3e451 Volume 2 Wfm Fundamentals, Valves, And Pumps

100 Questions

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Valve Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (201) What Air Force form do you complete to report a hazard?
    • A. 

      457, USAF hazard report

    • B. 

      448, USAF hazard report

    • C. 

      457, DOD hazard report

    • D. 

      448, DOD hazard report

  • 2. 
    (202) When should supervisors give safety briefings to new workers?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Quarterly

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      The material hazard data sheet

    • B. 

      The hazard communication standard

    • C. 

      The hazardous communication program guide

    • D. 

      The national institute for occupational safety and health guide

  • 4. 
    (203) What are to two main hazards of using electrical power tools?
    • A. 

      Fire and shock

    • B. 

      Shock and grounding

    • C. 

      Fire and cord abuse

    • D. 

      Grounding and cord abuse

  • 5. 
    (203) How many wires do properly grounded power tools and extension cords have?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 6. 
    (203) When referring to electrical circuits, a closed circuit means?
    • A. 

      Electricity is traveling through the line

    • B. 

      Eelectricity has been shut off

    • C. 

      Electricity poses no hazard

    • D. 

      The line is safe to work on

  • 7. 
    (203) What do you use to remove someone from an energized circuit?
    • A. 

      Non-insulated object

    • B. 

      Wet wooden pole

    • C. 

      Insulated object

    • D. 

      Bare hands

  • 8. 
    (203) Which of the following items should you use to remove someone from an energized circuit?
    • A. 

      Metal pole

    • B. 

      Piece of dry wood

    • C. 

      Piece of wet wood

    • D. 

      Wet article of clothing

  • 9. 
    (203) What is the cause of electrical shock
    • A. 

      Excess voltage

    • B. 

      Damp receptacles

    • C. 

      Current flow through body

    • D. 

      Your body's resistance to electricity

  • 10. 
    (203) When administering CPR, what is the ratio of chest compression's to ventilation's (rescue breaths)?
    • A. 

      30 chest compression's to two rescue breaths

    • B. 

      20 chest compression's to five rescue breaths

    • C. 

      30 chest compression's to five rescue breaths

    • D. 

      20 chest compression's to two rescue breaths

  • 11. 
    (203) what is critical when dealing with a victim in shock?
    • A. 

      Make them sit up

    • B. 

      Give victim water

    • C. 

      Maintain body temperature

    • D. 

      Elevate the victims head 12 inches

  • 12. 
    (204) What AF form is used for protection of personnel in lock-out/tag-out procedures? 
    • A. 

      979

    • B. 

      980

    • C. 

      782

    • D. 

      103

  • 13. 
    (204) What Air Force instruction details blocking and tagging of electrical lines?
    • A. 

      32-1064

    • B. 

      36-2903

    • C. 

      32-1467

    • D. 

      36-1017

  • 14. 
    (205) when a ladder is properly used, what is the proper ladder length distance between the base of the ladder and the side of the building?
    • A. 

      1/8

    • B. 

      1/4

    • C. 

      1/3

    • D. 

      1/2

  • 15. 
    (205) What type of equipment does the DD form 1547 yellow tag identify?
    • A. 

      Unserviceable

    • B. 

      Condemned

    • C. 

      Serviceable

    • D. 

      Recycled

  • 16. 
    (206) Which method is the least likely means of industrial exposure of toxic chemicals?
    • A. 

      Follicle penetration

    • B. 

      Breathing vapors

    • C. 

      Skin absorbency

    • D. 

      Swallowing

  • 17. 
    (206) A chemical agent that produces dermatitis after prolonged contact with the skin is a?
    • A. 

      Skin sensitizer

    • B. 

      Primary irritant

    • C. 

      Skin desensitizer

    • D. 

      Secondary irritant

  • 18. 
    (206) When diluting acid with water, always add the acid slowly to the water while stirring to?
    • A. 

      Reduce splattering that causes acid burns on skin and clothing

    • B. 

      Reduce the chemical irritation of eyes and nasal passages

    • C. 

      Stop the toxic buildup of hazardous gases

    • D. 

      Reduce the chances of spillage

  • 19. 
    (209) before using laboratory equipment, you should consult the?
    • A. 

      Sales representative

    • B. 

      Lab operating instructions

    • C. 

      Standard laboratory methods

    • D. 

      Technical orders and manufacturer's manuals

  • 20. 
    (207) Asbestos poses the greatest risk when it is
    • A. 

      Wet

    • B. 

      Ingested

    • C. 

      Compacted

    • D. 

      Released into the air

  • 21. 
    • A. 

