3P071 Volume 1 UREs 2017
UREs directly out of Volume 1 Security Forces 3P071 CDCs
- 1.
1. (001) What is the most rigorous stage of development?
- A.
A. SrA.
- B.
B. MSgt.
- C.
C. SSgt and TSgt.
- D.
D. Amn and A1C.
Correct Answer
D. D. Amn and A1C.Explanation
The most rigorous stage of development is when an individual is at the rank of Amn (Airman) and A1C (Airman First Class). This is because at this stage, individuals are at the beginning of their military career and are expected to learn and adapt quickly to the demands and expectations of the Air Force. They are required to undergo extensive training and development to acquire the necessary skills and knowledge to fulfill their duties effectively. This stage sets the foundation for their future growth and advancement in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 2.
2. (001) Which of these is not a Senior Airman (SrA) duty?
- A.
A. Patrol leader.
- B.
B. Squad leader.
- C.
C. Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) Controller.
- D.
D. Internal Security Response Team (ISRT)/External Security Response Team (ESRT) Leader.
Correct Answer
B. B. Squad leader.Explanation
The correct answer is b. Squad leader. A Senior Airman (SrA) is typically not assigned as a squad leader. Squad leaders are usually higher-ranking individuals such as Staff Sergeants or Technical Sergeants. Senior Airmen may hold other leadership positions, but squad leader is not typically one of them.Rate this question:
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- 3.
3. (001) Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is available in certainlocations?
- A.
A. Supervisor.
- B.
B. Flight Sergeant.
- C.
C. Response force leader.
- D.
D. Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)/Assistant NCOIC.
Correct Answer
B. B. Flight Sergeant.Explanation
Flight Sergeant duty is available in certain locations.Rate this question:
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- 4.
4. (001) What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level ofleadership?
- A.
A. MSgt.
- B.
B. CMSgt.
- C.
C. SMSgt.
- D.
D. SSgt and TSgt.
Correct Answer
C. C. SMSgt.Explanation
The force development level that encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership is the SMSgt level. This level of leadership is responsible for providing guidance and direction to subordinates, as well as making strategic decisions that impact the overall mission and objectives of the organization. SMSgts are typically experienced and knowledgeable in their field, and are able to effectively communicate and implement the goals and strategies set forth by higher level leadership.Rate this question:
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- 5.
5. (001) What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or commands?
- A.
A. Tactical control.
- B.
B. Strategic control.
- C.
C. Operational control.
- D.
D. Administrative control.
Correct Answer
A. A. Tactical control.Explanation
Tactical control refers to the control exercised over assigned or attached forces or commands at the tactical level. This type of control involves the detailed planning and execution of military operations to achieve specific objectives. It includes the coordination of resources, the direction of forces, and the decision-making process at the operational level. Tactical control is focused on the immediate battlefield and is usually exercised by field commanders. Strategic control, on the other hand, refers to the overall direction and coordination of military operations at the strategic level. Operational control refers to the control exercised over military forces in the execution of specific tasks or missions. Administrative control refers to the control exercised over military forces in matters such as personnel management, logistics, and support.Rate this question:
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- 6.
6. (001) Which commander exercises operational control?
- A.
A. Squadron commander.
- B.
B. Installation commander.
- C.
C. Joint Force commander.
- D.
D. Major command (MAJCOM) commander.
Correct Answer
C. C. Joint Force commander.Explanation
The Joint Force commander exercises operational control. Operational control refers to the authority to plan and execute military operations. The Joint Force commander is responsible for coordinating and directing joint operations involving multiple branches of the military. This commander is typically a high-ranking officer who is in charge of a specific theater or region of operations. They have the authority to make strategic decisions and allocate resources to achieve mission objectives.Rate this question:
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- 7.
7. (001) Supervisors must ensure their troops
- A.
A. have food and water.
- B.
B. possess required qualifications and certifications.
- C.
C. are supplied with weapons and required equipment.
- D.
D. are issued Special Security Instructions (SSIs) and study material.
Correct Answer
B. B. possess required qualifications and certifications.Explanation
Supervisors must ensure their troops possess required qualifications and certifications. This is important because having the necessary qualifications and certifications ensures that the troops are properly trained and competent to perform their duties effectively and safely. It also ensures that they meet the standards and requirements set by the organization or governing body. By ensuring their troops have the necessary qualifications and certifications, supervisors can have confidence in their abilities and trust that they will be able to carry out their responsibilities successfully.Rate this question:
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- 8.
