3D1X3 CDC Volume 2 Ure
Settings
The second one lol.
- 1.(201) Equipment used for generating, amplifying, and transmitting RF carrier is collectively called
- A.
A receiver.
- B.
An antenna.
- C.
A transmitter.
- D.
A transmission line.
- 2.(201) What basic receiver function involves having the transmitted electromagnetic wave pass through the receive antenna in such a manner as to induce a voltage in the antenna?
- A.
Reproduction.
- B.
Reception.
- C.
Detection.
- D.
Selection.
- 3.(201) The ability to reproduce the input signal accurately is the characteristics of the receiver's
- A.
Fidelity.
- B.
Capacity.
- C.
Sensitivity.
- D.
Selectivity.
- 4.(202) A combination of a transmitter and receiver that is built as a single unit and sharing common tuned circuits is called a
- A.
Transmitter.
- B.
Transceiver.
- C.
Receiver.
- D.
Coupler.
- 5.(202) Which of the following cannot be performed by the transceiver's computerized components and micro-circuitry?
- A.
Specific equipment faults.
- B.
Internal equipment tests.
- C.
Internal calibrations.
- D.
Repair itself.
- 6.(203) A transmission line that consists of a center conductor placed inside a metal tube functioning as the outer tube is called a
- A.
Flexible coaxial cable.
- B.
Rigid coaxial cable.
- C.
Waveguide.
- D.
Twin lead.
- 7.(203) Which selection best describes the term "cutoff frequency" when discussing transmission line properties?
- A.
The frequency where XL becomes to low that the signal is shunted.
- B.
The frequency where XC causes the signal to be shunted.
- C.
The lowest frequency that the line can pass successfully.
- D.
The frequency at which standing waves are maximum.
- 8.(203) Using figure 1-10, determine the wavelength if the frequency is changed from 150 MHz to 250 MHz.
- A.
12.0 meters.
- B.
3.0 meters.
- C.
1.5 meters.
- D.
1.2 meters.
- 9.(203) Using figure 1-10, determine the electrical length if the frequency is changed from 150 MHz to 250 MHz.
- A.
8.33 meters.
- B.
8.33 wavelengths.
- C.
83.3 meters.
- D.
83.3 wavelengths.
- 10.(203) A nonresonant transmission line is a line
- A.
Having reflected waves.
- B.
Having no reflected waves.
- C.
With maximum voltage across its open termination.
- D.
With maximum voltages across its shorted termination.
- 11.(203) If a transmission line is terminated in a short
- A.
Current is at maximum and voltage at minimum at the termination.
- B.
Current is at minimum and voltage at maximum at the termination.
- C.
There would be a nominal amount of signal gain.
- D.
The line would be nonresonant.
- 12.(204) In a basic communication system, what converts radio frequency (RF) energy's current oscillation into electric and magnetic fields of force?
- A.
Antenna.
- B.
Coupler.
- C.
Transmitter.
- D.
Transmission lines.
- 13.(204) The concept that alternation current (AC) changes in magnitude and reverses its direction during each cycle is
- A.
An unproven hypothesis.
- B.
The definition of propagation.
- C.
What makes radio transmission possible.
- D.
What led to the discovery of direct current.
- 14.(205) If the electric field component travels in a plane perpendicular to the Earth's surface, the radio wave is
- A.
Magnetically polarized.
- B.
Horizontally polarized.
- C.
Circularly polarized.
- D.
Vertically polarized.
- 15.(205) What types of polarization do satellite terminals transmit and receive?
- A.
Transmit horizontal and receive vertical polarizations.
- B.
Transmit vertical and receive horizontal polarizations.
- C.
Transmit right hand and receive left hand circular polarizations.
- D.
Transmit left hand and receive right hand circular polarizations.
- 16.(206) What measurement is used to determine whether an antenna is resonant at a particular frequency?
- A.
Distortion.
- B.
