4N051 CDC Practice Test Set B (1)

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  • 1/58 Questions

    Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

    • Antigen
    • Antibody
    • Pathogen
    • Micro-organism
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About This Quiz

This practice test, titled '4N051 CDC Practice Test Set B (1)', assesses knowledge on pathogens, infection stages, and precautions. It focuses on understanding organisms causing diseases like malaria, mechanisms like mucous membranes, and safety protocols in medical environments.

4N051 CDC Practice Test Set B (1) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria?

    • Sporozoa

    • Chlamydia

    • Rickettsiae

    • Mycoplasma

    Correct Answer
    A. Sporozoa
    Explanation
    Sporozoa is the correct answer because it is a classification of organisms that includes the parasites responsible for causing malaria. These organisms are single-celled and have complex life cycles involving both humans and mosquitoes. They belong to the phylum Apicomplexa and are characterized by their ability to form spores. Sporozoa are known for causing various diseases in animals, including malaria in humans.

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  • 3. 

    Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?

    • Illness

    • Virulence

    • Incubation

    • Convalescence

    Correct Answer
    A. Incubation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Incubation. Incubation is the stage of infection where the infectious agent has entered the body but symptoms of the disease have not yet appeared. During this period, the pathogen is multiplying and spreading within the body, but the person infected may not be aware of it. The length of the incubation period can vary depending on the specific disease and the individual's immune response. Once the incubation period ends, symptoms begin to manifest, marking the transition to the next stage of infection.

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  • 4. 

    The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through

    • Cilia

    • Sneezing

    • Handwashing

    • The lymphatic system

    Correct Answer
    A. Cilia
    Explanation
    Cilia are hair-like structures found in the respiratory tract that help to filter and trap foreign bodies such as dust, pollen, and bacteria. They constantly beat in coordinated motions to move mucus and trapped particles out of the respiratory system, preventing them from reaching the lungs. This mechanism of the cilia helps to protect the respiratory system from potential infections and irritants.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaution?

    • Airborne

    • Droplet

    • Contact

    • Enteric

    Correct Answer
    A. Enteric
    Explanation
    Enteric is not a type of transmission-based precaution. Transmission-based precautions are measures taken to prevent the spread of infectious diseases in healthcare settings. The three main types of transmission-based precautions are airborne, droplet, and contact. Airborne precautions are used for diseases that are spread through tiny particles in the air, droplet precautions are used for diseases that are spread through large respiratory droplets, and contact precautions are used for diseases that are spread through direct contact with an infected person or contaminated surfaces. Enteric precautions, on the other hand, specifically refer to precautions taken for diseases that affect the gastrointestinal tract, such as diarrhea or vomiting.

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  • 6. 

    Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored, negative air pressure?

    • Droplet

    • Contact

    • Airborne

    • Respiratory

    Correct Answer
    A. Airborne
    Explanation
    Airborne transmission-based precautions require monitored, negative air pressure. This means that the air pressure inside the room or area where the patient is located is lower than the surrounding areas. This helps to prevent the spread of infectious particles in the air from escaping the room and infecting others. Monitoring and maintaining negative air pressure is crucial in preventing the transmission of airborne diseases.

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  • 7. 

    What is the most serious type of meningitis?

    • Viral

    • Serum

    • Bacterial

    • Pneumococcal

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacterial
    Explanation
    Bacterial meningitis is the most serious type of meningitis because it is caused by bacteria that can rapidly spread and infect the brain and spinal cord. This type of meningitis can lead to severe complications such as brain damage, hearing loss, and even death if not treated promptly. It requires immediate medical attention and treatment with antibiotics to prevent further complications.

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  • 8. 

    One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is

    • Pelvic inflammatory disease

    • Irregular menstrual cycles

    • Vaginal discharge

    • Chlamydia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
    Explanation
    Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common and serious complication that can develop from gonorrhea infection in females. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. If left untreated, the infection can spread from the cervix to the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries, leading to PID. PID can cause severe pelvic pain, fever, and can lead to long-term complications such as infertility or ectopic pregnancy. Therefore, PID is considered a significant and potentially serious consequence of untreated gonorrhea infection in females.

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  • 9. 

    Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organisms?

    • Medical sepsis

    • Medical asepsis

    • Surgical sepsis

    • Surgical asepsis

    Correct Answer
    A. Surgical asepsis
    Explanation
    Surgical asepsis refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organisms. This term specifically relates to procedures and techniques used in surgical settings to prevent the introduction of micro-organisms into a surgical wound or sterile field. It involves the use of sterile equipment, proper hand hygiene, and the implementation of sterile techniques to minimize the risk of infection during surgical procedures.

