3D1X3 CDC Volume 3 Ure

120 Questions | Total Attempts: 1080

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3d1x3 Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (401)  When using space diversity, the AN/TRC-170 receive antenna spacing should be a minimum of
    • A. 

      10 wavelengths apart.

    • B. 

      25 wavelengths apart.

    • C. 

      50 wavelengths apart.

    • D. 

      100 wavelengths apart.

  • 2. 
    (401)  Which type of diversity requires two antennas, two receivers, and two transmitters?
    • A. 

      Polarization.

    • B. 

      Crossband.

    • C. 

      Frequency.

    • D. 

      Space.

  • 3. 
    (401)  In an AN/TRC-170 terminal, the quantity of digital group multiplexer units supplied and their application are
    • A. 

      Different in the V2 and V3 systems.

    • B. 

      Identical in the V2 and V3 systems.

    • C. 

      Dependent on the mission and number of channels.

    • D. 

      Dependent on the deployment of the technical control.

  • 4. 
    (401)  The MD-1026 digital data modem can interface up to four groups of
    • A. 

      Balanced non-return-to-zero (NRZ) signals.

    • B. 

      Conditioned diphase signals.

    • C. 

      Unbalanced NRZ signals.

    • D. 

      Isochronous signals.

  • 5. 
    (401)  Which type of encryption device does full-duplex encryption of AN/TRC-170's groups or supergroup mission traffic?
    • A. 

      KY-68 digital secure voice terminal/phone.

    • B. 

      KY-58 VINSON.

    • C. 

      KG-84 dedicated loop encryption device.

    • D. 

      KG-81 trunk encryption device.

  • 6. 
    (401)  Digital voice orderwire traffic that originates at the AN/TRC-170's voice orderwire control unit is encrypted by the
    • A. 

      KY-68 digital secure voice terminal/phone.

    • B. 

      KY-58 VINSON encryption device.

    • C. 

      KG-84 dedicated loop encryption device.

    • D. 

      KG-81 trunk encryption device.

  • 7. 
    (401)  Which jack field in the AN/TRC-170's baseband patch panel provides timing and data connections?
    • A. 

      Middle.

    • B. 

      Center.

    • C. 

      Upper.

    • D. 

      Lower.

  • 8. 
    (401)  The tropospheric scatter modem processes mission traffic at data rates of 128 through 4,096 Kbps in the
    • A. 

      512 Kbps data rate family.

    • B. 

      576 Kbps data rate family.

    • C. 

      1,024 Kbps data rate family.

    • D. 

      1,152 Kbps data rate family.

  • 9. 
    (401)  Which unit in the AN/TRC-170 terminal contains the rubidium standard?
    • A. 

      Electrical frequency synthesizer.

    • B. 

      Frequency subsystem unit.

    • C. 

      Tropospheric scatter modem.

    • D. 

      Transmitter-amplifier converter.

  • 10. 
    (401)  The quick reaction antenna for the V3 AN/TRC-170 terminal uses
    • A. 

      Two 6-foot-diameter, linearly dual-polarized antennas.

    • B. 

      Four 6-foot-diameter, linearly dual-polarized antennas.

    • C. 

      Two 9.5-foot-diameter, linearly dual-polarized antennas.

    • D. 

      Four 9.5-foot-diameter, linearly dual-polarized antennas.

  • 11. 
    (402)  The Tropo/Satellite Support Radio frequency coverage extends from
    • A. 

      4.4 to 5.25 GHz.

    • B. 

      7.25 to 8.4 GHz.

    • C. 

      14.4 to 15.25 GHz.

    • D. 

      17.25 to 18.4 GHz.

  • 12. 
    (402)  The maximum distance a Tropo/Satellite Support Radio can operate with the 2-foot antenna is
    • A. 

      10 miles.

    • B. 

      25 miles.

    • C. 

      100 miles.

    • D. 

      250 miles.

  • 13. 
    (402)  In the Tropo/Satellite Support Radio's baseband assembly, a 1-volt peak-to-peak input signal results in how much frequency deviation in the transmitter?
    • A. 

      +/- 4 MHz.

    • B. 

      Less than +/- 4 MHz.

    • C. 

      More than +/- 4 MHz.

    • D. 

      No signal deviation.

  • 14. 
    (402)  In the Tropo/Satellite Support Radio frequency assembly, what permits the transmitter and receiver to be connected to the same antenna?
    • A. 

      Circulator.

    • B. 

      Combiner.

    • C. 

      Coupler.

    • D. 

      Hybrid.

  • 15. 
    (402)  What is the intermediate frequency of the Tropo/Satellite Support Radio?
    • A. 

      70 MHz with a 10 MHz bandpass.

    • B. 