Standing wave ratio.
- C.
Signal-to-noise ratio.
- D.
Percent of modulation.
- 17.(206) The ability of an antenna to both receive and transmit equally well is known as the antenna's
- A.
Bandwidth.
- B.
Resonance.
- C.
Reciprocity.
- D.
Effectiveness.
- 18.(206) The standard used to measure the radiating effectiveness (gain) of an antenna system is the
- A.
Marconi antenna.
- B.
Isotropic antenna.
- C.
Hertz antenna.
- D.
Whip antenna.
- 19.(206) What does the effectiveness of an entire transmitting and receiving system depend largely upon?
- A.
Impedance matching.
- B.
Antenna distance.
- C.
Antenna properties.
- D.
Line characteristics.
- 20.(207) Which antenna radiates radio energy in a circular pattern?
- A.
Omnidirectional.
- B.
Unidirectional.
- C.
Bidirectional.
- D.
Directional.
- 21.(207) Which antenna type is usually used on long-range, point-to-point circuits where the concentrated radio energy is needed for circuitry reliability?
- A.
Omnidirectional.
- B.
Unidirectional.
- C.
Bidirectional.
- D.
Circular.
- 22.(208) Ungrounded lengths of wire specifically designed to be either a half-wavelength or more than a full wavelength long is called a
- A.
Reflector.
- B.
Hertz antenna.
- C.
Marconi antenna.
- D.
Vertical monopole.
- 23.(209) A long-wire's takeoff angle depends on the antenna's
- A.
Length.
- B.
Directivity.
- C.
Front-to-back ratio.
- D.
Standing wave ratio.
- 24.(209) All antennas used in satellite communications are designed to be
- A.
Circular directional.
- B.
Omnidirectional.
- C.
Bidirectional.
- D.
Directional.
- 25.(209) A commmon satellite antenna is the
- A.
Whip.
- B.
Discone.
- C.
Parabolic.
- D.
Long-wire.
- 26.(209) A helical antenna radiates a signal with what type of polarization?
- A.
Horizontal.
- B.
Vertical.
- C.
Circular.
- D.
Linear.
- 27.(210) Aircraft antennas are housed
- A.
Inside nonconductive radomes mounted outside or flush with the fuselage.
- B.
Inside conductive radomes mounted outside or flush with the fuselage.
- C.
Outside nonconductive radomes mounted outside the fuselage.
- D.
Inside conductive radomes mounted flush with the fuselage.
- 28.(210) In airborne antenna applications for frequencies in the upper portion of the HF band, what vertical angles are used for multi-hop, long distance transmission?
- A.
90 and 180 degrees.
- B.
60 and 90 degrees.
- C.
30 and 60 degrees.
- D.
5 and 30 degrees.
- 29.(210) What determines an antenna's location and orientation on the aircraft?
- A.
Antennas always require a 360 degree radiating pattern.
- B.
The type of aircraft propulsion and power system.
- C.
Antennas are always mounted on top of the fuselage.
- D.
Optimizing the antenna's radiating pattern for its application.
- 30.(210) Which type of airborne antenna can be designed into any part of an aerospace vehicle's surface, so that it does not upset its aerodynamic properties?
- A.
Fixed blade.
- B.
Conformal.
- C.
Probe tip.
- D.
Whip.
- 31.(211) In selecting an antenna for a circuit, what is the first thing to look at?
- A.
Type of propagation.
- B.
Selecting the antenna.
- C.
Determine the distance.
- D.
Finding the operating frequency.
- 32.(212) Which object has the greatest effect on an antenna?
- A.
Sun.
- B.
Earth.
- C.
Operator.
- D.
Ionosphere.
- 33.(212) Where is the most challenging location for a radio frequency (RF) transmission systems technician to establish and operate a radio station from?
- A.
Amazon jungle.
- B.
North Pole.
- C.
Sahara desert.
- D.
