4N051 B Volume 1

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Volume Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

    • A.

      Antigen

    • B.

      Antibody

    • C.

      Pathogen

    • D.

      Micro-organism

    Correct Answer
    C. Pathogen
    Explanation
    A pathogen is an organism that is capable of causing infection and disease. It refers to any microorganism, such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites, that can invade the body and disrupt its normal functioning. Pathogens have the ability to multiply and spread within the host, leading to various symptoms and health issues. Unlike antigens and antibodies, which are components of the immune system, a pathogen is an external entity that poses a threat to the body's well-being.

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  • 2. 

    Which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria?

    • A.

      Sporozoa

    • B.

      Chlamydia

    • C.

      Rickettsiae

    • D.

      Mycoplasma

    Correct Answer
    A. Sporozoa
    Explanation
    Sporozoa is the correct answer because it is the classification of organisms responsible for causing the disease malaria. Sporozoa are a group of parasitic protozoa that have complex life cycles involving both sexual and asexual reproduction. They are transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Once inside the human body, the sporozoites invade the liver cells and then the red blood cells, leading to the symptoms of malaria. Other options such as chlamydia, rickettsiae, and mycoplasma are not associated with causing malaria.

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  • 3. 

    Which stage of infection is the period of tiem between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?

    • A.

      Illness

    • B.

      Virulence

    • C.

      Incubation

    • D.

      Convalescence

    Correct Answer
    C. Incubation
    Explanation
    The incubation period is the stage of infection where the infectious agent has entered the body but symptoms of the disease have not yet appeared. During this period, the pathogen is multiplying inside the body and establishing an infection. The length of the incubation period can vary depending on the specific disease and the individual's immune response. Once the incubation period ends, the individual may start experiencing symptoms and enter the next stage of the infection.

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  • 4. 

    The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through

    • A.

      Cilia

    • B.

      Sneezing

    • C.

      Handwashing

    • D.

      The lymphatic system

    Correct Answer
    A. Cilia
    Explanation
    Cilia are small, hair-like structures found on the surface of certain cells in the body, including the cells lining the mucous membranes. These cilia move in coordinated waves, creating a current that helps to move mucus and trapped foreign particles out of the respiratory tract. This helps to prevent these particles from entering the lungs and causing damage or infection. Therefore, cilia play an important role in filtering and trapping foreign bodies, making them the correct answer in this case.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaution?

    • A.

      Airborne

    • B.

      Droplet

    • C.

      Contact

    • D.

      Enteric

    Correct Answer
    D. Enteric
    Explanation
    Enteric is not a type of transmission-based precaution. Transmission-based precautions are infection control measures used to prevent the spread of specific infectious agents. Airborne, droplet, and contact precautions are common types of transmission-based precautions used in healthcare settings. Enteric refers to diseases that primarily affect the gastrointestinal tract, such as gastrointestinal infections, and is not classified as a type of transmission-based precaution.

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  • 6. 

    What is the most serious type of meningitis?

    • A.

      Viral

    • B.

      Serum

    • C.

      Bacterial

    • D.

      Pneumococcal

    Correct Answer
    C. Bacterial
    Explanation
    Bacterial meningitis is the most serious type of meningitis because it is caused by bacteria that can rapidly spread and cause inflammation in the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. This type of meningitis can lead to severe complications such as brain damage, hearing loss, and even death if not treated promptly. Viral meningitis, on the other hand, is usually less severe and resolves on its own without specific treatment. Serum and pneumococcal are not types of meningitis but rather terms related to blood and a specific bacteria respectively.

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  • 7. 

    Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored, negative air pressure?

    • A.

      Droplet

    • B.

      Contact

    • C.

      Airborne

    • D.

      Respiratory

    Correct Answer
    C. Airborne
    Explanation
    Airborne transmission-based precaution requires the use of negative air pressure rooms to prevent the spread of infectious agents. Negative air pressure ensures that air flows into the room, preventing contaminated air from escaping and spreading to other areas. This precaution is necessary for diseases that can be transmitted through small particles suspended in the air, such as tuberculosis or measles.

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  • 8. 

    One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop form gonorrhea is

    • A.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease

    • B.