      70 MHz with a 20 MHz bandpass.

    • C. 

      700 MHz with a 10 MHz bandpass.

    • D. 

      700 MHz with a 20 MHz bandpass.

  • 16. 
    (403)  The closest point of orbit that a satellite comes to the Earth is called the
    • A. 

      Apogee.

    • B. 

      Perigee.

    • C. 

      Major axis.

    • D. 

      Minor axis.

  • 17. 
    (403)  What is the inclination angle of a polar orbit?
    • A. 

      0 degrees.

    • B. 

      45 degrees.

    • C. 

      90 degrees.

    • D. 

      180 degrees

  • 18. 
    (404)  What are the two types of communications satellites?
    • A. 

      Active and passive.

    • B. 

      Active and real-time.

    • C. 

      Delay and passive.

    • D. 

      Delay and real-time.

  • 19. 
    (404)  Which satellite reflects signals transmitted toward it?
    • A. 

      Active.

    • B. 

      Delay.

    • C. 

      Passive.

    • D. 

      Real-time.

  • 20. 
    (404)  An advantage of passive satellites is that they
    • A. 

      Have a larger transmitter power.

    • B. 

      Have more sensitive equipment.

    • C. 

      Operate as repeater stations in space.

    • D. 

      Operate over a wider-frequency range.

  • 21. 
    (404)  What is the time delay of a real-time satellite?
    • A. 

      0.1 seconds.

    • B. 

      0.6 seconds.

    • C. 

      1.0 seconds.

    • D. 

      6.0 seconds.

  • 22. 
    (405)  What satellite access technique was the first multiple access method developed?
    • A. 

      Code division multiple access (CDMA).

    • B. 

      Time division multiple access (TDMA).

    • C. 

      Demand assigned multiple access (DAMA).

    • D. 

      Frequency division multiple access (FDMA).

  • 23. 
    (405)  What satellite access technique is being used when all channels are pooled and used by any station, according to its instantaneous traffic load?
    • A. 

      Code division multiple access (CDMA).

    • B. 

      Time division multiple access (TDMA).

    • C. 

      Demand assigned multiple access (DAMA).

    • D. 

      Frequency division multiple access (FDMA).

  • 24. 
    (406)  When computing satellite look angles, ground distance on the earth's surface is expressed in
    • A. 

      Degrees.

    • B. 

      Seconds.

    • C. 

      Minutes.

    • D. 

      Nautical miles.

  • 25. 
    (406)  One degree of arc on the Earth's surface equals
    • A. 

      One statute mile.

    • B. 

      One nautical mile.

    • C. 

      69 statute miles.

    • D. 

      69 nautical miles.

  • 26. 
    (407)  Solar time is based on
    • A. 

      Atomic clock oscillations.

    • B. 

      Apparent constellation movement.

    • C. 

      The moon's rotation about the sun.

    • D. 

      The apparent motion of the sun in the sky.

  • 27. 
    (407)  An atomic time scale is based on the frequency of which type of oscillator?
    • A. 

      Pendulum.

    • B. 

      Crystal.

    • C. 

      Quartz.

    • D. 

      Cesium.

  • 28. 
    (408)  On what kind of clock system is coordinated universal time based?
    • A. 

      Amplitude modulation and pulse modulation.

    • B. 

      Daylight saving.

    • C. 

      24-hour.

    • D. 

      12-hour.

  • 29. 
    (409)  The international agency responsible for coordinated universal time (UTC) is the
    • A. 

      United States Naval Observatory.

    • B. 

      International Bureau of Weights and Measures.

    • C. 

      Precision Measurement Equipment Laboratory.

    • D. 

      National Institute of Standards and Technology.

  • 30. 
    (409)  Uploading satellite control data, tracking ballistic missiles, and predicting satellites tracking coordinates are examples of missions where all parties involved must have
    • A. 

      Identical time code formats.

    • B. 

      Different time code formats.

    • C. 

      Synchronized timing.

    • D. 

      Offset timing.

  • 31. 
    (410)  What two factors cause a quartz oscillator's resonant frequency to drift?
    • A. 

      Humidity and aging.

    • B. 

      Temperature and aging.

    • C. 

      Humidity and operating frequency.

    • D. 

      Temperature and operating frequency.

  • 32. 
    (410)  The operation of the atomic clock is based on the phenomenon that
    • A. 

      Crystals resonate when an electric charge is applied.

    • B. 

      Atoms release energy at a particular resonant frequency.

    • C. 

      Atoms are sensitive to temperature and directional effects.

    • D. 

      When atoms are split they produce predictable nuclear reactions.

  • 33. 
    (411)  Which type of modem transmits RF signals over coaxial cable?
    • A. 

