3S071 Volume 2
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- 1.
Challenges and threats of those who are opposed to United States values and interests may arise from
- A.
Adversaries.
- B.
Dignitaries.
- C.
Diplomats.
- D.
Allies.
Correct Answer
A. Adversaries. -
- 2.
What are the four basic instruments of national power the US relies on for its security?
- A.
Informational, strategic, diplomatic, and economic.
- B.
Diplomatic, strategic, informational, and doctrinal.
- C.
Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military.
- D.
Economic, diplomatic, strategic, and military.
Correct Answer
C. Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military. -
- 3.
The United States Armed Forces shape and employ the military instrument to defend interest and objectives guided by
- A.
Demobilization planning.
- B.
National security policy.
- C.
Mobilization planning.
- D.
Joint tactical policy.
Correct Answer
B. National security policy. -
- 4.
What presents the fundamental principle that guides the armed forces in support of national objectives and shapes the way the armed forces think about the use of the military instrument of national power?
- A.
Joint force concepts.
- B.
Operations planning.
- C.
Security strategy.
- D.
Doctrine.
Correct Answer
D. Doctrine. -
- 5.
What provides authoritative guidance based upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces?
- A.
Joint doctrine.
- B.
Basic doctrine.
- C.
Execution planning.
- D.
Operations planning.
Correct Answer
A. Joint doctrine. -
- 6.
The type of doctrine that states the most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use of Air Forces in military action is known as
- A.
Basic.
- B.
Joint.
- C.
Tactical.
- D.
Operational.
Correct Answer
A. Basic. -
- 7.
Doctrine that guides the proper organization and employment of forces in the context of distinct objectives, force capabilities, functional areas, and environments is referred to as
- A.
Basic.
- B.
Joint.
- C.
Tactical.
- D.
Operational.
Correct Answer
D. Operational. -
- 8.
Which process is considered a sequential process performed simultaneously at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war?
- A.
Joint contingency planning.
- B.
Joint operations planning.
- C.
Mobilization planning.
- D.
Deployment planning.
Correct Answer
B. Joint operations planning. -
- 9.
At what level does joint operation planning involve developing military objectives and tasks to support National Security Strategy (NSS) and developing requirements necessary to accomplish these tasks?
- A.
Tactical.
- B.
Strategic.
- C.
Functional
- D.
Operational.
Correct Answer
B. Strategic. -
- 10.
Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the president through the
- A.
Vice president.
- B.
Chief of staff.
- C.
Secretary of defense.
- D.
Chief master sergeant of the Air Force.
Correct Answer
C. Secretary of defense. -
- 11.
What are the joint operation planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders?
- A.
Sustainment, reconstitution, mobilization, and employment.
- B.
Mobilization, deployment, reconstitution, and sustainment.
- C.
Employment, sustainment, redeployment, and reconstitution.
- D.
Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment.
Correct Answer
D. Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment. -
- 12.
The planning process by which the armed forces or part of them are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency describes which joint operation planning activity?
- A.
Sustainment.
- B.
Mobilization.
- C.
Employment.
- D.
Reconstitution.
Correct Answer
B. Mobilization. -
- 13.
Planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations describes which joint operation planning activity?
- A.
Redeployment.
- B.
Employment.
- C.
Mobilization.
- D.
Deployment.
Correct Answer
D. Deployment. -
- 14.
The joint operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area is
- A.
Redeployment.
- B.
Employment.
- C.
Mobilization.
- D.
Deployment.
Correct Answer
B. Employment. -
- 15.
What type of plan includes all required annexes, appendices, and a supporting time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD)?
- A.
Concept.
- B.
Operational.
- C.
Functional.
- D.
Supporting.
Correct Answer
B. Operational. -
- 16.
A plan to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary describes which type of plan?
- A.
Concept.
- B.
Operation.
- C.
Functional.
- D.
Supporting.
Correct Answer
A. Concept. -
- 17.
Which joint and service planning system is the Department of Defense (DOD)-directed single, integrated joint command and control (C2) for conventional operation planning and execution?
- A.
Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
- B.
Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
- C.
Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
- D.
War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).
Correct Answer
B. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES). -
- 18.
