4N051 B Volume 1

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  • 1/108 Questions

    Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaution?

    • Airborne
    • Droplet
    • Contact
    • Enteric
Please wait...
Pathogens Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

The '4N051 B Volume 1' quiz assesses knowledge on pathogens, infection stages, and disease prevention. It covers critical topics such as the causative agents of diseases like malaria, mechanisms of mucous membranes, and types of meningitis, essential for learners in health-related fields.

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  • 2. 

    One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop form gonorrhea is

    • Pelvic inflammatory disease

    • Irregular menstral cycles

    • Vaginal discharge

    • Chlamydia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
    Explanation
    Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common and serious complication that can develop in females with gonorrhea. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. If left untreated, the infection can spread from the cervix to the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries, leading to PID. PID can cause severe pelvic pain, fever, abnormal vaginal discharge, and can lead to infertility or ectopic pregnancy if not treated promptly. Therefore, PID is the correct answer as it is a significant complication associated with gonorrhea in females.

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  • 3. 

    The bodys first step in the healing process is

    • Inflammation

    • Collecting

    • Infection

    • Bruising

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation
    Explanation
    Inflammation is the body's initial response to injury or infection. When tissues are damaged, the body releases chemicals that cause blood vessels to dilate, allowing more blood flow to the affected area. This increased blood flow brings immune cells to the site of injury or infection, helping to remove debris and fight off any potential pathogens. Inflammation also helps to create a protective barrier around the injured area, preventing further damage and promoting the healing process. Therefore, inflammation is the body's first step in initiating the healing process.

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  • 4. 

    When can the minor surgery procedure begin?

    • When the provider says its a good time

    • After the consent form is signed

    • Once a set of vital signs are repeated

    • Only after housekeeping has cleaned the room

    Correct Answer
    A. After the consent form is signed
    Explanation
    The minor surgery procedure can begin after the consent form is signed. This is because obtaining consent is a crucial step in any medical procedure to ensure that the patient fully understands the risks and benefits involved and gives their informed consent. Once the consent form is signed, the provider can proceed with the surgery knowing that the patient has agreed to it.

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  • 5. 

    When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's righ forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would the next step be?

    • Begin sutruing

    • Flush the wound

    • Dig out the debris with an allis clamp

    • Soak the wound in an antibiotic solution

    Correct Answer
    A. Flush the wound
    Explanation
    The next step would be to flush the wound. This is important to remove any foreign material or debris that may be present in the wound, reducing the risk of infection. Flushing the wound with a sterile saline solution or clean water helps to clean the area and promote healing. It is a standard procedure in wound care to ensure proper cleaning before further treatment, such as suturing or applying any antibiotic solution.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

    • Antigen

    • Antibody

    • Pathogen

    • Micro-organism

    Correct Answer
    A. Pathogen
    Explanation
    A pathogen is an organism that is capable of causing infection and disease. It refers to any microorganism, such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites, that can invade the body and disrupt its normal functioning. Pathogens have the ability to multiply and spread within the host, leading to various symptoms and health issues. Unlike antigens and antibodies, which are components of the immune system, a pathogen is an external entity that poses a threat to the body's well-being.

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  • 7. 

    An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is

    • A storage cart

    • An isolation cart

    • The supply room

    • The nurse's station

    Correct Answer
    A. An isolation cart
    Explanation
    An isolation cart is an acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit because it provides a designated space to store and organize all the necessary supplies and equipment needed for isolation precautions. It allows healthcare workers to easily access and transport items such as personal protective equipment, disinfectants, and patient care supplies, while maintaining infection control measures. The isolation cart helps to streamline workflow and minimize the risk of cross-contamination by keeping everything in one place, making it a practical and efficient solution for isolation units.

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  • 8. 

    Which basic human need category is rest included in?