8. (001) Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?
- A.
A. Wing commander.
- B.
B. Squadron commander.
- C.
C. Security Forces manager.
- D.
D. Unit deployment manager.
Correct Answer
B. B. Squadron commander.Explanation
The squadron commander is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule. As the leader of the squadron, they have the authority and knowledge to make decisions regarding the scheduling of flights. They consider factors such as mission requirements, aircraft availability, and pilot availability to create an efficient and effective flight schedule for the unit. The squadron commander also coordinates with other units and higher-level commanders to ensure that the flight schedule aligns with overall mission objectives.Rate this question:
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- 9.
9. (001) Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the
- A.
A. Duty roster.
- B.
B. Post priority listing.
- C.
C. Unit manning document.
- D.
D. Unit personnel manning roster.
Correct Answer
B. B. Post priority listing.Explanation
The correct answer is b. Post priority listing. This is because post and patrols will be manned according to their priority as listed in the post priority listing. The post priority listing determines the order in which posts need to be manned based on their importance and the specific needs of the unit. It helps ensure that the most critical posts are manned first and that all posts are adequately staffed. The duty roster, unit manning document, and unit personnel manning roster may provide additional information about personnel assignments, but they do not specifically address the prioritization of posts.Rate this question:
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- 10.
10. (001) All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreigncountry for other that routine law enforcement and security duties, except the
- A.
A. Major command (MAJCOM) commander.
- B.
B. MAJCOM vice commander.
- C.
C. Installation commander.
- D.
D. Combatant commander.
Correct Answer
C. C. Installation commander.Explanation
The installation commander is not authorized to authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other than routine law enforcement and security duties. This responsibility lies with the Major command (MAJCOM) commander, MAJCOM vice commander, and Combatant commander. The installation commander is responsible for the day-to-day operations and security of the specific installation, but does not have the authority to make decisions regarding firearms authorization in foreign countries.Rate this question:
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- 11.
11. (001) Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person’s right to bear a firearm?
- A.
A. Supervisor.
- B.
B. Commander.
- C.
C. Servicing armory.
- D.
D. Security Forces manager.
Correct Answer
B. B. Commander.Explanation
The commander is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm. This is because the commander has the authority and power to make decisions regarding the use and possession of firearms within their command. They have the knowledge and understanding of the situation and can assess whether it is necessary to temporarily revoke someone's right to bear a firearm for the safety and security of the organization or individual. The supervisor, servicing armory, and security forces manager may be involved in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the commander.Rate this question:
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- 12.
12. (001) How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there?
- A.
A. 1.
- B.
B. 2.
- C.
C. 3.
- D.
D. 4.
Correct Answer
C. C. 3.Explanation
There are three types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures.Rate this question:
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- 13.
13. (001) What drives a post priority chart?
- A.
A. Vulnerability assessment.
- B.
B. Inspector General (IG) assessment.
- C.
C. Force protection conditions (FPCONs).
- D.
D. Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment.
Correct Answer
D. D. Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment.Explanation
The post priority chart is driven by the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment. This assessment helps identify and prioritize risks and threats to the installation or facility. It considers factors such as vulnerability assessment, Inspector General (IG) assessment, and force protection conditions (FPCONs) to determine the level of risk and the appropriate measures to mitigate it. The IDRMP assessment ensures that resources are allocated effectively and that the highest priority risks are addressed first.Rate this question:
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- 14.
14. (001) Post priority charts are used to
- A.
A. allocate vehicles.
- B.
B. allocate manpower.
- C.
C. determine post rotations.
- D.
D. determine weapon configurations.
Correct Answer
B. B. allocate manpower.Explanation
Post priority charts are used to allocate manpower. This means that they are used to determine the distribution and assignment of personnel to different posts or positions. These charts help in ensuring that the right number of personnel with the appropriate skills and qualifications are assigned to each post, based on the priority or importance of the tasks or responsibilities associated with that post. By using post priority charts, organizations can effectively manage their manpower resources and ensure that they are allocated in the most efficient and effective manner.Rate this question:
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- 15.
