3DX5X CDC Volume 1

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?

    • Core task
    • Duty competency
    • Core competency
    • Duty position task
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3DX5X Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '3DX5X CDC Volume 1', evaluates knowledge in various Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) tasks and responsibilities, including server administration, client systems, RF transmission, and radar systems maintenance. It's designed for Air Force personnel to assess core competencies and duty position tasks.

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  • 2. 

    Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

    • Core task

    • Duty competency

    • Core competency

    • Duty position task

    Correct Answer
    A. Core competency
    Explanation
    A core competency is a specific set of expert knowledge and organizational skills that are essential to a particular career field. It encompasses the fundamental abilities and expertise required to perform tasks and responsibilities within that field. It represents the key skills and capabilities that individuals must possess to excel in their career and contribute effectively to their organization.

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  • 3. 

    Which 3D AFS focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout AF installations worldwide?

    • Cyber Surety

    • Client Systems

    • Cyber Transport

    • Cyber Systems Operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Cyber Systems Operations
    Explanation
    Cyber Systems Operations focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout AF installations worldwide. This role is responsible for managing and maintaining the server infrastructure, ensuring its availability and security. They handle tasks such as server configuration, troubleshooting, and performance monitoring. By specializing in Cyber Systems Operations, individuals are equipped with the skills and knowledge necessary to effectively manage and support server systems in a 3D AFS context.

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  • 4. 

    Which 3D AFS responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on"  maintenance actions?

    • Cyber Surety

    • Client Systems

    • Cyber Transport

    • Cyber Systems Operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Client Systems
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Client Systems. This responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions. This means that individuals in this role are responsible for providing technical support to clients, troubleshooting issues, and performing maintenance tasks on client systems.

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  • 5. 

    Which 3D AFS responisibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing fo standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

    • Spectrum Operations

    • Ground Radar Systems

    • Cable and Antenna Systems

    • Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    A. Radio Frequency Transmission
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. The responsibilities of 3D AFS (Air Force Specialty) in this area include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They are responsible for ensuring the smooth transmission of radio frequency signals and maintaining the functionality of these devices.

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  • 6. 

    Which 3D AFS responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?

    • Spectrum Operations

    • Ground Radar Systems

    • Cable and Antenna Systems

    • Radio Frequency Transmissions

    Correct Answer
    A. Ground Radar Systems
    Explanation
    Ground Radar Systems are responsible for the installation, maintenance, and repair of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems. This involves ensuring that these radar systems are properly installed, regularly maintained, and promptly repaired when necessary. Ground Radar Systems personnel play a crucial role in ensuring the effective operation of these systems, which are vital for air traffic control, weather monitoring, and ground air control.

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  • 7. 

    Which 3D AFS responsibilites include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • Spectrum Operations

    • Ground Radar Systems

    • Cable and Antenna Systems

    • Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    A. Cable and Antenna Systems
    Explanation
    Cable and Antenna Systems are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations. This includes setting up and maintaining the physical infrastructure required for transmitting and receiving signals, such as cables, connectors, and antennas. They ensure that the network wiring is properly installed, functioning correctly, and meets the operational requirements of the organization.

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  • 8. 

    Who is the advisor for ALL matters affecting the career field?

    • Unit Training Manager (UTM)

    • Base functional manager (BFM)

    • Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • AF Career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Career field manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    The AF Career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for ALL matters affecting the career field. This individual is responsible for providing guidance and support to personnel within the career field, ensuring that they are properly trained and equipped to perform their duties. The AFCFM has a comprehensive understanding of the career field and is able to provide expert advice on a wide range of topics, including career progression, professional development, and assignment opportunities. They work closely with other functional managers and leadership to ensure the success and advancement of individuals within the career field.

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  • 9. 

    Who is the FINAL authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the AFS career development course (CDC)?

    • Unit Training Manager (UTM)

    • Base Functional Manager (BFM)

    • Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • AF career field Manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    A. AF career field Manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    The AF career field Manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the AFS career development course (CDC). This means that the AFCFM has the power to exempt individuals from certain training requirements based on their specific circumstances or qualifications. The Unit Training Manager (UTM), Base Functional Manager (BFM), and Major command functional manager (MFM) may have some authority in this area, but the AFCFM has the ultimate decision-making power.

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  • 10. 

    Who assissts with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

    • UTM

    • BFM

    • MFM

    • AFCFM

    Correct Answer
    A. MFM
    Explanation
    MFM assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC).

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  • 11. 