      The technical services branch inspector

    • B. 

      The production control technician

    • C. 

      The safety inspector

    • D. 

      The fire chief

  • 22. 
    (208) which type of fire extinguisher should you use to extinguish fires caused by flammable/combustible liquids, oils, or greases?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      Methane

    • B. 

      Sulfur dioxide

    • C. 

      Hydrogen sulfide

    • D. 

      Ammonium hydroxide

  • 24. 
    (210) A confined space is classified by its?
    • A. 

      Oxygen content and flammability only

    • B. 

      Oxygen content and toxicity only

    • C. 

      Flammability only

    • D. 

      Oxygen content, flammability, and toxicity

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      Chief of ground safety

    • C. 

      Fire department chief

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental engineer

  • 26. 
    (210) Who must be the last person to sign the entry permit after all conditions are met?
    • A. 

      Chief of ground safety

    • B. 

      Fire department chief

    • C. 

      Entry supervisor

    • D. 

      Commander

  • 27. 
    (210) Who may reclassify a permit-required confined space to a non-permit confined space at the time of entry if testing shows the space to be free of all hazards?
    • A. 

      Base safety

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Entry supervisior

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental engineer

  • 28. 
    (211) an AF form 103, base civil engineer work clearance request, is required?
    • A. 

      After you finish excavations or utility work

    • B. 

      When hazards are in the area of an excevation

    • C. 

      When delays are encountered and conditions on the job site change

    • D. 

      Before you start any work that involves excavation or utility disturbance

  • 29. 
    (211) What are two methods used to protect workers from cave-ins?
    • A. 

      Sloping and leveling

    • B. 

      Stepping and sloping

    • C. 

      Sloping and benching

    • D. 

      Benching and stepping

  • 30. 
    (211) What category of soil requires no shoring?
    • A. 

      Solid rock

    • B. 

      Type A

    • C. 

      Type B

    • D. 

      Type C

  • 31. 
    (211) How often do you check hydraulic shoring for leaking hoses or broken connections?
    • A. 

      Once per shift

    • B. 

      Once per week

    • C. 

      Twice per week

    • D. 

      Twice every other shift

  • 32. 
    (211) If there is sloping toward the excavation, how many inches minimum must the shielding extend above the surrounding area?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      18

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      30

  • 33. 
    (211) Whether excavations are open for a day or for weeks you must have?
    • A. 

      Warning signs

    • B. 

      Motion detectors

    • C. 

      Guards posted 24/7

    • D. 

      Temporary fencing or concrete barricades

  • 34. 
    (212) Use a basin wrench to reach nuts that are?
    • A. 

      Hard to reach

    • B. 

      Easily reached

    • C. 

      Attached to the angle stop

    • D. 

      Attached to the floor of the fixture

  • 35. 
    (212) Do not use water pump (channel lock) pliers on?
    • A. 

      Galvanized fittings

    • B. 

      Black-iron fittings

    • C. 

      Chrome fittings

    • D. 

      Plastic fittings

  • 36. 
    (212) When using a file, in which direction do you file from the cutting edge to prevent injury in case the file slips?
    • A. 

      Towards the cutting edge

    • B. 

      Vertical to the cutting edge

    • C. 

      Away from the cutting edge

    • D. 

      Horizontal to the cutting edge

  • 37. 
    (212) when using a cold chisel, what should you do frequently to preserve the temper in the steel?
    • A. 

      Dip the chisel in water

    • B. 

      Apply a light coat of oil

    • C. 

      Allow the chisel to cool down

    • D. 

      Chisels never lose their temper

  • 38. 
    (213) When the cutting wheel on a pipe cutter becomes chipped or worn?
    • A. 

      Sharpen it with a bench grinder

    • B. 

      Sharpen it with a special file

    • C. 

      Replace worn cutting wheel

    • D. 

      Readjust cutting wheel

  • 39. 
    (213) Pipe die sets consist of a?
    • A. 

      Handle, holder, and die set

    • B. 

      Handle and die set

    • C. 

      Holder and die set

    • D. 

      Die set

  • 40. 
    (213) What should be applied to a strap wrench to prevent slipping?
    • A. 

      Oil

    • B. 

      Rosin

    • C. 

      Water

    • D. 

      Teflon paste

  • 41. 
    (213) How many drops of pneumatic oil should you drop into the air fitting before use?
    • A. 

      1-2

    • B. 

      2-3

    • C. 

      3-4

    • D. 

      4-5

  • 42. 
    (214) An important technique to use when planning jobs is to?
    • A. 

      Read the building schematics

    • B. 