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  • 10. 

    Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?

    • Disinfectant

    • Antiseptic

    • Detergent

    • Antitoxin

    Correct Answer
    A. Antiseptic
    Explanation
    Antiseptics are substances that are used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue. Unlike disinfectants, which are used on inanimate objects, antiseptics are specifically designed to be used on living tissue to prevent infection and promote healing. They are commonly used in healthcare settings, such as hospitals and clinics, to clean wounds and prepare the skin before surgical procedures. Antiseptics work by killing or inhibiting the growth of bacteria, viruses, and fungi, thus reducing the risk of infection and promoting a healthy healing environment.

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  • 11. 

    What type of isolation are patients highly susceptible to infection placed in?

    • Airborne

    • Droplet

    • Contact

    • Reverse

    Correct Answer
    A. Reverse
    Explanation
    Patients who are highly susceptible to infection are placed in reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a protective measure used to prevent the transmission of infections to patients who have weakened immune systems, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or organ transplant recipients. In reverse isolation, strict infection control practices are followed, including the use of personal protective equipment, limiting visitors, and maintaining a clean environment to minimize the risk of introducing pathogens to the patient. This type of isolation is the opposite of regular isolation, where patients with infectious diseases are isolated to prevent the spread of their illness to others.

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  • 12. 

    What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department?

    • You must don a gown, mask, and gloves prior to transporting the patient

    • Notify all hospital personnel so they can take necessary precautions

    • Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport

    • Hospital policy does not permit transport of infectious patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport
    Explanation
    When transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department, it is important to give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport. This is necessary to prevent the spread of infection to other individuals during the transportation process. By providing the patient with these protective measures, it helps to minimize the risk of transmission and ensures the safety of both the patient and the healthcare personnel involved in the transport.

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  • 13. 

    An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is

    • A storage cart

    • An isolation cart

    • The supply room

    • The nurse's station

    Correct Answer
    A. An isolation cart
    Explanation
    An isolation cart is an acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit because it provides a designated space for storing and organizing necessary supplies and equipment for isolation procedures. It allows healthcare professionals to easily access and transport items needed for isolation precautions, such as personal protective equipment and disinfectants, without having to leave the isolation unit. This helps to minimize the risk of contamination and maintain a controlled environment for the safety of both patients and healthcare workers.

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  • 14. 

    When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on

    • After entering the unit, and take it off before leaving

    • After entering the unit, and take if off after leaving

    • Before entering, and take it off before leaving

    • Before entering, and take it off after leaving

    Correct Answer
    A. Before entering, and take it off before leaving
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to put the mask on before entering the isolation unit and take it off before leaving. This ensures that the mask is worn while in close proximity to potentially infectious individuals, providing a barrier for respiratory droplets. Removing the mask before leaving helps prevent the spread of any contaminants that may have accumulated on the mask during the visit to the isolation unit.

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  • 15. 

    What is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization?

    • Cleaning

    • Disinfection

    • Pasteurization

    • Decontamination

    Correct Answer
    A. Cleaning
    Explanation
    The first step in preparing objects for sterilization is cleaning. Cleaning involves removing dirt, debris, and organic matter from the objects to ensure that they are free from any visible contamination. This step is crucial as it helps to reduce the number of microorganisms present on the objects before proceeding to the sterilization process. Cleaning can be done using various methods such as washing with soap and water, scrubbing, or using ultrasonic cleaners. Once the objects are thoroughly cleaned, they can then be subjected to disinfection or other sterilization methods to eliminate any remaining microorganisms.

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  • 16. 

    How long is an item immersed in the sterilant during the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer?

    • Three minutes

    • Five minutes

    • 10 minutes

    • 12 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 minutes
    Explanation
    In the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer, an item is immersed in the sterilant for 12 minutes. This duration ensures that the sterilant effectively kills any microorganisms present on the item, ensuring its complete sterilization. A longer immersion time allows for a more thorough sterilization process, reducing the risk of contamination.

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  • 17. 

    Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?