Which joint and service planning system’s objective is to enable Air Force-unique operation planning process which includes associated joint policy procedures?
- A.
Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
- B.
Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
- C.
Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
- D.
War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).
Correct Answer
A. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES). -
- 19.
Which joint and service planning system provides the Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air Force commanders with current policies, apportioned forces, and planning factors for conducting and supporting operations?
- A.
Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
- B.
Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
- C.
Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
- D.
War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).
Correct Answer
D. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP). -
- 20.
Which joint and service planning system is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD) functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the United States armed forces and certain foreign organizations?
- A.
Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
- B.
Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
- C.
Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
- D.
War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).
Correct Answer
C. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS). -
- 21.
Who develops procedures for administrative support of active, reserve components, and retirees?
- A.
Functional directorates.
- B.
Functional dignitaries.
- C.
Functional managers.
- D.
Functional leaders.
Correct Answer
A. Functional directorates. -
- 22.
Which military department was not established by The National Security Act of 1947?
- A.
Air Force.
- B.
Marines.
- C.
Army.
- D.
Navy.
Correct Answer
B. Marines. -
- 23.
American military power plays a vital role in all of the following except
- A.
Crisis.
- B.
Peace.
- C.
Politics.
- D.
Conflict.
Correct Answer
C. Politics. -
- 24.
The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both
- A.
Federal and state missions.
- B.
Federal and overseas missions.
- C.
State and community missions.
- D.
Overseas and community missions.
Correct Answer
A. Federal and state missions. -
- 25.
Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the
- A.
1910s and 20s.
- B.
1920s and 30s.
- C.
1930s and 40s.
- D.
1940s and 50s.
Correct Answer
B. 1920s and 30s. -
- 26.
The Reserves defend the United States through control and exploitation of air and space by supporting what type of engagement?
- A.
Regional.
- B.
National.
- C.
Global.
- D.
Local.
Correct Answer
C. Global. -
- 27.
The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through what form of movement?
- A.
Deployment.
- B.
Employment.
- C.
Mobilization.
- D.
Demobilization.
Correct Answer
C. Mobilization. -
- 28.
The Reserves bring what three things to the military environment from their civilian employment?
- A.
Citizen Airmen, community connections, and personnel stability.
- B.
Family, personnel stability, and community connections.
- C.
Manpower, people, and camaraderie.
- D.
Talent, depth, and experience.
Correct Answer
D. Talent, depth, and experience. -
- 29.
The depth of experience the Reserve forces bring to the mission and the Air Force is an invaluable
- A.
Responsibility.
- B.
Commodity.
- C.
Opportunity.
- D.
Job.
Correct Answer
B. Commodity. -
- 30.
Reserve friendships and team work that develop over time provide esprit-de-corps to the unit along with what other strength?
- A.
Stability.
- B.
Liability.
- C.
Reliability.
- D.
Responsibility.
Correct Answer
A. Stability. -
- 31.
To meet the national security challenges of the 21st century the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept was designed to do what for air and space forces?
- A.
Train, manage, and equip.
- B.
Equip, train, deploy, and sustain.
- C.
Organize, train, equip, and sustain.
- D.
Organize, manage, train, and equip.
Correct Answer
C. Organize, train, equip, and sustain. -
- 32.
Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept provides trained and ready air and space forces for what type of defense?
- A.
Aerial.
- B.
Global.
- C.
Regional.
- D.
National.
Correct Answer
D. National. -
- 33.
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) primary purpose is to provide
- A.
War-fighter support.
- B.
Stability to Airmen.
- C.
Predictability to Airmen.
- D.
Fair share tempo band support.
Correct Answer
A. War-fighter support. -
- 34.
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do what with air and space forces?
- A.
Organize, present, deploy, and sustain.
- B.
Organize, present, and deploy.
- C.
Deploy, present, and sustain.
- D.
Organize and sustain.
Correct Answer
B. Organize, present, and deploy. -
- 35.
The Air Force organized its total force into how many air and space expeditionary forces?
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
20
- D.
25
Correct Answer
A. 10 -
- 36.
In order for the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) to maintain a sustainable rotational rhythm, how many AEFs are tasked at any time?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
B. Two. -
- 37.