      Talk to the customer by phone

    • C. 

      Complete the job

    • D. 

      Visit the work site

  • 43. 
    (214) What happens when an individual planning a job orders the incorrect material by mistake?
    • A. 

      Civil engineering must accept the material, even if it cant use it for that job

    • B. 

      The individual who planned the job pays for the incorrect material

    • C. 

      The individual who ordered the incorrect materials is entered into training

    • D. 

      Incorrect material that are actually delivered are returned at the senders expense

  • 44. 
    (214) What is a tabulated list showing name, description, quantity, and cost of different items?
    • A. 

      Bill of materials

    • B. 

      Work order

    • C. 

      Estimating

    • D. 

      Planning

  • 45. 
    (215) What work has a lower priority than the recurring work program?
    • A. 

      Emergency

    • B. 

      Urgent

    • C. 

      Routine

    • D. 

      Urgent and Routine

  • 46. 
    (216) What is another name for a site plan
    • A. 

      Plot plan

    • B. 

      Working plan

    • C. 

      Conditional plan

    • D. 

      Developmental plan

  • 47. 
    (216) A statement that a plan is drawn to a scale of 1/4 inch = 1 foot means?
    • A. 

      1/4 inch on the print = 1 foot

    • B. 

      One scale is a +/- 1/4 inch tolerance

    • C. 

      One drawing is equal to 1/4 inch piping

    • D. 

      A quarter of one building is drawn on one print

  • 48. 
    (216) What do you do to a base utility map any time you make a change in a utility system?
    • A. 

      Discard the old prints

    • B. 

      Never modify original prints

    • C. 

      Have all original prints cleared through engineering

    • D. 

      Note changes on prints and notify engineering for updates

  • 49. 
    (217) What three views are used in working sketches?
    • A. 

      Isometric, back, and side

    • B. 

      Top, side, and isometric

    • C. 

      Front, back, and side

    • D. 

      Back, top, and front

  • 50. 
    (217) What written document explains points that are not readily explained by drawings?
    • A. 

      Base utility maps

    • B. 

      Working sketches

    • C. 

      Bill of materials

    • D. 

      Specifications

  • 51. 
    (218) What measurement is used to determine the surface area of a shape?
    • A. 

      Area

    • B. 

      Perimeter

    • C. 

      Volume

    • D. 

      Dosing

  • 52. 
    (218) What measurement represents the amount of space an object occupies?
    • A. 

      Area

    • B. 

      Perimeter

    • C. 

      Volume

    • D. 

      Dosing

  • 53. 
    (218) What is the weight of one gallon of water?
    • A. 

      6.34 lbs

    • B. 

      7.34 lbs

    • C. 

      8.34 lbs

    • D. 

      9.34 lbs

  • 54. 
    (218) How many feet of head does one pound per square inch of water produce?
    • A. 

      1.31

    • B. 

      2.31

    • C. 

      3.31

    • D. 

      4.31

  • 55. 
    (219) Which metric prefix equals 1,000?
    • A. 

      Milli

    • B. 

      Centi

    • C. 

      Deci

    • D. 

      Kilo

  • 56. 
    (219) How many centigrams make one gram?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      100

    • C. 

      1,000

    • D. 

      10,000

  • 57. 
    (220) What is the study of living things?
    • A. 

      Biology

    • B. 

      Geometry

    • C. 

      Chemistry

    • D. 

      Anatomy

  • 58. 
    (220) What is the major factor that affects the growth rate of an organism?
    • A. 

      Temperature

    • B. 

      Light

    • C. 

      Age

    • D. 

      PH

  • 59. 
    (221) What is the study of the composition of matter?
    • A. 

      Biology

    • B. 

      Chemistry

    • C. 

      Ecology

    • D. 

      Geology

  • 60. 
    (221) What is the smallest unit of an element?
    • A. 

      Molecule

    • B. 

      Atom

    • C. 

      Nucleus

    • D. 

      Electron

  • 61. 
    (222) Gate valves are found in cross country pipelines because?
    • A. 

      They can be closed very quickly

    • B. 

      Their position can be seen from a long distance

    • C. 

      They allow line scrapers to pass through them

    • D. 

      They can regulate flow through the pipeline

  • 62. 
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 63. 
    (223) What type of manual valve can be used to control the flow rate?
    • A. 

      Plug

    • B. 

      Gauge

    • C. 

      Check

    • D. 

      Globe

  • 64. 
    • A. 

      Nylon

    • B. 

      Viton

    • C. 

      Teflon strng

    • D. 

      Graphite string

  • 65. 
    • A. 

      A non-lubricated plug valve

    • B. 

