4N051 CDC Practice Test Set B (1)
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?
- A.
Antigen
- B.
Antibody
- C.
Pathogen
- D.
Micro-organism
Correct Answer
C. PathogenExplanation
A pathogen is an organism that causes infection and disease. It can be a bacterium, virus, fungus, or parasite. These organisms have the ability to invade and multiply within the body, leading to various illnesses and health problems. Pathogens can be transmitted through direct contact, through the air, or through contaminated food and water. They can cause a wide range of diseases, from common colds and flu to more severe conditions like pneumonia, hepatitis, and HIV/AIDS. Understanding pathogens and their modes of transmission is crucial in preventing and treating infectious diseases.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria?
- A.
Sporozoa
- B.
Chlamydia
- C.
Rickettsiae
- D.
Mycoplasma
Correct Answer
A. SporozoaExplanation
Sporozoa is the correct answer because it is a classification of organisms that includes the parasites responsible for causing malaria. These organisms are single-celled and have complex life cycles involving both humans and mosquitoes. They belong to the phylum Apicomplexa and are characterized by their ability to form spores. Sporozoa are known for causing various diseases in animals, including malaria in humans.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?
- A.
Illness
- B.
Virulence
- C.
Incubation
- D.
Convalescence
Correct Answer
C. IncubationExplanation
The correct answer is Incubation. Incubation is the stage of infection where the infectious agent has entered the body but symptoms of the disease have not yet appeared. During this period, the pathogen is multiplying and spreading within the body, but the person infected may not be aware of it. The length of the incubation period can vary depending on the specific disease and the individual's immune response. Once the incubation period ends, symptoms begin to manifest, marking the transition to the next stage of infection.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through
- A.
Cilia
- B.
Sneezing
- C.
Handwashing
- D.
The lymphatic system
Correct Answer
A. CiliaExplanation
Cilia are hair-like structures found in the respiratory tract that help to filter and trap foreign bodies such as dust, pollen, and bacteria. They constantly beat in coordinated motions to move mucus and trapped particles out of the respiratory system, preventing them from reaching the lungs. This mechanism of the cilia helps to protect the respiratory system from potential infections and irritants.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaution?
- A.
Airborne
- B.
Droplet
- C.
Contact
- D.
Enteric
Correct Answer
D. EntericExplanation
Enteric is not a type of transmission-based precaution. Transmission-based precautions are measures taken to prevent the spread of infectious diseases in healthcare settings. The three main types of transmission-based precautions are airborne, droplet, and contact. Airborne precautions are used for diseases that are spread through tiny particles in the air, droplet precautions are used for diseases that are spread through large respiratory droplets, and contact precautions are used for diseases that are spread through direct contact with an infected person or contaminated surfaces. Enteric precautions, on the other hand, specifically refer to precautions taken for diseases that affect the gastrointestinal tract, such as diarrhea or vomiting.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored, negative air pressure?
- A.
Droplet
- B.
Contact
- C.
Airborne
- D.
Respiratory
Correct Answer
C. AirborneExplanation
Airborne transmission-based precautions require monitored, negative air pressure. This means that the air pressure inside the room or area where the patient is located is lower than the surrounding areas. This helps to prevent the spread of infectious particles in the air from escaping the room and infecting others. Monitoring and maintaining negative air pressure is crucial in preventing the transmission of airborne diseases.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is the most serious type of meningitis?
- A.
Viral
- B.
Serum
- C.
Bacterial
- D.
Pneumococcal
Correct Answer
C. BacterialExplanation
Bacterial meningitis is the most serious type of meningitis because it is caused by bacteria that can rapidly spread and infect the brain and spinal cord. This type of meningitis can lead to severe complications such as brain damage, hearing loss, and even death if not treated promptly. It requires immediate medical attention and treatment with antibiotics to prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 8.
One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is
- A.
Pelvic inflammatory disease
- B.
Irregular menstrual cycles
- C.
Vaginal discharge
- D.