      Irregular menstral cycles

    • C.

      Vaginal discharge

    • D.

      Chlamydia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
    Explanation
    Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common and serious complication that can develop in females with gonorrhea. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. If left untreated, the infection can spread from the cervix to the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries, leading to PID. PID can cause severe pelvic pain, fever, abnormal vaginal discharge, and can lead to infertility or ectopic pregnancy if not treated promptly. Therefore, PID is the correct answer as it is a significant complication associated with gonorrhea in females.

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  • 9. 

    Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organisms on living tissue?

    • A.

      Medical sepsis

    • B.

      Medical asepsis

    • C.

      Surgical sepsis

    • D.

      Surgical asepsis

    Correct Answer
    D. Surgical asepsis
    Explanation
    Surgical asepsis refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organisms on living tissue. This term specifically relates to procedures performed in surgical settings, where it is crucial to maintain a sterile environment to prevent infections and complications. Surgical asepsis involves techniques such as sterilization, disinfection, and the use of sterile equipment and supplies to minimize the risk of introducing harmful micro-organisms into the surgical site.

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  • 10. 

    Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?

    • A.

      Disinfectant

    • B.

      Antiseptic

    • C.

      Detergent

    • D.

      Antitoxin

    Correct Answer
    B. Antiseptic
    Explanation
    Antiseptics are substances that are used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue. Unlike disinfectants, which are used on non-living surfaces, antiseptics are specifically designed to be used on the skin or other living tissues to prevent infection. They are commonly used in medical settings, such as before surgery or to clean wounds, to kill or prevent the growth of bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Antiseptics are an essential part of maintaining hygiene and preventing the spread of infections in healthcare settings.

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  • 11. 

    What type of isolation are patients highly susceptible to infection placed in?

    • A.

      Airborne

    • B.

      Droplet

    • C.

      Contact

    • D.

      Reverse

    Correct Answer
    D. Reverse
    Explanation
    Patients who are highly susceptible to infection are placed in reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a protective measure used to prevent patients from being exposed to harmful pathogens. It involves isolating the patient in a specially designed room with controlled airflow and strict hygiene protocols. This type of isolation is commonly used for patients with compromised immune systems, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or organ transplantation, to minimize the risk of infection.

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  • 12. 

    What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department?

    • A.

      You must don gown, mask, and gloves prior to transporting the patient

    • B.

      Notify all hospital personnel so they can take necessary precautions

    • C.

      Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport

    • D.

      Hospital polic does not permit transport of infectious patients

    Correct Answer
    C. Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport
    Explanation
    When transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department, it is necessary to give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport. This is important to prevent the spread of infection to others during the transportation process. Gown, mask, and gloves act as protective barriers and help minimize the risk of transmission. Additionally, notifying all hospital personnel allows them to take necessary precautions and maintain a safe environment for both the patient and healthcare workers.

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  • 13. 

    An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is

    • A.

      A storage cart

    • B.

      An isolation cart

    • C.

      The supply room

    • D.

      The nurse's station

    Correct Answer
    B. An isolation cart
    Explanation
    An isolation cart is an acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit because it provides a designated space to store and organize all the necessary supplies and equipment needed for isolation precautions. It allows healthcare workers to easily access and transport items such as personal protective equipment, disinfectants, and patient care supplies, while maintaining infection control measures. The isolation cart helps to streamline workflow and minimize the risk of cross-contamination by keeping everything in one place, making it a practical and efficient solution for isolation units.

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  • 14. 

    When using a maks in an isolation unit, put the mask on

    • A.

      After entering the unit, and take off before leaving

    • B.

      After entering the unit, and take it off after leaving

    • C.

      Before entering, and take it off before leaving

    • D.

      Before entering, and take it off after leaving

    Correct Answer
    C. Before entering, and take it off before leaving
    Explanation
    It is important to put the mask on before entering the isolation unit to ensure that any potential contaminants are filtered out. Additionally, it is necessary to keep the mask on while inside the unit to maintain a barrier between the individual and any potential pathogens. After leaving the unit, the mask should be taken off before leaving to prevent any potential contaminants from spreading outside of the unit. Therefore, the correct answer is to put the mask on before entering and take it off before leaving.