      Voice.

    • B. 

      Cable.

    • C. 

      Radio.

    • D. 

      Wireless.

  • 34. 
    (412)  What is multiplexing?
    • A. 

      Transmitting one signal over multiple transmission paths.

    • B. 

      Transmitting one signal multiple times over a single transmission path.

    • C. 

      Combining multiple signals for transmission over a single transmission path.

    • D. 

      Combining multiple signals for transmission over separate, individial transmission paths.

  • 35. 
    (412)  What technique of multiplexing samples each low speed channel in sequence to interleave bits or characters and then transmit them at high speed?
    • A. 

      Wavelength division.

    • B. 

      Frequency division.

    • C. 

      Code division.

    • D. 

      Time division.

  • 36. 
    (412)  Wavelength division multiplexing assigns each incoming optical signal to a specific
    • A. 

      Pseudorandom code.

    • B. 

      Frequency of light.

    • C. 

      Radio frequency.

    • D. 

      Time slot.

  • 37. 
    (413)  What comprises a telemetry data stream?
    • A. 

      Mission data and mission satellite health and status data.

    • B. 

      Command data and mission satellite health and status data.

    • C. 

      Mission data, satellite ephemeris, table, and satellite status data.

    • D. 

      Command data, satellite ephemeris table, and satellite status data.

  • 38. 
    (413)  On a satellite, position and orientation control is especially critical for what type of antenna?
    • A. 

      Broadband.

    • B. 

      Wide angle.

    • C. 

      High frequency.

    • D. 

      Highly directional.

  • 39. 
    (414)  The function of the command and control (C2) segment of the space systems is to
    • A. 

      Provide downlink informatino and recover the payload and health and status data.

    • B. 

      Maintain the satellite health and status and recover the payload and health and status data.

    • C. 

      Provide downlink information and recover the payload and the area of coverage require by the program mission.

    • D. 

      Maintain the satellite health and status and recover the payload and the area of coverage required by the program mission.

  • 40. 
    (414)  What type of command is sent to the satellite by the space systems mission control complex and contains embedded timing that specifies the time the satellite will execute the command?
    • A. 

      Real-time.

    • B. 

      Time-delayed.

    • C. 

      Timed program.

    • D. 

      Stored program.

  • 41. 
    (415)  What is the purpose of the space system user segment?
    • A. 

      Receive, process, use, or distribute mission data as required by a program's taskings.

    • B. 

      Receive, process, use, or distribute payload data and provide essential space support tasks as required by a program's tasking.

    • C. 

      Transmit, process, use, or distribute mission data as required by a program's tasking.

    • D. 

      Transmit, process, use, or distribute payload data and provide essential space support tasks as required by a program's tasking.

  • 42. 
    (415)  The two major subdivisions of the Defense Meteorological Satellite Program user segment are
    • A. 

      Air Force Weather Agency and the Fleet Numerical Meteorology Oceanography Center and tactical terminals.

    • B. 

      Air Force Weather Agency and Fleet Numerical Meteorology Oceanography Center only.

    • C. 

      Air Force Weather Agency and National Oceanographic Atmospheric Administration.

    • D. 

      Fleet Numberical Meteorology Oceanography Center and National Oceanographic Atmospheric Administration and tactical terminals.

  • 43. 
    (415)  Which early warning center receives Defense Support Program warning data from the 460th Space Wing units?
    • A. 

      Air Force Weather Agency.

    • B. 

      Mission Control Squadron.

    • C. 

      Mission Control Command.

    • D. 

      North American Aerospace Defense Command.

  • 44. 
    (415)  For an operational mission, the purpose of the global positioning system user segment is to enable users to
    • A. 

      Actively receive satellite broadcast position, velocity, and time data.

    • B. 

      Actively transmit satellite broadcast position, velocity, and time data.

    • C. 

      Passively receive satellite broadcast position, velocity, and time data.

    • D. 

      Passively transmit satellite broadcast position, velocity, and time data.

  • 45. 
    (415)  What system supports the National Command Authority and provides all-service (Army, Navy, and Air Force) communication for interoperable command, control, and communications (C3) at all levels of conflict?
    • A. 

      Defense Satellite Communications System.

    • B. 

      Global Positioning System.

    • C. 

      Defense Support Program.

    • D. 

      Milstar.

  • 46. 
    (416)  What sequence of events must you follow when establishing a communication link with a satellite?
    • A. 

      Frequency acquisition, space acquisition, antenna pointing, and satellite tracking.

    • B. 

      Satellite acquisition, satellite tracking, power correction, and antenna pointing.

    • C. 

      Orbit prediction, antenna pointing, satellite acquisition, and satellite tracking.