Chlamydia
Correct Answer
A. Pelvic inflammatory diseaseExplanation
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common and serious complication that can develop from gonorrhea infection in females. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. If left untreated, the infection can spread from the cervix to the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries, leading to PID. PID can cause severe pelvic pain, fever, and can lead to long-term complications such as infertility or ectopic pregnancy. Therefore, PID is considered a significant and potentially serious consequence of untreated gonorrhea infection in females.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organisms?
- A.
Medical sepsis
- B.
Medical asepsis
- C.
Surgical sepsis
- D.
Surgical asepsis
Correct Answer
D. Surgical asepsisExplanation
Surgical asepsis refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organisms. This term specifically relates to procedures and techniques used in surgical settings to prevent the introduction of micro-organisms into a surgical wound or sterile field. It involves the use of sterile equipment, proper hand hygiene, and the implementation of sterile techniques to minimize the risk of infection during surgical procedures.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?
- A.
Disinfectant
- B.
Antiseptic
- C.
Detergent
- D.
Antitoxin
Correct Answer
B. AntisepticExplanation
Antiseptics are substances that are used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue. Unlike disinfectants, which are used on inanimate objects, antiseptics are specifically designed to be used on living tissue to prevent infection and promote healing. They are commonly used in healthcare settings, such as hospitals and clinics, to clean wounds and prepare the skin before surgical procedures. Antiseptics work by killing or inhibiting the growth of bacteria, viruses, and fungi, thus reducing the risk of infection and promoting a healthy healing environment.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What type of isolation are patients highly susceptible to infection placed in?
- A.
Airborne
- B.
Droplet
- C.
Contact
- D.
Reverse
Correct Answer
D. ReverseExplanation
Patients who are highly susceptible to infection are placed in reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a protective measure used to prevent the transmission of infections to patients who have weakened immune systems, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or organ transplant recipients. In reverse isolation, strict infection control practices are followed, including the use of personal protective equipment, limiting visitors, and maintaining a clean environment to minimize the risk of introducing pathogens to the patient. This type of isolation is the opposite of regular isolation, where patients with infectious diseases are isolated to prevent the spread of their illness to others.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department?
- A.
You must don a gown, mask, and gloves prior to transporting the patient
- B.
Notify all hospital personnel so they can take necessary precautions
- C.
Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport
- D.
Hospital policy does not permit transport of infectious patients
Correct Answer
C. Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transportExplanation
When transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department, it is important to give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport. This is necessary to prevent the spread of infection to other individuals during the transportation process. By providing the patient with these protective measures, it helps to minimize the risk of transmission and ensures the safety of both the patient and the healthcare personnel involved in the transport.Rate this question:
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- 13.
An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is
- A.
A storage cart
- B.
An isolation cart
- C.
The supply room
- D.
The nurse's station
Correct Answer
B. An isolation cartExplanation
An isolation cart is an acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit because it provides a designated space for storing and organizing necessary supplies and equipment for isolation procedures. It allows healthcare professionals to easily access and transport items needed for isolation precautions, such as personal protective equipment and disinfectants, without having to leave the isolation unit. This helps to minimize the risk of contamination and maintain a controlled environment for the safety of both patients and healthcare workers.Rate this question:
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- 14.
When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on
- A.
After entering the unit, and take it off before leaving
- B.
After entering the unit, and take if off after leaving
- C.
Before entering, and take it off before leaving
- D.
Before entering, and take it off after leaving
Correct Answer
C. Before entering, and take it off before leavingExplanation
The correct answer is to put the mask on before entering the isolation unit and take it off before leaving. This ensures that the mask is worn while in close proximity to potentially infectious individuals, providing a barrier for respiratory droplets. Removing the mask before leaving helps prevent the spread of any contaminants that may have accumulated on the mask during the visit to the isolation unit.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization?
- A.
Cleaning
- B.
Disinfection
- C.
Pasteurization
- D.
