4N051 B Volume 1

108 Questions | Total Attempts: 315

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Volume Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Antigen

    • B. 

      Antibody

    • C. 

      Pathogen

    • D. 

      Micro-organism

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Sporozoa

    • B. 

      Chlamydia

    • C. 

      Rickettsiae

    • D. 

      Mycoplasma

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Illness

    • B. 

      Virulence

    • C. 

      Incubation

    • D. 

      Convalescence

  • 4. 
    The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through
    • A. 

      Cilia

    • B. 

      Sneezing

    • C. 

      Handwashing

    • D. 

      The lymphatic system

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      Airborne

    • B. 

      Droplet

    • C. 

      Contact

    • D. 

      Enteric

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      Viral

    • B. 

      Serum

    • C. 

      Bacterial

    • D. 

      Pneumococcal

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      Droplet

    • B. 

      Contact

    • C. 

      Airborne

    • D. 

      Respiratory

  • 8. 
    One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop form gonorrhea is
    • A. 

      Pelvic inflammatory disease

    • B. 

      Irregular menstral cycles

    • C. 

      Vaginal discharge

    • D. 

      Chlamydia

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      Medical sepsis

    • B. 

      Medical asepsis

    • C. 

      Surgical sepsis

    • D. 

      Surgical asepsis

  • 10. 
    • A. 

      Disinfectant

    • B. 

      Antiseptic

    • C. 

      Detergent

    • D. 

      Antitoxin

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      Airborne

    • B. 

      Droplet

    • C. 

      Contact

    • D. 

      Reverse

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      You must don gown, mask, and gloves prior to transporting the patient

    • B. 

      Notify all hospital personnel so they can take necessary precautions

    • C. 

      Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport

    • D. 

      Hospital polic does not permit transport of infectious patients

  • 13. 
    An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is
    • A. 

      A storage cart

    • B. 

      An isolation cart

    • C. 

      The supply room

    • D. 

      The nurse's station

  • 14. 
    When using a maks in an isolation unit, put the mask on
    • A. 

      After entering the unit, and take off before leaving

    • B. 

      After entering the unit, and take it off after leaving

    • C. 

      Before entering, and take it off before leaving

    • D. 

      Before entering, and take it off after leaving

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      Cleaning

    • B. 

      Disinfection

    • C. 

      Pasteurization

    • D. 

      Decontamination

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      Three minutes

    • B. 

      Five minutes

    • C. 

      Ten minutes

    • D. 

      Twelve minutes

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      Formaldehydes

    • B. 

      Hydrochloric acid

    • C. 

      Phenolics

    • D. 

      Alcohol

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Daily and weekly

    • C. 

      Daily and monthly

    • D. 

      Weekly and monthly

  • 19. 
    Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every
    • A. 

      Load

    • B. 

      Other load

    • C. 

      12 hours

    • D. 

      24 hours

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      Every load

    • B. 

      Every 30 loads

    • C. 

      At least once per day

    • D. 

      At least once per week

  • 21. 
    • A. 

      Safety

    • B. 

      Security

    • C. 

      Self-esteem

    • D. 

      Physiological

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Vitamins A

    • B. 

      Vitamins K

    • C. 

      Ascorbic acid

    • D. 

      B-complex vitamins

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      Iron

    • B. 

      Soy

    • C. 

      Niacin

    • D. 

      Calcium

  • 24. 
    Plasma lipids include what three substances?
    • A. 

      Vitamins, minerals, and herbs

    • B. 

      Water, sucrose, and polyunsaturated fats

    • C. 

      Nitorgen, carbon dioxide, and glucosaccaride

    • D. 

      Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      Rest and activity.

    • B. 

      Pain free and rest

    • C. 

      Activity and pain free

    • D. 

      Pain free and exercise

  • 26. 
    • A. 

      Babinski

    • B. 

      Grasping

    • C. 

      Rooting

    • D. 

      Moro

  • 27. 
    A toddler is expected to weigh four tiems the birth weight at age
    • A. 

      12 months

    • B. 

      18 months

    • C. 

      24 months

    • D. 

      30 months

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      Blood pressure screenings

    • B. 

      Assessing current fitness status

    • C. 

      Establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants

    • D. 

      Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      Gastric acid

    • B. 

      Intrinsic factor

    • C. 

      Hydrogen ions

    • D. 

      Red blood cells

  • 30. 
    B12 deficiency are first noted by
    • A. 

      Aplastic anemia

    • B. 

      Hemolytic anemia

    • C. 

      Pericious anemia

    • D. 

      Sickle cell anemia

  • 31. 
    Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through
    • A. 

      Dehydration

    • B. 

      Packaging

    • C. 

      Cooking

    • D. 

      Freezing

  • 32. 
    Large doses of vitamin C cause all of the following except
    • A. 

      Heartburn

    • B. 

      Constipaiton

    • C. 

      Kidney stones

    • D. 

      Abdominal cramps

  • 33. 
    Vitamin D interacts with all of the following except
    • A. 

      Digitalis

    • B. 

      Calcium

    • C. 

      Mineral oil

    • D. 

      Thiazide diuretics

  • 34. 
    A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the disease process of
    • A. 

      Rickets

    • B. 

      Night blindness

    • C. 

      Pernicuious anemia

    • D. 

      Prolonged clotting times

  • 35. 
    Vitamin K is not used to treat which of the following ailments?
    • A. 

      Ulcerative colitis

    • B. 

      Heparin overdose

    • C. 

      Malabsorption syndromes

    • D. 

      Prolonged use of salicylates

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      Vitamin A

    • B. 

      Vitamin C

    • C. 

      Vitamin E

    • D. 

      Vitamin K

  • 37. 
    Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen
    • A. 

      During a blood transfusion

    • B. 

      As a result of not using table salt

    • C. 

      When an individual is unable to sink in water

    • D. 

      Trhough an excessive amount of fluid loss

  • 38. 
    Half-normal saline solution is represented by
    • A. 

      0.2%

    • B. 

      0.40%

    • C. 

      0.45%

    • D. 

      0.50%

  • 39. 
    Potassium helps to maintain
    • A. 

      Facial muscle tone

    • B. 

      Clarity of eye sight

    • C. 

      Heartbeat regulation

    • D. 

      Alertness int he cerebellum

  • 40. 
    Caution must be taken when administering potassium to individuals with all of the following except
    • A. 

      Diabetes

    • B. 

      Gastric ulcers

    • C. 

      Cardiac disease

    • D. 

      Renal impairment

  • 41. 
    Oral iron supplements should not be taken with
    • A. 

      Coffee, cranberry juice or water

    • B. 

      Orange or grapefruit juice

    • C. 

      Soda, water, or milk

    • D. 

      Tea, milk or coffee

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      Intra muscular

    • B. 

      Intra venous

    • C. 

      Transdermal

    • D. 

      Z-track

  • 43. 
    When larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules, this is known as
    • A. 

      Attraction

    • B. 

      Catabolism

    • C. 

      Anabolism

    • D. 

      Cataclysm

  • 44. 
    Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of
    • A. 

      Muscle

    • B. 

      Protein

    • C. 

      Glucose

    • D. 

      Enzyme

  • 45. 
    Electorlytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called
    • A. 

      Salts

    • B. 

      Acids

    • C. 

      Catalyzed

    • D. 

      Synthesized

  • 46. 
    When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized it can be noted by
    • A. 

      Excessive thirst and nocturia

    • B. 

      Acetone in the breath and urine

    • C. 

      Constant hunger despite calorie intake

    • D. 

      Severe vomiting resulting in weight loss

  • 47. 
    • A. 

      Protect against disease at the cellular level

    • B. 

      The body's only defense against infection

    • C. 

      Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body

    • D. 

      Carry amino acids to the kidneys for decontamination and excretion

  • 48. 
    The two main categories of leukocytes are
    • A. 

      Agranulocytes and basophils

    • B. 

      Granulocytes and agranulocytes

    • C. 

      Neurtophils and granulocytes

    • D. 

      Monophils and lymphocytes

  • 49. 
    Neutrophils are also known as
    • A. 

      Polypeptides

    • B. 

      Polysaccharides

    • C. 

      Multigranulocytes

    • D. 

      Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

  • 50. 
    The life span of lymphocytes is
    • A. 

      12 hours

    • B. 

      2 weeks

    • C. 

      Years

    • D. 

      Days

  • 51. 
    • A. 

      Lymphocytes and macrophages

    • B. 

      Polyleukocytes and monocytes

    • C. 

      Monocytes and phagocytes

    • D. 

      Neutrophils and leukocytes

  • 52. 
    When a child scrapes his or hear hands and infection results, which lymph nodes will become enlarged?
    • A. 

      Cervical

    • B. 

      Thoracic

    • C. 

      Auxillary

    • D. 

      Supratrochlear

  • 53. 
    Children who recieve routine childhood immunizations are protected by
    • A. 

      Artificially acquired passive immunity

    • B. 

      Artificially acquired active immunity

    • C. 

      Naturally acquired passive immunity

    • D. 

      Naturally acquired active immunity

  • 54. 
    The bodys first step in the healing process is
    • A. 

      Inflammation

    • B. 

      Collecting

    • C. 

      Infection

    • D. 

      Bruising

  • 55. 
    During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed?
    • A. 

      Bruising

    • B. 

      Maturation

    • C. 

      Inflammation

    • D. 

      Reconstruction

  • 56. 
    The firous structural protein collagen is found in all connnective tissue during which stage of healing?
    • A. 

      Brusiing

    • B. 

      Maturation

    • C. 

      Inflammation

    • D. 

      Reconstruction

  • 57. 
    Full maturation of a wound is evident when
    • A. 

      New capillaries form

    • B. 

      The scar is deep red in color

    • C. 

      The scaring is white and glossy

    • D. 

      A scab completely covers the wound

  • 58. 
    For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is
    • A. 

      Guilt

    • B. 

      Acceptance

    • C. 

      Fear and anxiety

    • D. 

      Shock and disorientation

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      Hypercalcemia

    • B. 

      Hypocalcemia

    • C. 

      Hyperkalemia

    • D. 

      Hypernatremia

  • 60. 
    • A. 

      Metabolic acidosis

    • B. 

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • C. 

      Respiratory acidosis

    • D. 

      Respiratory alkalosis

  • 61. 
    • A. 

      Metabolic acidosis

    • B. 

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • C. 

      Respiratiory acidosis

    • D. 

      Respiratiory alkalosis

  • 62. 
    Deficiency is respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumliation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition calles
    • A. 

      Metabolic acidosis

    • B. 

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • C. 

      Respiratiory acidosis

    • D. 

      Respiratory alkalosis

  • 63. 
    To avoid infections, you should change a patient's hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily and not allow the container to hang longer than
    • A. 

      4 hours

    • B. 

      8 hours

    • C. 

      16 hours

    • D. 

      24 hours

  • 64. 
    When selecting an intravenous solution, what size IV bags in cubic centimeteres (cc) would you possibly be blae to select from?
    • A. 

      100 to 200 cc

    • B. 

      500 to 750 cc

    • C. 

      100 to 2000 cc

    • D. 

      500 to 2000 cc

  • 65. 
    Normally, how high above patients should you hang an intravenous (IV) solution bag?
    • A. 

      6 to 12 in

    • B. 

      18 to 24 in

    • C. 

      24 to 36 in

    • D. 

      36 to 48 in

  • 66. 
    If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an intravenous (IV) solution, what shoudl you do?
    • A. 

      Slow the infusion.

    • B. 

      Discontinue the IV immediately

    • C. 

      Replace the tubing and the container

    • D. 

      Send the solution to the laboratory analysis

  • 67. 
    • A. 

      1 tablespoon

    • B. 

      2 tablesoppns

    • C. 

      3 tablespoons

    • D. 

      All of the defecated stool

  • 68. 
    After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for
    • A. 

      1 to 2 min

    • B. 

      2 to 3 min

    • C. 

      3 to 4 min

    • D. 

      4 to 5 min

  • 69. 
    During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away?
    • A. 

      To allow the blood to clot

    • B. 

      To prevent spillage of blood

    • C. 

      It contains phagocytes, which may interfere with test results

    • D. 

      It contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results

  • 70. 
    • A. 