    • Safety

    • Security

    • Self-esteem

    • Physiological

    Correct Answer
    A. Physiological
    Explanation
    Rest is included in the physiological category of basic human needs. This category encompasses the fundamental biological requirements for survival, such as food, water, sleep, and shelter. Rest, in the form of sleep or relaxation, is essential for maintaining physical health and well-being. It allows the body to recharge, repair, and restore energy levels. Without adequate rest, individuals may experience various negative effects on their physical and mental health. Therefore, rest is a crucial aspect of fulfilling our physiological needs.

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  • 9. 

    When asking the patient if he or she wears glasses, contact lenses or if he or she has ever had eye problems prior to conducting an Optec 2300 Vision Tester exam, the patient's responses will determine

    • Sequence of test performance

    • The patients eligibility for care

    • If glasses are provided free of charge

    • How soon an appointment should be made

    Correct Answer
    A. Sequence of test performance
    Explanation
    The patient's responses to questions about wearing glasses, contact lenses, and previous eye problems will determine the sequence in which the tests will be performed during the Optec 2300 Vision Tester exam. This is because certain tests may need to be prioritized based on the patient's specific eye conditions or needs. For example, if the patient wears contact lenses, it may be necessary to perform tests that assess the cornea's health before conducting other tests. Therefore, the patient's responses will guide the order in which the tests are conducted to ensure an efficient and accurate examination.

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  • 10. 

    Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called

    • Artifacts

    • Disturbances

    • Random waves

    • Deflection waves

    Correct Answer
    A. Artifacts
    Explanation
    Artifacts refer to any artificial products or features that appear on an electrocardiogram tracing. These can include interference from external sources, such as electrical equipment or muscle movement, that can distort the accuracy of the ECG reading. It is important to identify and eliminate artifacts to ensure an accurate interpretation of the patient's heart activity.

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  • 11. 

    In the Air Force, how often should you check emergency equipment and supplies in the crash ambulance?

    • Daily

    • Weekly

    • Bimonthly

    • Monthly

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    In the Air Force, emergency equipment and supplies in the crash ambulance should be checked daily. This is important to ensure that the equipment is in proper working condition and ready to be used in case of an emergency. Regular checks help identify any issues or malfunctions that need to be addressed promptly, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the equipment.

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  • 12. 

    Which stage of infection is the period of tiem between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?

    • Illness

    • Virulence

    • Incubation

    • Convalescence

    Correct Answer
    A. Incubation
    Explanation
    The incubation period is the stage of infection where the infectious agent has entered the body but symptoms of the disease have not yet appeared. During this period, the pathogen is multiplying inside the body and establishing an infection. The length of the incubation period can vary depending on the specific disease and the individual's immune response. Once the incubation period ends, the individual may start experiencing symptoms and enter the next stage of the infection.

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  • 13. 

    Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen

    • During a blood transfusion

    • As a result of not using table salt

    • When an individual is unable to sink in water

    • Trhough an excessive amount of fluid loss

    Correct Answer
    A. Trhough an excessive amount of fluid loss
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "through an excessive amount of fluid loss". Sodium chloride, also known as salt, is an essential electrolyte that helps maintain fluid balance in the body. When there is a significant loss of fluids, such as through sweating, vomiting, or diarrhea, sodium chloride levels can become depleted. This can lead to symptoms of sodium chloride deficiency, such as muscle cramps, weakness, dizziness, and low blood pressure. Therefore, the signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

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  • 14. 

    When transmitting information abot a patient over the radio what information ahould not be broadcast?

    • Age

    • Name

    • Chief complaint

    • Medications and allergies

    Correct Answer
    A. Name
    Explanation
    When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, the name should not be broadcast. This is because sharing a patient's name can violate their privacy and confidentiality. It is important to protect the patient's personal information and only share necessary details for the purpose of the transmission.

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  • 15. 