Decontamination
Correct Answer
A. CleaningExplanation
The first step in preparing objects for sterilization is cleaning. Cleaning involves removing dirt, debris, and organic matter from the objects to ensure that they are free from any visible contamination. This step is crucial as it helps to reduce the number of microorganisms present on the objects before proceeding to the sterilization process. Cleaning can be done using various methods such as washing with soap and water, scrubbing, or using ultrasonic cleaners. Once the objects are thoroughly cleaned, they can then be subjected to disinfection or other sterilization methods to eliminate any remaining microorganisms.Rate this question:
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- 16.
How long is an item immersed in the sterilant during the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer?
- A.
Three minutes
- B.
Five minutes
- C.
10 minutes
- D.
12 minutes
Correct Answer
D. 12 minutesExplanation
In the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer, an item is immersed in the sterilant for 12 minutes. This duration ensures that the sterilant effectively kills any microorganisms present on the item, ensuring its complete sterilization. A longer immersion time allows for a more thorough sterilization process, reducing the risk of contamination.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?
- A.
Formaldehydes
- B.
Hydrochloric acid
- C.
Phenolics
- D.
Alcohol
Correct Answer
B. Hydrochloric acidExplanation
Hydrochloric acid is not commonly used as a disinfecting agent. While formaldehydes, phenolics, and alcohol are commonly used for disinfection purposes, hydrochloric acid is primarily used for industrial purposes such as cleaning and pH adjustment. It is a strong corrosive acid and can cause harm to living tissues, making it unsuitable for use as a disinfectant.Rate this question:
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- 18.
How often do you clean and inspect steam sterilizers?
- A.
Daily
- B.
Daily and weekly
- C.
Daily and monthly
- D.
Weekly and monthly
Correct Answer
B. Daily and weeklyExplanation
The correct answer is "Daily and weekly" because steam sterilizers need to be cleaned and inspected regularly to ensure their proper functioning. Daily cleaning helps remove any residue or contaminants that may be present, while weekly inspections allow for the identification of any potential issues or maintenance needs. By cleaning and inspecting the sterilizers on a regular basis, they can be kept in optimal condition and minimize the risk of contamination during the sterilization process.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every
- A.
Load
- B.
Other load
- C.
12 hours
- D.
24 hours
Correct Answer
D. 24 hoursExplanation
Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every 24 hours. This is necessary to ensure that the sterilizer is functioning properly and effectively sterilizing the equipment or load. Running diagnostic tests at regular intervals helps to identify any issues or malfunctions in the sterilizer, allowing for timely maintenance or repairs to be performed. This helps to maintain the sterility of the equipment and prevent any potential contamination or infection risks.Rate this question:
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- 20.
How often should biological testing be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers?
- A.
Every load
- B.
Every 30 loads
- C.
At least once per day
- D.
At least once a week
Correct Answer
C. At least once per dayExplanation
Biological testing should be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers at least once per day to ensure their effectiveness. This frequency allows for regular monitoring of the sterilization process and helps identify any potential issues or failures promptly. It is essential to maintain a high level of sterilization efficacy to prevent the spread of infections and ensure the safety of patients and healthcare workers. Regular testing helps to verify that the sterilizer is functioning correctly and that the sterilization parameters are being met consistently.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which basic human need category is rest included in?
- A.
Safety
- B.
Security
- C.
Self-esteem
- D.
Physiological
Correct Answer
D. PhysiologicalExplanation
Rest is included in the physiological category of basic human needs because it is essential for the body to recover and rejuvenate. Rest is necessary for maintaining physical health and well-being. It allows the body to repair tissues, conserve energy, and restore the immune system. Without adequate rest, individuals may experience physical fatigue, decreased cognitive function, and an increased risk of health issues. Therefore, rest is a fundamental physiological need for humans.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells?
- A.
Vitamins A
- B.
Vitamins K
- C.
Ascorbic acid
- D.