    • D. 

      Orbit prediction, space acquisition, and frequency acquisition.

  • 47. 
    (416)  Telemetry refers to
    • A. 

      A low power signal transmitted from the satellite and is separate from the communications components.

    • B. 

      A low power signal transmitted from the satellite and is part of the communications components.

    • C. 

      The data transmitted by the satellite concerning on-board status and is separate from the communications components.

    • D. 

      The data transmitted by the satellite concerning on-board status and is part of the communications components.

  • 48. 
    (416)  Information contained in the ephemeris data pertain to the
    • A. 

      Predicted satellite orbit.

    • B. 

      Predicted atmospheric conditions.

    • C. 

      Channels through a satellite that are available for use.

    • D. 

      Combinations of ground stations that can communicate with each other.

  • 49. 
    (416)  Which tracking method requires no input from a satellite?
    • A. 

      Programmed track.

    • B. 

      Automatic track.

    • C. 

      Pseudoconscan.

    • D. 

      Step track.

  • 50. 
    (416)  Automatic tracking systems are superior to programmed tracking systems because they
    • A. 

      Use servomechanisms to control antenna movements.

    • B. 

      Track only signals received from the satellite.

    • C. 

      Track the actual position of the satellite.

    • D. 

      Use updated ephemeris data.

  • 51. 
    (416)  What signals originating from the satellite do we use to acquire and track the satellite?
    • A. 

      Beacon.

    • B. 

      Ephemeris.

    • C. 

      Telemetry.

    • D. 

      Communication.

  • 52. 
    (417)  The intermediate frequencies/levels used by Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS) earth terminals are 70 MHz at
    • A. 

      -10 dBm and 630 MHz @ -13 dBm.

    • B. 

      -13 dBm and 630 MHz @ -10 dBm.

    • C. 

      -10 dBm and 700 MHz @ -13 dBm.

    • D. 

      -13 dBm and 700 MHz @ -10 dBm.

  • 53. 
    (417)  How are the high power amplifiers (HPA) cooled in an AN/GSC-52 earth terminal?
    • A. 

      Air.

    • B. 

      Cryogenic.

    • C. 

      Liquid nitrogen.

    • D. 

      Ethanol/glycol solution.

  • 54. 
    (417)  The downlink frequency range of the Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS) is
    • A. 

      7.25 to 7.75 MHz.

    • B. 

      7.25 to 7.75 GHz.

    • C. 

      7.9 to 8.4 MHz.

    • D. 

      7.9 to 8.4 GHz.

  • 55. 
    (417)  In the AN/GSC-52 earth terminal, the down converter normally dedicated for tracking is downconverter
    • A. 

      1 in Downconverter Rack 1.

    • B. 

      8 in Downconverter Rack 1.

    • C. 

      1 in Downconverter Rack 7.

    • D. 

      8 in Downconverter Rank 7.

  • 56. 
    (417)  What information is used for satellite tracking on an AN/GSC-52 earth terminal operating in the memory track mode?
    • A. 

      Beacon signal.

    • B. 

      Recorded data.

    • C. 

      Ephemerous data.

    • D. 

      Communications signal.

  • 57. 
    (417)  Which of the following component is not used to control the AN/GSC-52 earth terminal?
    • A. 

      Remote terminal processor (RTP).

    • B. 

      External control element.

    • C. 

      Internal control element.

    • D. 

      Terminal processor (TP).

  • 58. 
    (418)  Which feedhorns are located in the AN/GSC-52 earth terminal feed assembly?
    • A. 

      Single tracking and communication feedhorn.

    • B. 

      One tracking feedhorn and one communications feedhorn.

    • C. 

      One tracking feedhorn and four communications feedhorns.

    • D. 

      Four tracking feedhorns and one communication feedhorn.

  • 59. 
    (418)  In the AN/GSC-52 earth terminal's tracking system, what converts the azimuth/elevation (AZ/EL) velocity commands from the antenna control unit into drive power outputs to move the antenna?
    • A. 

      Scanner.

    • B. 

      Comparator.

    • C. 

      Servo amplifier.

    • D. 

      Optical converter.

  • 60. 
    (418)  How are the high power amplifiers normally configured in the AN/GSC-52 earth terminal?
    • A. 

      One active online with three in standby mode.

    • B. 

      Two active online with two in standby mode.

    • C. 

      Three active online with one in standby mode.

    • D. 

      Four active online with none in standby mode.

  • 61. 
    (418)  In the event of a downconverter failure in the AN/GSC-52 earth terminal, the downconverter
    • A. 

      Switch assembly (under TS-A control) automatically places a space online.

    • B. 

      Alarm monitor (under TS-A control) automatically places a spare online.