    The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical techinican (EMT) is called

    • Expanded primary survey

    • Secondary survey

    • Trauma history

    • Scene sizeup

    Correct Answer
    A. Scene sizeup
    Explanation
    Scene sizeup refers to the action of assessing the scene of an accident or emergency situation to gather valuable information that can assist the emergency medical technician (EMT) in providing appropriate care. This includes evaluating the safety of the scene, identifying potential hazards or dangers, determining the number of patients involved, and assessing the need for additional resources or specialized equipment. By conducting a thorough scene sizeup, the EMT can make informed decisions and prioritize interventions to ensure the safety and well-being of both patients and responders.

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  • 16. 

    What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department?

    • You must don gown, mask, and gloves prior to transporting the patient

    • Notify all hospital personnel so they can take necessary precautions

    • Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport

    • Hospital polic does not permit transport of infectious patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport
    Explanation
    When transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department, it is necessary to give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport. This is important to prevent the spread of infection to others during the transportation process. Gown, mask, and gloves act as protective barriers and help minimize the risk of transmission. Additionally, notifying all hospital personnel allows them to take necessary precautions and maintain a safe environment for both the patient and healthcare workers.

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  • 17. 

    When preparing to unload a patient from an ambulance, what should you do first?

    • Turn the ocygen off in the amublance

    • Ensure all straps are secured on the patient

    • Make a list of supplies that neeed to be restocked

    • Place an emergency medical technician on either side of the strecher as it is rolled ou

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure all straps are secured on the patient
    Explanation
    Before unloading a patient from an ambulance, the first thing you should do is ensure all straps are secured on the patient. This is important for the safety and stability of the patient during the unloading process. Securing the straps will prevent any potential injuries or falls while transferring the patient from the ambulance to the stretcher or any other destination. Once the patient is securely strapped, the unloading process can proceed smoothly and safely.

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  • 18. 

    Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians int eh field to describe a possible fracture

    • Range of motion (ROM)

    • Painful, swollen deformity(PSD)

    • Purified protein derivative (PPD)

    • Alert verbal painful unresponsive (AVPU)

    Correct Answer
    A. Painful, swollen deformity(PSD)
    Explanation
    Emergency medical technicians use the acronym "PSD" to describe a possible fracture. This acronym stands for "Painful, swollen deformity." When a fracture occurs, it often causes pain, swelling, and a visible deformity in the affected area. Therefore, using the acronym PSD helps EMTs quickly communicate the possibility of a fracture and prioritize appropriate medical interventions.

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  • 19. 

    What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?

    • Iron

    • Soy

    • Niacin

    • Calcium

    Correct Answer
    A. Iron
    Explanation
    Iron is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis because it is a key component of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. Iron binds to oxygen in the lungs and releases it to the tissues, ensuring that cells receive the oxygen they need for energy production. Without sufficient iron, the body cannot produce enough hemoglobin, leading to a condition called iron deficiency anemia.

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  • 20. 

    Plasma lipids include what three substances?

    • Vitamins, minerals, and herbs

    • Water, sucrose, and polyunsaturated fats

    • Nitorgen, carbon dioxide, and glucosaccaride

    • Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol

    Correct Answer
    A. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol
    Explanation
    Plasma lipids are a type of fat found in the bloodstream. They include triglycerides, which are the most common type of fat in the body and are used for energy storage. Phospholipids are another type of lipid that make up the cell membranes and help with cell signaling. Cholesterol is a waxy substance that is used to produce hormones, vitamin D, and bile acids. Together, these three substances play important roles in the body's metabolism and overall health.

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  • 21. 

    Full maturation of a wound is evident when

    • New capillaries form

    • The scar is deep red in color

    • The scaring is white and glossy

    • A scab completely covers the wound

    Correct Answer
    A. The scaring is white and glossy
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the scarring is white and glossy." This suggests that the wound has fully matured because the scar has changed in appearance and texture. When a wound is healing, it typically starts with a scab that eventually falls off, revealing a pink or red scar. Over time, the scar may fade and become white and glossy, indicating that the wound has fully healed and the skin has regenerated.

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  • 22. 

    During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away?