B-complex vitamins
Correct Answer
D. B-complex vitaminsExplanation
B-complex vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells. This group of vitamins includes thiamine (B1), riboflavin (B2), niacin (B3), pantothenic acid (B5), pyridoxine (B6), biotin (B7), folate (B9), and cobalamin (B12). These vitamins play crucial roles in the synthesis of DNA, which is necessary for the production of red blood cells. They also help in the formation of hemoglobin, the protein responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood. Deficiencies in B-complex vitamins can lead to anemia and impaired red blood cell production. Therefore, consuming an adequate amount of B-complex vitamins is essential for maintaining healthy red blood cell production.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?
- A.
Iron
- B.
Soy
- C.
Niacin
- D.
Calcium
Correct Answer
A. IronExplanation
Iron is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis. Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. Iron is a crucial component of hemoglobin, as it binds to oxygen and allows it to be transported to tissues and organs. Without sufficient iron, the body cannot produce an adequate amount of hemoglobin, leading to a condition called iron deficiency anemia. This can result in symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Therefore, iron is essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Plasma lipids include what three substances?
- A.
Vitamins, minerals, and herbs
- B.
Water, sucrose, and polyunsaturated fats
- C.
Nitrogen, carbon dioxide, and glucosaccaride
- D.
Triglycerides, phopholipids, and cholesterol
Correct Answer
D. Triglycerides, phopholipids, and cholesterolExplanation
Plasma lipids refer to the fats or lipids present in the blood plasma. The three substances mentioned in the correct answer, triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol, are all types of lipids commonly found in the plasma. Triglycerides are the most abundant form of fat in the body and are used for energy storage. Phospholipids are important components of cell membranes. Cholesterol is a waxy substance that is essential for the production of hormones and cell membranes. These three substances play crucial roles in various physiological processes in the body.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What two actions are included in the physiological need of rest?
- A.
Rest and activity
- B.
Pain free and rest
- C.
Activity and pain free
- D.
Pain free and exercise
Correct Answer
B. Pain free and restExplanation
The physiological need of rest includes two actions: being pain free and engaging in rest. Rest is essential for the body to recover and recharge, and being pain free allows for a more comfortable and effective period of rest. By ensuring that the body is free from pain and providing it with adequate rest, individuals can promote their overall well-being and maintain their physiological health.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden nosie or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs?
- A.
Babinski
- B.
Grasping
- C.
Rooting
- D.
Moro
Correct Answer
D. MoroExplanation
The Moro reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs. This reflex is an involuntary response that helps the infant to protect themselves from potential danger. It is characterized by the infant quickly spreading out their limbs and then bringing them back in a hugging motion. This reflex is usually present in newborns and typically disappears around 3 to 6 months of age.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at age
- A.
12 months
- B.
18 months
- C.
24 months
- D.
30 months
Correct Answer
C. 24 monthsExplanation
A toddler is expected to weigh four times their birth weight at age 24 months. This is because toddlers experience rapid growth and development in their first two years of life. By the time they reach 24 months, they have typically quadrupled their birth weight. This is a normal and healthy milestone in their growth trajectory.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?
- A.
Blood pressure screenings
- B.
Assessing current fitness status
- C.
Establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants
- D.
Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle
Correct Answer
A. Blood pressure screeningsExplanation
Blood pressure screenings are most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program because they help in monitoring and identifying potential health issues related to hypertension. Regular screenings can help employees understand their blood pressure levels and take necessary steps to maintain a healthy lifestyle. This can contribute to the overall wellness of the employees and promote a healthier work environment.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What substance does the body need in order to absorb vitamin B12?
- A.
Gastric acid
- B.
Intrinsic factor
- C.
Hydrogen ions
- D.
Red blood cells
Correct Answer
B. Intrinsic factorExplanation
Intrinsic factor is a substance that is needed by the body in order to absorb vitamin B12. It is produced by the stomach and is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. Without intrinsic factor, the body would not be able to effectively absorb and utilize vitamin B12, which is important for the production of red blood cells and the proper functioning of the nervous system.Rate this question:
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- 30.
