3D1X3 CDC Volume 2 Ure

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 1395

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3d1x3 Quizzes & Trivia

The second one lol.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (201)  Equipment used for generating, amplifying, and transmitting RF carrier is collectively called
    • A. 

      A receiver.

    • B. 

      An antenna.

    • C. 

      A transmitter.

    • D. 

      A transmission line.

  • 2. 
    (201)  What basic receiver function involves having the transmitted electromagnetic wave pass through the receive antenna in such a manner as to induce a voltage in the antenna?
    • A. 

      Reproduction.

    • B. 

      Reception.

    • C. 

      Detection.

    • D. 

      Selection.

  • 3. 
    (201)  The ability to reproduce the input signal accurately is the characteristics of the receiver's
    • A. 

      Fidelity.

    • B. 

      Capacity.

    • C. 

      Sensitivity.

    • D. 

      Selectivity.

  • 4. 
    (202)  A combination of a transmitter and receiver that is built as a single unit and sharing common tuned circuits is called a
    • A. 

      Transmitter.

    • B. 

      Transceiver.

    • C. 

      Receiver.

    • D. 

      Coupler.

  • 5. 
    (202)  Which of the following cannot be performed by the transceiver's computerized components and micro-circuitry?
    • A. 

      Specific equipment faults.

    • B. 

      Internal equipment tests.

    • C. 

      Internal calibrations.

    • D. 

      Repair itself.

  • 6. 
    (203)  A transmission line that consists of a center conductor placed inside a metal tube functioning as the outer tube is called a
    • A. 

      Flexible coaxial cable.

    • B. 

      Rigid coaxial cable.

    • C. 

      Waveguide.

    • D. 

      Twin lead.

  • 7. 
    (203)  Which selection best describes the term "cutoff frequency" when discussing transmission line properties?
    • A. 

      The frequency where XL becomes to low that the signal is shunted.

    • B. 

      The frequency where XC causes the signal to be shunted.

    • C. 

      The lowest frequency that the line can pass successfully.

    • D. 

      The frequency at which standing waves are maximum.

  • 8. 
    (203)  Using figure 1-10, determine the wavelength if the frequency is changed from 150 MHz to 250 MHz.
    • A. 

      12.0 meters.

    • B. 

      3.0 meters.

    • C. 

      1.5 meters.

    • D. 

      1.2 meters.

  • 9. 
    (203)  Using figure 1-10, determine the electrical length if the frequency is changed from 150 MHz to 250 MHz.
    • A. 

      8.33 meters.

    • B. 

      8.33 wavelengths.

    • C. 

      83.3 meters.

    • D. 

      83.3 wavelengths.

  • 10. 
    (203)  A nonresonant transmission line is a line
    • A. 

      Having reflected waves.

    • B. 

      Having no reflected waves.

    • C. 

      With maximum voltage across its open termination.

    • D. 

      With maximum voltages across its shorted termination.

  • 11. 
    (203)  If a transmission line is terminated in a short
    • A. 

      Current is at maximum and voltage at minimum at the termination.

    • B. 

      Current is at minimum and voltage at maximum at the termination.

    • C. 

      There would be a nominal amount of signal gain.

    • D. 

      The line would be nonresonant.

  • 12. 
    (204)  In a basic communication system, what converts radio frequency (RF) energy's current oscillation into electric and magnetic fields of force?
    • A. 

      Antenna.

    • B. 

      Coupler.

    • C. 

      Transmitter.

    • D. 

      Transmission lines.

  • 13. 
    (204)  The concept that alternation current (AC) changes in magnitude and reverses its direction during each cycle is
    • A. 

      An unproven hypothesis.

    • B. 

      The definition of propagation.

    • C. 

      What makes radio transmission possible.

    • D. 

      What led to the discovery of direct current.

  • 14. 
    (205)  If the electric field component travels in a plane perpendicular to the Earth's surface, the radio wave is
    • A. 

      Magnetically polarized.

    • B. 

      Horizontally polarized.

    • C. 

      Circularly polarized.

    • D. 

      Vertically polarized.

  • 15. 
    (205)  What types of polarization do satellite terminals transmit and receive?
    • A. 

