3S071 Volume 2

1. What is the basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces?

Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Execution Segment (DCAPES).

Air and space expeditionary force mapping documents.

Time phased force deployment data.

Unit type code.

2. The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both

Federal and state missions.

Federal and overseas missions.

State and community missions.

Overseas and community missions.

3. If the president or Congress expanded the active Armed Forces up to 1,000,000 members, not to exceed 24 consecutive months, they elected what type of mobilization?

Full.

Total.

Spatial.

Partial.

4. The Reserves defend the United States through control and exploitation of air and space by supporting what type of engagement?

Regional.

National.

Global.

Local.

5. The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through what form of movement?

Deployment.

Employment.

Mobilization.

Demobilization.

6. Challenges and threats of those who are opposed to United States values and interests may arise from

Adversaries.

Dignitaries.

Diplomats.

Allies.

7. The depth of experience the Reserve forces bring to the mission and the Air Force is an invaluable

Responsibility.

Commodity.

Opportunity.

Job.

8. The concept of mobilization can be associated with all activities necessary for the orderly transition of both active and Reserve Component forces from peacetime to

Partial mobilization.

Full mobilization.

Wartime posture.

Reconstitution.

9. The concept of mobilization is associated with "calling up" Reserve Component forces. What does "calling up" do, if anything, to the active duty's military capability?

Increases military capability.

Decreases military capability.

Military capability stays the same.

Enhances the number of Reserve Component forces.

10. In regards to the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system (AFPAAS), which agency serves as the primary distribution and collection point for information regarding impacted threatened personnel?

HQ AFPC/DPSOA.

HQ AFPC/DPSIA.

HQ AFPC/PRC.

HQ A&FRC.

11. The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) primary purpose is to provide

War-fighter support.

Stability to Airmen.

Predictability to Airmen.

Fair share tempo band support.

12. Which of the following is not a tenet that describes the characteristics of a successful mobilization?

Having an objective.

Ensuring timeliness.

Being subjective.

Being flexible.

13. The Air Force organized its total force into how many air and space expeditionary forces?

10

15

20

25

14. In regards to the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system, which agency has the responsibility for scheduling case management training through the Defense Connect Online (DCO) with Space and Naval Warfare System Center (SPAWAR)?

HQ AFPC/DPSOA.

HQ AFPC/DPSIA.

HQ AFPC/PRC.

HQ A&FRC.

15. The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to

Win the war.

Place capable personnel in the area of responsibility.

Equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.

Equitably align available Air Force UTCs across 15 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.

16. When the air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions, it normally organizes as a/an

Air and space expeditionary squadron.

Air and space expeditionary group.

Numbered expeditionary air force.

Air and expeditionary wing.

17. What group in the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct is the basic war fighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the air and space expeditionary task force (AETF)?

Air and space expeditionary squadron.

Air and space expeditionary element.

Air and space expeditionary group.

Air and space expeditionary wing.

18. Once an Airman arrives at a base, he or she is required to report to the

Financial services office (FSO).

Military personnel section (MPS).

Medical treatment facility (MTF).

Unit deployment manager (UDM).

19. The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) serves as the military personnel sections (MPS) war planner for personnel

Deployments, exercises, contingencies, and rotational matters.

Deployments, contingencies, and assignment limitation codes.

Exercises, assignment limitation codes, and deployments.

Assignment limitation codes, deployments, and rotational matters.

20. What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)?

Air Staff.

Joint Staff.

Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

Department of Defense (DOD).

21. Which capability library contains a fixed capability that at any given time identifies forces that constitute the total force that has been made available or allocated for scheduling?

Unit type code (UTC).

Air expeditionary force (AEF).

Global Force Management (GFM).

Unit manpower document (UMD).

22. At any given time, how many air and space expeditionary force (AEF) block(s) and or pair(s) from each tempo band is in the AEF vulnerability period?

One.

Two.

Four.

Six.

23. The planning process by which the armed forces or part of them are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency describes which joint operation planning activity?

Sustainment.

Mobilization.

Employment.

Reconstitution.

24. During natural disasters or national emergencies, the ability to quickly assess the status of Air Force Airmen, Department of the Air Force, nonappropriated funds civilians, and families is critical to resuming normal

Response time.

Operations.

Procedures.

Functions.

25. The United States Armed Forces shape and employ the military instrument to defend interest and objectives guided by

Demobilization planning.