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  • 15. 

    What is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization?

    • A.

      Cleaning

    • B.

      Disinfection

    • C.

      Pasteurization

    • D.

      Decontamination

    Correct Answer
    A. Cleaning
    Explanation
    The first step in preparing objects for sterilization is cleaning. Cleaning involves removing dirt, debris, and organic material from the objects to ensure that they are free from any visible contamination. This step is essential because sterilization is most effective on clean surfaces. Once the objects are cleaned, they can then undergo further steps such as disinfection, pasteurization, or decontamination to eliminate any remaining microorganisms.

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  • 16. 

    How long is an item immersed in sterilant during the sterilizaiton cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer?

    • A.

      Three minutes

    • B.

      Five minutes

    • C.

      Ten minutes

    • D.

      Twelve minutes

    Correct Answer
    D. Twelve minutes
    Explanation
    During the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer, an item is immersed in sterilant for twelve minutes. This duration allows enough time for the peracetic acid sterilant to effectively kill microorganisms and ensure the item is properly sterilized.

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  • 17. 

    Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?

    • A.

      Formaldehydes

    • B.

      Hydrochloric acid

    • C.

      Phenolics

    • D.

      Alcohol

    Correct Answer
    B. Hydrochloric acid
    Explanation
    Hydrochloric acid is not a commonly used disinfecting agent because it is a strong acid that can cause severe burns and damage to living tissues. It is primarily used for industrial purposes such as cleaning and etching metals, rather than for disinfection. Commonly used disinfecting agents include formaldehydes, phenolics, and alcohol, which are effective in killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms.

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  • 18. 

    How often do you clean and inspect steam sterilizers?

    • A.

      Daily

    • B.

      Daily and weekly

    • C.

      Daily and monthly

    • D.

      Weekly and monthly

    Correct Answer
    B. Daily and weekly
    Explanation
    Steam sterilizers need to be cleaned and inspected regularly to ensure their proper functioning and to prevent the buildup of contaminants. Daily cleaning helps to remove any visible debris or residue from the sterilizer, while weekly cleaning allows for a more thorough cleaning of the internal components. Regular inspections help to identify any potential issues or malfunctions that may affect the sterilization process. Therefore, a combination of daily and weekly cleaning and inspection is necessary to maintain the steam sterilizer's effectiveness and safety.

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  • 19. 

    Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every

    • A.

      Load

    • B.

      Other load

    • C.

      12 hours

    • D.

      24 hours

    Correct Answer
    D. 24 hours
    Explanation
    Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every 24 hours. This frequency ensures that the sterilizer is functioning properly and effectively sterilizing the equipment or items being processed. Regular testing helps identify any potential issues or malfunctions in the sterilizer, allowing for timely repairs or adjustments to maintain the desired level of sterilization.

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  • 20. 

    How often should biological testing be conducted and documented for hydorgen peroxide plasma sterilizers?

    • A.

      Every load

    • B.

      Every 30 loads

    • C.

      At least once per day

    • D.

      At least once per week

    Correct Answer
    C. At least once per day
    Explanation
    Biological testing should be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers at least once per day to ensure the effectiveness of the sterilization process. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and identification of any potential issues or failures in the sterilization process, ensuring that the sterilizers are functioning properly and producing sterile equipment. Regular testing also helps to maintain compliance with regulatory standards and guidelines for sterilization practices.

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  • 21. 

    Which basic human need category is rest included in?

    • A.

      Safety

    • B.

      Security

    • C.

      Self-esteem

    • D.

      Physiological

    Correct Answer
    D. Physiological
    Explanation
    Rest is included in the physiological category of basic human needs. This category encompasses the fundamental biological requirements for survival, such as food, water, sleep, and shelter. Rest, in the form of sleep or relaxation, is essential for maintaining physical health and well-being. It allows the body to recharge, repair, and restore energy levels. Without adequate rest, individuals may experience various negative effects on their physical and mental health. Therefore, rest is a crucial aspect of fulfilling our physiological needs.

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  • 22. 

    Which vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells?

    • A.

      Vitamins A

    • B.

      Vitamins K

    • C.

      Ascorbic acid

    • D.