15. (001) Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned?
- A.
A. Group commander.
- B.
B. Security Forces manager.
- C.
C. Defense force commander.
- D.
D. Each individual flight chief.
Correct Answer
C. C. Defense force commander.Explanation
The defense force commander has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned. This means that they have the power to decide whether or not you need to be present at a particular post or if it can be left unmanned. This decision is likely based on factors such as the level of threat or the availability of resources.Rate this question:
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- 16.
16. (001) The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in
- A.
A. Higher force protection conditions (FPCONs).
- B.
B. Peacetime and wartime.
- C.
C. Peacetime.
- D.
D. Wartime.
Correct Answer
B. B. Peacetime and wartime.Explanation
The post priority chart is designed to ensure the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in both peacetime and wartime. This means that the chart takes into account the needs and requirements of SF personnel during both periods, allowing for effective allocation and utilization of resources. By considering both peacetime and wartime scenarios, the chart can help prioritize posts and tasks based on the current operational environment, ensuring that SF personnel are deployed in the most effective and efficient manner.Rate this question:
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- 17.
17. (001) When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain
- A.
A. proficiency.
- B.
B. discipline.
- C.
C. fairness.
- D.
D. control.
Correct Answer
A. A. proficiency.Explanation
Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified in helps to maintain proficiency. This is because when individuals are exposed to different roles and responsibilities, they gain a broader understanding of the organization and develop a diverse skill set. By regularly rotating personnel, they can continue to learn and grow, ensuring that they remain competent and capable in their respective positions. This practice also reduces the risk of complacency and fosters a culture of continuous improvement within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 18.
18. (001) What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high?
- A.
A. Post rotations.
- B.
B. Specialized courses.
- C.
C. Recognition program.
- D.
D. Providing time off.
Correct Answer
A. A. Post rotations.Explanation
Post rotations can assist a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high because it allows for a variety of experiences and prevents monotony. By rotating individuals to different positions or tasks, it gives them the opportunity to learn new skills, work with different team members, and avoid burnout. This can help maintain motivation and engagement within the flight, ultimately contributing to high morale.Rate this question:
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- 19.
19. (001) As a supervisor, what must you instill in each of your subordinates?
- A.
A. Standards.
- B.
B. Discipline.
- C.
C. Work ethic.
- D.
D. Mentorship.
Correct Answer
C. C. Work ethic.Explanation
As a supervisor, it is important to instill a strong work ethic in each of your subordinates. This means teaching them the values of hard work, dedication, and responsibility in their job performance. By instilling a strong work ethic, you are encouraging your subordinates to take pride in their work, be reliable, and strive for excellence. This will not only benefit the individuals themselves, but also contribute to the overall success and productivity of the team or organization.Rate this question:
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- 20.
20. (001) What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?
- A.
A. Issue paperwork.
- B.
B. Verbally counsel the subordinate.
- C.
C. Investigate to determine the cause.
- D.
D. Assign the subordinate a new supervisor.
Correct Answer
C. C. Investigate to determine the cause.Explanation
If a subordinate is demonstrating substandard duty performance, it is important to investigate to determine the cause. This allows for a thorough understanding of the underlying issues that may be contributing to the substandard performance. By identifying the cause, appropriate actions can be taken to address and rectify the situation, whether it involves additional training, counseling, or other interventions. Simply issuing paperwork or verbally counseling the subordinate may not address the root cause of the issue, and assigning a new supervisor may not necessarily solve the problem either. Therefore, investigating to determine the cause is the most effective course of action.Rate this question:
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- 21.
21. (002) The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is
- A.
A. Report.
- B.
B. Parade rest.
- C.
C. Open ranks march.
- D.
D. Prepare for inspection.
Correct Answer
A. A. Report.Explanation
After the flight falls in for inspection, the next command given is "Report." This command is used to signal the flight members to report their status or any issues to the inspecting officer. It allows the inspecting officer to gather information and ensure that the flight is ready for inspection. The other options, such as "Parade rest," "Open ranks march," and "Prepare for inspection," are not appropriate commands to follow after the flight falls in for inspection.Rate this question:
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- 22.