    What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

    • UTM

    • BFM

    • MFM

    • AFCFM

    Correct Answer
    A. BFM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is BFM. The title normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is BFM.

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  • 12. 

    What is the MAIN goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

    • Modify training

    • Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • Conduct climate training surveys

    • Review the occupational analysis report

    Correct Answer
    A. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
    Explanation
    The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive and effective plan for the education and training of individuals in a specific career field. The CFETP will outline the necessary skills, knowledge, and competencies that individuals in the career field need to acquire, as well as the training programs and resources that will be utilized to meet those needs. By establishing a viable CFETP, the workshop ensures that individuals in the career field receive the necessary training and development opportunities to excel in their roles.

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  • 13. 

    Which AF Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment?"

    • 91-46

    • 91-50

    • 91-64

    • 91-68

    Correct Answer
    A. 91-46
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91-46. This AFOSH standard specifically addresses safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment." It provides guidelines and regulations to ensure the safe handling and storage of materials, protecting both personnel and property. By referencing this standard, individuals can access important information and procedures to follow when working with such equipment, promoting a safe working environment.

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  • 14. 

    Which AF Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on "Communications cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?"

    • 91-46

    • 91-50

    • 91-64

    • 91-68

    Correct Answer
    A. 91-50
    Explanation
    AFOSH 91-50 is the correct answer because it specifically addresses safety information on "Communications cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems." This document would provide guidelines and procedures for ensuring the safety of these systems, including installation, maintenance, and operation. It would cover topics such as electrical safety, fall protection, and hazard identification.

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  • 15. 

    The (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard

    • 91-46

    • 91-50

    • 91-64

    • 91-68

    Correct Answer
    A. 91-64
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91-64. This AFOSH standard is the one that provides safety information specifically for data processing facilities.

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  • 16. 

    From which of the following can a person absorb SELECTIVELY DAMAGING amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

    • Sunlight

    • Microwaves

    • Ionizing Radiation

    • Nonionizing Radiation

    Correct Answer
    A. Ionizing Radiation
    Explanation
    Ionizing radiation can be absorbed in selectively damaging amounts that harm deep tissue organs without causing any sensation of skin heating. Unlike nonionizing radiation, which includes sunlight and microwaves, ionizing radiation has enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms, causing ionization and damage to biological tissues. This type of radiation includes X-rays, gamma rays, and certain types of nuclear radiation. Therefore, ionizing radiation is the correct answer as it can cause harm to deep tissue organs without causing skin heating.

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  • 17. 

    Which (ORM) principle states that MOST logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the LOWEST acceptable risk?

    • Accept no unnecessary risk

    • Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs

    • Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels

    Correct Answer
    A. Accept no unnecessary risk
    Explanation
    The principle that states that the most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk is "Accept no unnecessary risk." This principle emphasizes the importance of minimizing risk to an acceptable level while still being able to achieve the mission objectives. By accepting no unnecessary risk, organizations can prioritize safety and protect their personnel and resources while still effectively completing their missions.

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  • 18. 

    Which (ORM) principle requests you to weight the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?

    • Accept no unnecessary risk

    • Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs

    • Integrate ORM into Operations and planning at all levels

    Correct Answer
    A. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs
    Explanation
    This principle of ORM suggests that it is acceptable to take risks when the potential benefits outweigh the associated costs. It emphasizes the importance of considering the balance between risks and opportunities in order to maximize unit capability. By carefully weighing the potential gains against the potential drawbacks, decision-makers can make informed choices about accepting risk in certain situations. This principle encourages a thoughtful and strategic approach to risk management.

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  • 19. 

    Which ORM principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?

    • Accept no unnecessary risk

    • Make risk decisions at hte appropriate level

    • Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs

    • Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels
    Explanation
    The principle of integrating ORM into operations and planning at all levels means that risk assessments are not seen as an additional step or process, but rather as a standard part of conducting a mission. This approach ensures that risk assessments are consistently and comprehensively conducted throughout the organization, making it a normal way of conducting operations rather than an add-on.

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  • 20. 

    Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by

    • Providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems

    • Taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data

    • Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace

    • Allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they're from

    Correct Answer
    A. Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace
    Explanation
    Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying, or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace. This means that the US takes active measures to prevent or hinder the adversary's ability to operate in cyberspace, whether it be through denying them access, degrading their capabilities, disrupting their operations, destroying their infrastructure, or altering their ability to function effectively. This is done in order to gain an advantage and protect sensitive data and systems from potential threats.

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  • 21. 

    Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control idustrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?