    • Formaldehydes

    • Hydrochloric acid

    • Phenolics

    • Alcohol

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydrochloric acid
    Explanation
    Hydrochloric acid is not commonly used as a disinfecting agent. While formaldehydes, phenolics, and alcohol are commonly used for disinfection purposes, hydrochloric acid is primarily used for industrial purposes such as cleaning and pH adjustment. It is a strong corrosive acid and can cause harm to living tissues, making it unsuitable for use as a disinfectant.

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  • 18. 

    How often do you clean and inspect steam sterilizers?

    • Daily

    • Daily and weekly

    • Daily and monthly

    • Weekly and monthly

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily and weekly
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Daily and weekly" because steam sterilizers need to be cleaned and inspected regularly to ensure their proper functioning. Daily cleaning helps remove any residue or contaminants that may be present, while weekly inspections allow for the identification of any potential issues or maintenance needs. By cleaning and inspecting the sterilizers on a regular basis, they can be kept in optimal condition and minimize the risk of contamination during the sterilization process.

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  • 19. 

    Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every

    • Load

    • Other load

    • 12 hours

    • 24 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours
    Explanation
    Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every 24 hours. This is necessary to ensure that the sterilizer is functioning properly and effectively sterilizing the equipment or load. Running diagnostic tests at regular intervals helps to identify any issues or malfunctions in the sterilizer, allowing for timely maintenance or repairs to be performed. This helps to maintain the sterility of the equipment and prevent any potential contamination or infection risks.

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  • 20. 

    How often should biological testing be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers?

    • Every load

    • Every 30 loads

    • At least once per day

    • At least once a week

    Correct Answer
    A. At least once per day
    Explanation
    Biological testing should be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers at least once per day to ensure their effectiveness. This frequency allows for regular monitoring of the sterilization process and helps identify any potential issues or failures promptly. It is essential to maintain a high level of sterilization efficacy to prevent the spread of infections and ensure the safety of patients and healthcare workers. Regular testing helps to verify that the sterilizer is functioning correctly and that the sterilization parameters are being met consistently.

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  • 21. 

    Which basic human need category is rest included in?

    • Safety

    • Security

    • Self-esteem

    • Physiological

    Correct Answer
    A. Physiological
    Explanation
    Rest is included in the physiological category of basic human needs because it is essential for the body to recover and rejuvenate. Rest is necessary for maintaining physical health and well-being. It allows the body to repair tissues, conserve energy, and restore the immune system. Without adequate rest, individuals may experience physical fatigue, decreased cognitive function, and an increased risk of health issues. Therefore, rest is a fundamental physiological need for humans.

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  • 22. 

    Which vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells?

    • Vitamins A

    • Vitamins K

    • Ascorbic acid

    • B-complex vitamins

    Correct Answer
    A. B-complex vitamins
    Explanation
    B-complex vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells. This group of vitamins includes thiamine (B1), riboflavin (B2), niacin (B3), pantothenic acid (B5), pyridoxine (B6), biotin (B7), folate (B9), and cobalamin (B12). These vitamins play crucial roles in the synthesis of DNA, which is necessary for the production of red blood cells. They also help in the formation of hemoglobin, the protein responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood. Deficiencies in B-complex vitamins can lead to anemia and impaired red blood cell production. Therefore, consuming an adequate amount of B-complex vitamins is essential for maintaining healthy red blood cell production.

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  • 23. 

    What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?

    • Iron

    • Soy

    • Niacin

    • Calcium

    Correct Answer
    A. Iron
    Explanation
    Iron is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis. Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. Iron is a crucial component of hemoglobin, as it binds to oxygen and allows it to be transported to tissues and organs. Without sufficient iron, the body cannot produce an adequate amount of hemoglobin, leading to a condition called iron deficiency anemia. This can result in symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Therefore, iron is essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin.

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  • 24. 

    Plasma lipids include what three substances?

    • Vitamins, minerals, and herbs

    • Water, sucrose, and polyunsaturated fats

    • Nitrogen, carbon dioxide, and glucosaccaride

    • Triglycerides, phopholipids, and cholesterol

    Correct Answer
    A. Triglycerides, phopholipids, and cholesterol
    Explanation
    Plasma lipids refer to the fats or lipids present in the blood plasma. The three substances mentioned in the correct answer, triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol, are all types of lipids commonly found in the plasma. Triglycerides are the most abundant form of fat in the body and are used for energy storage. Phospholipids are important components of cell membranes. Cholesterol is a waxy substance that is essential for the production of hormones and cell membranes. These three substances play crucial roles in various physiological processes in the body.