Sierra Nevada mountains.
- 34.(212) With a mountain between you and the distant end, which anrenna is more effective?
- A.
Whip.
- B.
Dipole.
- C.
Discone.
- D.
Near-vertical incidence skywave.
- 35.(213) Direct waves are radio waves that travel
- A.
Long distances with few interruptions.
- B.
From point to point along the earth's surface.
- C.
Through the air in a straight line.
- D.
No more than 20 miles to the receive antenna.
- 36.(213) Radio waves that travel near the earth's surface are called
- A.
Earth waves.
- B.
Global waves.
- C.
Ground waves.
- D.
Terrestrial waves.
- 37.(213) Sky wave transmission is used for which type of communcations?
- A.
Long distance.
- B.
Subterrestrial.
- C.
Atmospheric.
- D.
Line of sight.
- 38.(214) The path that undergoes a 180 degree phase shift is a
- A.
Ground-reflected path.
- B.
Surface path.
- C.
Direct path.
- D.
Sky path.
- 39.(214) Which gives sky wave propagation its ability to communicate beyond the optical line-of-sight (LOS)?
- A.
Refraction.
- B.
Reflection.
- C.
Earth's conductivity.
- D.
Atmospheric charge.
- 40.(214) Frequencies higher than the cricical frequency are
- A.
Returned to earth.
- B.
Passed into space.
- C.
The most desirable.
- D.
Refracted by the F2 layer.
- 41.(214) In high frequency (HF) communications, the lowest frequency that arrives at the distant receiver on 90 percent of the undistubred days of the month is called the
- A.
Maximum usable frequency (MUF).
- B.
Lowest usable frequency (LUF).
- C.
Operating frequency.
- D.
Critical frequency.
- 42.(214) The abbreviation FOT is derived from the term
- A.
Outbound traffic frequency.
- B.
Optimum tropospheric frequency.
- C.
Frequency of optimum transmission.
- D.
Frequency of outbound transmission.
- 43.(214) Magneton splitting creates two waves called
- A.
Direct and indirect.
- B.
Ordinary and abnormal.
- C.
In-phase and out-of-phase.
- D.
Ordinary and extraordinary.
- 44.(214) What occurs when a transmitted signal travels over two or more separate paths during transmission?
- A.
Skip effects.
- B.
Modulation.
- C.
Multipathing.
- D.
Magneton splitting.
- 45.(215) What is the recombination process dependant upon?
- A.
Season.
- B.
Time of day.
- C.
Regular variation.
- D.
Irregular variations.
- 46.(215) Which layer of the ionosphere is most important to high frequency (HF) communications?
- A.
D.
- B.
E.
- C.
F.
- D.
Topside.
- 47.(215) During what season do we have the wider range of critical frequencies and less absorption of all frequencies?
- A.
Fall.
- B.
Winter.
- C.
Spring.
- D.
Summer.
- 48.(215) Sunspots are disturbances
- A.
In the sun's atmosphere.
- B.
On the sun's surface.
- C.
In the ionosphere.
- D.
Beneath the sun's surface.
- 49.(216) For communications purposes, the useable frequency spectrum ranges from
- A.
3 hertz (Hz) to 300 gigahertz (GHz).
- B.
300 Hz to 300 GHz.
- C.
3000 Hz to 3000 GHz.
- D.
30 megahertz (MHz) to 300 MHz.
- 50.(216) What U.S. government agency divides the radio frequency (RF) spectrum into different bands?
- A.
Federal Aviation Agency.
- B.
American National Standard Institute.
- C.
Federal Communications Commission.
- D.
Institute of Electrical & Electronics Engineers, Inc.
- 51.(217) Near-vertical incidence sky (NVIS) wave operations are most effective when you're using
- A.
Lower high frequency (HF) frequencies.
- B.
Higher HF frequencies.
- C.
Medium HF frequencies.
- D.
Low takeoff antenna angles.