      B-complex vitamins

    Correct Answer
    D. B-complex vitamins
    Explanation
    B-complex vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells. These vitamins, including vitamin B12, folate, and vitamin B6, play a crucial role in the synthesis of DNA, which is essential for the production of new red blood cells. They also help in the formation of hemoglobin, the protein responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood. Deficiency of B-complex vitamins can lead to impaired red blood cell production, resulting in conditions like anemia. Therefore, ensuring an adequate intake of B-complex vitamins is important for the proper functioning of red blood cell production.

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  • 23. 

    What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?

    • A.

      Iron

    • B.

      Soy

    • C.

      Niacin

    • D.

      Calcium

    Correct Answer
    A. Iron
    Explanation
    Iron is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis because it is a key component of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. Iron binds to oxygen in the lungs and releases it to the tissues, ensuring that cells receive the oxygen they need for energy production. Without sufficient iron, the body cannot produce enough hemoglobin, leading to a condition called iron deficiency anemia.

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  • 24. 

    Plasma lipids include what three substances?

    • A.

      Vitamins, minerals, and herbs

    • B.

      Water, sucrose, and polyunsaturated fats

    • C.

      Nitorgen, carbon dioxide, and glucosaccaride

    • D.

      Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol

    Correct Answer
    D. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol
    Explanation
    Plasma lipids are a type of fat found in the bloodstream. They include triglycerides, which are the most common type of fat in the body and are used for energy storage. Phospholipids are another type of lipid that make up the cell membranes and help with cell signaling. Cholesterol is a waxy substance that is used to produce hormones, vitamin D, and bile acids. Together, these three substances play important roles in the body's metabolism and overall health.

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  • 25. 

    What two actions are included in the physiological need of rest?

    • A.

      Rest and activity.

    • B.

      Pain free and rest

    • C.

      Activity and pain free

    • D.

      Pain free and exercise

    Correct Answer
    B. Pain free and rest
    Explanation
    The physiological need of rest includes two actions: being pain free and getting rest. Pain free refers to the absence of physical discomfort or distress, while rest refers to a period of relaxation and recovery. Both pain free and rest are essential for the body to rejuvenate and restore its energy levels.

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  • 26. 

    What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs?

    • A.

      Babinski

    • B.

      Grasping

    • C.

      Rooting

    • D.

      Moro

    Correct Answer
    D. Moro
    Explanation
    The Moro reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs. This reflex is also known as the startle reflex and is a normal response in newborns. It is believed to be a protective mechanism that helps the infant respond to potential threats or dangers in their environment. The sudden movement of the limbs is thought to be an instinctive attempt to regain balance and stability.

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  • 27. 

    A toddler is expected to weigh four tiems the birth weight at age

    • A.

      12 months

    • B.

      18 months

    • C.

      24 months

    • D.

      30 months

    Correct Answer
    C. 24 months
    Explanation
    A toddler is expected to weigh four times their birth weight at the age of 24 months. This is because infants typically experience rapid growth in the first year of life, with their weight doubling by 6 months and tripling by 12 months. By the age of 24 months, most toddlers have reached their peak rate of growth and have gained four times their birth weight.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?

    • A.

      Blood pressure screenings

    • B.

      Assessing current fitness status

    • C.

      Establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants

    • D.

      Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood pressure screenings
    Explanation
    Blood pressure screenings are most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program because they are a common method to assess and monitor employees' health. By conducting regular screenings, employers can identify individuals with high blood pressure and provide them with appropriate interventions and resources to manage their condition. This proactive approach promotes employee health and well-being, ultimately contributing to a healthier work environment.

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  • 29. 

    What substance does the body need in order o absorb vitamin B12?

    • A.

      Gastric acid

    • B.

      Intrinsic factor

    • C.

      Hydrogen ions

    • D.

      Red blood cells

    Correct Answer
    B. Intrinsic factor
    Explanation
    The body needs intrinsic factor in order to absorb vitamin B12. Intrinsic factor is a protein that is produced by the stomach lining and is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. It binds to vitamin B12 and allows it to be absorbed into the bloodstream. Without intrinsic factor, the body would not be able to effectively absorb and utilize vitamin B12, which is important for the production of red blood cells and the proper functioning of the nervous system.