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  • 25. 

    What two actions are included in the physiological need of rest?

    • Rest and activity

    • Pain free and rest

    • Activity and pain free

    • Pain free and exercise

    Correct Answer
    A. Pain free and rest
    Explanation
    The physiological need of rest includes two actions: being pain free and engaging in rest. Rest is essential for the body to recover and recharge, and being pain free allows for a more comfortable and effective period of rest. By ensuring that the body is free from pain and providing it with adequate rest, individuals can promote their overall well-being and maintain their physiological health.

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  • 26. 

    What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden nosie or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs?

    • Babinski

    • Grasping

    • Rooting

    • Moro

    Correct Answer
    A. Moro
    Explanation
    The Moro reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs. This reflex is an involuntary response that helps the infant to protect themselves from potential danger. It is characterized by the infant quickly spreading out their limbs and then bringing them back in a hugging motion. This reflex is usually present in newborns and typically disappears around 3 to 6 months of age.

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  • 27. 

    A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at age

    • 12 months

    • 18 months

    • 24 months

    • 30 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 months
    Explanation
    A toddler is expected to weigh four times their birth weight at age 24 months. This is because toddlers experience rapid growth and development in their first two years of life. By the time they reach 24 months, they have typically quadrupled their birth weight. This is a normal and healthy milestone in their growth trajectory.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?

    • Blood pressure screenings

    • Assessing current fitness status

    • Establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants

    • Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood pressure screenings
    Explanation
    Blood pressure screenings are most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program because they help in monitoring and identifying potential health issues related to hypertension. Regular screenings can help employees understand their blood pressure levels and take necessary steps to maintain a healthy lifestyle. This can contribute to the overall wellness of the employees and promote a healthier work environment.

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  • 29. 

    What substance does the body need in order to absorb vitamin B12?

    • Gastric acid

    • Intrinsic factor

    • Hydrogen ions

    • Red blood cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Intrinsic factor
    Explanation
    Intrinsic factor is a substance that is needed by the body in order to absorb vitamin B12. It is produced by the stomach and is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. Without intrinsic factor, the body would not be able to effectively absorb and utilize vitamin B12, which is important for the production of red blood cells and the proper functioning of the nervous system.

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  • 30. 

    B12 deficiency are first noted by

    • Aplastic anemia

    • Hemolytic anemia

    • Pernicious anemia

    • Sick cell anemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pernicious anemia
    Explanation
    Pernicious anemia is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. This deficiency occurs when the body is unable to absorb enough vitamin B12 from the food consumed. Symptoms of pernicious anemia include fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, pale skin, and neurological problems. Therefore, the correct answer is pernicious anemia because it is directly associated with B12 deficiency.

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  • 31. 

    Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through

    • Dehydration

    • Packaging

    • Cooking

    • Freezing

    Correct Answer
    A. Freezing
    Explanation
    Freezing is the correct answer because it can cause a loss in the concentration of vitamin B6 in food sources. When food is frozen, the water inside the cells expands and can lead to the destruction of cell walls. This can result in the leakage of vitamin B6 from the cells, leading to a decrease in its concentration. Therefore, freezing can cause a loss of vitamin B6 in food sources.

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  • 32. 

    Large doses of vitamin C cause all of the following except

    • Heartburn

    • Constipation

    • Kidney stones

    • Abdominal cramps

    Correct Answer
    A. Constipation
    Explanation
    Large doses of vitamin C can cause various gastrointestinal side effects such as heartburn, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea. However, it is unlikely to cause constipation. In fact, vitamin C is known to have a mild laxative effect and can help relieve constipation. Therefore, the correct answer is constipation.

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  • 33. 

    Vitamin D interacts with all of the following except

    • Digitalis

    • Calcium

    • Mineral oil

    • Thiazide diuretics

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium
    Explanation
    Vitamin D interacts with various substances in the body, but it does not interact with calcium. Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium from the diet and regulates its levels in the blood. It works by binding to specific receptors in the intestines and kidneys, promoting calcium absorption and reabsorption. This interaction is crucial for maintaining proper bone health and preventing conditions like osteoporosis. However, vitamin D does not directly interact with digitalis, mineral oil, or thiazide diuretics.

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  • 34. 