B12 deficiency are first noted by
- A.
Aplastic anemia
- B.
Hemolytic anemia
- C.
Pernicious anemia
- D.
Sick cell anemia
Correct Answer
C. Pernicious anemiaExplanation
Pernicious anemia is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. This deficiency occurs when the body is unable to absorb enough vitamin B12 from the food consumed. Symptoms of pernicious anemia include fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, pale skin, and neurological problems. Therefore, the correct answer is pernicious anemia because it is directly associated with B12 deficiency.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through
- A.
Dehydration
- B.
Packaging
- C.
Cooking
- D.
Freezing
Correct Answer
D. FreezingExplanation
Freezing is the correct answer because it can cause a loss in the concentration of vitamin B6 in food sources. When food is frozen, the water inside the cells expands and can lead to the destruction of cell walls. This can result in the leakage of vitamin B6 from the cells, leading to a decrease in its concentration. Therefore, freezing can cause a loss of vitamin B6 in food sources.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Large doses of vitamin C cause all of the following except
- A.
Heartburn
- B.
Constipation
- C.
Kidney stones
- D.
Abdominal cramps
Correct Answer
B. ConstipationExplanation
Large doses of vitamin C can cause various gastrointestinal side effects such as heartburn, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea. However, it is unlikely to cause constipation. In fact, vitamin C is known to have a mild laxative effect and can help relieve constipation. Therefore, the correct answer is constipation.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Vitamin D interacts with all of the following except
- A.
Digitalis
- B.
Calcium
- C.
Mineral oil
- D.
Thiazide diuretics
Correct Answer
B. CalciumExplanation
Vitamin D interacts with various substances in the body, but it does not interact with calcium. Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium from the diet and regulates its levels in the blood. It works by binding to specific receptors in the intestines and kidneys, promoting calcium absorption and reabsorption. This interaction is crucial for maintaining proper bone health and preventing conditions like osteoporosis. However, vitamin D does not directly interact with digitalis, mineral oil, or thiazide diuretics.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the diease process of
- A.
Rickets
- B.
Night blindness
- C.
Pernicous anemia
- D.
Prolonged clotting times
Correct Answer
D. Prolonged clotting timesExplanation
Vitamin E plays a crucial role in blood clotting. When there is an overdose of vitamin E, it can interfere with the normal clotting process and lead to prolonged clotting times. This means that it takes longer for the blood to clot, which can be dangerous in situations where quick clotting is necessary to stop bleeding. Therefore, prolonged clotting times are a primary sign of a vitamin E overdose.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Vitamin K is not used to treat which of the following ailments?
- A.
Ulcerative colitis
- B.
Heparin overdose
- C.
Malabsorption syndromes
- D.
Prolonged use of salicylates
Correct Answer
B. Heparin overdoseExplanation
Vitamin K is not used to treat heparin overdose because heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots, while vitamin K is involved in blood clotting. In cases of heparin overdose, other medications or treatments may be used to counteract the effects of heparin or manage any complications that arise.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble?
- A.
Vitamin A
- B.
Vitamin C
- C.
Vitamin E
- D.
Vitamin K
Correct Answer
B. Vitamin CExplanation
Vitamin C is not fat-soluble because it is water-soluble. Unlike fat-soluble vitamins, which are stored in the body's fat tissues and can accumulate to toxic levels, water-soluble vitamins are not stored in large amounts. Instead, they are absorbed directly into the bloodstream and any excess is excreted through urine. Vitamin C is important for the growth, development, and repair of body tissues, and it acts as an antioxidant, protecting cells from damage. It is commonly found in fruits and vegetables.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Signs of sodium chloride deficieny can be seen
- A.
During a blood transfusion
- B.
As a result of not using table salt
- C.
When a individual is unable to sink in water
- D.
