3S071 Volume 2

100 Questions | Attempts: 113
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  • 1/100 Questions

    Challenges and threats of those who are opposed to United States values and interests may arise from

    • Adversaries.
    • Dignitaries.
    • Diplomats.
    • Allies.
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About This Quiz

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Military Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    The United States Armed Forces shape and employ the military instrument to defend interest and objectives guided by

    • Demobilization planning.

    • National security policy.

    • Mobilization planning.

    • Joint tactical policy.

    Correct Answer
    A. National security policy.
  • 3. 

    What provides authoritative guidance based upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces?

    • Joint doctrine.

    • Basic doctrine.

    • Execution planning.

    • Operations planning.

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint doctrine.
  • 4. 

    The type of doctrine that states the most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use of Air Forces in military action is known as

    • Basic.

    • Joint.

    • Tactical.

    • Operational.

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic.
  • 5. 

    Doctrine that guides the proper organization and employment of forces in the context of distinct objectives, force capabilities, functional areas, and environments is referred to as

    • Basic.

    • Joint.

    • Tactical.

    • Operational.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational.
  • 6. 

    The planning process by which the armed forces or part of them are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency describes which joint operation planning activity?

    • Sustainment.

    • Mobilization.

    • Employment.

    • Reconstitution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mobilization.
  • 7. 

    The joint operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area is

    • Redeployment.

    • Employment.

    • Mobilization.

    • Deployment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Employment.
  • 8. 

    A plan to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary describes which type of plan?

    • Concept.

    • Operation.

    • Functional.

    • Supporting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Concept.
  • 9. 

    Which joint and service planning system is the Department of Defense (DOD)-directed single, integrated joint command and control (C2) for conventional operation planning and execution?

    • Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
  • 10. 

    Which joint and service planning system’s objective is to enable Air Force-unique operation planning process which includes associated joint policy procedures?

    • Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
  • 11. 

    Which joint and service planning system is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD) functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the United States armed forces and certain foreign organizations?

    • Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
  • 12. 

    The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both

    • Federal and state missions.

    • Federal and overseas missions.

    • State and community missions.

    • Overseas and community missions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal and state missions.
  • 13. 

    The Reserves defend the United States through control and exploitation of air and space by supporting what type of engagement?

    • Regional.

    • National.

    • Global.

    • Local.

    Correct Answer
    A. Global.
  • 14. 

    The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through what form of movement?

    • Deployment.

    • Employment.

    • Mobilization.

    • Demobilization.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mobilization.
  • 15. 

    The depth of experience the Reserve forces bring to the mission and the Air Force is an invaluable

    • Responsibility.

    • Commodity.

    • Opportunity.

    • Job.

    Correct Answer
    A. Commodity.
  • 16. 

    The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) primary purpose is to provide

    • War-fighter support.

    • Stability to Airmen.

    • Predictability to Airmen.

    • Fair share tempo band support.

    Correct Answer
    A. War-fighter support.
  • 17. 

    The Air Force organized its total force into how many air and space expeditionary forces?

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    • 25

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
  • 18. 

    The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to

    • Win the war.

    • Place capable personnel in the area of responsibility.

    • Equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.

    • Equitably align available Air Force UTCs across 15 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.

    Correct Answer
    A. Equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.
  • 19. 

    When the air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions, it normally organizes as a/an

    • Air and space expeditionary squadron.

    • Air and space expeditionary group.

    • Numbered expeditionary air force.

    • Air and expeditionary wing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air and expeditionary wing.
  • 20. 

    What group in the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct is the basic war fighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the air and space expeditionary task force (AETF)?

    • Air and space expeditionary squadron.

    • Air and space expeditionary element.

    • Air and space expeditionary group.

    • Air and space expeditionary wing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air and space expeditionary squadron.
  • 21. 

    Once an Airman arrives at a base, he or she is required to report to the

    • Financial services office (FSO).

    • Military personnel section (MPS).

    • Medical treatment facility (MTF).

    • Unit deployment manager (UDM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Military personnel section (MPS).
  • 22. 

