standard, urgent, routine, and emergency. The correct answer is "standard" because it is not a TO change priority category. TO change priority categories typically include urgent, routine, and emergency, but standard is not considered a priority category for TO changes.

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42.

Who designates cannibalization authorities?
- MXG commander
- MXS officer/MXS superintendent
- MXG vice commander
- MXG superintendent
Correct Answer

A. MXG commander

Explanation

The MXG commander designates cannibalization authorities.

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43.

What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?
- 2
- 1
- 3
- 4
Correct Answer

A. 2

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because the question asks about the training phase that includes four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training. Out of the given options, option 2 is the only one that matches the description.

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44.

Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?
- XB3
- XF3
- XD2
- XD1
Correct Answer

A. XB3

Explanation

The correct answer is XB3 because XB3 is the code that represents the asset's expendability, recoverability, and reparability. This code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it can be used up or consumed, recoverable, meaning it can be restored to a usable condition, and reparable, meaning it can be fixed if it becomes damaged or broken. By assigning the XB3 code to the asset, it can be placed in bench stock, which is a supply of spare parts or equipment that is readily available for maintenance or repair purposes.

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45.

What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?
- Engineering data service center
- Audio visual center
- AF primary standards laboratory
- Communication and information system
Correct Answer

A. Engineering data service center

Explanation

The engineering data service center acts as a central repository for engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for collecting, organizing, and storing all the relevant information related to engineering drawings and data. It serves as a central hub where engineers and other professionals can access and retrieve the necessary information for their projects. This ensures that all the engineering data is easily accessible and readily available to those who need it.

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46.

Which precious metals indicator code indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
- C
- A
- G
- P
Correct Answer

A. C

Explanation

Indicator code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals.

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47.

Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
- D04, daily document register
- D18, priority monitor report
- M-24, organization effectiveness report
- D23, repair cycle asset management list
Correct Answer

A. D04, daily document register

Explanation

The correct answer is D04, daily document register. The daily document register is a supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. It helps in keeping track of the documents and their processing status, ensuring that all necessary documents are accounted for and processed in a timely manner.

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48.

The product improvement manager is usually assigned to what MXG section?
- QA
- Engine management
- MOC
- Maintenance data system analysis
Correct Answer

A. QA

Explanation

The product improvement manager is usually assigned to the QA section. This is because their role involves overseeing and managing the quality assurance processes and procedures within the organization. They are responsible for ensuring that products meet the required quality standards and specifications, conducting quality audits, and implementing improvements to enhance product quality.

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49.

Who is the QA chief inspector directly responsible for ensuring the required maintenance standardization and evaluation program functions are performed?
- QA OIC SUPT
- Wing inspector general
- MAJCOM inspector general
- MXG/CC
Correct Answer

A. QA OIC SUPT

Explanation

The QA OIC SUPT is the Quality Assurance Officer in Charge for the Support Unit. As the chief inspector, they are directly responsible for ensuring that the required maintenance standardization and evaluation program functions are performed. This includes overseeing the maintenance processes and procedures, conducting inspections and audits, and ensuring compliance with standards and regulations. The QA OIC SUPT plays a crucial role in maintaining the quality and standardization of maintenance operations within the Support Unit.

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Mar 21, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Jun 03, 2015

Quiz Created by
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908 7-level CDC Prep Test #2

An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

Quiz Preview

Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

Manpower authorizations are?

The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander approval is?

Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12 hour shift up to?

What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman and training detachment courses?

When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin, supply personnel notify the?

Once a Category 1 deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report must be submitted to the screening point within?

How many digits make up an equipment identification designator code used to identify tools and equipment?

Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the DOPP?

What MSET individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?

What MSET individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

In the TBA, what type of notification does the "system messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?

How often does the maintenance training flight provide a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander?

A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is normally held?

Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the?

The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

Which LRS office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, he/she must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every?

Who is the final authority for reviewing a units list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?

Red ball maintenance is not designed to prevent?

Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation?

The wing FOD monitor is normally located within the?

The wing FOD monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?

When a unit has received an unsatisfactory maintenance standardization and evaluation team rating, the maintenance group commander directs QA to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?

Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?

Which urgency justification codes are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit or shop replaceable unit spare?

What MOF section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?

Which is not normally a MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?

Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?

Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator's interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?

Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty?

The assets in a high priority mission support kit should be transferred in to the host bases Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a DIFM monitor?

Which of the following is not a TO change priority category?

Who designates cannibalization authorities?

What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

Which precious metals indicator code indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

The product improvement manager is usually assigned to what MXG section?

Who is the QA chief inspector directly responsible for ensuring the required maintenance standardization and evaluation program functions are performed?