3S071 Volume 2

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 113

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Military Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Challenges and threats of those who are opposed to United States values and interests may arise from
    • A. 

      Adversaries.

    • B. 

      Dignitaries.

    • C. 

      Diplomats.

    • D. 

      Allies.

  • 2. 
    What are the four basic instruments of national power the US relies on for its security?
    • A. 

      Informational, strategic, diplomatic, and economic.

    • B. 

      Diplomatic, strategic, informational, and doctrinal.

    • C. 

      Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military.

    • D. 

      Economic, diplomatic, strategic, and military.

  • 3. 
    The United States Armed Forces shape and employ the military instrument to defend interest and objectives guided by
    • A. 

      Demobilization planning.

    • B. 

      National security policy.

    • C. 

      Mobilization planning.

    • D. 

      Joint tactical policy.

  • 4. 
    What presents the fundamental principle that guides the armed forces in support of national objectives and shapes the way the armed forces think about the use of the military instrument of national power?
    • A. 

      Joint force concepts.

    • B. 

      Operations planning.

    • C. 

      Security strategy.

    • D. 

      Doctrine.

  • 5. 
    What provides authoritative guidance based upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces?
    • A. 

      Joint doctrine.

    • B. 

      Basic doctrine.

    • C. 

      Execution planning.

    • D. 

      Operations planning.

  • 6. 
    The type of doctrine that states the most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use of Air Forces in military action is known as
    • A. 

      Basic.

    • B. 

      Joint.

    • C. 

      Tactical.

    • D. 

      Operational.

  • 7. 
    Doctrine that guides the proper organization and employment of forces in the context of distinct objectives, force capabilities, functional areas, and environments is referred to as
    • A. 

      Basic.

    • B. 

      Joint.

    • C. 

      Tactical.

    • D. 

      Operational.

  • 8. 
    Which process is considered a sequential process performed simultaneously at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war?
    • A. 

      Joint contingency planning.

    • B. 

      Joint operations planning.

    • C. 

      Mobilization planning.

    • D. 

      Deployment planning.

  • 9. 
    At what level does joint operation planning involve developing military objectives and tasks to support National Security Strategy (NSS) and developing requirements necessary to accomplish these tasks?
    • A. 

      Tactical.

    • B. 

      Strategic.

    • C. 

      Functional

    • D. 

      Operational.

  • 10. 
    Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the president through the
    • A. 

      Vice president.

    • B. 

      Chief of staff.

    • C. 

      Secretary of defense.

    • D. 

      Chief master sergeant of the Air Force.

  • 11. 
    What are the joint operation planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders?
    • A. 

      Sustainment, reconstitution, mobilization, and employment.

    • B. 

      Mobilization, deployment, reconstitution, and sustainment.

    • C. 

      Employment, sustainment, redeployment, and reconstitution.

    • D. 

      Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment.

  • 12. 
    The planning process by which the armed forces or part of them are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency describes which joint operation planning activity?
    • A. 

      Sustainment.

    • B. 

      Mobilization.

    • C. 

      Employment.

    • D. 

      Reconstitution.

  • 13. 
    Planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations describes which joint operation planning activity?
    • A. 

      Redeployment.

    • B. 

      Employment.

    • C. 

      Mobilization.

    • D. 

      Deployment.

  • 14. 
    The joint operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area is
    • A. 

      Redeployment.

    • B. 

      Employment.

    • C. 

      Mobilization.

    • D. 

      Deployment.

  • 15. 
    What type of plan includes all required annexes, appendices, and a supporting time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD)?
    • A. 

      Concept.

    • B. 

      Operational.

    • C. 

      Functional.

    • D. 

      Supporting.

  • 16. 
    A plan to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary describes which type of plan?
    • A. 

      Concept.

    • B. 

      Operation.

    • C. 

      Functional.

    • D. 

      Supporting.

  • 17. 
    Which joint and service planning system is the Department of Defense (DOD)-directed single, integrated joint command and control (C2) for conventional operation planning and execution?
    • A. 

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • B. 

      Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C. 

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • D. 

      War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

  • 18. 
    Which joint and service planning system’s objective is to enable Air Force-unique operation planning process which includes associated joint policy procedures?
    • A. 

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • B. 

      Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C. 

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • D. 

      War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

  • 19. 
    Which joint and service planning system provides the Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air Force commanders with current policies, apportioned forces, and planning factors for conducting and supporting operations?
    • A. 

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • B. 

      Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C. 

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • D. 

      War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

  • 20. 
    Which joint and service planning system is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD) functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the United States armed forces and certain foreign organizations?
    • A. 

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • B. 

      Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C. 

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • D. 

      War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

  • 21. 
    Who develops procedures for administrative support of active, reserve components, and retirees?
    • A. 

      Functional directorates.

    • B. 

      Functional dignitaries.

    • C. 

      Functional managers.

    • D. 

      Functional leaders.

  • 22. 
    Which military department was not established by The National Security Act of 1947?
    • A. 

      Air Force.

    • B. 

      Marines.

    • C. 

      Army.

    • D. 

      Navy.

  • 23. 
    American military power plays a vital role in all of the following except
    • A. 

      Crisis.

    • B. 

      Peace.

    • C. 

      Politics.

    • D. 

      Conflict.

  • 24. 
    The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both
    • A. 

      Federal and state missions.

    • B. 

      Federal and overseas missions.

    • C. 

      State and community missions.

    • D. 

      Overseas and community missions.

  • 25. 
    Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the
    • A. 

      1910s and 20s.

    • B. 

      1920s and 30s.

    • C. 

      1930s and 40s.

    • D. 

      1940s and 50s.