    • Joint Operability network

    • Tactical data links network

    • Strategic data control network

    • Supervisory control and data acquisition

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisory control and data acquisition
    Explanation
    Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) refers to centralized systems that monitor and control industrial sites or complexes of systems spread out over large areas. SCADA systems are used in various industries to gather and analyze real-time data, control processes, and make informed decisions. They provide a centralized platform for monitoring and controlling different aspects of industrial operations, such as power plants, water treatment facilities, and manufacturing plants. SCADA systems play a crucial role in ensuring efficient and safe operations in industrial settings.

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  • 22. 

    Which CENTER has the OVERALL authoritative sourcefor the status, control, and defense of AF networks?

    • Area Processing Center (APC)

    • Network Control Center (NCC)

    • AF Network Operations Center (AFNOC)

    • Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC)

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Network Operations Center (AFNOC)
    Explanation
    The AF Network Operations Center (AFNOC) is the correct answer because it serves as the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of AF networks. It is responsible for managing and monitoring the Air Force's network infrastructure, ensuring its availability, integrity, and security. The AFNOC coordinates with other centers and units to ensure the smooth operation of AF networks and to defend against any potential threats or attacks.

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  • 23. 

    Which CENTER is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?

    • Area Processing Center (APC)

    • Network Control Center (NCC)

    • AF Network Operations Center (AFNOC)

    • Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Network Control Center (NCC)
    Explanation
    The Network Control Center (NCC) is typically aligned under the base communications squadron and is responsible for providing Tier 3 support at the local level. It is also responsible for implementing technical and physical network changes. This means that the NCC is responsible for managing and maintaining the network infrastructure at the base, ensuring that it is operational and making any necessary changes or upgrades to improve its performance. The other options, the Area Processing Center (APC), AF Network Operations Center (AFNOC), and Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC) do not specifically mention providing Tier 3 support or implementing network changes, making them less likely to be the correct answer.

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  • 24. 

    Which funtion or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?

    • Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • Expeditinary Communications Squadron (ECS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Combat Communications Squadron (CCS). This organization's mission varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages. The CCS is responsible for setting up and maintaining communication networks in various operational environments, including remote or austere locations. They are trained to quickly deploy and establish communication capabilities to support military operations.

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  • 25. 

    Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?

    • Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)
    Explanation
    The Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS) was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF). This organization is responsible for providing and maintaining reliable and secure communications capabilities in support of the AETF's mission. They ensure that the AETF has the necessary communication infrastructure to effectively communicate and coordinate their operations.

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  • 26. 

    Which funciton or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?

    • Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • Combat Communications Squadron(CCS)

    • Espeditionary Communications Sq. (ECS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Enterprise Service Unit (ESU). The ESU is responsible for managing AF core services within the AFNetOps community. Their goal is to reduce training and maintenance costs while increasing operational flexibility and capacity for the warfighter.

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  • 27. 

    Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?

    • Constitution

    • Bill of Rights

    • United States Title Code 10

    • Uniform Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    A. Uniform Code of Military Justice
  • 28. 

    Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established ALL subordinate agencies including the ARMY, NAVY, AF, and Marine Corps?

    • Constitution

    • Bill of Rights

    • United States Title Code 10

    • Uniform Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    A. United States Title Code 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is United States Title Code 10. United States Title Code 10 is a federal law that outlines the organization and structure of the Department of Defense (DOD) and its subordinate agencies, including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. It authorizes the creation of the DOD as the executive component of the government and establishes the framework for its operations and responsibilities. The Constitution and the Bill of Rights provide the foundation for the government but do not specifically authorize the creation of the DOD. The Uniform Code of Military Justice is a separate legal framework for the military justice system.

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  • 29. 

    Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?

    • Constitution

    • Bill of Rights

    • US Title Code 10

    • UCMJ

    Correct Answer
    A. UCMJ
    Explanation
    The UCMJ (Uniform Code of Military Justice) serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breaches in binding instruction and law. It is a federal law that applies to all members of the United States military and outlines the legal rights and responsibilities of military personnel. The UCMJ covers a wide range of offenses, including those related to discipline, conduct, and justice within the military. It provides a comprehensive set of rules and regulations that govern the behavior and actions of military members and ensures that they are held accountable for any breaches or violations.

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  • 30. 

    In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidate their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine?

    • 1994

    • 1995

    • 1997

    • 1998

    Correct Answer
    A. 1995
    Explanation
    In 1995, the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine. This suggests that it was in this year that they finalized and unified their concepts and principles, forming the basis for their future doctrines.

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  • 31. 