National security policy.

Mobilization planning.

Joint tactical policy.

26. If activated personnel experience personal, financial, or medical hardship caused by mobilization, early deactivation, or demobilization, they can request to

Remain on active duty until they reach 20 years of service.

Remain on active duty until they reach 15 years of service.

Remain on active duty up to the original activation period.

Return to civilian status immediately.

27. What provides authoritative guidance based upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces?

Joint doctrine.

Basic doctrine.

Execution planning.

Operations planning.

28. The type of doctrine that states the most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use of Air Forces in military action is known as

Basic.

Joint.

Tactical.

Operational.

29. Doctrine that guides the proper organization and employment of forces in the context of distinct objectives, force capabilities, functional areas, and environments is referred to as

Basic.

Joint.

Tactical.

Operational.

30. Whose responsibility is it to make sure an up-to-date unit recall roster is maintained and forwarded to the installation command post?

Installation deployment function.

Personnel readiness function.

Unit deployment manager.

Commander.

31. The process of terminating orders, notifying individuals or units, and transferring individuals or units from federal active duty status to their previous reserve status describes

Demobilization.

Deactivation.

Separation.

Discharge.

32. Why is it important to maintain a communications-out recall roster?

Local communications may be inoperative or overloaded.

It is easier to go and find people rather than call them on the phone.

The communications squadron requires a communications-out recall roster.

The wing commander requires all squadrons to maintain a communications-out roster.

33. Personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team must arrive at the military personnel section (MPS) within six hours of the original alert order or deployment notification as

Ready-to-perform personnel deployment function.

Ready-to-conduct inventory of supply kits.

Ready-to-deploy.

Ready-to-train.

34. After a catastrophic event, accountability of personnel occur within the Air Force Personnel Accountability Assessment System (AFPAAS) when

Affected personnel report to their place of duty.

Affected personnel report their whereabouts in AFPAAS.

All members are notified that a natural disaster is imminent.

All members update, review, or change their information in AFPAAS.

35. The joint operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area is

Redeployment.

Employment.

Mobilization.

Deployment.

36. Days that are allocated, or put aside, for use by Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard officers, noncommissioned officers, and Airmen are commonly referred to as

Military personnel appropriation man-days.

Noncommissioned officers man-days.

Reserve man-days.

Guard man-days.

37. A plan to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary describes which type of plan?

Concept.

Operation.

Functional.

Supporting.

38. Which joint and service planning system is the Department of Defense (DOD)-directed single, integrated joint command and control (C2) for conventional operation planning and execution?

Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

39. Which joint and service planning system's objective is to enable Air Force-unique operation planning process which includes associated joint policy procedures?

Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

40. Which mobilization tenet is achieved through rapid needs assessment, efficient mobilization procedures, and frequent exercises to test and improve procedures?

Having an objective.

Ensuring timeliness.

Being subjective.

Being flexible.

41. Which joint and service planning system is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD) functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the United States armed forces and certain foreign organizations?

Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

42. Who has overall responsibility for Air Force personnel readiness and accountability programs and directives?

HQ AFPC/DPC.

HQ AFPC/DPW.

HQ USAF/A1PR.

HQ AFPC/DPWR.

43. The mobilization tenet necessary to develop an appropriate response in a crisis, overcome unforeseen problems, and provide protection of the force and equipment while adapting to uncertainties and adjusting to the idea of war describes

Having an objective.

Ensuring timeliness.

Being subjective.

Being flexible.

44. Which phase is a transition phase from a build-up or surge phase, where the majority of the main operating force has arrived and completed in-processing actions?

Planning.

Execution.

Sustainment.

Redeployment.

45. Personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) team will coordinate with all deployed support agencies and become involved in the process on how, when, and where to most efficiently process personnel when the

Reception control center is not established.

Accountability actions are under control.

Need for replacement forces is low.

Projected aircraft is landing.

46. During the reception process, the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) team is required to collect what documents?

Two copies of the contingency/exercise/deployment orders and a completed AF Form 245.

Three copies of the contingency/exercise/deployment orders and a blank AF Form 245.

Two copies of the member’s immunization letter and a completed AF Form 245.

Three copies of the member’s immunization letter and a blank AF Form 245.

47. It is imperative the personnel support for contingency operation team maintain a hard copy of the accountability file because

The electronic information may not be correct.