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  • 30. 

    B12 deficiency are first noted by

    • A.

      Aplastic anemia

    • B.

      Hemolytic anemia

    • C.

      Pericious anemia

    • D.

      Sickle cell anemia

    Correct Answer
    C. Pericious anemia
    Explanation
    Pericious anemia is a type of anemia that occurs due to a deficiency in vitamin B12. The symptoms of B12 deficiency are often first noted through the development of pericious anemia. This condition is characterized by the body's inability to absorb enough B12 from the diet, leading to a decrease in the production of healthy red blood cells. As a result, individuals with pericious anemia may experience fatigue, weakness, pale skin, shortness of breath, and other symptoms associated with anemia. Therefore, the correct answer is pericious anemia.

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  • 31. 

    Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through

    • A.

      Dehydration

    • B.

      Packaging

    • C.

      Cooking

    • D.

      Freezing

    Correct Answer
    D. Freezing
    Explanation
    Freezing is the correct answer because it can cause a loss in the concentration of Vitamin B6 in food sources. Freezing can lead to the breakdown of the vitamin, resulting in a decrease in its concentration. This is because the freezing process can cause the cells in the food to rupture, leading to the release and degradation of the vitamin. Therefore, freezing can be a factor that contributes to the loss of Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources.

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  • 32. 

    Large doses of vitamin C cause all of the following except

    • A.

      Heartburn

    • B.

      Constipaiton

    • C.

      Kidney stones

    • D.

      Abdominal cramps

    Correct Answer
    B. Constipaiton
    Explanation
    Large doses of vitamin C can cause various side effects, including heartburn, kidney stones, and abdominal cramps. However, constipation is not typically associated with high doses of vitamin C. In fact, vitamin C is often used to relieve constipation due to its ability to soften stools and promote bowel movements. Therefore, constipation is the exception among the mentioned side effects of large doses of vitamin C.

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  • 33. 

    Vitamin D interacts with all of the following except

    • A.

      Digitalis

    • B.

      Calcium

    • C.

      Mineral oil

    • D.

      Thiazide diuretics

    Correct Answer
    B. Calcium
    Explanation
    Vitamin D interacts with all of the options listed except calcium. Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium from the diet and regulates calcium levels in the blood. It works together with calcium to support bone health and prevent conditions like osteoporosis. Digitalis is a medication used to treat heart conditions, and there is no known interaction between vitamin D and digitalis. Mineral oil is a laxative and does not interact with vitamin D. Thiazide diuretics are a type of medication used to treat high blood pressure, and while they may affect calcium levels in the body, there is no direct interaction between thiazide diuretics and vitamin D.

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  • 34. 

    A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the disease process of

    • A.

      Rickets

    • B.

      Night blindness

    • C.

      Pernicuious anemia

    • D.

      Prolonged clotting times

    Correct Answer
    D. Prolonged clotting times
    Explanation
    Vitamin E plays a crucial role in blood clotting, so an overdose of this vitamin can lead to prolonged clotting times. This means that it takes longer for the blood to clot, which can result in excessive bleeding and difficulty in stopping bleeding. This symptom is a primary sign of a vitamin E overdose, indicating that the body has an excess amount of vitamin E that is affecting the normal clotting process.

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  • 35. 

    Vitamin K is not used to treat which of the following ailments?

    • A.

      Ulcerative colitis

    • B.

      Heparin overdose

    • C.

      Malabsorption syndromes

    • D.

      Prolonged use of salicylates

    Correct Answer
    B. Heparin overdose
    Explanation
    Vitamin K is not used to treat heparin overdose because heparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent blood clotting, while vitamin K is involved in the process of blood clotting. Therefore, giving vitamin K to someone who has overdosed on heparin would counteract the effects of the medication and potentially increase the risk of blood clot formation.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble?

    • A.

      Vitamin A

    • B.

      Vitamin C

    • C.

      Vitamin E

    • D.