    • To allow the blood to clot

    • To prevent spillage of blood

    • It contains phagocytes, which may interfere with test results

    • It contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results

    Correct Answer
    A. It contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results
    Explanation
    The first drop of blood is wiped away during a skin puncture because it contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results. Epithelial cells are found on the surface of the skin and can contaminate the blood sample, potentially affecting the accuracy of the test. By wiping away the first drop of blood, any epithelial cells present are removed, ensuring a cleaner and more accurate sample for testing.

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  • 23. 

    Which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria?

    • Sporozoa

    • Chlamydia

    • Rickettsiae

    • Mycoplasma

    Correct Answer
    A. Sporozoa
    Explanation
    Sporozoa is the correct answer because it is the classification of organisms responsible for causing the disease malaria. Sporozoa are a group of parasitic protozoa that have complex life cycles involving both sexual and asexual reproduction. They are transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Once inside the human body, the sporozoites invade the liver cells and then the red blood cells, leading to the symptoms of malaria. Other options such as chlamydia, rickettsiae, and mycoplasma are not associated with causing malaria.

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  • 24. 

    The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through

    • Cilia

    • Sneezing

    • Handwashing

    • The lymphatic system

    Correct Answer
    A. Cilia
    Explanation
    Cilia are small, hair-like structures found on the surface of certain cells in the body, including the cells lining the mucous membranes. These cilia move in coordinated waves, creating a current that helps to move mucus and trapped foreign particles out of the respiratory tract. This helps to prevent these particles from entering the lungs and causing damage or infection. Therefore, cilia play an important role in filtering and trapping foreign bodies, making them the correct answer in this case.

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  • 25. 

    What is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization?

    • Cleaning

    • Disinfection

    • Pasteurization

    • Decontamination

    Correct Answer
    A. Cleaning
    Explanation
    The first step in preparing objects for sterilization is cleaning. Cleaning involves removing dirt, debris, and organic material from the objects to ensure that they are free from any visible contamination. This step is essential because sterilization is most effective on clean surfaces. Once the objects are cleaned, they can then undergo further steps such as disinfection, pasteurization, or decontamination to eliminate any remaining microorganisms.

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  • 26. 

    Half-normal saline solution is represented by

    • 0.2%

    • 0.40%

    • 0.45%

    • 0.50%

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.45%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.45%. Half-normal saline solution is a solution that contains 0.45% sodium chloride (NaCl) in water. This concentration is commonly used in medical settings for various purposes, such as intravenous fluid replacement or irrigation of wounds. The other options provided (0.2%, 0.40%, and 0.50%) do not represent the concentration of a half-normal saline solution.

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  • 27. 

    In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's

    • Temperature

    • Complaint of a headache

    • History of cardiac arrhythmias

    • Physical deformity of the left leg

    Correct Answer
    A. Complaint of a headache
    Explanation
    In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's complaint of a headache. This is because the subjective information section focuses on the patient's symptoms, concerns, and complaints. By identifying the complaint of a headache, healthcare professionals can gather important information about the patient's condition and provide appropriate care and treatment.

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  • 28. 

    In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only

    • When the sensor medical technician on board approves it

    • When local protocol authorizes it

    • During the response phase

    • During the transport phase

    Correct Answer
    A. When local protocol authorizes it
    Explanation
    The correct answer is when local protocol authorizes it. The use of lights and sirens on an ambulance call in the Air Force is regulated by local protocols. These protocols outline the specific situations or conditions in which lights and sirens can be used during an ambulance response or transport. It is important to follow these protocols to ensure the safety of the crew, patient, and other individuals on the road.

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  • 29. 

    A rapid trauma assessment is performend on a patient with

    • A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are

    • An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are

    • A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to

    • An insignificant mechanism om injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to

    Correct Answer
    A. A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are
    Explanation
    A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with a significant mechanism of injury because this indicates that there is a higher likelihood of severe injuries. By focusing on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are, healthcare providers can quickly identify and address life-threatening conditions. This approach ensures that immediate attention is given to the most critical injuries, increasing the chances of saving the patient's life.