The files management clerk requires a hard copy.

The TDY commander may request some accountability information.

Electronic information can be lost at any time due to equipment malfunction.

48. Which unit type code (UTC) is considered or called the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) accountability team and is the only stand alone PERSCO team?

RFPF1.

RFPF2.

RFPF3.

RFPF4.

49. Maintaining accountability over all personnel on the ground and at their deployed and designated geographically separated locations, regardless of status, according to component command policies describes what type of accountability?

Tasked wing.

Transient.

Strength.

Unit.

50. If a member's legal, fiscal, morale, and informational needs are not being met, what responsibility is the personnelist not fulfilling?

Physical health.

Spiritual health.

Personal support.

Personnel development.

51. Personnel from what organization are eligible for assignment to the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team?

Services squadron.

Force support squadron.

Mission support group.

Deployed logistics section.

52. When selecting personnel for the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team, the PERSCO team chief, military personnel section, and commander must select the

Least qualified personnel so they can be trained while deployed.

Most junior trained personnel.

Most senior trained personnel.

Most qualified personnel.

53. The requirements in specific contingency situations must be continuously monitored and reviewed by the

Combatant commander.

Joint forces commander.

Support command personnel planner.

Component command personnel planner.

54. Which phase begins once a real-world situation develops requiring Air Force personnel and resources to respond?

Planning.

Execution.

Sustainment.

Initial arrival.

55. During an increased readiness posture, personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team members must be able to arrive at their assigned military personnel section within the timelines outlined in the

Time phased force deployment data.

Designed operation capability response time.

Deployments manning requirements document.

Air Force Instruction 10–215, PERSCO Operations.

56. Which is not a Title 10 United States Code (Title 10 U.S.C) most often used term for mobilization?

Partial.

Spatial.

Total.

Full.

57. Within the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system (AFPAAS), who has the ability and access to complete a needs assessment on behalf of Airmen or family members?

Supervisor.

First Sergeant.

Unit deployment manager.

Commanding officer representative.

58. When announced by the Joint Staff or Air Force leadership, which crisis action team (CAT) has the responsibility to direct personnel accountability and assessment in support of real-world or exercise events?

Group CAT.

Air Force CAT.

Wing CAT/A1.

MAJCOM CAT/A1.

59. What document is used to monitor force build-up, identify unfilled positions, and initiate replacement actions?

Employment requirements manning document.

Deployment requirements manning document.

Deployment schedule of events document.

Unit personnel manning document.

60. The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) provides all of the following personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team training except

Developing training templates for Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Segment.

Training on the reclama and shortfall process and executing personnel data system updates.

Providing PERSCO team chief with information concerning plans, exercises, and deployments.

61. During an exercise, inspection, or a disaster control exercise, who serves as the personnel control center (PCC) or personnel readiness center (PRC) reporting directly to the battle staff?

Command post.

Group control center.

Military personnel section.

Installation personnel readiness element.

62. Who has jurisdiction over the personnel control center (PCC)?

Wing/Installation commander.

Mission support group commander.

Force support squadron commander.

Military personnel section commander.

63. To provide the most accurate accountability, what procedures must the personnel deployment function (PDF) establish for augmenting personnel?

Replacement.

Transitioning.

In-processing.

Out-processing.

64. American military power plays a vital role in all of the following except

Crisis.

Peace.

Politics.

Conflict.

65. What are the four basic instruments of national power the US relies on for its security?

Informational, strategic, diplomatic, and economic.

Diplomatic, strategic, informational, and doctrinal.

Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military.

Economic, diplomatic, strategic, and military.

66. What presents the fundamental principle that guides the armed forces in support of national objectives and shapes the way the armed forces think about the use of the military instrument of national power?

Joint force concepts.

Operations planning.

Security strategy.

Doctrine.

67. At what level does joint operation planning involve developing military objectives and tasks to support National Security Strategy (NSS) and developing requirements necessary to accomplish these tasks?

Tactical.

Strategic.

Functional

Operational.

68. Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the president through the

Vice president.

Chief of staff.

Secretary of defense.

Chief master sergeant of the Air Force.

69. Planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations describes which joint operation planning activity?

Redeployment.

Employment.

Mobilization.

Deployment.

70. Which joint and service planning system provides the Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air Force commanders with current policies, apportioned forces, and planning factors for conducting and supporting operations?

Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

71. Who develops procedures for administrative support of active, reserve components, and retirees?

Functional directorates.

Functional dignitaries.

Functional managers.

Functional leaders.

72. Which military department was not established by The National Security Act of 1947?

Air Force.

Marines.

Army.

Navy.

73. Once the military personnel section receives the hardship package, reviews the package, and requests a report individual person (RIP), how many days do they have to forward the package to the appropriate agency?

Three duty days.

Three calendar days.

Five duty days.

Five calendar days.

74. The Reserves bring what three things to the military environment from their civilian employment?

Citizen Airmen, community connections, and personnel stability.

Family, personnel stability, and community connections.

Manpower, people, and camaraderie.

Talent, depth, and experience.

75. Reserve friendships and team work that develop over time provide esprit-de-corps to the unit along with what other strength?

Stability.

Liability.

Reliability.

Responsibility.

76. Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept provides trained and ready air and space forces for what type of defense?

Aerial.

Global.

Regional.

National.

77. The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do what with air and space forces?

Organize, present, deploy, and sustain.

Organize, present, and deploy.

Deploy, present, and sustain.

Organize and sustain.

78. Deviations to the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct may be implemented on a case-by-case basis with whose approval?

President.

Chief of staff.

Secretary of defense.

Secretary of the Air Force.

79. Military personnel appropriations (MPA) man-day tours usually include a maximum of how many travel days?

One-day.

Two-day.

Three-day.

Four-day.

80. The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) operates on a how many month life cycle?

14-month.

18-month.

20-month.

24-month.

81. In addition to Headquarters Air Force (HAF), which agencies usually initiate the development of a unit type code (UTC)?

Functional area manager (FAM), Direct Reporting Unit (DRU), and Numbered Air Force (NAF).

Major command (MAJCOM), Field Operating Agency (FOA), and NAF.

FAM, MAJCOM, Air National Guard (ANG), FOA, and DRU

ANG, FAM, MAJCOM, FOA, and NAF.

82. A guideline used to determine when a unit type code (UTC) must be developed is when

New equipment needs to be replaced.

New equipment types enter the inventory.

No program changes occur in manpower or equipment.

Deployable units experience no change in either operational concept or mission.

83. When performing military personnel appropriation man-days, Airmen and their families are entitled to the same medical care as active duty personnel as long as their orders specify a period of

28 days or greater.

29 days or greater.

30 days or greater.

31 days or greater.

84. The current operations plan or concept plan should be reviewed, if available, to prepare for personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team deployment requirements upon receipt of a (n)

Warning order.

Execution order.

Evacuation order.

Deployment order.

85. Who has the responsibility to ensure the equipment custodian (EC) completes an annual inventory of supplies and equipment?

Chief, Military personnel section.

NCOIC, Installation personnel readiness element.

Force support squadron unit deployment manager.

Personnel support for contingency operations team chief.

86. Overseeing air and space expeditionary force unit type code reporting tool (ART) to ensure postured personnel unit type codes (UTC) meet all deployment capabilities is the responsibility of the

Combatant command J–1 Directorate.

Force support squadron commander.

Mission support group commander.

Wing commander.

87. Which activity serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for deployment availability codes and duty status reporting programs?

HQ AFPC/DPC.

HQ AFPC/DPW.

HQ USAF/A1PR.

HQ AFPC/DPWR.

88. Which activity is considered the reach back enabler that plans and delivers versatile Air and Space power to the right place at the right time to support commander Air Force forces' (COMAFFOR) mission needs?

HQ AFPC/DPC.

HQ AFPC/DPW.

HQ USAF/A1PR.

HQ AFPC/DPWR.

89. Interchanging and recording of information between the individual, other agencies, and the personnel function necessary to ensure timely, accurate, and reception of personnel resources describes

Personnel support.

Personnel reporting.

Preparation of movement.

Preparation for deployment.

90. Which process is considered a sequential process performed simultaneously at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war?

Joint contingency planning.

Joint operations planning.

Mobilization planning.

Deployment planning.

91. When the Secretary of the Air Force authorizes deactivation of an Air Reserve Component (Guard and Reserve), the authority may be delegated to the

Wing commanders.

Squadron commanders.

Major command commanders

Numbered Air Force commanders.

92. In regards to special orders and travel vouchers, deactivation or demobilization is documented by using which date?

Date on the mobilization orders.