The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to
- A.
Win the war.
- B.
Place capable personnel in the area of responsibility.
- C.
Equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.
- D.
Equitably align available Air Force UTCs across 15 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.
Correct Answer
C. Equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities. -
- 38.
When the air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions, it normally organizes as a/an
- A.
Air and space expeditionary squadron.
- B.
Air and space expeditionary group.
- C.
Numbered expeditionary air force.
- D.
Air and expeditionary wing.
Correct Answer
D. Air and expeditionary wing. -
- 39.
What group in the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct is the basic war fighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the air and space expeditionary task force (AETF)?
- A.
Air and space expeditionary squadron.
- B.
Air and space expeditionary element.
- C.
Air and space expeditionary group.
- D.
Air and space expeditionary wing.
Correct Answer
A. Air and space expeditionary squadron. -
- 40.
Once an Airman arrives at a base, he or she is required to report to the
- A.
Financial services office (FSO).
- B.
Military personnel section (MPS).
- C.
Medical treatment facility (MTF).
- D.
Unit deployment manager (UDM).
Correct Answer
B. Military personnel section (MPS). -
- 41.
The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) operates on a how many month life cycle?
- A.
14-month.
- B.
18-month.
- C.
20-month.
- D.
24-month.
Correct Answer
D. 24-month. -
- 42.
What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)?
- A.
Air Staff.
- B.
Joint Staff.
- C.
Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
- D.
Department of Defense (DOD).
Correct Answer
B. Joint Staff. -
- 43.
Which capability library contains a fixed capability that at any given time identifies forces that constitute the total force that has been made available or allocated for scheduling?
- A.
Unit type code (UTC).
- B.
Air expeditionary force (AEF).
- C.
Global Force Management (GFM).
- D.
Unit manpower document (UMD).
Correct Answer
B. Air expeditionary force (AEF). -
- 44.
At any given time, how many air and space expeditionary force (AEF) block(s) and or pair(s) from each tempo band is in the AEF vulnerability period?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Four.
- D.
Six.
Correct Answer
A. One. -
- 45.
A guideline used to determine when a unit type code (UTC) must be developed is when
- A.
New equipment needs to be replaced.
- B.
New equipment types enter the inventory.
- C.
No program changes occur in manpower or equipment.
- D.
Deployable units experience no change in either operational concept or mission.
Correct Answer
B. New equipment types enter the inventory. -
- 46.
In addition to Headquarters Air Force (HAF), which agencies usually initiate the development of a unit type code (UTC)?
- A.
Functional area manager (FAM), Direct Reporting Unit (DRU), and Numbered Air Force (NAF).
- B.
Major command (MAJCOM), Field Operating Agency (FOA), and NAF.
- C.
FAM, MAJCOM, Air National Guard (ANG), FOA, and DRU
- D.
ANG, FAM, MAJCOM, FOA, and NAF.
Correct Answer
C. FAM, MAJCOM, Air National Guard (ANG), FOA, and DRU -
- 47.
What is the basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces?
- A.
Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Execution Segment (DCAPES).
- B.
Air and space expeditionary force mapping documents.
- C.
Time phased force deployment data.
- D.
Unit type code.
Correct Answer
D. Unit type code. -
- 48.
Deviations to the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct may be implemented on a case-by-case basis with whose approval?
- A.
President.
- B.
Chief of staff.
- C.
Secretary of defense.
- D.
Secretary of the Air Force.
Correct Answer
B. Chief of staff. -
- 49.
The concept of mobilization is associated with “calling up” Reserve Component forces. What does “calling up” do, if anything, to the active duty’s military capability?
- A.
Increases military capability.
- B.
Decreases military capability.
- C.
Military capability stays the same.
- D.
Enhances the number of Reserve Component forces.
Correct Answer
A. Increases military capability. -
- 50.
The concept of mobilization can be associated with all activities necessary for the orderly transition of both active and Reserve Component forces from peacetime to
- A.
Partial mobilization.
- B.
Full mobilization.
- C.
Wartime posture.
- D.
Reconstitution.
Correct Answer
C. Wartime posture. -
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