22. (002) After the command “Open rank, MARCH,” which of the following action does the flight take?
- A.
A. The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two, paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.
- B.
B. The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.
- C.
C. The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element also stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress.
- D.
D. The last element stands fast. Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward and halts.
Correct Answer
B. B. The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.Explanation
After the command "Open rank, MARCH," the flight takes the following action: The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.Rate this question:
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- 23.
23. (002) After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement?
- A.
A. 1.
- B.
B. 2.
- C.
C. 3.
- D.
D. 4.
Correct Answer
C. C. 3.Explanation
After aligning the fourth element, you advance three paces beyond the first element to execute a left facing movement.Rate this question:
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- 24.
24. (002) When does the second element leader give the command, “Second Element, ATTENTION”?
- A.
A. As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”
- B.
B. As the inspecting official gets six paces past the last person in the first element, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”
- C.
C. As the inspecting official is within two paces of the right flank to the formation, the second element leader commands, “Second Element, ATTENTION.”
- D.
D. As soon as the inspecting official is facing the second element leader, he/she will give the command, “Second Element, ATTENTION.”
Correct Answer
A. A. As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”Explanation
The correct answer is a. As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands "Second Element, ATTENTION." This is the correct answer because it follows the proper protocol for when to give the command "Second Element, ATTENTION." The second element leader should give the command when the inspecting official is within six paces of the right flank of the formation, indicating that they are close enough for the formation to come to attention.Rate this question:
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- 25.
25. (002) When do you give the command, “Close Ranks, MARCH!”?
- A.
A. Upon departure of the inspecting official.
- B.
B. At the completion of the guardmount briefing
- C.
C. Immediately after the forth rank has been inspected.
- D.
D. When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed.
Correct Answer
A. A. Upon departure of the inspecting official.Explanation
The command "Close Ranks, MARCH!" is given upon departure of the inspecting official. This means that after the inspecting official has finished inspecting the ranks, they will then leave the area. At this point, the command is given to close the ranks and continue with the next phase of the ceremony or event.Rate this question:
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- 26.
26. (002) Where can you find information about current fitness standards and assessments?
- A.
A. AFI 36-2903.
- B.
B. AFI 36-2905.
- C.
C. AFMAN 36-2903.
- D.
D. AFMAN 36-2905.
Correct Answer
B. B. AFI 36-2905.Explanation
AFI 36-2905 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that specifically addresses fitness standards and assessments. It provides detailed information on the requirements for maintaining physical fitness, including the standards for the Physical Fitness Assessment (PFA) and the Body Composition Assessment (BCA). This instruction is regularly updated to ensure that Airmen have access to the most current fitness standards and assessments. The other options (AFI 36-2903 and AFMAN 36-2903) are not relevant to fitness standards and assessments, and AFMAN 36-2905 does not exist.Rate this question:
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- 27.
27. (002) Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?
- A.
A. Flight member.
- B.
B. Flight supervisor.
- C.
C. Flight commander.
- D.
D. Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), Supply.
Correct Answer
A. A. Flight member.Explanation
The flight member is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment. This means that each individual within the flight has the responsibility to ensure that the equipment is properly maintained and in good working order. This includes conducting regular inspections, performing necessary repairs, and reporting any issues to the appropriate personnel. By assigning this responsibility to the flight member, it ensures that everyone is actively involved in the maintenance process and takes ownership of the equipment they use.Rate this question:
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- 28.
28. (002) A post check generally includes all of these items except
- A.
A. area inspection.
- B.
B. facility inspection.
- C.
C. weapons inspection.
- D.
D. classified material inspection.
Correct Answer
C. C. weapons inspection.Explanation
A post check generally includes area inspection, facility inspection, and classified material inspection. However, weapons inspection is not typically part of a post check.Rate this question:
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- 29.
29. (002) What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you the tools to review and assess someone else’s writing?
- A.
A. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 33–337.
- B.
B. Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–336.
- C.
C. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 32–337.
- D.
D. Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337.
Correct Answer
D. D. Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337.Explanation
The Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337 is the correct publication that will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you with the tools to review and assess someone else's writing. This handbook is specifically designed to provide guidance on effective communication within the Air Force, including writing skills. It contains valuable information and resources that can help individuals improve their communication abilities and evaluate the quality of others' writing.Rate this question:
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- 30.