    • C. 

      Controller (under TS-A control) automatically places a space online.

    • D. 

      Space must be configured and placed online manually.

  • 62. 
    (418)  In the AN/GSC-52, the upconverter or downconverter normally dedicated to automatic switchover is in rack position number
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      7.

    • D. 

      8.

  • 63. 
    (418)  The AN/GSC-52 earth terminal's frequency and timing subsystem provides precise 1pps timing signals and precise frequency outputs of
    • A. 

      1 kHz and 5 MHz.

    • B. 

      1 MHz and 5kHz.

    • C. 

      1 MHz and 5 MHz.

    • D. 

      5 MHz and 10 MHz.

  • 64. 
    (418)  In the AN/GSC-52 earth terminal's control, monitor, and alarm group (CMA), what equipment interfaces to separate individual subsystems and is responsible for control and status of specific groups of terminal equipment?
    • A. 

      Station console.

    • B. 

      Terminal servers.

    • C. 

      Terminal processor (TP).

    • D. 

      External control element (ECE).

  • 65. 
    (419)  Which Defense Meteorological Satellite Program elements receive only real-time satellite imagery when the satellite is in view?
    • A. 

      Strategic.

    • B. 

      Tactical.

    • C. 

      Air Force Weather Agency.

    • D. 

      Automated Remote Tracking Stations.

  • 66. 
    (419)  What are the Air Force Satellite Control Network (AFSCN) command and control nodes?
    • A. 

      Environmental Satellite Operations Center at Schriever AFB, CO, and National Oceanographic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) Satellite Operations Control Center at Suitland, MD.

    • B. 

      Environmental Satellite Operations Center at Schriever AFB, CO, and Multi Purpose Satellite Operations Center, Offutt AFB, NB.

    • C. 

      Air Force Weather Agency, Offutt AFB, NB, and NOAA Satellite Operations Control Center at Suitland, MD.

    • D. 

      Air Force Weather Agency, Offutt AFB, NB, and Multi Purpose Satellite Operations Center, Offutt AFB, NB.

  • 67. 
    (419)  The MARK IVB antennas can be located up to how many feet away from the processing area?
    • A. 

      1,000.

    • B. 

      1,500.

    • C. 

      2,500.

    • D. 

      3,000.

  • 68. 
    (419)  The primary interface between the operator/maintainer and the MARK IVB system is the
    • A. 

      Storage disk array.

    • B. 

      Maintainer workstation.

    • C. 

      Network interface switch.

    • D. 

      Meteorological data server.

  • 69. 
    (420)  Which agency is responsible for Defense Support Program operational control?
    • A. 

      HQ AFSPC.

    • B. 

      HQ AFPC (10 AF).

    • C. 

      SPACEAF (14 AF).

    • D. 

      USSTRATCOM/CC,

  • 70. 
    (420)  Which components are major sets of satellite readout station equipment?
    • A. 

      Radio frequency set and modulation system controller.

    • B. 

      Modulation interface equipment and transmit/receive set.

    • C. 

      Modulation interface equipment and modulation system controller.

    • D. 

      Radio frequency set, transmit/receiver set, and digital equipment set.

  • 71. 
    (420)  In the satellite readout station, the transmit/receive set
    • A. 

      Transmits weather imagery to the satellite and receives telemetry data from the satellite on a 2.2 to 2.3 gigahertz bandwidth.

    • B. 

      Receives and processes downlink satellite signals, and generates and tramsits uplink satellite commanding and ranging signals.

    • C. 

      Monitors precise range measurements from the satellite vehicle and recovers almanac data from transmitted signals to measure signal quality.

    • D. 

      Receives and processes the transmit signal for the satellite, and generates and receives downlink satellite commanding and ranging signals.

  • 72. 
    (421)  What is the number of global positioning system orbital planes?
    • A. 

      Four.

    • B. 

      Five.

    • C. 

      Six.

    • D. 

      Seven.

  • 73. 
    (421)  The purpose of the global positioning system ground antenna is to
    • A. 

      Interface between the master control station and user sets.

    • B. 

      Interface between the master control station and the satellites.

    • C. 

      Provide all commanding and resources to process the satellite telemetry.

    • D. 

      Provide all tracking and resources to process the monitor station downlinked telemetry.

  • 74. 
    (421)  Which global positioning system operation control segment component is remotely operated and transmits and receives telemetry to and from the satellites?
    • A. 

      Monitor station.

    • B. 

      Ground antenna.

    • C. 

      Master control station.

    • D. 

      Transmit ground station.

  • 75. 
    (421)  What is the minimum number of global positioning system satellites that must be tracked for accurate three-dimentional navigation?
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      Three.

    • C. 