      The same type valve

    • C. 

      An automatic valve

    • D. 

      A pipe spool

  • 66. 
    (225) What type of plug valve will be installed downstream from a fuel system filter/seperator?
    • A. 

      Lubricated plug

    • B. 

      Rising stem gate

    • C. 

      Non-lubricated plug

    • D. 

      Quarter turn butterfly

  • 67. 
    (225) What prevents leakage past the hub of a resilient-liner plug valve?
    • A. 

      O-ring

    • B. 

      Diaphragm seal

    • C. 

      Asbestos gasket

    • D. 

      Graphite packing

  • 68. 
    (225) What inspection and maintenance items are performed on a double block and bleed plug during a routine scheduled interval?
    • A. 

      Check for leaks and proper operation

    • B. 

      Operator lubrication, bleed test and control corrosion

    • C. 

      Proper operation, operator lubrication, checking for leaks and corrosion control

    • D. 

      Proper operation, checking for leaks, corrosion control and replacement of sealing slips

  • 69. 
    (225) What is the first step in removing a general twin seal plug valve operator?
    • A. 

      Drain the line

    • B. 

      Close the main valve

    • C. 

      Open the main valve

    • D. 

      Open the manual bleed valve

  • 70. 
    (225) What type of valve used in fuel systems must operate from a fully closed to fully open with a 90 degree rotation?
    • A. 

      Gate

    • B. 

      Ball

    • C. 

      Plug

    • D. 

      Globe

  • 71. 
    (226) Why is a ball valve a suitable substitute for a non-lubricated plug valve?
    • A. 

      It is also non-lubricated and will not restrict flow

    • B. 

      The standard port will not affect venturi

    • C. 

      Inspection frequencies are the same

    • D. 

      It only takes a quarter turn to open

  • 72. 
    (227) The seat and disc of which type of valve must be removed without removing the entire valve?
    • A. 

      Gate

    • B. 

      Plug

    • C. 

      Globe

    • D. 

      Check

  • 73. 
    (227) What type of valve requires the least amount of space?
    • A. 

      Ball

    • B. 

      Gate

    • C. 

      Check

    • D. 

      Butterfly

  • 74. 
    (227) Why do you slightly open a butterfly valve before relieving the line pressure?
    • A. 

      To equalize pressure on both sides of the valve

    • B. 

      To increase valve clearance

    • C. 

      To equalize static potential

    • D. 

      To loosen flange seals

  • 75. 
    (227) What must be done before you can remove a butterfly valve from a pipeline?
    • A. 

      Remove the handle

    • B. 

      Place it in the fully open position

    • C. 

      Place it in the fully closed position

    • D. 

      Notify the MAJCOM fuels engineer

  • 76. 
    • A. 

      Drop the pressure upstream of the valve

    • B. 

      Drop the pressure downstream of the valve

    • C. 

      Ensure a pressure gauge is installed upstream of the valve

    • D. 

      Ensure the pressure gauge is installed downstream of the valve

  • 77. 
    (227) Why must care be taken when installing a valve box over a pipe valve?
    • A. 

      To ensure proper alignment of the valve key to the valve operating nut

    • B. 

      So that the valve box is not installed upside down

    • C. 

      To ensure the valve box fits snugly on the pipe

    • D. 

      To prevent debris from entering the valve box

  • 78. 
    • A. 

      Wing safety

    • B. 

      Base operations

    • C. 

      Fuels service center

    • D. 

      Command fuels engineer

  • 79. 
    (228) Where would you find out which valves have to be isolated before removing a manual valve from a pipeline?
    • A. 

      Co-workers

    • B. 

      As-built drawings

    • C. 

      API standard 6D

    • D. 

      Air Force standard drawings

  • 80. 
    (228) How many gallons of fuel is in a 22-foot section of a 6-inch schedule 40 pipe?
    • A. 

      11

    • B. 

      22

    • C. 

      33

    • D. 

      44

  • 81. 
    (228) When removing a manual valve from a fuel pipeline, which bolts on the valve should you loosen first to drain the fuel into a drip pan?
    • A. 

      Top

    • B. 

      Bottom

    • C. 

      Left side

    • D. 

      Right side

  • 82. 
    • A. 

      Through a meter

    • B. 

      Through a fill stand

    • C. 

      Through a filter/seperator

    • D. 

      Directly into a storage tank

  • 83. 
    • A. 

      Motor revolutions per minute and gear size

    • B. 

      Size of pipe and number of gears

    • C. 

      Size of pump and diameter of discharge

    • D. 