30. (002) When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is
- A.
A. lengthy.
- B.
B. made up.
- C.
C. irrelevant.
- D.
D. inappropriate.
Correct Answer
C. C. irrelevant.Explanation
When reviewing material for technical accuracy, one concern is that it may contain information that is irrelevant. This means that the material may include details or facts that are not necessary or applicable to the topic being discussed. Irrelevant information can distract the reader or confuse them, making it important to ensure that the material is focused and only includes information that is directly related to the subject at hand.Rate this question:
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- 31.
31. (002) The primary function of reviewing is to ensure
- A.
A. the communication gets the point across.
- B.
B. ideas are being communicated understandably and the communication gets the point across.
- C.
C. ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (incorrect grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; incorrect punctuation), and the communication get the point across.
- D.
D. ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across.
Correct Answer
D. D. ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across.Explanation
The primary function of reviewing is to ensure that ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and that the communication gets the point across. This means that reviewing is not only focused on the clarity of the message, but also on the overall coherence and correctness of the language used. It is important for the communication to be logically organized and free from grammatical errors in order to effectively convey the intended message.Rate this question:
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- 32.
32. (003) Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?
- A.
A. Unit training section.
- B.
B. Defense Force commander.
- C.
C. Air Force Security Forces Center.
- D.
D. Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs).
Correct Answer
C. C. Air Force Security Forces Center.Explanation
The Air Force Security Forces Center is responsible for the overall security forces training program. This means that they oversee and manage the training program for all security forces personnel in the Air Force. They ensure that the training is comprehensive and up to date, and that all security forces personnel receive the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively perform their duties.Rate this question:
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- 33.
33. (003) Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained,qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military educationschools?
- A.
A. Unit training section.
- B.
B. Immediate supervisors.
- C.
C. Air Force Security Forces Center.
- D.
D. Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs).
Correct Answer
D. D. Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs).Explanation
Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs) are responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and given the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools. They oversee the training and development of their subordinates, ensuring they have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their duties effectively. This includes identifying training needs, coordinating training opportunities, and monitoring the progress and performance of their personnel. By taking on this responsibility, senior Security Forces NCOs play a crucial role in maintaining the readiness and professionalism of the enlisted personnel under their command.Rate this question:
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- 34.
34. (003) What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
- A.
A. Analysis.
- B.
B. Feedback.
- C.
C. Evaluation.
- D.
D. Cross-feed.
Correct Answer
B. B. Feedback.Explanation
Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with valuable information about their performance, the effectiveness of their strategies, and the impact of their decisions. Feedback allows commanders to make informed adjustments and improvements, leading to better outcomes and increased success. It also helps in identifying strengths and weaknesses, enabling commanders to capitalize on their strengths and address any areas that need improvement. Overall, feedback plays a crucial role in enhancing decision-making and performance in command roles.Rate this question:
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- 35.
35. (003) The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to
- A.
A. measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions.
- B.
B. determine that only the highest quality of individual perform duties as installation entry controller.
- C.
C. measure the qualification of individuals and decertify them in specific duty positions.
- D.
D. surprise and decertify squadron personnel unprepared for duty.
Correct Answer
A. A. measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions.Explanation
The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions. This evaluation ensures that individuals have the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively carry out their assigned duties. It is a process of assessing an individual's competency and determining their suitability for a particular role.Rate this question:
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- 36.
36. (004) The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to
- A.
A. aggress against, deter and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
- B.
B. track, detect and aggress against intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
- C.
C. detain, detract and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
- D.
D. deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
Correct Answer
D. D. deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.Explanation
The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources. This means that MWDs are trained to prevent unauthorized individuals from entering or approaching Air Force facilities, identify potential threats or intruders through their keen sense of smell, sight, and hearing, and take appropriate action to apprehend or detain them until security personnel can respond. By performing these tasks, MWDs play a crucial role in enhancing the security and protection of Air Force resources.Rate this question:
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- 37.
37. (004) Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is
- A.
A. apprehension or release.
- B.
B. pepper spray or gunfire.
- C.