    A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the diease process of

    • Rickets

    • Night blindness

    • Pernicous anemia

    • Prolonged clotting times

    Correct Answer
    A. Prolonged clotting times
    Explanation
    Vitamin E plays a crucial role in blood clotting. When there is an overdose of vitamin E, it can interfere with the normal clotting process and lead to prolonged clotting times. This means that it takes longer for the blood to clot, which can be dangerous in situations where quick clotting is necessary to stop bleeding. Therefore, prolonged clotting times are a primary sign of a vitamin E overdose.

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  • 35. 

    Vitamin K is not used to treat which of the following ailments?

    • Ulcerative colitis

    • Heparin overdose

    • Malabsorption syndromes

    • Prolonged use of salicylates

    Correct Answer
    A. Heparin overdose
    Explanation
    Vitamin K is not used to treat heparin overdose because heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots, while vitamin K is involved in blood clotting. In cases of heparin overdose, other medications or treatments may be used to counteract the effects of heparin or manage any complications that arise.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble?

    • Vitamin A

    • Vitamin C

    • Vitamin E

    • Vitamin K

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitamin C
    Explanation
    Vitamin C is not fat-soluble because it is water-soluble. Unlike fat-soluble vitamins, which are stored in the body's fat tissues and can accumulate to toxic levels, water-soluble vitamins are not stored in large amounts. Instead, they are absorbed directly into the bloodstream and any excess is excreted through urine. Vitamin C is important for the growth, development, and repair of body tissues, and it acts as an antioxidant, protecting cells from damage. It is commonly found in fruits and vegetables.

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  • 37. 

    Signs of sodium chloride deficieny can be seen

    • During a blood transfusion

    • As a result of not using table salt

    • When a individual is unable to sink in water

    • Through an excessive amount of fluid loss

    Correct Answer
    A. Through an excessive amount of fluid loss
    Explanation
    When there is an excessive amount of fluid loss in the body, it can lead to sodium chloride deficiency. Sodium chloride, also known as table salt, is an essential electrolyte that helps maintain the balance of fluids in the body. When there is a significant loss of fluids, such as through excessive sweating, diarrhea, or vomiting, the body can become depleted of sodium chloride. This can result in symptoms such as muscle cramps, weakness, dizziness, and low blood pressure. Therefore, the signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be observed through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

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  • 38. 

    Half-normal saline solution is represented by

    • 0.2%

    • 0.40%

    • 0.45%

    • 0.50%

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.45%
    Explanation
    Half-normal saline solution is represented by 0.45%. This solution contains 0.45 grams of sodium chloride per 100 milliliters of water. It is commonly used in medical settings to replace fluids and electrolytes in the body. The concentration of 0.45% is considered isotonic, meaning it has the same osmotic pressure as blood plasma. This ensures that the solution can be safely administered without causing damage to cells or disrupting the balance of fluids in the body.

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  • 39. 

    Potassium helps to maintain

    • Facial muscle tone

    • Clarity of eye sight

    • Heartbeat regulation

    • Alerness in the cerebellum

    Correct Answer
    A. Heartbeat regulation
    Explanation
    Potassium is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in maintaining the proper functioning of the heart. It helps regulate the heartbeat by ensuring that the heart muscles contract and relax properly. Potassium ions are involved in the generation and transmission of electrical impulses in the heart, which coordinate the rhythm and rate of the heartbeat. Adequate levels of potassium in the body are necessary for maintaining a healthy heart and preventing irregular heartbeats or arrhythmias.

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  • 40. 

    Caution must be taken when administering potassium to individuals with all of the following except

    • Diabetes

    • Gastric ulcers

    • Cardiac disease

    • Renal impairment

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetes
    Explanation
    Diabetes is not a contraindication for administering potassium. Potassium is commonly used to treat hypokalemia, which is a condition characterized by low potassium levels in the blood. In fact, individuals with diabetes may be at a higher risk of developing hypokalemia due to certain medications used to manage diabetes. Therefore, caution should be taken when administering potassium to individuals with gastric ulcers, cardiac disease, and renal impairment, but not to those with diabetes.

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  • 41. 

    Oral iron supplements should not be taken with

    • Coffee, cranberry juice or water

    • Orange or grapefruit juice

    • Soda, water, or milk

    • Tea, milk or coffee

    Correct Answer
    A. Tea, milk or coffee
    Explanation
    Iron is best absorbed in the body when taken with foods or drinks that are rich in vitamin C, such as orange or grapefruit juice. Tea, milk, and coffee contain compounds that can inhibit iron absorption, so it is not recommended to take oral iron supplements with these beverages.