      Vitamin K

    Correct Answer
    B. Vitamin C
    Explanation
    Vitamin C is not fat-soluble because it is a water-soluble vitamin. Unlike fat-soluble vitamins, which are stored in the body's fat tissues, water-soluble vitamins are not stored and are instead excreted through urine. Vitamin C is important for collagen synthesis, immune function, and antioxidant activity. It is found in fruits and vegetables, and its deficiency can lead to scurvy.

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  • 37. 

    Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen

    • A.

      During a blood transfusion

    • B.

      As a result of not using table salt

    • C.

      When an individual is unable to sink in water

    • D.

      Trhough an excessive amount of fluid loss

    Correct Answer
    D. Trhough an excessive amount of fluid loss
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "through an excessive amount of fluid loss". Sodium chloride, also known as salt, is an essential electrolyte that helps maintain fluid balance in the body. When there is a significant loss of fluids, such as through sweating, vomiting, or diarrhea, sodium chloride levels can become depleted. This can lead to symptoms of sodium chloride deficiency, such as muscle cramps, weakness, dizziness, and low blood pressure. Therefore, the signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

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  • 38. 

    Half-normal saline solution is represented by

    • A.

      0.2%

    • B.

      0.40%

    • C.

      0.45%

    • D.

      0.50%

    Correct Answer
    C. 0.45%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.45%. Half-normal saline solution is a solution that contains 0.45% sodium chloride (NaCl) in water. This concentration is commonly used in medical settings for various purposes, such as intravenous fluid replacement or irrigation of wounds. The other options provided (0.2%, 0.40%, and 0.50%) do not represent the concentration of a half-normal saline solution.

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  • 39. 

    Potassium helps to maintain

    • A.

      Facial muscle tone

    • B.

      Clarity of eye sight

    • C.

      Heartbeat regulation

    • D.

      Alertness int he cerebellum

    Correct Answer
    C. Heartbeat regulation
    Explanation
    Potassium is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of fluids and electrolytes in the body. One of its important functions is to regulate the heartbeat. Potassium helps in transmitting electrical impulses that control the contraction and relaxation of the heart muscles. It ensures that the heart beats at a steady rhythm and maintains a healthy heart rate. Therefore, the correct answer is heartbeat regulation.

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  • 40. 

    Caution must be taken when administering potassium to individuals with all of the following except

    • A.

      Diabetes

    • B.

      Gastric ulcers

    • C.

      Cardiac disease

    • D.

      Renal impairment

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetes
    Explanation
    Potassium should not be administered with caution in individuals with diabetes. Potassium is important for maintaining normal blood sugar levels and insulin release. In fact, individuals with diabetes often have low levels of potassium and may require supplementation. Therefore, caution is not necessary when administering potassium to individuals with diabetes.

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  • 41. 

    Oral iron supplements should not be taken with

    • A.

      Coffee, cranberry juice or water

    • B.

      Orange or grapefruit juice

    • C.

      Soda, water, or milk

    • D.

      Tea, milk or coffee

    Correct Answer
    D. Tea, milk or coffee
    Explanation
    Taking oral iron supplements with tea, milk, or coffee is not recommended. This is because these beverages contain compounds that can interfere with the absorption of iron in the body. Tea and coffee contain tannins, which can bind to iron and prevent its absorption. Milk contains calcium, which can also inhibit iron absorption. Therefore, it is best to avoid consuming tea, milk, or coffee when taking oral iron supplements to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the supplement.

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  • 42. 

    Which route is injectable iron administered?

    • A.

      Intra muscular

    • B.

      Intra venous

    • C.

      Transdermal

    • D.

      Z-track

    Correct Answer
    A. Intra muscular
    Explanation
    Injectable iron is administered intramuscularly because it allows for the slow release and absorption of the iron into the bloodstream. This route of administration ensures that the iron is delivered directly into the muscle tissue, where it can be gradually absorbed and utilized by the body. Intramuscular injections are commonly used for medications that need to be absorbed slowly and steadily over time.

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  • 43. 

    When larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules, this is known as

    • A.

      Attraction

    • B.

      Catabolism

    • C.

      Anabolism

    • D.

      Cataclysm

    Correct Answer
    C. Anabolism
    Explanation
    Anabolism refers to the process of constructing larger molecules from smaller molecules. It involves the synthesis of complex molecules such as proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids, which are essential for growth and maintenance of the body. This process requires energy input and is responsible for building and repairing tissues, as well as storing energy for future use.