- 52.(217) What frequency band is most susceptible to jamming?
- A.
Low frequency.
- B.
Medium frequency.
- C.
High frequency.
- D.
Very high frequency.
- 53.(217) What frequency bands does the MILSTAR satellite system use?
- A.
High frequency (HF) and ultrahigh frequency (UHF).
- B.
Super-high frequency (SHF) and extremely high frequency (EHF).
- C.
Very high frequency (VHF) and SHF.
- D.
VHF and UHF.
- 54.(218) The main very high frequency (VHF)/ultra high frequency (UHF) communications emphasis is on
- A.
Long range deployable communications.
- B.
Short range fixed communications.
- C.
Emergency communications.
- D.
Air-ground communications.
- 55.(219) Super high frequency (SHF)/extremely high frequency (EHF) range is limited to
- A.
Scattering.
- B.
Line-of-sight (LOS).
- C.
Earth's conductivity.
- D.
Atmospheric absorption.
- 56.(220) In a move to overcome the limited range of forward propagation by tropospheric scatter (FPTS) without requiring many costly relay systems, what was developed?
- A.
Optical horizon radar.
- B.
Satellite communications.
- C.
Microwave communications.
- D.
Line-of-sight (LOS) communications.
- 57.(220) Why isn't very high frequency (VHF) normally used for satellite communications?
- A.
The frequency is too low.
- B.
The frequency is too high.
- C.
Ionospheric refraction can occur.
- D.
The rate of absorption is too great.
- 58.(220) When comparing the radio and optical horizons, which one is farther away and by what percent?
- A.
Optical; 15.
- B.
Radio; 15.
- C.
Optical; 33.
- D.
Radio; 33.
- 59.(220) When K is greater than 4/3, the radio horizon will
- A.
Decrease, then increase.
- B.
Remain the same.
- C.
Decrease.
- D.
Increase.
- 60.(220) A radio wave originated at a center source in free space. If the field strength at one mile from the source has a field strength of 100 microvolts per meter, what is the field strength at two miles?
- A.
25 microvolts per meter.
- B.
50 microvolts per meter.
- C.
100 microvolts per meter.
- D.
200 microvolts per meter.
- 61.(221) Any military action involving the use of the electromagnetic (EM) spectrum to include directed energy to attack an enemy is called
- A.
Electronic support (ES).
- B.
Electronic warfare (EW).
- C.
Electromagnetic pulse (EP).
- D.
Electromagnetic interference (EI).
- 62.(221) Which is not an example of electronic protection (EP)?
- A.
Frequency agility in a radio.
- B.
Communications intelligence.
- C.
Electronic and material shielding for systems.
- D.
Process to counter meaconing, interference, jamming, and intrusion.
- 63.(221) Which electronic warfare (EW) component responds to taskings to search for, intercept, identify, and locate intentional and unintentional sources of radiated energy?
- A.
Electronic attack (EA).
- B.
Electronic control (EC).
- C.
Electronic support (ES).
- D.
Electronic protection (EP).
- 64.(222) Electromagnetic (EM) deception as it applies to electronic warface (EW) is
- A.
Controlling the information an enemy receives.
- B.
The elimination of some or all of an adversary's electronic defenses.
- C.
The deliberate radiation of EM energy intended to convery misleading information to an enemy.
- D.
Degrading or interfering with the enemy's use of the EM spectrum to limit the enemy's combat capabilities.
- 65.(223) What is the process of unscrambling encrypted informatino so that it is intelligible?
- A.
Decryption.
- B.
Encryption.
- C.
Cryptography.
- D.
Cryptanalysis.
- 66.(224) How many selectable traffic key slots does the KG-84A have?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
4.
- D.
8.
- 67.(224) Which switch on the KY-57 VINSON zeroizes channels one through five?
- A.
Fill.
- B.
Mode.
- C.
Power.
- D.
Volume.
