908 7-level CDC Prep Test #2

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 148
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  • 1/65 Questions

    In the TBA, what type of notification does the "system messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?

    • Application problems
    • Open suspenses
    • System upgrades
    • Changes to your user roles
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About This Quiz

The '908 7-Level CDC prep test #2' assesses knowledge crucial for military maintenance personnel. It covers system notifications, training phases, training status updates, recertification timelines, and responsibilities of training managers, focusing on application problems, training structure, and manpower allocations.

908 7-level CDC Prep Test #2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

    • 2

    • 1

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2 because the question asks about the training phase that includes four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training. Out of the given options, option 2 is the only one that matches the description.

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  • 3. 

    How often does the maintenance training flight provide a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semi-annually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight provides a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander on a monthly basis. This means that every month, the maintenance training flight updates the maintenance group commander on the current status of the training. This regular briefing allows the commander to stay informed and make any necessary adjustments or decisions related to the training program.

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  • 4. 

    An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • 30

    • 15

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    If an individual is unable to complete their training recertification due to being TDY (Temporary Duty), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed up to 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have a grace period of 30 days to complete their recertification after they have returned from their TDY, leave, or incapacitation.

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  • 5. 

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • Unit training manager

    • Operations officer

    • Group commander

    • Maintenance training flight commander or chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training manager
    Explanation
    The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). This interview is important to assess the trainee's readiness for the course and to ensure that the supervisor supports the trainee's participation in the CDC. The unit training manager is in charge of coordinating and overseeing training activities within the unit, making them the appropriate person to conduct this interview.

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  • 6. 

    Manpower authorizations are?

    • Funded

    • Unfunded

    • Unvalidated

    • Both funded and unfunded

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations refer to the allocation of resources, specifically human resources, within an organization. When manpower authorizations are "funded," it means that the organization has allocated the necessary financial resources to support the authorized positions. This indicates that the organization has the budget and funding in place to hire and maintain the required number of employees. Therefore, the correct answer is "funded."

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  • 7. 

    A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is normally held?

    • Monthly

    • Weekly

    • Quarterly

    • Semi-annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is held monthly. This suggests that the group needs to regularly address and evaluate their manpower requirements and allocation. Holding monthly meetings allows them to stay updated on any staffing challenges, plan for future needs, and make necessary adjustments to ensure the smooth functioning of the maintenance group.

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  • 8. 

    The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander approval is?

    • 12 hours

    • 13 hours

    • 14 hours

    • 15 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 hours
    Explanation
    The maximum continuous duty time without maintenance group commander approval is 12 hours. This means that workers can work for a maximum of 12 hours straight without needing permission from the maintenance group commander.

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  • 9. 

    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12 hour shift up to?

    • 16 hours

    • 14 hours

    • 15 hours

    • 18 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 hours
    Explanation
    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for extended work hours beyond the standard 12-hour shift, the maintenance group commander has the authority to grant approval for a maximum of 16 hours. This allows for flexibility in scheduling and ensures that any necessary maintenance tasks can be completed within a reasonable timeframe.

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  • 10. 

    What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman and training detachment courses?

    • Maintenance qualification

    • Maintenance refresher

    • On-the-job

    • Ancillary

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance qualification
    Explanation
    Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement the initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman and training detachment courses. This type of training focuses on maintaining and enhancing the qualifications of maintenance personnel. It ensures that they stay up-to-date with the latest techniques, procedures, and technologies in their field. Maintenance qualification training helps individuals maintain their proficiency and expertise in their respective maintenance roles, enabling them to perform their duties effectively and efficiently.

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  • 11. 

    Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

    • Maintenance supply liaison

    • Maintenance supply support

    • Maintenance operations center

    • Maintenance data system analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance supply liaison
    Explanation
    A maintenance supply liaison is typically responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a point of contact between maintenance operations and the supply chain, ensuring that necessary supplies are available and addressing any issues that may arise. This role involves coordinating with various stakeholders to ensure smooth supply operations and efficient resolution of supply support problems.