      Transmit horizontal and receive vertical polarizations.

    • B. 

      Transmit vertical and receive horizontal polarizations.

    • C. 

      Transmit right hand and receive left hand circular polarizations.

    • D. 

      Transmit left hand and receive right hand circular polarizations.

  • 16. 
    (206)  What measurement is used to determine whether an antenna is resonant at a particular frequency?
    • A. 

      Distortion.

    • B. 

      Standing wave ratio.

    • C. 

      Signal-to-noise ratio.

    • D. 

      Percent of modulation.

  • 17. 
    (206)  The ability of an antenna to both receive and transmit equally well is known as the antenna's
    • A. 

      Bandwidth.

    • B. 

      Resonance.

    • C. 

      Reciprocity.

    • D. 

      Effectiveness.

  • 18. 
    (206)  The standard used to measure the radiating effectiveness (gain) of an antenna system is the
    • A. 

      Marconi antenna.

    • B. 

      Isotropic antenna.

    • C. 

      Hertz antenna.

    • D. 

      Whip antenna.

  • 19. 
    (206)  What does the effectiveness of an entire transmitting and receiving system depend largely upon?
    • A. 

      Impedance matching.

    • B. 

      Antenna distance.

    • C. 

      Antenna properties.

    • D. 

      Line characteristics.

  • 20. 
    (207)  Which antenna radiates radio energy in a circular pattern?
    • A. 

      Omnidirectional.

    • B. 

      Unidirectional.

    • C. 

      Bidirectional.

    • D. 

      Directional.

  • 21. 
    (207)  Which antenna type is usually used on long-range, point-to-point circuits where the concentrated radio energy is needed for circuitry reliability?
    • A. 

      Omnidirectional.

    • B. 

      Unidirectional.

    • C. 

      Bidirectional.

    • D. 

      Circular.

  • 22. 
    (208)  Ungrounded lengths of wire specifically designed to be either a half-wavelength or more than a full wavelength long is called a
    • A. 

      Reflector.

    • B. 

      Hertz antenna.

    • C. 

      Marconi antenna.

    • D. 

      Vertical monopole.

  • 23. 
    (209)  A long-wire's takeoff angle depends on the antenna's
    • A. 

      Length.

    • B. 

      Directivity.

    • C. 

      Front-to-back ratio.

    • D. 

      Standing wave ratio.

  • 24. 
    (209)  All antennas used in satellite communications are designed to be
    • A. 

      Circular directional.

    • B. 

      Omnidirectional.

    • C. 

      Bidirectional.

    • D. 

      Directional.

  • 25. 
    (209)  A commmon satellite antenna is the
    • A. 

      Whip.

    • B. 

      Discone.

    • C. 

      Parabolic.

    • D. 

      Long-wire.

  • 26. 
    (209)  A helical antenna radiates a signal with what type of polarization?
    • A. 

      Horizontal.

    • B. 

      Vertical.

    • C. 

      Circular.

    • D. 

      Linear.

  • 27. 
    (210)  Aircraft antennas are housed
    • A. 

      Inside nonconductive radomes mounted outside or flush with the fuselage.

    • B. 

      Inside conductive radomes mounted outside or flush with the fuselage.

    • C. 

      Outside nonconductive radomes mounted outside the fuselage.

    • D. 

      Inside conductive radomes mounted flush with the fuselage.

  • 28. 
    (210)  In airborne antenna applications for frequencies in the upper portion of the HF band, what vertical angles are used for multi-hop, long distance transmission?
    • A. 

      90 and 180 degrees.

    • B. 

      60 and 90 degrees.

    • C. 

      30 and 60 degrees.

    • D. 

      5 and 30 degrees.

  • 29. 
    (210)  What determines an antenna's location and orientation on the aircraft?
    • A. 

      Antennas always require a 360 degree radiating pattern.

    • B. 

      The type of aircraft propulsion and power system.

    • C. 

      Antennas are always mounted on top of the fuselage.

    • D. 

      Optimizing the antenna's radiating pattern for its application.

  • 30. 
    (210)  Which type of airborne antenna can be designed into any part of an aerospace vehicle's surface, so that it does not upset its aerodynamic properties?
    • A. 

      Fixed blade.