C. resistance or restraint.
- D.
D. gunfire or escape.
Correct Answer
D. D. gunfire or escape.Explanation
Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is gunfire or escape. This means that if the situation calls for the use of force, patrol dogs are seen as a less lethal option compared to using firearms or allowing the subject to escape. The use of patrol dogs can help to apprehend and control individuals without resorting to potentially deadly force.Rate this question:
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- 38.
38. (004) When using dogs on detection screen posts, where should they be positioned to get maximum usage?
- A.
A. In low contact areas, so they don’t give away your position to the enemy by barking.
- B.
B. Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize their smelling capability.
- C.
C. At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.
- D.
D. Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy.
Correct Answer
C. C. At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.Explanation
Dogs should be positioned at key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons. This means that the dogs are strategically placed in areas where they have a clear view and can detect any unauthorized individuals trying to enter. By positioning them in these locations, the dogs can effectively prevent unauthorized access and enhance security measures.Rate this question:
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- 39.
39. (004) A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous
- A.
A. deterrent to potential violators.
- B.
B. physical deterrent to potential violators.
- C.
C. physiological deterrent to potential violators.
- D.
D. psychological deterrent to potential violators.
Correct Answer
D. D. psychological deterrent to potential violators.Explanation
A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a psychological deterrent to potential violators because the presence of a well-trained and intimidating dog can create fear and hesitation in individuals who may be considering engaging in criminal activities. The sight of a police dog can make potential violators think twice about their actions, knowing that they may face the consequences of encountering a highly trained and capable canine. This psychological deterrent effect helps to maintain public safety and prevent crime.Rate this question:
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- 40.
40. (004) During peaceful confrontations, the Military Working Dog (MWD) team should be positioned
- A.
A. in reserve, out of sight of the crowd.
- B.
B. off to the side, out of direct vision of the crowd.
- C.
C. right out in front to ward off potential participants.
- D.
D. elsewhere and not used in peaceful confrontations.
Correct Answer
A. A. in reserve, out of sight of the crowd.Explanation
During peaceful confrontations, it is best to position the Military Working Dog (MWD) team in reserve, out of sight of the crowd. This ensures that the presence of the dogs does not escalate the situation or provoke any unnecessary reactions from the crowd. By keeping them out of sight, they can be ready to respond if needed, but their presence does not become a focal point of the confrontation. This approach helps maintain a peaceful atmosphere and minimizes the chances of any negative interactions between the crowd and the MWD team.Rate this question:
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- 41.
41. (005) All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel, MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the
- A.
A. Threat Working Group.
- B.
B. Integrated Base Defense Council.
- C.
C. Force Protection Commodity Council.
- D.
D. Equipment, Weapons, and Configuration Board.
Correct Answer
B. B. Integrated Base Defense Council.Explanation
The correct answer is b. Integrated Base Defense Council. The Integrated Base Defense Council is responsible for establishing and implementing arming rules in accordance with AFI 31-117 and MAJCOM requirements. They are responsible for ensuring that air force personnel are armed and trained in the use of force to protect the base and its personnel from potential threats. The Threat Working Group, Force Protection Commodity Council, and Equipment, Weapons, and Configuration Board may have roles in the arming process, but the Integrated Base Defense Council is the primary authority.Rate this question:
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- 42.
42. (005) “All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be properly marked” means that they
- A.
A. all must have SF badges applied to both the front doors.
- B.
B. all must have emergency lights, flood lights, and mobile radios.
- C.
C. must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system.
- D.
D. all must have a cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a military working dog (MWD).
Correct Answer
C. C. must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system.Explanation
The correct answer is c. "All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system." This means that it is a requirement for SF vehicles to have these specific features installed.Rate this question:
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- 43.
43. (005) Which radio type can talk over great distances?
- A.
A. Base station.
- B.
B. Portable radio.
- C.
C. Base station remote.
- D.
D. Mobile two-way radio.
Correct Answer
D. D. Mobile two-way radio.Explanation
Mobile two-way radios are designed to communicate over long distances because they have a higher power output compared to portable radios. They are typically used in vehicles and can transmit and receive signals over a wider range. Base stations and base station remotes are stationary and have limited range, while portable radios are designed for short-range communication. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Mobile two-way radio.Rate this question:
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- 44.