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  • 12. 

    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the?

    • Logistics readiness squadron

    • Maintenance squadron

    • Aircraft maintenance squadron

    • Maintenance operations squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics readiness squadron
    Explanation
    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the logistics readiness squadron. This is because the logistics readiness squadron is responsible for managing the supply chain and ensuring that all necessary materials and equipment are available for maintenance operations. The maintenance supply liaison personnel work closely with the logistics readiness squadron to coordinate and facilitate the procurement, storage, and distribution of supplies needed for maintenance activities. By reporting directly to the commander of the logistics readiness squadron, they can effectively communicate and collaborate to meet the maintenance requirements of the unit.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty?

    • Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

    • Monitoring status of the back-ordered requisition

    • Advising supervisors on supply management documents

    • Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
    Explanation
    The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty because it does not involve the management or coordination of supplies and resources. The other options, such as monitoring the status of back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list, are all tasks that are typically performed by a maintenance supply liaison to ensure efficient supply chain management.

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  • 14. 

    The assets in a high priority mission support kit should be transferred in to the host bases Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

    • 30

    • 15

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit should be transferred into the host bases Standard Base Supply System account.

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  • 15. 

    Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

    • XB3

    • XF3

    • XD2

    • XD1

    Correct Answer
    A. XB3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is XB3 because XB3 is the code that represents the asset's expendability, recoverability, and reparability. This code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it can be used up or consumed, recoverable, meaning it can be restored to a usable condition, and reparable, meaning it can be fixed if it becomes damaged or broken. By assigning the XB3 code to the asset, it can be placed in bench stock, which is a supply of spare parts or equipment that is readily available for maintenance or repair purposes.

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  • 16. 

    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide 30 days of supply. This means that the organization aims to have enough stock on hand to cover their needs for a 30-day period. By having this amount of supply, they can ensure that they have enough inventory to meet demand and avoid any disruptions in their operations.

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  • 17. 

    Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life items are you allowed to inspect and remark with a new expiration date?

    • 2

    • 1

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Shelf life items that are still serviceable can be inspected and remarked with a new expiration date.

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  • 18. 

    Who in the maintenance group is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacturing requirements?

    • MXS operations officer/ MXS superintendent

    • MXG commander

    • MXG superintendent

    • MXG deputy commander

    Correct Answer
    A. MXS operations officer/ MXS superintendent
    Explanation
    The MXS operations officer/ MXS superintendent is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacturing requirements in the maintenance group. They oversee the operations and ensure that the necessary resources, equipment, and personnel are available to meet the manufacturing needs. This role is crucial in maintaining the efficiency and effectiveness of the maintenance group in meeting local manufacturing requirements.

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  • 19. 

    What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

    • Engineering data service center

    • Audio visual center

    • AF primary standards laboratory

    • Communication and information system

    Correct Answer
    A. Engineering data service center
    Explanation
    The engineering data service center acts as a central repository for engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for collecting, organizing, and storing all the relevant information related to engineering drawings and data. It serves as a central hub where engineers and other professionals can access and retrieve the necessary information for their projects. This ensures that all the engineering data is easily accessible and readily available to those who need it.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • Cloudy water

    • Stains on the ground

    • Oil sheen on standing water

    • Stressed vegetation

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment or algae growth. While pollution can also cause water to become cloudy, it is not a definitive indicator as other factors can contribute to the cloudiness. Stains on the ground, oil sheen on standing water, and stressed vegetation are more commonly associated with pollution and are therefore considered obvious signs.

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  • 21. 

    Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center?

    • Section supervisor

    • Operations officer

    • Squadron commander

    • Squadron safety monitor

    Correct Answer
    A. Section supervisor
    Explanation
    The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center. This is because the section supervisor is directly in charge of the personnel in their section and is responsible for their safety and well-being. They are knowledgeable about the specific hazards present in their work center and are in the best position to develop a comprehensive training plan to address these hazards and ensure that personnel are aware of them.