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  • 30. 

    When setting up a cardiac monitor, the legal documetn you should pay particular attention to and fix if it is not correct is the

    • Electrocardiogram tracing date and time

    • Code blue record of events

    • Ambulance run sheet

    • Doctor;s note

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrocardiogram tracing date and time
    Explanation
    When setting up a cardiac monitor, it is crucial to pay particular attention to and fix any inaccuracies in the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing date and time. This is important because the ECG tracing helps in diagnosing and monitoring the patient's heart condition. Accurate date and time documentation ensures that the healthcare professionals can track any changes or abnormalities in the patient's heart rhythm over time, aiding in proper diagnosis and treatment. Incorrect or missing information can lead to misinterpretation of the ECG results and potentially compromise patient care.

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  • 31. 

    When using a maks in an isolation unit, put the mask on

    • After entering the unit, and take off before leaving

    • After entering the unit, and take it off after leaving

    • Before entering, and take it off before leaving

    • Before entering, and take it off after leaving

    Correct Answer
    A. Before entering, and take it off before leaving
    Explanation
    It is important to put the mask on before entering the isolation unit to ensure that any potential contaminants are filtered out. Additionally, it is necessary to keep the mask on while inside the unit to maintain a barrier between the individual and any potential pathogens. After leaving the unit, the mask should be taken off before leaving to prevent any potential contaminants from spreading outside of the unit. Therefore, the correct answer is to put the mask on before entering and take it off before leaving.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?

    • Blood pressure screenings

    • Assessing current fitness status

    • Establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants

    • Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood pressure screenings
    Explanation
    Blood pressure screenings are most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program because they are a common method to assess and monitor employees' health. By conducting regular screenings, employers can identify individuals with high blood pressure and provide them with appropriate interventions and resources to manage their condition. This proactive approach promotes employee health and well-being, ultimately contributing to a healthier work environment.

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  • 33. 

    Potassium helps to maintain

    • Facial muscle tone

    • Clarity of eye sight

    • Heartbeat regulation

    • Alertness int he cerebellum

    Correct Answer
    A. Heartbeat regulation
    Explanation
    Potassium is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of fluids and electrolytes in the body. One of its important functions is to regulate the heartbeat. Potassium helps in transmitting electrical impulses that control the contraction and relaxation of the heart muscles. It ensures that the heart beats at a steady rhythm and maintains a healthy heart rate. Therefore, the correct answer is heartbeat regulation.

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  • 34. 

    What step should ou take before operating a glucose meter?

    • Read the operating instructions

    • Confirm the order with a co-worker

    • Choose a site to obtain a blood sample

    • Ask all family members to leave the room

    Correct Answer
    A. Read the operating instructions
    Explanation
    Before operating a glucose meter, it is important to read the operating instructions. This is necessary to understand how the device works, its features, and any specific instructions or precautions that need to be followed. By reading the operating instructions, one can ensure that they are using the glucose meter correctly and obtaining accurate results. It is a crucial step to ensure the proper functioning of the device and accurate blood glucose readings.

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  • 35. 

    If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide

    • High concerntration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask

    • Ventilations with a BVM and high-flow oxygen

    • High concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask

    • Low concentration oxygen with a nasal cannula

    Correct Answer
    A. Ventilations with a BVM and high-flow oxygen
    Explanation
    If the patient is not alert and their breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, it indicates a severe respiratory distress or failure. In such cases, providing ventilations with a BVM (bag-valve-mask) and high-flow oxygen is the appropriate response. This method ensures that the patient receives adequate oxygenation and ventilation by manually assisting their breathing using a bag-valve-mask device. The high-flow oxygen further supports oxygenation. This intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration of the patient's condition and maintain their oxygen levels.

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  • 36. 

    What is the most serious type of meningitis?