    In what year did the AF finalize and publish its information operations (IO) doctrine in August, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?

    • 1994

    • 1995

    • 1997

    • 1998

    Correct Answer
    A. 1998
    Explanation
    In 1998, the AF finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August, while the Joint Staff also published its doctrine. This suggests that both the AF and the Joint Staff were working on their respective doctrines in the same year and that the AF's doctrine was completed and published in August of that year.

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  • 32. 

    Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the AF and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?

    • AF Doctrines

    • AF Pamphlets

    • AF Instructions

    • AF Policy Directives

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Policy Directives
    Explanation
    AF Policy Directives are directive policy statements of the Office of the Secretary of the AF and HQ USAF that initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct within their specified areas of responsibility. These directives provide guidance and instructions for the implementation of policies and procedures within the Air Force. They are authoritative documents that outline the official stance and requirements for various aspects of the organization's operations.

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  • 33. 

    Which publication type are informational publications which are "how to" documents?

    • AF Pamphlets

    • AF Instructions

    • AF Publications

    • AF Policy Directives

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Pamphlets
    Explanation
    AF Pamphlets are the correct answer because they are informational publications that provide instructions or guidance on how to perform certain tasks or activities. They are typically shorter in length and more focused on specific topics, making them ideal for providing step-by-step instructions or explanations on various subjects. AF Instructions, AF Publications, and AF Policy Directives may also contain informational content, but AF Pamphlets specifically cater to "how to" documents.

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  • 34. 

    What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits of info to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?

    • Broadcasts

    • Transmissions

    • Telecommunications

    • Voice over Internet Protocol.

    Correct Answer
    A. Telecommunications
    Explanation
    Telecommunications refers to the transmission of analog or digital bits of information over significant geographical distances to communicate. It involves the use of various technologies and devices to transmit voice, data, and video signals. This can include telephone networks, internet protocols, satellite systems, and other communication infrastructure. Telecommunications plays a crucial role in enabling long-distance communication and connectivity between individuals, businesses, and organizations.

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  • 35. 

    What tool provides essential online resoureces for the AF and its users at a single location?

    • MyPay

    • E-publishing

    • AF Portal

    • Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Portal
    Explanation
    The AF Portal is the correct answer because it is a tool that provides essential online resources for the AF and its users at a single location. It serves as a central hub for accessing various services and information related to the Air Force, including personnel records, training materials, news updates, and communication tools. By consolidating these resources in one place, the AF Portal enhances efficiency and convenience for AF personnel and users.

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  • 36. 

    What tool is considered a KEY enabler for the info technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?

    • MyPay

    • E-publishing

    • AF Portal

    • Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Portal
    Explanation
    The AF Portal is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces. The AF Portal provides a centralized location for Air Force personnel to access information, collaborate, and complete tasks online. It serves as a hub for various applications, resources, and tools that support the Air Force's information technology initiatives and enable efficient and effective communication and workflow processes.

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  • 37. 

    Which AF Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to ALL applications with no further log-in requirements/

    • My base

    • Single-sign-on

    • Community of Practice

    • Virtual Military Personnel Flgiht

    Correct Answer
    A. Single-sign-on
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Single-sign-on. Single-sign-on is a feature on AF Portal that allows authorized users to enter their passwords once and gain access to all applications without the need for further log-in requirements. This feature enhances user convenience and saves time by eliminating the need to remember and enter multiple passwords for different applications.

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  • 38. 

    Which AF portal feature provides a SECURE, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share info and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?

    • My base

    • Single-sign-on

    • Community of Practice

    • Virtual military personnel flight

    Correct Answer
    A. Community of Practice
    Explanation
    A Community of Practice is a feature on the AF portal that provides a secure, web-based collaborative environment for a specific task or topic. It allows members of a group to share information and tools, conduct business, manage projects, and solve group problems. This feature promotes knowledge sharing and collaboration among individuals with similar interests or expertise within the Air Force community.

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  • 39. 

    Which AF Portal feature is considered a MAJOR benefit of the AF Portal?

    • My base

    • Single-sign on

    • Community of Practice

    • Virtal Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    A. Virtal Military Personnel Flight
    Explanation
    The Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF) is considered a major benefit of the AF Portal because it provides a centralized platform for military personnel to access and manage their personnel information and records. This feature allows service members to perform tasks such as updating personal information, requesting leave, accessing pay and benefits information, and managing career development. By having all these functions in one place, the vMPF streamlines administrative processes and enhances efficiency for military personnel.

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  • 40. 