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  • 22. 

    Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

    • AFTO form 20, Caution tag

    • DD form 1574, serviceable tag material

    • DD form 1577-1, unserviceable tag (condemned)

    • DD form 1577-2, unserviceable tag (reparable)

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO form 20, Caution tag
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFTO form 20, Caution tag. The AFTO form 20 is used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. The Caution tag is attached to the part to indicate that it has been drained and/or purged and is ready for use. This helps to ensure that the part is properly prepared and prevents any potential issues or damage that could occur if the part was not drained or purged correctly. The AFTO form 20 and Caution tag are important tools for maintaining the safety and functionality of equipment.

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  • 23. 

    Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

    • Squadron commander

    • Section supervisor

    • Flight commander/chief

    • Operations officer/ maintenance superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron commander
    Explanation
    The squadron commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This is because the squadron commander is responsible for the overall management and operation of the squadron, including the appointment of key personnel such as equipment account custodians.

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  • 24. 

    What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a DIFM monitor?

    • 2B

    • 1

    • 3

    • 11A

    Correct Answer
    A. 2B
    Explanation
    An individual must receive block 2B of supply training before assuming duties as a DIFM monitor.

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  • 25. 

    What form is used to document all report of surveys?

    • DD form 200, Financial liability, Investigation of property loss

    • DD form 362, Statement of charge/cash collection voucher

    • AF IMT 1185, Statement of record data

    • AF IMT 453, Report of survey register

    Correct Answer
    A. DD form 200, Financial liability, Investigation of property loss
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DD form 200, Financial liability, Investigation of property loss. This form is used to document all reports of surveys. It is specifically designed for reporting and investigating property loss or damage incidents. The form helps to determine the financial liability for the loss or damage and provides a detailed record of the investigation process.

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  • 26. 

    Which LRS office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

    • Equipment liaison office (ELO)

    • Flight service center (FSC)

    • Command equipment management office (CEMO)

    • Defense reutilization and marketing office (DRMO)

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment liaison office (ELO)
    Explanation
    The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. The ELO is specifically tasked with overseeing the maintenance and repair of equipment, ensuring that it is properly accounted for and managed. This office is responsible for coordinating with other departments and agencies to ensure that SPRAM assets are properly maintained and available for use when needed. The ELO plays a crucial role in ensuring that equipment is properly managed and maintained, contributing to the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the organization.

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  • 27. 

    Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?

    • Mission support group commander

    • Maintenance group commander

    • Logistics readiness squadron commander

    • Maintenance group deputy commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission support group commander
    Explanation
    The Mission Support Group Commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians. This role is responsible for overseeing and coordinating various support functions within the mission support group, including maintenance and logistics. As such, they have the authority and responsibility to review and approve these requests to ensure they align with the mission objectives and resources available.

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  • 28. 

    Which precious metals indicator code indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • C

    • A

    • G

    • P

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    Indicator code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals.

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  • 29. 

    Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

    • D04, daily document register

    • D18, priority monitor report

    • M-24, organization effectiveness report

    • D23, repair cycle asset management list

    Correct Answer
    A. D04, daily document register
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D04, daily document register. The daily document register is a supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. It helps in keeping track of the documents and their processing status, ensuring that all necessary documents are accounted for and processed in a timely manner.

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  • 30. 

    Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all the back-ordered parts with an urgency of need code of A?

    • D18, priority monitor report

    • D04, daily document register

    • M-24, organization effectiveness report

    • D23, repair cycle asset management list

    Correct Answer
    A. D18, priority monitor report
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D18, priority monitor report. The priority monitor report is a supply tracking document that is produced daily and lists all the back-ordered parts with an urgency of need code of A. This report helps to identify and prioritize the parts that are urgently needed for repairs or maintenance.

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  • 31. 

    Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

    • M-24, organization effectiveness report

    • D18, priority monitor report

    • D04, daily document register

    • D23, repair cycle asset management list

    Correct Answer
    A. M-24, organization effectiveness report
    Explanation
    The M-24, organization effectiveness report provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report helps in tracking the supply chain and ensures effective management of supplies by monitoring the issue and bench stock support. It allows management to assess the effectiveness of the organization's supply support and make necessary adjustments if needed.

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  • 32. 

    Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

    • Host installation commander

    • Aircraft commander

    • Operations group commander

    • Mission support group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Host installation commander
    Explanation
    The host installation commander is responsible for authorizing the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual has the authority and oversight to ensure that proper security measures are in place to protect the classified material during transit. The host installation commander is in a position of leadership and has the necessary knowledge and authority to make informed decisions regarding the storage of classified material.

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  • 33. 

    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, he/she must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every?

    • 3 hours

    • Hour

    • 2 hours

    • 4 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 hours
    Explanation
    When the aircraft owner or user is not present with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, they must arrange for security checks to be conducted every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure that the equipment remains secure and protected from any unauthorized access or tampering. Regular security checks at frequent intervals help to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the equipment, reducing the risk of any potential security breaches.

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  • 34. 

    Who is the final authority for reviewing a units list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

    • LRS chief inspector

    • Flight commander/chief

    • Maintenance group commander

    • MX officer/ MX superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. LRS chief inspector
    Explanation
    The LRS chief inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. This individual is responsible for ensuring that all equipment is properly inspected and maintained to meet operational standards. They have the expertise and knowledge to determine which assets require these checks and programming, making them the ultimate authority in this process.

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  • 35. 

    Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?

    • Customer

    • Maintenance supply support

    • Maintenance supply liaison

    • LRS customer service

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer
    Explanation
    The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. As the end-user of the product or service, the customer is in the best position to assess their own needs and urgency. They can provide information about the criticality of the request and any time constraints that need to be considered. Therefore, it is up to the customer to prioritize their supply delivery based on their specific requirements.

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  • 36. 

    Which urgency justification codes are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit or shop replaceable unit spare?

    • AR or BR

    • 1A or 3A

    • AA or AM

    • BM or CM

    Correct Answer
    A. AR or BR
    Explanation
    The urgency justification codes AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit or shop replaceable unit spare. These codes indicate that the repair is needed urgently and require immediate attention to ensure the proper functioning of the unit.

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  • 37. 

    Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must maintenance coordinate with?

    • LRS material management element

    • MXC maintenance data system analysis

    • MXG QA

    • LRS flight service center

    Correct Answer
    A. LRS material management element
    Explanation
    Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. This is because the LRS material management element is responsible for managing and providing the necessary materials and supplies for maintenance operations. They ensure that the required items are available and properly distributed to support maintenance activities. By coordinating with the LRS material management element, maintenance can ensure that the necessary supplies are in place before establishing a supply point in the work area.

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  • 38. 

    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin, supply personnel notify the?

    • MOC

    • Flight chief

    • Operations officer

    • AMU PSD dedicated scheduler

    Correct Answer
    A. MOC
    Explanation
    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin, supply personnel notify the MOC (Maintenance Operations Center). The MOC is responsible for coordinating and managing all maintenance activities, including the availability of necessary parts and equipment. Therefore, it is important for supply personnel to inform the MOC about the issuance of a MICAP part so that it can be properly tracked and incorporated into the maintenance schedule.

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  • 39. 

    Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the work center supply point monitor?

    • Semi-annually

    • Annually

    • Quarterly

    • Monthly

    Correct Answer
    A. Semi-annually
    Explanation
    Supply point accounts must be reconciled semi-annually by the work center supply point monitor. This means that the reconciliation process takes place twice a year. Reconciling the accounts involves comparing the records of the supply point with the actual physical inventory to ensure that they match. This is an important step to identify any discrepancies or errors in the inventory and to maintain accurate records. Reconciling semi-annually allows for regular checks and helps in maintaining the integrity of the supply point accounts.

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  • 40. 

    When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?