- 68.(225) The common name for the method of changing the encryption keys over the radio channel in a two-way radio system is called
- A.
Over-the-air-rekeying (OTAR).
- B.
Asymmetric.
- C.
Symmetric.
- D.
Off-line.
- 69.(225) Centralized control of encryption keys will not reduce
- A.
Procedural problems.
- B.
Operational problems.
- C.
Security problems.
- D.
Safety problems.
- 70.(226) In frequency hopping (FH) operation, the interval at which each transmitter remains on a given frequency for a specific time is known as the
- A.
Dwell time.
- B.
Hopping rate.
- C.
Frequency offset.
- D.
Transmitter velocity.
- 71.(227) Which RT-1523 SINCGARS subassembly removes synchronization and frequency hopping information that is embedded in a receive signal?
- A.
The interleaver.
- B.
The modulator.
- C.
The demodulator.
- D.
The exciter/power amplifier module.
- 72.(227) The RT-1523 SINCGARS radio's time sync and correlator module manipulates control signal outputs during the frequency hopping (FH) mode to
- A.
Stop frequency shifts during receive operations.
- B.
Shut down reception only during frequency shifts.
- C.
Shut down transmission only during frequency shifts.
- D.
Shut down reception and transmission during frequency shifts.
- 73.(228) Concerning HAVE QUICK II communications (MWOD), how long can each word of day (WOD) be used?
- A.
Each WOD is used until it is manually changed.
- B.
For a total of 3 days.
- C.
For 48 hours.
- D.
For 24 hours.
- 74.(229) Which one of the following statement is not a characteristic of the AN/GRC-171B(V)4 transceiver?
- A.
It operates from 116 MHZ to 149.975 megahertz (MHZ).
- B.
It provides antijam communications in amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency modulation (FM).
- C.
It contains both HAVE QUICK and HAVE QUICK II.
- D.
It can communicate on any one of 7,000 available channels.
- 75.(229) What does the low-pass filter of the AN/GRC-171B(V)4 transceiver perform?
- A.
Image frequency rejection in receive and harmonic attenuation in transmit.
- B.
Image frequency rejection in transmit and harmonic attenuation in receive.
- C.
RF decoupling in transmit and harmonic suppression in receive.
- D.
RF decoupling in receive and harmonic suppression in transmit.
- 76.(229) The output power of the AN/GRC-171B(V)4 transceiver is
- A.
25 Watts in both amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency modulation (FM).
- B.
20 Watts in AM, 50 Watts in FM.
- C.
20 Watts in AM, 20 Watts in FM.
- D.
50 Watts in narrowband, 25 Watts in wideband.
- 77.(230) The Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) is commonly referred to as
- A.
Link 4A.
- B.
Link 11.
- C.
Link 16.
- D.
Link 22.
- 78.(231) Which service used the Enhanced Position Location Reporting System (EPLRS) to locate and track amphibious assault craft?
- A.
Army.
- B.
Navy.
- C.
Marines.
- D.
Air Force.
- 79.(231) What type of network radio does the Air Force use for close air support?
- A.
Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINCGARS).
- B.
Enhanced Position Location Reporting System (EPLRS).
- C.
Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS).
- D.
Situation Awareness Data Link (SADL).
- 80.(232) How many programmable devices can the multiband inter/intra team radio hold?
- A.
3.
- B.
5.
- C.
7.
- D.
10.
- 81.(233) What must the primary and remote annunciators be capable of in an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
- A.
Provide dual line of detection.
- B.
Operate independently of one another.
- C.
Backup power for one another.
- D.
Located within the same area for redundancy.
- 82.(233) On a sensor system the annunciation display must be able to differentiate between
- A.
Alarms and tampers.
- B.
Alarms and equipment failtures.
- C.
Tampers and nuisance alarms.
- D.
Failed self test and power loss.
- 83.(233) The interior sensor that operates on a principle of magnetic fields imposed on a reed switch is a
- A.