      Four.

    • D. 

      Five.

  • 76. 
    (421)  Which is not a characteristic of the Defense Advanced Global Positioning System (GPS) Receiver?
    • A. 

      Can only be used as a handheld unit.

    • B. 

      Can process the GPS satellite triple frequency signals.

    • C. 

      Can use an external power source and external antenna.

    • D. 

      Can be installed in a host platform (ground facility, air, sea or land vehicle).

  • 77. 
    (422)  What Milstar capability is very different from previous military satellite communications (MILSATCOM) and commercial satellite communications systems?
    • A. 

      Crossbanding.

    • B. 

      Crosslinking.

    • C. 

      Multi-service.

    • D. 

      Secure networking.

  • 78. 
    (422)  Which element of the Milstar mission allocates communication resources?
    • A. 

      Development.

    • B. 

      Planning.

    • C. 

      Support.

    • D. 

      Control.

  • 79. 
    (422)  The secure mobile anti-jam tactical terminal (SMART-T) provides user data rates through
    • A. 

      T-1 (128 Kbps).

    • B. 

      T-1 (256 Kbps).

    • C. 

      T-1 (1.544 Mbps).

    • D. 

      T-1 (2.048 Mbps).

  • 80. 
    (422)  How many active satellites does the completed Milstar phase II (Milstar II) constellation consist of?
    • A. 

      Three.

    • B. 

      Four.

    • C. 

      Six.

    • D. 

      Eight.

  • 81. 
    (422)  The Milstar satellite sends downlink communications transmissions at
    • A. 

      Ultrahigh frequency (UHF) only.

    • B. 

      Extremely high frequency (EHF) only.

    • C. 

      UHF and super-high frequency (SHF).

    • D. 

      UHF and EHF.

  • 82. 
    (422)  Which Milstar antenna provides high gain, selective coverage of any ground station visible on the earth's surface within its own footprint?
    • A. 

      Agile beam.

    • B. 

      Spot beam.

    • C. 

      Gimbaled dish.

    • D. 

      Earth coverage.

  • 83. 
    (422)  What is the maximum number of demand assigned multiple access (DAMA) networks can a single Milstar satellite support?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 84. 
    (422)  Encoding/decoding of a digital signal
    • A. 

      Quadruples the data rate.

    • B. 

      Increases the signal-to-noise-ratio.

    • C. 

      Decreases the signal-to-noise-ratio.

    • D. 

      Enhances the link bit error rate.

  • 85. 
    (422)  The Milstar Air Force terminal segment has terminals that are classified as either
    • A. 

      Ship or shore.

    • B. 

      Master or slave.

    • C. 

      Airborne or ground.

    • D. 

      Command post or force element.

  • 86. 
    (422)  The Milstar extremelyhigh frequency (EHF)/ultrahigh frequency (UHF) fixed ground command post terminal has a
    • A. 

      90-inch antenna and a radome.

    • B. 

      96-inch antenna and a radome.

    • C. 

      90-inch antenna and no radome.

    • D. 

      96-inch antenna and no radome.

  • 87. 
    (422)  What type of extremely high frequency (EHF) antenna is used on the Milstar EHF/UHF airborne command post terminals?
    • A. 

      16-inch Cassegrain.

    • B. 

      26-inch Cassegrain.

    • C. 

      16-inch front-feed.

    • D. 

      26-inch front-feed.

  • 88. 
    (423)  What agency plans and executes satellite tracking and ephemeris data generation?
    • A. 

      Commander of the United States Strategic Command.

    • B. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • C. 

      Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS).

    • D. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency Operations Control Complex (DOCC).

  • 89. 
    (423)  What agency provides personnel at the regional satellite communications (Regional SATCOM) support center with resource allocation parameters?
    • A. 

      Commander of the United States Strategic Command.

    • B. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • C. 

      Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS).

    • D. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency Operations Control Complex (DOCC).

  • 90. 
    (423)  The purpose of the Defense Information Systems Agency Operations Control Complex (DOCC is to
    • A. 

      Provide operational control of the Defense Communications System (DCS).

    • B. 

      Provide operational control of the Air Force satellite communications (AFSATCOM) system.

    • C. 

      Manage and provide the regional satellite communications support center (RSSC) with satellite engineering parameters.

    • D. 

      Manage and distribute bandwidths allocated from the Chairman Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) for their respective theaters of responsibility.

  • 91. 
    (423)   What agency ensures all satellite links perform according to baseline parameters?
    • A. 

      United States Army Space and Missile Defense Command/Army Forces Strategic Command.

    • B. 

      Defense Satellite Communications System operations centers (DSCSOC).

    • C. 

      Unified and specified combatant commanders (COCOM).