    • Supply discrepancy report

    • Deficiency report

    • Maintenance cross-tell report

    • Product quality deficiency report

    Correct Answer
    A. Supply discrepancy report
    Explanation
    When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, a supply discrepancy report is submitted. This report is used to document any discrepancies or issues with the supply of goods or products, such as missing items, damaged goods, or incorrect shipments. By submitting a supply discrepancy report, the customer can inform the supplier or retailer about the problem and request a refund or a replacement item.

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  • 41. 

    Who has the responsibility for overall deficiency report program management for the submitting organization or group?

    • Originating point

    • Originator

    • Action point

    • Screening point

    Correct Answer
    A. Originating point
    Explanation
    The originating point is responsible for overall deficiency report program management for the submitting organization or group. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and managing the entire process of reporting and addressing deficiencies within the organization or group. They are the starting point or source of the program, taking the lead in managing and coordinating the deficiency report program.

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  • 42. 

    Who acts as the deficiency report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?

    • Action point

    • Originator

    • Screening point

    • Originating point

    Correct Answer
    A. Action point
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "action point." In a deficiency report process, the action point acts as the focal point between the support point and the submitting organization. This means that the action point is responsible for coordinating and facilitating communication and actions related to the deficiency report between these two parties. They ensure that the necessary information is exchanged, actions are taken, and any issues or concerns are addressed effectively.

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  • 43. 

    Once a Category 1 deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report must be submitted to the screening point within?

    • 24 hours

    • 8 hours

    • 16 hours

    • 32 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours
    Explanation
    A Category 1 deficiency is a severe issue that needs immediate attention. To ensure prompt action, a deficiency report must be submitted within 24 hours to the screening point. This allows for quick identification and resolution of the problem, minimizing any potential risks or further complications.

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  • 44. 

    What MOF section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?

    • P,S, and D

    • Maintenance supply liaison

    • MOC

    • Maintenance management analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. P,S, and D
    Explanation
    The correct answer is P, S, and D. P, S, and D stands for Program, Systems, and Data. This section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies. They are in charge of overseeing and analyzing the maintenance management system and ensuring that all necessary information is properly documented and managed.

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  • 45. 

    Which is not normally a MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?

    • Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required

    • Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts

    • Advising MXG/CC on TO availability

    • Resolving TO availability problems

    Correct Answer
    A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required
    Explanation
    The MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) is responsible for various duties related to technical order distribution. This includes assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising the MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not a duty normally performed by the MXG TODO.

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  • 46. 

    The product improvement manager is usually assigned to what MXG section?

    • QA

    • Engine management

    • MOC

    • Maintenance data system analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. QA
    Explanation
    The product improvement manager is usually assigned to the QA section. This is because their role involves overseeing and managing the quality assurance processes and procedures within the organization. They are responsible for ensuring that products meet the required quality standards and specifications, conducting quality audits, and implementing improvements to enhance product quality.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is not a TO change priority category?

    • Standard

    • Urgent

    • Routine

    • Emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard
    Explanation
    The given question is asking to identify the option that is not a TO (Task Order) change priority category. The options provided are standard, urgent, routine, and emergency. The correct answer is "standard" because it is not a TO change priority category. TO change priority categories typically include urgent, routine, and emergency, but standard is not considered a priority category for TO changes.

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  • 48. 

    Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?

    • A4U

    • A4MT

    • A4YE

    • A4BM

    Correct Answer
    A. A4U
    Explanation
    A4U, or the Director of Air Force Manpower, Personnel, and Services, has the overall responsibility for Air Force policy governing the Training and Operations (TO) system. This individual is responsible for developing and implementing policies and procedures related to training, personnel, and services within the Air Force. They oversee the TO system to ensure its effectiveness and adherence to Air Force policies and regulations.

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  • 49. 

    Who designates cannibalization authorities?

    • MXG commander

    • MXS officer/MXS superintendent

    • MXG vice commander

    • MXG superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. MXG commander
    Explanation
    The MXG commander designates cannibalization authorities.

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    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 03, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Timothyhill101

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