Dual-phenomenology.
- B.
Passive infrared sensor.
- C.
Balanced magnetic switch.
- D.
Ported coaxial cable sensor.
- 84.(234) Which personnel identification device provides positive identification through measurement of biometrics?
- A.
Cardreader personal identification number (PIN) pad.
- B.
Cardreader prompt.
- C.
Hand geometry unit (HGU).
- D.
X-ray machine.
- 85.(234) On the advanced entry control system (AECS), which panel configuration monitors sensors and reports and alarm conditions detected?
- A.
Security.
- B.
Distribution.
- C.
Portal control.
- D.
Intrusion detection.
- 86.(234) What device on the advanced entry control system (AECS) allows the operator to install, review, modify, and broadcast databases created to all other workstations?
- A.
Enrollment operator workstation.
- B.
System administrator terminal.
- C.
Enrollment master station.
- D.
Security workstation.
- 87.(234) How many hours of power must the uninterrupted power supply (UPS) in an advanced entry control system (AECS) provide in the event that the station power is lost?
- A.
4.
- B.
6.
- C.
8.
- D.
10.
- 88.(235) Which site configuration was designed to provide coverage for a small geographical area?
- A.
Single-site.
- B.
Multi-site.
- C.
Simulcast.
- D.
Multicast.
- 89.(236) What provides the interface between dispatch consoles and the central controller in a trunking system?
- A.
Modems.
- B.
Access control.
- C.
Switching equipment.
- D.
System management computer.
- 90.(236) How many talkgroups can a trunked mobile radio monitor at one time?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
3.
- D.
Every talkgroup programmed in the radio.
- 91.(236) What has the ability to patch different talkgroups together?
- A.
Control station.
- B.
Dispatch console.
- C.
Portable.
- D.
Mobile.
- 92.(237) What Air Force instruction (AFI) requires communications squadrons to maintain "installation warning systems"?
- A.
AFI 10-2501.
- B.
AFI 21-116.
- C.
AFI 33-106.
- D.
AFI 33-119.
- 93.(237) What is a common problem with a mass alert system in a deployed environment?
- A.
Low power out.
- B.
Efficiency.
- C.
Cleanliness.
- D.
Reliability.
- 94.(238) In the Whelen siren stacks, what size driver does a speaker cell contain?
- A.
40-watt.
- B.
60-watt.
- C.
100-watt.
- D.
400-watt.
- 95.(238) In the Whelen siren cabinet, what controls signal routing and power distribution of the system?
- A.
Landline board.
- B.
Control board.
- C.
Motherboard.
- D.
Radio board.
- 96.(238) With the Whelen configuration software, which tabs allow you to troubleshoot the system?
- A.
Status and multi-format decoding (MFD).
- B.
Status and dual tone multi-frequency (DTMF).
- C.
Status and radio.
- D.
Status and siren.
- 97.(239) In high frequency (HF) communications, your station's self address is
- A.
User programmed into your system.
- B.
Shared with other members.
- C.
The address of an unprogrammed station.
- D.
The same address of other stations in the net.
- 98.(240) We define link quality analysis (LQA) as
- A.
Reviewing a network station listing and determining which is assigned a clear channel.
- B.
Reviewing a network station listing and assigning a channel to each.
- C.
The process of sounding and determining channel clarity.
- D.
The process of calling and determining channel clarity.
- 99.(241) What is the maximum power of the AN/PRC-150 in frequency modulation (FM) mode?
- A.
5 watts.
- B.
10 watts.
- C.
15 watts.
- D.
20 watts.
- 100.(242) Where do the modulation and digital-to-analog (D/A) converstion take place in the AN/PRC-150?
- A.
Signal process and control module.
- B.
Information security (INFOSEC) printed wiring board.
- C.
Antenna coupler assembly.
- D.
Crypto assembly.
Back to top