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  • 44. 

    Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of

    • A.

      Muscle

    • B.

      Protein

    • C.

      Glucose

    • D.

      Enzyme

    Correct Answer
    D. Enzyme
    Explanation
    Cellular metabolism refers to the chemical reactions that take place within a cell to sustain life. These reactions require specific proteins called enzymes to catalyze the necessary biochemical reactions. Enzymes are biological molecules that speed up the rate of chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to occur. They are highly specific and only interact with specific substrates, in this case, glucose. Therefore, enzymes play a crucial role in controlling cellular metabolism by facilitating the breakdown of glucose and other molecules to produce energy and other essential cellular components.

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  • 45. 

    Electorlytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called

    • A.

      Salts

    • B.

      Acids

    • C.

      Catalyzed

    • D.

      Synthesized

    Correct Answer
    B. Acids
    Explanation
    Electorlytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called acids. Acids are substances that can donate hydrogen ions (H+) to a solution, making it more acidic. When dissolved in water, acids dissociate into H+ ions and an anion. This dissociation process allows the acid to release hydrogen ions, making it an electrolyte. Therefore, the correct answer is acids.

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  • 46. 

    When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized it can be noted by

    • A.

      Excessive thirst and nocturia

    • B.

      Acetone in the breath and urine

    • C.

      Constant hunger despite calorie intake

    • D.

      Severe vomiting resulting in weight loss

    Correct Answer
    B. Acetone in the breath and urine
    Explanation
    When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, the body produces ketones as a byproduct. Acetone is one type of ketone that can be detected in the breath and urine. Therefore, the presence of acetone in the breath and urine indicates that there is an excessive amount of fat being metabolized in the body. This can be a sign of conditions such as uncontrolled diabetes or a high-fat diet.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes?

    • A.

      Protect against disease at the cellular level

    • B.

      The body's only defense against infection

    • C.

      Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body

    • D.

      Carry amino acids to the kidneys for decontamination and excretion

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect against disease at the cellular level
    Explanation
    Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are an important component of the immune system. They play a crucial role in protecting the body against diseases by defending against pathogens and foreign substances at the cellular level. Leukocytes are responsible for identifying and destroying harmful microorganisms, such as bacteria and viruses, as well as removing damaged cells and toxins from the body. Their ability to recognize and eliminate threats makes them an essential defense mechanism against infections and diseases.

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  • 48. 

    The two main categories of leukocytes are

    • A.

      Agranulocytes and basophils

    • B.

      Granulocytes and agranulocytes

    • C.

      Neurtophils and granulocytes

    • D.

      Monophils and lymphocytes

    Correct Answer
    B. Granulocytes and agranulocytes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is granulocytes and agranulocytes. Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are divided into two main categories based on the presence or absence of granules in their cytoplasm. Granulocytes are characterized by the presence of granules, which contain enzymes and other substances involved in immune responses. Agranulocytes, on the other hand, do not have visible granules. They play a crucial role in immune responses and are further divided into lymphocytes and monocytes.

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  • 49. 

    Neutrophils are also known as

    • A.

      Polypeptides

    • B.

      Polysaccharides

    • C.

      Multigranulocytes

    • D.

      Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

    Correct Answer
    D. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that are characterized by their multi-lobed nucleus, giving them the name "polymorphonuclear leukocytes." They are an important part of the immune system and are involved in the body's defense against bacterial infections. Neutrophils are not polypeptides or polysaccharides, as those terms refer to different types of molecules. "Multigranulocytes" is not a commonly used term to describe neutrophils, and the correct term is "polymorphonuclear leukocytes."

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  • 50. 

    The life span of lymphocytes is

    • A.

      12 hours

    • B.

      2 weeks

    • C.

      Years

    • D.

      Days

    Correct Answer
    C. Years
    Explanation
    Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system. They have a relatively long life span compared to other blood cells, ranging from a few months to several years. This allows them to provide long-term immunity against pathogens and maintain immune memory. Therefore, the correct answer is "years".

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 11, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Awalk521
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