    Which document would you reference for guidance on "Web Management and Internet Use?"

    • AFI 33-118

    • AFI 33-119

    • AFI 33-127

    • AFI 33-129

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 33-129
    Explanation
    AFI 33-129 would be the correct document to reference for guidance on "Web Management and Internet Use." This document likely contains policies, procedures, and guidelines related to the management and use of the web and the internet within the context it is being referred to. It would provide information on how to effectively manage and utilize web resources and the internet while adhering to any applicable regulations and guidelines.

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  • 41. 

    Prior to posting web content on an AF web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs rpocedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?

    • AFI 33-127

    • AFI 33-129

    • AFI 35 101

    • AFI 35 108

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 35 101
  • 42. 

    When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you NOT use ot follow proper e-mail etiquette?

    • Keep emails brief and to the point

    • Read your email out loud to yourself

    • Conssitently use the "Reply to All" feature

    • Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message

    Correct Answer
    A. Conssitently use the "Reply to All" feature
    Explanation
    Using the "Reply to All" feature consistently goes against proper email etiquette. This feature should only be used when it is necessary for all recipients to be included in the conversation. In most cases, replying to the sender only is sufficient and avoids cluttering other people's inboxes with unnecessary emails. It is important to consider who really needs to be included in the conversation and use the "Reply to All" feature sparingly.

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  • 43. 

    Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

    • Published doctrines

    • Geographical base maps

    • Photographs of a retreat Ceremony

    • Library reference or museum exhibtions

    Correct Answer
    A. Library reference or museum exhibtions
    Explanation
    Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not created or maintained by the government. Official government records typically include documents, maps, and photographs that are created or commissioned by government agencies in the course of their official duties. Published doctrines, geographical base maps, and photographs of a retreat ceremony can all be considered official government records as they are directly related to government activities.

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  • 44. 

    Records that are cosidered to be in FINAL format have which characteristic?

    • Officially signed and not releaseed

    • Officially signed and officially released

    • Can be altered and are not officially released

    • Can't be altered, but are not officially released

    Correct Answer
    A. Officially signed and officially released
    Explanation
    Records that are considered to be in FINAL format have the characteristic of being officially signed and officially released. This means that they have undergone the necessary approval process and have been authorized for public dissemination.

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  • 45. 

    Records that are considered to be in DRAFT format

    • Can be altered and are not officially released

    • Cant be altered, but are officially released

    • Cant be altered and are officially signed

    • Officially signed and officially released

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be altered and are not officially released
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "can be altered and are not officially released". This means that records in DRAFT format can be changed or modified and they have not been officially released. They may still require further review or approval before they are considered final and released to the public or other parties.

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  • 46. 

    Who is charged wiht the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed BRMs?

    • Base Records Manager

    • Chief of Office of Records

    • Command Records Manager

    • FARM

    Correct Answer
    A. Command Records Manager
    Explanation
    The Command Records Manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed BRMs. This role ensures that the BRMs receive the necessary training and guidance to effectively carry out their duties. The Command Records Manager is in charge of developing and implementing training programs that cover various aspects of records management, such as recordkeeping policies, procedures, and best practices. They play a crucial role in ensuring that BRMs are equipped with the knowledge and skills required to manage records efficiently within their respective commands.

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  • 47. 

    Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

    • BRM

    • COR

    • CRM

    • FARM

    Correct Answer
    A. BRM
    Explanation
    BRM stands for Business Relationship Manager. The duties of a BRM include providing assistance to various departments within an organization, managing staging areas for projects and events, and conducting records training for employees. This role requires strong communication and organizational skills to ensure smooth operations and effective collaboration between different teams.

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  • 48. 

    Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an AF org or contractor to perform records management?

    • BRM

    • COR

    • CRM

    • FARM

    Correct Answer
    A. FARM
    Explanation
    FARM stands for Functional Area Records Manager. It is the individual who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. The FARM is responsible for managing and maintaining records within their designated area, ensuring compliance with record-keeping policies and procedures. They play a crucial role in organizing, storing, and retrieving records, as well as ensuring their accuracy and confidentiality.

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  • 49. 

    Who has the authority to appoint RCs within an office of Record?

    • BRm

    • COR

    • CRM

    • FARM

    Correct Answer
    A. COR
    Explanation
    The correct answer is COR, which stands for Certificate of Review. COR is an authority that has the power to appoint RCs (Responsible Certifiers) within an office of Record. The RCs are responsible for certifying the accuracy and completeness of records and documents within their respective offices.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 15, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 15, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 11, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Patrick_logan92

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