    • Viral

    • Serum

    • Bacterial

    • Pneumococcal

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacterial
    Explanation
    Bacterial meningitis is the most serious type of meningitis because it is caused by bacteria that can rapidly spread and cause inflammation in the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. This type of meningitis can lead to severe complications such as brain damage, hearing loss, and even death if not treated promptly. Viral meningitis, on the other hand, is usually less severe and resolves on its own without specific treatment. Serum and pneumococcal are not types of meningitis but rather terms related to blood and a specific bacteria respectively.

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  • 37. 

    Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored, negative air pressure?

    • Droplet

    • Contact

    • Airborne

    • Respiratory

    Correct Answer
    A. Airborne
    Explanation
    Airborne transmission-based precaution requires the use of negative air pressure rooms to prevent the spread of infectious agents. Negative air pressure ensures that air flows into the room, preventing contaminated air from escaping and spreading to other areas. This precaution is necessary for diseases that can be transmitted through small particles suspended in the air, such as tuberculosis or measles.

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  • 38. 

    What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs?

    • Babinski

    • Grasping

    • Rooting

    • Moro

    Correct Answer
    A. Moro
    Explanation
    The Moro reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs. This reflex is also known as the startle reflex and is a normal response in newborns. It is believed to be a protective mechanism that helps the infant respond to potential threats or dangers in their environment. The sudden movement of the limbs is thought to be an instinctive attempt to regain balance and stability.

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  • 39. 

    If you see clear fluid running out of the ears, you should

    • Immediately place the patient in an upright position

    • Collect a sample for testing at the hospital

    • Pack the ears and nose with sterile gauze

    • Not blocking the fluid from draining

    Correct Answer
    A. Not blocking the fluid from draining
    Explanation
    If clear fluid is running out of the ears, it is important not to block the fluid from draining. Blocking the fluid can cause pressure to build up in the ears, potentially leading to further complications. Allowing the fluid to drain freely helps to relieve pressure and prevent any potential damage.

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  • 40. 

    Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through

    • Dehydration

    • Packaging

    • Cooking

    • Freezing

    Correct Answer
    A. Freezing
    Explanation
    Freezing is the correct answer because it can cause a loss in the concentration of Vitamin B6 in food sources. Freezing can lead to the breakdown of the vitamin, resulting in a decrease in its concentration. This is because the freezing process can cause the cells in the food to rupture, leading to the release and degradation of the vitamin. Therefore, freezing can be a factor that contributes to the loss of Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources.

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  • 41. 

    Which route is injectable iron administered?

    • Intra muscular

    • Intra venous

    • Transdermal

    • Z-track

    Correct Answer
    A. Intra muscular
    Explanation
    Injectable iron is administered intramuscularly because it allows for the slow release and absorption of the iron into the bloodstream. This route of administration ensures that the iron is delivered directly into the muscle tissue, where it can be gradually absorbed and utilized by the body. Intramuscular injections are commonly used for medications that need to be absorbed slowly and steadily over time.

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  • 42. 

    Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of

    • Muscle

    • Protein

    • Glucose

    • Enzyme

    Correct Answer
    A. Enzyme
    Explanation
    Cellular metabolism refers to the chemical reactions that take place within a cell to sustain life. These reactions require specific proteins called enzymes to catalyze the necessary biochemical reactions. Enzymes are biological molecules that speed up the rate of chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to occur. They are highly specific and only interact with specific substrates, in this case, glucose. Therefore, enzymes play a crucial role in controlling cellular metabolism by facilitating the breakdown of glucose and other molecules to produce energy and other essential cellular components.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes?

    • Protect against disease at the cellular level

    • The body's only defense against infection

    • Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body

    • Carry amino acids to the kidneys for decontamination and excretion

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect against disease at the cellular level
    Explanation
    Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are an important component of the immune system. They play a crucial role in protecting the body against diseases by defending against pathogens and foreign substances at the cellular level. Leukocytes are responsible for identifying and destroying harmful microorganisms, such as bacteria and viruses, as well as removing damaged cells and toxins from the body. Their ability to recognize and eliminate threats makes them an essential defense mechanism against infections and diseases.