Demobilization date authorized from tour completion by the applicable commander.

Demobilization date authorized by the applicable MAJCOM on the DD Form 214.

Deactivation date authorized by the secretary of the Air Force and the DD Form 214.

93. To meet the national security challenges of the 21st century the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept was designed to do what for air and space forces?

Train, manage, and equip.

Equip, train, deploy, and sustain.

Organize, train, equip, and sustain.

Organize, manage, train, and equip.

94. What are the joint operation planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders?

Sustainment, reconstitution, mobilization, and employment.

Mobilization, deployment, reconstitution, and sustainment.

Employment, sustainment, redeployment, and reconstitution.

Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment.

95. What type of plan includes all required annexes, appendices, and a supporting time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD)?

Concept.

Operational.

Functional.

Supporting.

96. What type of evacuation plan must individuals maintain in anticipation of national crisis or natural disasters?

Ready and actionable.

Realistic and predictable.

Realistic and actionable.

Ready and executable.

97. Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the

1910s and 20s.

1920s and 30s.

1930s and 40s.

1940s and 50s.

98. In order for the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) to maintain a sustainable rotational rhythm, how many AEFs are tasked at any time?

One.

Two.

Three.

Four.

99. Making sure that military personnel section (MPS) provides prompt support to deployed commanders and base personnel during contingency, wartime, exercise, and emergency operations is the responsibility of the

Military personnel section commander.

Force support squadron commander.

Chief, military personnel section.

Installation deployment officer.

100. Equipment custodian (EC) for personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO), logistics force packaging system (LOGFOR) equipment and Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment is appointed by the

Military personnel section commander.

Force support squadron commander.

Military personnel section chief.

Installation deployment officer.

3S071 Volume 2

1. What is the basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both

3. If the president or Congress expanded the active Armed Forces up to 1,000,000 members, not to exceed 24 consecutive months, they elected what type of mobilization?

4. The Reserves defend the United States through control and exploitation of air and space by supporting what type of engagement?

5. The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through what form of movement?

6. Challenges and threats of those who are opposed to United States values and interests may arise from

7. The depth of experience the Reserve forces bring to the mission and the Air Force is an invaluable

8. The concept of mobilization can be associated with all activities necessary for the orderly transition of both active and Reserve Component forces from peacetime to

9. The concept of mobilization is associated with "calling up" Reserve Component forces. What does "calling up" do, if anything, to the active duty's military capability?

10. In regards to the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system (AFPAAS), which agency serves as the primary distribution and collection point for information regarding impacted threatened personnel?

11. The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) primary purpose is to provide

12. Which of the following is not a tenet that describes the characteristics of a successful mobilization?

13. The Air Force organized its total force into how many air and space expeditionary forces?

14. In regards to the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system, which agency has the responsibility for scheduling case management training through the Defense Connect Online (DCO) with Space and Naval Warfare System Center (SPAWAR)?

15. The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to

16. When the air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions, it normally organizes as a/an

17. What group in the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct is the basic war fighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the air and space expeditionary task force (AETF)?

18. Once an Airman arrives at a base, he or she is required to report to the

19. The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) serves as the military personnel sections (MPS) war planner for personnel

20. What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)?

21. Which capability library contains a fixed capability that at any given time identifies forces that constitute the total force that has been made available or allocated for scheduling?

22. At any given time, how many air and space expeditionary force (AEF) block(s) and or pair(s) from each tempo band is in the AEF vulnerability period?

23. The planning process by which the armed forces or part of them are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency describes which joint operation planning activity?

24. During natural disasters or national emergencies, the ability to quickly assess the status of Air Force Airmen, Department of the Air Force, nonappropriated funds civilians, and families is critical to resuming normal

25. The United States Armed Forces shape and employ the military instrument to defend interest and objectives guided by

26. If activated personnel experience personal, financial, or medical hardship caused by mobilization, early deactivation, or demobilization, they can request to

27. What provides authoritative guidance based upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces?

28. The type of doctrine that states the most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use of Air Forces in military action is known as

29. Doctrine that guides the proper organization and employment of forces in the context of distinct objectives, force capabilities, functional areas, and environments is referred to as

30. Whose responsibility is it to make sure an up-to-date unit recall roster is maintained and forwarded to the installation command post?