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  • 42. 

    Which route is injectable iron administered?

    • Intra muscular

    • Intra venous

    • Transdermal

    • Z-track

    Correct Answer
    A. Intra muscular
    Explanation
    Injectable iron is administered through the intramuscular route. This means that the iron is injected directly into the muscle tissue, usually in the upper arm or thigh. This route allows for the iron to be absorbed into the bloodstream more quickly and efficiently compared to other routes such as oral or transdermal administration. Intra muscular injections are commonly used when a patient has a severe iron deficiency or cannot tolerate oral iron supplements.

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  • 43. 

    When larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules, this is known as

    • Attraction

    • Catabolism

    • Anabolism

    • Cataclysm

    Correct Answer
    A. Anabolism
    Explanation
    Anabolism refers to the process of constructing larger molecules from smaller molecules. It involves the synthesis of complex molecules, such as proteins, nucleic acids, and carbohydrates, from simpler building blocks. This process requires energy and is essential for growth, repair, and maintenance of body tissues. Anabolism is the opposite of catabolism, which involves the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones. Attraction and cataclysm are unrelated terms and do not describe the process of constructing larger molecules from smaller ones.

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  • 44. 

    Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of

    • Muscle

    • Protein

    • Glucose

    • Enzyme

    Correct Answer
    A. Enzyme
    Explanation
    Cellular metabolism refers to the chemical reactions that occur within a cell to maintain life. These reactions are controlled by enzymes, which are proteins that act as catalysts to speed up the rate of these reactions. Enzymes play a crucial role in cellular metabolism by facilitating the breakdown of molecules such as glucose and the synthesis of new molecules. Therefore, the correct answer is "Enzyme" as it is the specific kind of protein that controls cellular metabolism.

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  • 45. 

    Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called

    • Salts

    • Acids

    • Catalyzed

    • Synthesized

    Correct Answer
    A. Acids
    Explanation
    Acids are electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water. When acids dissolve in water, they dissociate into positively charged hydrogen ions (H+) and negatively charged ions. These hydrogen ions are responsible for the acidic properties of substances. Therefore, the correct answer is "Acids."

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  • 46. 

    When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by

    • Excessive thirst and nocturia

    • Acetone in the breath and urine

    • Constant hunger despite calorie intake

    • Severe vomiting resulting in weight loss

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetone in the breath and urine
    Explanation
    When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, the body enters a state called ketosis. During ketosis, the body produces ketones, one of which is acetone. Acetone can be detected in the breath and urine, indicating that the body is metabolizing fats for energy. This is often seen in conditions like uncontrolled diabetes or ketogenic diets. The other options mentioned in the question, such as excessive thirst and nocturia, constant hunger despite calorie intake, and severe vomiting resulting in weight loss, may be related to other medical conditions but are not specifically associated with the metabolism of fats.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes?

    • Protect against disease at the cellular level

    • The body's only defense against infection

    • Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body

    • Carry amino acids to the kidneys for deamination and excretion

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect against disease at the cellular level
    Explanation
    Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are a crucial component of the immune system. They help protect the body against diseases by identifying and destroying harmful pathogens, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi, at the cellular level. Leukocytes are responsible for recognizing foreign substances and initiating an immune response to eliminate them. They play a vital role in maintaining overall health and defending the body against infections and diseases.

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  • 48. 

    The two main categories of leukocytes are

    • Agranulocytes and basophils

    • Granulocytes and agranulocytes

    • Neurtophils and granulocytes

    • Monophils and lymphocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Granulocytes and agranulocytes
    Explanation
    Granulocytes and agranulocytes are the two main categories of leukocytes. Granulocytes are characterized by the presence of granules in their cytoplasm, which can be stained and observed under a microscope. They include neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. Agranulocytes, on the other hand, do not have visible granules in their cytoplasm. They include monocytes and lymphocytes. This categorization is based on the presence or absence of granules and helps in identifying and classifying different types of white blood cells.

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  • 49. 

    Neutrophils are also known as

    • Polypeptides

    • Polysaccharides

    • Multigranulocytes

    • Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that are characterized by their multi-lobed nucleus, hence the term "polymorphonuclear." They are part of the body's immune system and play a crucial role in fighting off infections. The other options, polypeptides and polysaccharides, refer to different types of molecules and are not correct. Multigranulocytes is not a recognized term in relation to neutrophils.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Oct 17, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Oct 17, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Oct 03, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    James

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