Through an excessive amount of fluid loss
Correct Answer
D. Through an excessive amount of fluid lossExplanation
When there is an excessive amount of fluid loss in the body, it can lead to sodium chloride deficiency. Sodium chloride, also known as table salt, is an essential electrolyte that helps maintain the balance of fluids in the body. When there is a significant loss of fluids, such as through excessive sweating, diarrhea, or vomiting, the body can become depleted of sodium chloride. This can result in symptoms such as muscle cramps, weakness, dizziness, and low blood pressure. Therefore, the signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be observed through an excessive amount of fluid loss.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Half-normal saline solution is represented by
- A.
0.2%
- B.
0.40%
- C.
0.45%
- D.
0.50%
Correct Answer
C. 0.45%Explanation
Half-normal saline solution is represented by 0.45%. This solution contains 0.45 grams of sodium chloride per 100 milliliters of water. It is commonly used in medical settings to replace fluids and electrolytes in the body. The concentration of 0.45% is considered isotonic, meaning it has the same osmotic pressure as blood plasma. This ensures that the solution can be safely administered without causing damage to cells or disrupting the balance of fluids in the body.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Potassium helps to maintain
- A.
Facial muscle tone
- B.
Clarity of eye sight
- C.
Heartbeat regulation
- D.
Alerness in the cerebellum
Correct Answer
C. Heartbeat regulationExplanation
Potassium is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in maintaining the proper functioning of the heart. It helps regulate the heartbeat by ensuring that the heart muscles contract and relax properly. Potassium ions are involved in the generation and transmission of electrical impulses in the heart, which coordinate the rhythm and rate of the heartbeat. Adequate levels of potassium in the body are necessary for maintaining a healthy heart and preventing irregular heartbeats or arrhythmias.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Caution must be taken when administering potassium to individuals with all of the following except
- A.
Diabetes
- B.
Gastric ulcers
- C.
Cardiac disease
- D.
Renal impairment
Correct Answer
A. DiabetesExplanation
Diabetes is not a contraindication for administering potassium. Potassium is commonly used to treat hypokalemia, which is a condition characterized by low potassium levels in the blood. In fact, individuals with diabetes may be at a higher risk of developing hypokalemia due to certain medications used to manage diabetes. Therefore, caution should be taken when administering potassium to individuals with gastric ulcers, cardiac disease, and renal impairment, but not to those with diabetes.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Oral iron supplements should not be taken with
- A.
Coffee, cranberry juice or water
- B.
Orange or grapefruit juice
- C.
Soda, water, or milk
- D.
Tea, milk or coffee
Correct Answer
D. Tea, milk or coffeeExplanation
Iron is best absorbed in the body when taken with foods or drinks that are rich in vitamin C, such as orange or grapefruit juice. Tea, milk, and coffee contain compounds that can inhibit iron absorption, so it is not recommended to take oral iron supplements with these beverages.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which route is injectable iron administered?
- A.
Intra muscular
- B.
Intra venous
- C.
Transdermal
- D.
Z-track
Correct Answer
A. Intra muscularExplanation
Injectable iron is administered through the intramuscular route. This means that the iron is injected directly into the muscle tissue, usually in the upper arm or thigh. This route allows for the iron to be absorbed into the bloodstream more quickly and efficiently compared to other routes such as oral or transdermal administration. Intra muscular injections are commonly used when a patient has a severe iron deficiency or cannot tolerate oral iron supplements.Rate this question:
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- 43.
When larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules, this is known as
- A.
Attraction
- B.
Catabolism
- C.
Anabolism
- D.
Cataclysm
Correct Answer
C. AnabolismExplanation
Anabolism refers to the process of constructing larger molecules from smaller molecules. It involves the synthesis of complex molecules, such as proteins, nucleic acids, and carbohydrates, from simpler building blocks. This process requires energy and is essential for growth, repair, and maintenance of body tissues. Anabolism is the opposite of catabolism, which involves the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones. Attraction and cataclysm are unrelated terms and do not describe the process of constructing larger molecules from smaller ones.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of
- A.