44. (005) The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to
- A.
A. ensure the Air Force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.
- B.
B. ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year.
- C.
C. determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission.
- D.
D. provide Congress a means to determine the budget submitted at the start of its session.
Correct Answer
B. B. ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year.Explanation
The Financial Plan submission serves the purpose of ensuring an equitable distribution of the President's Budget for the next fiscal year. This means that the plan aims to allocate the budget fairly among different departments or branches of the Air Force, ensuring that each receives an appropriate share of funding. This helps to maintain balance and fairness in the budget allocation process.Rate this question:
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- 45.
45. (005) Who provides the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year?
- A.
A. Numbered air force.
- B.
B. Headquarters Air Force.
- C.
C. Major commands (MAJCOMs).
- D.
D. Air Force Security Forces Center.
Correct Answer
C. C. Major commands (MAJCOMs).Explanation
Major commands (MAJCOMs) provide the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year. This means that the MAJCOMs are responsible for determining the number of security forces personnel that are allocated to each unit or troop within the Air Force. They assess the specific security needs of each unit and allocate the appropriate number of personnel to ensure the safety and security of the Air Force's operations. The MAJCOMs play a crucial role in managing and organizing the security forces within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 46.
46. (005) What is not a category for the status of funds?
- A.
A. Committed.
- B.
B. Obligated.
- C.
C. End of year.
- D.
D. Uncommitted.
Correct Answer
C. C. End of year.Explanation
The status of funds can be categorized into committed, obligated, and uncommitted. Committed funds have been set aside for a specific purpose and cannot be used for other expenses. Obligated funds have been committed to a specific project or contract but can be used for other expenses if necessary. Uncommitted funds are available for any purpose. "End of year" is not a category for the status of funds, as it refers to a specific time period rather than a category of funds.Rate this question:
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- 47.
47. (005) Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas?
- A.
A. Major command (MAJCOM) functional.
- B.
B. MAJCOM corporate structure.
- C.
C. Financial Management Board.
- D.
D. Financial working group.
Correct Answer
A. A. Major command (MAJCOM) functional.Explanation
The Major command (MAJCOM) functional reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas. This means that they are responsible for examining and approving the installation submissions made by different functional areas within the MAJCOM. They ensure that the submissions are accurate, complete, and aligned with the goals and objectives of the MAJCOM. This review and validation process helps to maintain consistency and compliance across the MAJCOM and ensures that the installation submissions are in line with the overall strategic direction of the command.Rate this question:
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- 48.
48. (005) What provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units?
- A.
A. Air Force Manpower Standards Program (MSP).
- B.
B. Air Force Manpower Standards Platform (MSP).
- C.
C. Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP).
- D.
D. Air Force Management and Equipment Program (MEP).
Correct Answer
C. C. Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP).Explanation
The Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP) provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units. This program focuses on analyzing and improving processes within the Air Force, including manpower management. By using the standards provided by the MEP, commanders can effectively allocate and manage their manpower resources to meet the needs of their units.Rate this question:
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- 49.
49. (005) When are manpower numbers reviewed?
- A.
A. Monthly.
- B.
B. Quarterly.
- C.
C. Annually.
- D.
D. Bi-annually.
Correct Answer
C. C. Annually.Explanation
Manpower numbers are reviewed annually. This means that the review process takes place once a year. During this review, the organization assesses its current manpower levels, evaluates any changes or adjustments that need to be made, and plans for future workforce requirements. This annual review allows the organization to ensure that it has the right number of employees with the necessary skills and qualifications to meet its objectives and operational needs.Rate this question:
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- 50.
50. (005) Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document?
- A.
A. Work center.
- B.
B. Position number.
- C.
C. Air Force specialty code.
- D.
D. Report No Later than Date.
Correct Answer
D. D. Report No Later than Date.Explanation
The unit manning document is a record that tracks various information about personnel in a unit. It includes details such as work center, position number, and Air Force specialty code, which are all important for managing the unit's manpower. However, the "Report No Later than Date" is not typically tracked on the unit manning document. This date refers to the deadline by which a report or task must be completed, and it is not directly related to personnel tracking.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 21, 2017Quiz Created by
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