    What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)?

    • Air Staff.

    • Joint Staff.

    • Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

    • Department of Defense (DOD).

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Staff.
  • 23. 

    Which capability library contains a fixed capability that at any given time identifies forces that constitute the total force that has been made available or allocated for scheduling?

    • Unit type code (UTC).

    • Air expeditionary force (AEF).

    • Global Force Management (GFM).

    • Unit manpower document (UMD).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air expeditionary force (AEF).
  • 24. 

    At any given time, how many air and space expeditionary force (AEF) block(s) and or pair(s) from each tempo band is in the AEF vulnerability period?

    • One.

    • Two.

    • Four.

    • Six.

    Correct Answer
    A. One.
  • 25. 

    What is the basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces?

    • Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • Air and space expeditionary force mapping documents.

    • Time phased force deployment data.

    • Unit type code.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit type code.
  • 26. 

    The concept of mobilization is associated with “calling up” Reserve Component forces. What does “calling up” do, if anything, to the active duty’s military capability?

    • Increases military capability.

    • Decreases military capability.

    • Military capability stays the same.

    • Enhances the number of Reserve Component forces.

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases military capability.
  • 27. 

    The concept of mobilization can be associated with all activities necessary for the orderly transition of both active and Reserve Component forces from peacetime to

    • Partial mobilization.

    • Full mobilization.

    • Wartime posture.

    • Reconstitution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wartime posture.
  • 28. 

    If the president or Congress expanded the active Armed Forces up to 1,000,000 members, not to exceed 24 consecutive months, they elected what type of mobilization?

    • Full.

    • Total.

    • Spatial.

    • Partial.

    Correct Answer
    A. Partial.
  • 29. 

    Which of the following is not a tenet that describes the characteristics of a successful mobilization?

    • Having an objective.

    • Ensuring timeliness.

    • Being subjective.

    • Being flexible.

    Correct Answer
    A. Being subjective.
  • 30. 

    The mobilization tenet necessary to develop an appropriate response in a crisis, overcome unforeseen problems, and provide protection of the force and equipment while adapting to uncertainties and adjusting to the idea of war describes

    • Having an objective.

    • Ensuring timeliness.

    • Being subjective.

    • Being flexible.

    Correct Answer
    A. Being flexible.
  • 31. 

    Which mobilization tenet is achieved through rapid needs assessment, efficient mobilization procedures, and frequent exercises to test and improve procedures?

    • Having an objective.

    • Ensuring timeliness.

    • Being subjective.

    • Being flexible.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensuring timeliness.
  • 32. 

    Days that are allocated, or put aside, for use by Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard officers, noncommissioned officers, and Airmen are commonly referred to as

    • Military personnel appropriation man-days.

    • Noncommissioned officers man-days.

    • Reserve man-days.

    • Guard man-days.

    Correct Answer
    A. Military personnel appropriation man-days.
  • 33. 

    The process of terminating orders, notifying individuals or units, and transferring individuals or units from federal active duty status to their previous reserve status describes

    • Demobilization.

    • Deactivation.

    • Separation.

    • Discharge.

    Correct Answer
    A. Deactivation.
  • 34. 

    If activated personnel experience personal, financial, or medical hardship caused by mobilization, early deactivation, or demobilization, they can request to

    • Remain on active duty until they reach 20 years of service.

    • Remain on active duty until they reach 15 years of service.

    • Remain on active duty up to the original activation period.

    • Return to civilian status immediately.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remain on active duty up to the original activation period.
  • 35. 

    During natural disasters or national emergencies, the ability to quickly assess the status of Air Force Airmen, Department of the Air Force, nonappropriated funds civilians, and families is critical to resuming normal

    • Response time.

    • Operations.

    • Procedures.

    • Functions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations.
  • 36. 

    Whose responsibility is it to make sure an up-to-date unit recall roster is maintained and forwarded to the installation command post?

    • Installation deployment function.

    • Personnel readiness function.

    • Unit deployment manager.

    • Commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander.
  • 37. 