    • D. 

      Air Force Space Command (AFSPC).

  • 92. 
    (423)  Modifications on the Defense Satellite Communications System phase III (DSCS III) satellite include
    • A. 

      Larger solar panels.

    • B. 

      Smaller solar panels.

    • C. 

      Multibeam array antenna.

    • D. 

      Single-channel transponder (SCT) downlink.

  • 93. 
    (423)  The Defense Satellite Communications System phase III (DSCS III) S-band system is primarily used for
    • A. 

      Satellite telemetry, tracking, and control.

    • B. 

      Broadcasting emergency action messages (EAM).

    • C. 

      A super high frequency (SHF) communication link.

    • D. 

      An extremely high frequency (EHF) communication link.

  • 94. 
    (424)  What constellation are the ultrahigh frequency (UHF) follow-on satellites designed to replace?
    • A. 

      Global positioning satellite and Inmarsat.

    • B. 

      MILSTAR and Defense Satellite Communications System.

    • C. 

      Defense Meteorological Program and Commercial satellites.

    • D. 

      Fleet satellite communications (FLTSATCOM) and leased satellites (LEASAT).

  • 95. 
    (424)  Which satellite system provides Global Broadcast Services (GBS)?
    • A. 

      Commercial L-band.

    • B. 

      Defense Meteorological.

    • C. 

      Global positioning satellite.

    • D. 

      Ultra high frequency (UHF) follow-on.

  • 96. 
    (425)  When considering the factor of service area for commercial satellite services, which description is true about Ku-band service?
    • A. 

      Not worldwide, located primarily over land masses and highly populated areas.

    • B. 

      Not worldwide, located primarily over ocean areas and lowly populated areas.

    • C. 

      Worldwide between roughly 65 degrees North and 65 degrees South latitudes.

    • D. 

      Worldwide, located primarily over land masses and highly populated areas.

  • 97. 
    (425)  Which service is not provided by the commercial satellite communications branch (CSB)?
    • A. 

      Help obtain host nation approvals.

    • B. 

      Recommend and/or obtain ground terminals.

    • C. 

      Act as the day-to-day mobile satellite services (MSS) system manager.

    • D. 

      Evaluate customer requests to see if commercial service is the best option.

  • 98. 
    (426)  Which commercial satellite communication system can offer true pole-to-pole global coverage?
    • A. 

      European Telecommunications Satellite Organization (EUTELSAT).

    • B. 

      International Telecommunications Satellite Organization (INTELSAT).

    • C. 

      International Maritime Satellite Organization (Inmarsat).

    • D. 

      Iridium Satellite, LLC.

  • 99. 
    (426)  The Iridium secure module provides secure voice communications up to and including what level of classification?
    • A. 

      Top Secret.

    • B. 

      Secret.

    • C. 

      Confidential.

    • D. 

      For Official Use Only.

  • 100. 
    (427)  Which type of communications would not normally be provided through commercial wideband services?
    • A. 

      Very small aperture terminal networks.

    • B. 

      International high-speed internet connectivity.

    • C. 

      Handheld satellite phone communications.

    • D. 

      Deployable video teleconferencing.

  • 101. 
    (427)  Which service provider is a new satellite communications company specifically dedicated to provide commercial X-band services exclusively to US and Allied governments?
    • A. 

      International Telecommunications Satellite Organization.

    • B. 

      European Telecommunications Satellite Organization.

    • C. 

      Pan-American Satellite Corporation.

    • D. 

      XTAR, LLC.

  • 102. 
    (428)  The Predator ground control station (GCS) satellite communications (SATCOM) subsystem provides one full-duplex encrypted digital voice channel, command and control (C2) capability of four remotely piloted aircraft, and operates over a
    • A. 

      Ku-band satellite.

    • B. 

      Ka-band satellite.

    • C. 

      C-band satellite.

    • D. 

      X-band satellite.

  • 103. 
    (429)  Who submits a feeder telecommunications service request to start, stop, or change circuits, trunks, links, or systems?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense (DOD).

    • B. 

      The users' technical control facility.

    • C. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • D. 

      The distant end technical control facility.

  • 104. 
    (429)  One of the functions of the telecommunications certification office is to
    • A. 

      Assign a circuit number to the telecommunications service request.

    • B. 

      Ensure the user agency is prepared to pay for the service.

    • C. 

      Review the circuit priority against mission needs.

    • D. 

      Maintain case files on all MAJCOM circuits.

  • 105. 
    (429)  Command communications service designators (CCSD) are divided into two classes;
    • A. 

      Continental United States (CONUS) and overseas.

    • B. 

      Primary and secondary.

    • C. 

      Permanent and temporary.