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  • 44. 

    When checking the eyes during a neurological exam, the pupils should

    • Constrict quickly and simultaneously

    • Dilate quickly and simultaneously

    • Constrict quickly and separately

    • Dilate quickly and separately

    Correct Answer
    A. Constrict quickly and simultaneously
    Explanation
    During a neurological exam, checking the eyes involves assessing the pupillary response. The correct answer states that the pupils should constrict quickly and simultaneously. This is because the pupillary constriction, known as pupillary light reflex, is a normal response to light stimulation. When light is shone into one eye, both pupils should constrict at the same time. This synchronized response indicates the proper functioning of the neurological pathways responsible for controlling the pupils. If the pupils constrict quickly but separately, it may suggest an abnormality in the neurological system. Similarly, if the pupils dilate quickly instead of constricting, it could indicate an abnormal response.

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  • 45. 

    While examining a patient that fell from a ladder, you notice a bruise behind the ear, what injury should you suspect?

    • Hematoma

    • Cushing reflex

    • Basal skull fracture

    • Parietal skull fracture

    Correct Answer
    A. Basal skull fracture
    Explanation
    A bruise behind the ear is a common sign of a basal skull fracture. Basal skull fractures occur at the base of the skull and are often associated with head trauma, such as falling from a ladder. This type of fracture can cause bleeding around the brain and may result in other symptoms like raccoon eyes (bruising around the eyes) or clear fluid leaking from the nose or ears. Prompt medical attention is necessary to assess and manage this type of injury.

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  • 46. 

    While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he has splashed a chemical in his eye, what should you determine first?

    • The patient's visual acuity

    • If the patient is experiencing an pain

    • Weather the patient is authorized care in the faciilty

    • If the patient is waring contact lenses and which type

    Correct Answer
    A. If the patient is waring contact lenses and which type
    Explanation
    The first thing to determine when a patient comes in with a chemical splash in their eye is whether they are wearing contact lenses and what type they are wearing. This is important because contact lenses can trap chemicals against the surface of the eye, causing further damage. The type of contact lenses can also affect the course of treatment. Therefore, understanding if the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type is crucial in order to provide appropriate and timely care.

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  • 47. 

    Oral iron supplements should not be taken with

    • Coffee, cranberry juice or water

    • Orange or grapefruit juice

    • Soda, water, or milk

    • Tea, milk or coffee

    Correct Answer
    A. Tea, milk or coffee
    Explanation
    Taking oral iron supplements with tea, milk, or coffee is not recommended. This is because these beverages contain compounds that can interfere with the absorption of iron in the body. Tea and coffee contain tannins, which can bind to iron and prevent its absorption. Milk contains calcium, which can also inhibit iron absorption. Therefore, it is best to avoid consuming tea, milk, or coffee when taking oral iron supplements to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the supplement.

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  • 48. 

    When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized it can be noted by

    • Excessive thirst and nocturia

    • Acetone in the breath and urine

    • Constant hunger despite calorie intake

    • Severe vomiting resulting in weight loss

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetone in the breath and urine
    Explanation
    When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, the body produces ketones as a byproduct. Acetone is one type of ketone that can be detected in the breath and urine. Therefore, the presence of acetone in the breath and urine indicates that there is an excessive amount of fat being metabolized in the body. This can be a sign of conditions such as uncontrolled diabetes or a high-fat diet.

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  • 49. 

    Deficiency is respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumliation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition calles

    • Metabolic acidosis

    • Metabolic alkalosis

    • Respiratiory acidosis

    • Respiratory alkalosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratiory acidosis
    Explanation
    Slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to a decrease in the elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. This causes an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, leading to a condition called respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the pH of the blood decreases, making it more acidic. This can occur due to conditions such as lung diseases, respiratory muscle weakness, or impaired respiratory drive.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 11, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Awalk521

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