    Why is it important to maintain a communications-out recall roster?

    • Local communications may be inoperative or overloaded.

    • It is easier to go and find people rather than call them on the phone.

    • The communications squadron requires a communications-out recall roster.

    • The wing commander requires all squadrons to maintain a communications-out roster.

    Correct Answer
    A. Local communications may be inoperative or overloaded.
  • 38. 

    After a catastrophic event, accountability of personnel occur within the Air Force Personnel Accountability Assessment System (AFPAAS) when

    • Affected personnel report to their place of duty.

    • Affected personnel report their whereabouts in AFPAAS.

    • All members are notified that a natural disaster is imminent.

    • All members update, review, or change their information in AFPAAS.

    Correct Answer
    A. Affected personnel report their whereabouts in AFPAAS.
  • 39. 

    In regards to the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system (AFPAAS), which agency serves as the primary distribution and collection point for information regarding impacted threatened personnel?

    • HQ AFPC/DPSOA.

    • HQ AFPC/DPSIA.

    • HQ AFPC/PRC.

    • HQ A&FRC.

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ AFPC/PRC.
  • 40. 

    In regards to the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system, which agency has the responsibility for scheduling case management training through the Defense Connect Online (DCO) with Space and Naval Warfare System Center (SPAWAR)?

    • HQ AFPC/DPSOA.

    • HQ AFPC/DPSIA.

    • HQ AFPC/PRC.

    • HQ A&FRC.

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ AFPC/DPSIA.
  • 41. 

    The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) serves as the military personnel sections (MPS) war planner for personnel

    • Deployments, exercises, contingencies, and rotational matters.

    • Deployments, contingencies, and assignment limitation codes.

    • Exercises, assignment limitation codes, and deployments.

    • Assignment limitation codes, deployments, and rotational matters.

    Correct Answer
    A. Deployments, exercises, contingencies, and rotational matters.
  • 42. 

    Who has overall responsibility for Air Force personnel readiness and accountability programs and directives?

    • HQ AFPC/DPC.

    • HQ AFPC/DPW.

    • HQ USAF/A1PR.

    • HQ AFPC/DPWR.

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ USAF/A1PR.
  • 43. 

    Personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team must arrive at the military personnel section (MPS) within six hours of the original alert order or deployment notification as

    • Ready-to-perform personnel deployment function.

    • Ready-to-conduct inventory of supply kits.

    • Ready-to-deploy.

    • Ready-to-train.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ready-to-deploy.
  • 44. 

    Maintaining accountability over all personnel on the ground and at their deployed and designated geographically separated locations, regardless of status, according to component command policies describes what type of accountability?

    • Tasked wing.

    • Transient.

    • Strength.

    • Unit.

    Correct Answer
    A. Strength.
  • 45. 

    If a member’s legal, fiscal, morale, and informational needs are not being met, what responsibility is the personnelist not fulfilling?

    • Physical health.

    • Spiritual health.

    • Personal support.

    • Personnel development.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal support.
  • 46. 

    Personnel from what organization are eligible for assignment to the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team?

    • Services squadron.

    • Force support squadron.

    • Mission support group.

    • Deployed logistics section.

    Correct Answer
    A. Force support squadron.
  • 47. 

    When selecting personnel for the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team, the PERSCO team chief, military personnel section, and commander must select the

    • Least qualified personnel so they can be trained while deployed.

    • Most junior trained personnel.

    • Most senior trained personnel.

    • Most qualified personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Most qualified personnel.
  • 48. 

    The requirements in specific contingency situations must be continuously monitored and reviewed by the

    • Combatant commander.

    • Joint forces commander.

    • Support command personnel planner.

    • Component command personnel planner.

    Correct Answer
    A. Component command personnel planner.
  • 49. 

    Which phase begins once a real-world situation develops requiring Air Force personnel and resources to respond?

    • Planning.

    • Execution.

    • Sustainment.

    • Initial arrival.

    Correct Answer
    A. Execution.

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): May 10, 2017 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 10, 2017
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 15, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Nicolepercival
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