      Space around gears and the pump revolutions per minute

  • 84. 
    (230) What type of lubricant is used and how is it applied to the Blackmer pump ball bearings?
    • A. 

      Silicon-based grease, by hand

    • B. 

      Lithium-based grease, by hand

    • C. 

      Silicon-based grease, hand-pressure gun

    • D. 

      Lithium-based grease, hand-pressure gun

  • 85. 
    (231) What transfers air pressure between the two sides of a double diaphragm pump?
    • A. 

      Ball checks

    • B. 

      Pump Shaft

    • C. 

      Actuator valve

    • D. 

      Diaphragm assembly

  • 86. 
    (231) What component(s) of the mud hog diaphragm pump allows water to enter the pump at the inlet, traps the water, and then allows the water to be expelled at the pump's outlet?
    • A. 

      Ball checks

    • B. 

      Clapper valves

    • C. 

      Rotating engine cam

    • D. 

      Diaphragm assembly

  • 87. 
    (231) What type of impeller is the most efficient and develops the highest pressure
    • A. 

      Open

    • B. 

      Closed

    • C. 

      Semi-open

    • D. 

      Combination

  • 88. 
    (232) At what rate will the Gilbarco self-priming pump remove air?
    • A. 

      18 inches per minute

    • B. 

      18 inches per minute

    • C. 

      18 gallons per minute

    • D. 

      28 gallons per minute

  • 89. 
    (232) What is the most common type API 610 pump used in AF fuel systems?
    • A. 

      Single stage centrifugal, radial split case, with end suction and top discharge

    • B. 

      Two stage centrifugal, radial split case, with end suction and top discharge

    • C. 

      Single stage centrifugal, radial split case, with end suction and discharge

    • D. 

      Two stage centrifugal, radial split case, with end suction and discharge

  • 90. 
    (232) The total measured shaft deflection allowed when aligning an API 610 pump shaft and motor shaft must be less than what?
    • A. 

      0.001 inches

    • B. 

      0.002 inches

    • C. 

      0.003 inches

    • D. 

      0.004 inches

  • 91. 
    (232) How often is the API 610 pump inspected?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 92. 
    (233) The number of column-shaft sections a deep-well turbine will have is determined by the?
    • A. 

      Capacity of a tank

    • B. 

      Pump output capacity

    • C. 

      Distance between the tank roof and tank bottom

    • D. 

      Distance between pump tank flange and tank floow

  • 93. 
    (233) When adjusting a deep-well pumps impellers, the proper setting will give the minimal clearance needed to create the most efficient suction where?
    • A. 

      At the impellers eye

    • B. 

      At the bottom of the tank

    • C. 

      At the impellers discharge

    • D. 

      At the pump discharge hear

  • 94. 
    (234) You are replacing a mechanical seal on a deep-well turbine with threaded couplings. With what do you cover the shaft threads to protect the mechanical seal's O-ring?
    • A. 

      Grease

    • B. 

      Teflon tape

    • C. 

      Electrical tape

    • D. 

      Paper sleeve

  • 95. 
    (234) What action should you take if you notice a slight leak on a mechanical seal you have just installed?
    • A. 

      Replace the O-ring

    • B. 

      Replace the seal and O-ring

    • C. 

      Stop the pump, restart, and see what happens

    • D. 

      Allow reasonable time for the seals to adjust

  • 96. 
    (234) In order to align a pump and motor, usually you need to?
    • A. 

      Move the pump

    • B. 

      Move the motor

    • C. 

      Adjust the shaft coupling

    • D. 

      Loosen the mechanical seal

  • 97. 
    (235) The components of the 81AF, nonsurge check valve, are one check valve flow control, a valve position indicator, and
    • A. 

      One hytrol check valve

    • B. 

      Two hytrol check valves

    • C. 

      One swing check valve

    • D. 

      Two swing check valves

  • 98. 
    • A. 

      A loose diaphragm washer

    • B. 

      Air in the main cover chamber

    • C. 

      A swing check valve disc not seated

    • D. 

      An obstruction between the disc and the seat of the main valve

  • 99. 
    (235) When reverse flow occurs to an 81AF-8, nonsurge check valve, how does fuel get to the cover chamber of the hytrol check valve?
    • A. 

      Through a drilled passage

    • B. 

      Through a pin hole in the main valve diaphragm

    • C. 

      Tubing connected from the inlet of the main valve to the cover chamber of the hytrol check

    • D. 

      Tubing connected from the outlet of the main valve to the cover chamber of the hytrol check

  • 100. 
    (235) How many seconds is the standard opening rate for the 81AF-8, nonsurge check valve?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      40