    • D. 

      Terrestrial and extra-terrestrial.

  • 106. 
    (429)  Telecommunications circuit restoration is normally done
    • A. 

      By the user.

    • B. 

      By rerouting to spare channels.

    • C. 

      Within five minutes of circuit failure.

    • D. 

      By automatic fault location equipment.

  • 107. 
    (430)  The regional satellite communications support center (RSSC) is a
    • A. 

      Network control center for links ending in the center's area of responsibility.

    • B. 

      Network operations center for links ending in the center's area of responsibility.

    • C. 

      Planning cell that supports the area communications operations center with ground mobile forces (GMF) access on the Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).

    • D. 

      Planning cell that supports unified and specified commands with ground mobile forces access on the DSCS.

  • 108. 
    (430)  With what agency does the regional satellite communications support center (RSSC) coordinate for additional satellite resources if the planned deployment configuration cannot be supported by the satellite payload configuration?
    • A. 

      Ground mobile forces (GMF) network controller.

    • B. 

      Consolidated space operations center.

    • C. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • D. 

      Defense Information System Agency Network Operations Center (DISANOC).

  • 109. 
    (430)  What office resolves conflicts regarding Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS) ground mobile forces (GMF) satellite resources that cannot be settled by the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) and the regional satellite communications support center (RSSC)?
    • A. 

      Joint Staff.

    • B. 

      Combatant commander (COCOM).

    • C. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency Operations Control Complex (DOCC).

    • D. 

      Consolidated space operations center.

  • 110. 
    (431)  Which statement is true about in-service performance monitoring?
    • A. 

      It indicates the quality of the operating signal while interrupting the signal.

    • B. 

      It verifies the quality of prescribed specifications from terminal to terminal.

    • C. 

      It indicates the quality of the operating signal without interrupting the signal.

    • D. 

      It is used to make necessary end-to-end adjustments to interface and transmission equipment.

  • 111. 
    (431)  Which term is defined as measures taken to ensure the continued use of the frequency spectrum by Department of Defense and friendly forces?
    • A. 

      Electronic attack (EA).

    • B. 

      Electronic warfare (EW).

    • C. 

      Electronic support (ES).

    • D. 

      Counter-counter measures (CCM).

  • 112. 
    (432)  What is the name of the companding scale used in US telephone networks and standarizard for analog-to-digital conversion?
    • A. 

      Metric.

    • B. 

      A-Law.

    • C. 

      Mu-Law.

    • D. 

      Old English.

  • 113. 
    (432)  Because they use differing conversion scales, what process must take place in order to transmit voice/data between telephone networks in the US and European countries?
    • A. 

      Encoding.

    • B. 

      Decoding.

    • C. 

      Quantizing.

    • D. 

      Transcoding.

  • 114. 
    (432)  We refer to the physical interface between the Promina and the customer's voice devices as a
    • A. 

      Port.

    • B. 

      Trunk.

    • C. 

      Digroup.

    • D. 

      Backplane.

  • 115. 
    (433)  The amount of bandwidth required for the operation of a specific card or module in the Promina is known as a
    • A. 

      Logical slot.

    • B. 

      Logical shelf.

    • C. 

      Physical slot.

    • D. 

      Physical shelf.

  • 116. 
     (433)  Which module provides the processor platform, clock, and switching matrix for the Promina 200 and 400?
    • A. 

      Promina logic module.

    • B. 

      Promina server module.

    • C. 

      Promina processor module.

    • D. 

      Switching exchange module type II.

  • 117. 
    (433)  Larger nodes, like the Promina 800, require which type of module to store important system code, network configurations, event logs, and network management data?
    • A. 

      Promina logic module.

    • B. 

      Promina server module.

    • C. 

      Promina processor module (PPM).

    • D. 

      Switching exchange module type II (SX-2).

  • 118. 
    (434)  The Promina signaling channel link protocol trunk module
    • A. 

      Provides asymmetric trunking capability.

    • B. 

      Is the sole means by which nodes communicate with each other.

    • C. 

      Operates in two modes, the "span mode" and the "tandem mode."

    • D. 

      Performs real time multiplexing and synchronization of the bundles, and contains the logic to control the processing of up to six proprietary trunk bundles.

  • 119. 
    (435)  During a communications unit deployment, at least one person deployed with a Promina system must have what minimum access level assigned in order to bring up the mission?
    • A. 

      Level 1.

    • B. 

      Level 2.

    • C. 

      Level 3.

    • D. 

      Level 4.

  • 120. 
    (435)  Which Promina menu contains commands for managing operators and the operator console?
    • A. 

      Prolog.

    • B. 

      Action.

    • C. 

      Object.

    • D. 

      Functional area.