      Read the operating instructions

    • B. 

      Confirm the order with a co-worker

    • C. 

      Choose a site to obtain a blood sample

    • D. 

      Ask all family members to leave the room

  • 71. 
    The normal fasting blood glucose level in milligrams/deciliter (mg/dl) is
    • A. 

      40 to 100 mg/dl

    • B. 

      70 to 115 mg/dl

    • C. 

      90 to 150 mg/dl

    • D. 

      120 to 200 mg/dl

  • 72. 
    In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's
    • A. 

      Temperature

    • B. 

      Complaint of a headache

    • C. 

      History of cardiac arrhythmias

    • D. 

      Physical deformity of the left leg

  • 73. 
    A protoscopy is an inspection of the
    • A. 

      Rectum

    • B. 

      Sigmoid colon

    • C. 

      Ascending colon

    • D. 

      Transverse colon

  • 74. 
    • A. 

      Fowler

    • B. 

      Supine

    • C. 

      Prone

    • D. 

      Sims

  • 75. 
    When educating the patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to aviod all of the following except shaving
    • A. 

      In the opposite direction of hair growth

    • B. 

      In the direction of hair growth

    • C. 

      With facial skin streched

    • D. 

      With slow strokes

  • 76. 
    • A. 

      Identify loss of vision

    • B. 

      Identify slopes in peripheral margins

    • C. 

      Determine degrees away form fixation

    • D. 

      Determine the area that is 30 degrees away from the visual axis

  • 77. 
    When asking the patient if he or she wears glasses, contact lenses or if he or she has ever had eye problems prior to conducting an Optec 2300 Vision Tester exam, the patient's responses will determine
    • A. 

      Sequence of test performance

    • B. 

      The patients eligibility for care

    • C. 

      If glasses are provided free of charge

    • D. 

      How soon an appointment should be made

  • 78. 
    • A. 

      Seven

    • B. 

      Five

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Three

  • 79. 
    • A. 

      13

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      30

  • 80. 
    When performing a pulmonary funciton test on a patient, according to Air force standards, abdormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at 1 second (FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than?
    • A. 

      65

    • B. 

      75

    • C. 

      80

    • D. 

      90

  • 81. 
    During pulmonary funcion testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are
    • A. 

      1;1

    • B. 

      1;2

    • C. 

      2;2

    • D. 

      2;3

  • 82. 
    • A. 

      Spinal cord

    • B. 

      Sinoatrial node

    • C. 

      Atrioventricular node

    • D. 

      Frontal lobe of the brain

  • 83. 
    • A. 

      Left atrium

    • B. 

      Right atrium

    • C. 

      Left ventricle

    • D. 

      Right ventricle

  • 84. 
    Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called
    • A. 

      Artifacts

    • B. 

      Disturbances

    • C. 

      Random waves

    • D. 

      Deflection waves

  • 85. 
    If you are performing an electorcardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the
    • A. 

      Major command (MAJCOM)

    • B. 

      Local medical examination board (MEB)

    • C. 

      Command level electrocardiographic library

    • D. 

      US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic library

  • 86. 
    For orthostatic vital sign measurements, what is the correct sequence to take the blood pressure and pulse; and what is the correct time interval between readings?
    • A. 

      Lying, sitting, standing; 3 min

    • B. 

      Lying, sitting, standing; 5 min

    • C. 

      Standing, sitting, lying; 3 min

    • D. 

      Standing, sitting, lying; 5 min

  • 87. 
    Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below 
    • A. 

      88 percent

    • B. 

      90 percent

    • C. 

      97 percent

    • D. 

      100 percent

  • 88. 
    When checking the eyes during a neurological exam, the pupils should
    • A. 

      Constrict quickly and simultaneously

    • B. 

      Dilate quickly and simultaneously

    • C. 

      Constrict quickly and separately

    • D. 

      Dilate quickly and separately

  • 89. 
    When can the minor surgery procedure begin?
    • A. 

      When the provider says its a good time

    • B. 

      After the consent form is signed

    • C. 

      Once a set of vital signs are repeated

    • D. 

      Only after housekeeping has cleaned the room

  • 90. 
    When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's righ forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would the next step be?
    • A. 