Muscle
- B.
Protein
- C.
Glucose
- D.
Enzyme
Correct Answer
D. EnzymeExplanation
Cellular metabolism refers to the chemical reactions that occur within a cell to maintain life. These reactions are controlled by enzymes, which are proteins that act as catalysts to speed up the rate of these reactions. Enzymes play a crucial role in cellular metabolism by facilitating the breakdown of molecules such as glucose and the synthesis of new molecules. Therefore, the correct answer is "Enzyme" as it is the specific kind of protein that controls cellular metabolism.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called
- A.
Salts
- B.
Acids
- C.
Catalyzed
- D.
Synthesized
Correct Answer
B. AcidsExplanation
Acids are electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water. When acids dissolve in water, they dissociate into positively charged hydrogen ions (H+) and negatively charged ions. These hydrogen ions are responsible for the acidic properties of substances. Therefore, the correct answer is "Acids."Rate this question:
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- 46.
When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by
- A.
Excessive thirst and nocturia
- B.
Acetone in the breath and urine
- C.
Constant hunger despite calorie intake
- D.
Severe vomiting resulting in weight loss
Correct Answer
B. Acetone in the breath and urineExplanation
When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, the body enters a state called ketosis. During ketosis, the body produces ketones, one of which is acetone. Acetone can be detected in the breath and urine, indicating that the body is metabolizing fats for energy. This is often seen in conditions like uncontrolled diabetes or ketogenic diets. The other options mentioned in the question, such as excessive thirst and nocturia, constant hunger despite calorie intake, and severe vomiting resulting in weight loss, may be related to other medical conditions but are not specifically associated with the metabolism of fats.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes?
- A.
Protect against disease at the cellular level
- B.
The body's only defense against infection
- C.
Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body
- D.
Carry amino acids to the kidneys for deamination and excretion
Correct Answer
A. Protect against disease at the cellular levelExplanation
Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are a crucial component of the immune system. They help protect the body against diseases by identifying and destroying harmful pathogens, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi, at the cellular level. Leukocytes are responsible for recognizing foreign substances and initiating an immune response to eliminate them. They play a vital role in maintaining overall health and defending the body against infections and diseases.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The two main categories of leukocytes are
- A.
Agranulocytes and basophils
- B.
Granulocytes and agranulocytes
- C.
Neurtophils and granulocytes
- D.
Monophils and lymphocytes
Correct Answer
B. Granulocytes and agranulocytesExplanation
Granulocytes and agranulocytes are the two main categories of leukocytes. Granulocytes are characterized by the presence of granules in their cytoplasm, which can be stained and observed under a microscope. They include neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. Agranulocytes, on the other hand, do not have visible granules in their cytoplasm. They include monocytes and lymphocytes. This categorization is based on the presence or absence of granules and helps in identifying and classifying different types of white blood cells.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Neutrophils are also known as
- A.
Polypeptides
- B.
Polysaccharides
- C.
Multigranulocytes
- D.
Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
Correct Answer
D. Polymorphonuclear leukocytesExplanation
Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that are characterized by their multi-lobed nucleus, hence the term "polymorphonuclear." They are part of the body's immune system and play a crucial role in fighting off infections. The other options, polypeptides and polysaccharides, refer to different types of molecules and are not correct. Multigranulocytes is not a recognized term in relation to neutrophils.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The life span of lymphocytes is
- A.
12 hours
- B.
2 weeks
- C.
Years
- D.
Days
Correct Answer
C. YearsExplanation
Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cells that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are responsible for recognizing and destroying pathogens and infected cells. The life span of lymphocytes varies depending on the type. While some lymphocytes, such as natural killer cells, have a short life span of only a few days, others, such as memory B and T cells, can live for years. These long-lived lymphocytes help provide long-term immunity against previously encountered pathogens. Therefore, the correct answer is "Years."Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 03, 2016Quiz Created by
James
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