31. The process of terminating orders, notifying individuals or units, and transferring individuals or units from federal active duty status to their previous reserve status describes

32. Why is it important to maintain a communications-out recall roster?

33. Personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team must arrive at the military personnel section (MPS) within six hours of the original alert order or deployment notification as

34. After a catastrophic event, accountability of personnel occur within the Air Force Personnel Accountability Assessment System (AFPAAS) when

35. The joint operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area is

36. Days that are allocated, or put aside, for use by Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard officers, noncommissioned officers, and Airmen are commonly referred to as

37. A plan to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary describes which type of plan?

38. Which joint and service planning system is the Department of Defense (DOD)-directed single, integrated joint command and control (C2) for conventional operation planning and execution?

39. Which joint and service planning system's objective is to enable Air Force-unique operation planning process which includes associated joint policy procedures?

40. Which mobilization tenet is achieved through rapid needs assessment, efficient mobilization procedures, and frequent exercises to test and improve procedures?

41. Which joint and service planning system is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD) functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the United States armed forces and certain foreign organizations?

42. Who has overall responsibility for Air Force personnel readiness and accountability programs and directives?

43. The mobilization tenet necessary to develop an appropriate response in a crisis, overcome unforeseen problems, and provide protection of the force and equipment while adapting to uncertainties and adjusting to the idea of war describes

44. Which phase is a transition phase from a build-up or surge phase, where the majority of the main operating force has arrived and completed in-processing actions?

45. Personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) team will coordinate with all deployed support agencies and become involved in the process on how, when, and where to most efficiently process personnel when the

46. During the reception process, the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) team is required to collect what documents?

47. It is imperative the personnel support for contingency operation team maintain a hard copy of the accountability file because

48. Which unit type code (UTC) is considered or called the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) accountability team and is the only stand alone PERSCO team?

49. Maintaining accountability over all personnel on the ground and at their deployed and designated geographically separated locations, regardless of status, according to component command policies describes what type of accountability?

50. If a member's legal, fiscal, morale, and informational needs are not being met, what responsibility is the personnelist not fulfilling?

51. Personnel from what organization are eligible for assignment to the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team?

52. When selecting personnel for the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team, the PERSCO team chief, military personnel section, and commander must select the

53. The requirements in specific contingency situations must be continuously monitored and reviewed by the

54. Which phase begins once a real-world situation develops requiring Air Force personnel and resources to respond?

55. During an increased readiness posture, personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team members must be able to arrive at their assigned military personnel section within the timelines outlined in the

56. Which is not a Title 10 United States Code (Title 10 U.S.C) most often used term for mobilization?

57. Within the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system (AFPAAS), who has the ability and access to complete a needs assessment on behalf of Airmen or family members?

58. When announced by the Joint Staff or Air Force leadership, which crisis action team (CAT) has the responsibility to direct personnel accountability and assessment in support of real-world or exercise events?

59. What document is used to monitor force build-up, identify unfilled positions, and initiate replacement actions?

60. The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) provides all of the following personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team training except

61. During an exercise, inspection, or a disaster control exercise, who serves as the personnel control center (PCC) or personnel readiness center (PRC) reporting directly to the battle staff?

62. Who has jurisdiction over the personnel control center (PCC)?

63. To provide the most accurate accountability, what procedures must the personnel deployment function (PDF) establish for augmenting personnel?

64. American military power plays a vital role in all of the following except

65. What are the four basic instruments of national power the US relies on for its security?

66. What presents the fundamental principle that guides the armed forces in support of national objectives and shapes the way the armed forces think about the use of the military instrument of national power?

67. At what level does joint operation planning involve developing military objectives and tasks to support National Security Strategy (NSS) and developing requirements necessary to accomplish these tasks?

68. Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the president through the

69. Planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations describes which joint operation planning activity?

70. Which joint and service planning system provides the Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air Force commanders with current policies, apportioned forces, and planning factors for conducting and supporting operations?

71. Who develops procedures for administrative support of active, reserve components, and retirees?

72. Which military department was not established by The National Security Act of 1947?

73. Once the military personnel section receives the hardship package, reviews the package, and requests a report individual person (RIP), how many days do they have to forward the package to the appropriate agency?

74. The Reserves bring what three things to the military environment from their civilian employment?

75. Reserve friendships and team work that develop over time provide esprit-de-corps to the unit along with what other strength?

76. Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept provides trained and ready air and space forces for what type of defense?

77. The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do what with air and space forces?