      Begin sutruing

    • B. 

      Flush the wound

    • C. 

      Dig out the debris with an allis clamp

    • D. 

      Soak the wound in an antibiotic solution

  • 91. 
    After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next?
    • A. 

      Apply sterile dressing

    • B. 

      Assess sensory awareness

    • C. 

      Begin suturing the wound

    • D. 

      Soak the wound in cold water

  • 92. 
    In the Air Force, how often should you check emergency equipment and supplies in the crash ambulance?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Bimonthly

    • D. 

      Monthly

  • 93. 
    • A. 

      100 mm Hg

    • B. 

      150 mm Hg

    • C. 

      200mm Hg

    • D. 

      300 mm Hg

  • 94. 
    • A. 

      Code 1; cold

    • B. 

      Code 2; cold

    • C. 

      Code 3; hot

    • D. 

      Code 4; hot

  • 95. 
    When transmitting information abot a patient over the radio what information ahould not be broadcast?
    • A. 

      Age

    • B. 

      Name

    • C. 

      Chief complaint

    • D. 

      Medications and allergies

  • 96. 
    In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only
    • A. 

      When the sensor medical technician on board approves it

    • B. 

      When local protocol authorizes it

    • C. 

      During the response phase

    • D. 

      During the transport phase

  • 97. 
    The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical techinican (EMT) is called
    • A. 

      Expanded primary survey

    • B. 

      Secondary survey

    • C. 

      Trauma history

    • D. 

      Scene sizeup

  • 98. 
    If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide
    • A. 

      High concerntration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask

    • B. 

      Ventilations with a BVM and high-flow oxygen

    • C. 

      High concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask

    • D. 

      Low concentration oxygen with a nasal cannula

  • 99. 
    A rapid trauma assessment is performend on a patient with
    • A. 

      A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are

    • B. 

      An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are

    • C. 

      A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to

    • D. 

      An insignificant mechanism om injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to

  • 100. 
    When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about
    • A. 

      Onset

    • B. 

      Quality

    • C. 

      Radiation

    • D. 

      Provocation

  • 101. 
    While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?
    • A. 

      Time

    • B. 

      Quality

    • C. 

      Severity

    • D. 

      Radiation

  • 102. 
    When preparing to unload a patient from an ambulance, what should you do first?
    • A. 

      Turn the ocygen off in the amublance

    • B. 

      Ensure all straps are secured on the patient

    • C. 

      Make a list of supplies that neeed to be restocked

    • D. 

      Place an emergency medical technician on either side of the strecher as it is rolled ou

  • 103. 
    If you see clear fluid running out of the ears, you should
    • A. 

      Immediately place the patient in an upright position

    • B. 

      Collect a sample for testing at the hospital

    • C. 

      Pack the ears and nose with sterile gauze

    • D. 

      Not blocking the fluid from draining

  • 104. 
    While examining a patient that fell from a ladder, you notice a bruise behind the ear, what injury should you suspect?
    • A. 

      Hematoma

    • B. 

      Cushing reflex

    • C. 

      Basal skull fracture

    • D. 

      Parietal skull fracture

  • 105. 
    • A. 

      Range of motion (ROM)

    • B. 

      Painful, swollen deformity(PSD)

    • C. 

      Purified protein derivative (PPD)

    • D. 

      Alert verbal painful unresponsive (AVPU)

  • 106. 
    While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he has splashed a chemical in his eye, what should you determine first?
    • A. 

      The patient's visual acuity

    • B. 

      If the patient is experiencing an pain

    • C. 

      Weather the patient is authorized care in the faciilty

    • D. 

      If the patient is waring contact lenses and which type

  • 107. 
    In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system?
    • A. 

      Left atrium

    • B. 

      Right atrium

    • C. 

      Left ventricle

    • D. 

      Right ventricle

  • 108. 
    When setting up a cardiac monitor, the legal documetn you should pay particular attention to and fix if it is not correct is the
    • A. 

      Electrocardiogram tracing date and time

    • B. 

      Code blue record of events

    • C. 

      Ambulance run sheet

    • D. 

      Doctor;s note