    • B. 

      Conformal.

    • C. 

      Probe tip.

    • D. 

      Whip.

  • 31. 
    (211)  In selecting an antenna for a circuit, what is the first thing to look at?
    • A. 

      Type of propagation.

    • B. 

      Selecting the antenna.

    • C. 

      Determine the distance.

    • D. 

      Finding the operating frequency.

  • 32. 
    (212)  Which object has the greatest effect on an antenna?
    • A. 

      Sun.

    • B. 

      Earth.

    • C. 

      Operator.

    • D. 

      Ionosphere.

  • 33. 
    (212)  Where is the most challenging location for a radio frequency (RF) transmission systems technician to establish and operate a radio station from?
    • A. 

      Amazon jungle.

    • B. 

      North Pole.

    • C. 

      Sahara desert.

    • D. 

      Sierra Nevada mountains.

  • 34. 
    (212)  With a mountain between you and the distant end, which anrenna is more effective?
    • A. 

      Whip.

    • B. 

      Dipole.

    • C. 

      Discone.

    • D. 

      Near-vertical incidence skywave.

  • 35. 
    (213)  Direct waves are radio waves that travel
    • A. 

      Long distances with few interruptions.

    • B. 

      From point to point along the earth's surface.

    • C. 

      Through the air in a straight line.

    • D. 

      No more than 20 miles to the receive antenna.

  • 36. 
    (213)  Radio waves that travel near the earth's surface are called
    • A. 

      Earth waves.

    • B. 

      Global waves.

    • C. 

      Ground waves.

    • D. 

      Terrestrial waves.

  • 37. 
    (213)  Sky wave transmission is used for which type of communcations?
    • A. 

      Long distance.

    • B. 

      Subterrestrial.

    • C. 

      Atmospheric.

    • D. 

      Line of sight.

  • 38. 
    (214)  The path that undergoes a 180 degree phase shift is a
    • A. 

      Ground-reflected path.

    • B. 

      Surface path.

    • C. 

      Direct path.

    • D. 

      Sky path.

  • 39. 
    (214)  Which gives sky wave propagation its ability to communicate beyond the optical line-of-sight (LOS)?
    • A. 

      Refraction.

    • B. 

      Reflection.

    • C. 

      Earth's conductivity.

    • D. 

      Atmospheric charge.

  • 40. 
    (214)  Frequencies higher than the cricical frequency are
    • A. 

      Returned to earth.

    • B. 

      Passed into space.

    • C. 

      The most desirable.

    • D. 

      Refracted by the F2 layer.

  • 41. 
    (214)  In high frequency (HF) communications, the lowest frequency that arrives at the distant receiver on 90 percent of the undistubred days of the month is called the
    • A. 

      Maximum usable frequency (MUF).

    • B. 

      Lowest usable frequency (LUF).

    • C. 

      Operating frequency.

    • D. 

      Critical frequency.

  • 42. 
    (214)  The abbreviation FOT is derived from the term
    • A. 

      Outbound traffic frequency.

    • B. 

      Optimum tropospheric frequency.

    • C. 

      Frequency of optimum transmission.

    • D. 

      Frequency of outbound transmission.

  • 43. 
    (214)  Magneton splitting creates two waves called
    • A. 

      Direct and indirect.

    • B. 

      Ordinary and abnormal.

    • C. 

      In-phase and out-of-phase.

    • D. 

      Ordinary and extraordinary.

  • 44. 
    (214)  What occurs when a transmitted signal travels over two or more separate paths during transmission?
    • A. 

      Skip effects.

    • B. 

      Modulation.

    • C. 

      Multipathing.

    • D. 

      Magneton splitting.

  • 45. 
    (215)  What is the recombination process dependant upon?
    • A. 

      Season.

    • B. 

      Time of day.

    • C. 

      Regular variation.

    • D. 

      Irregular variations.

  • 46. 
    (215)  Which layer of the ionosphere is most important to high frequency (HF) communications?
    • A. 

      D.

    • B. 

      E.

    • C. 

      F.

    • D. 

      Topside.

  • 47. 
    (215)  During what season do we have the wider range of critical frequencies and less absorption of all frequencies?
    • A. 

      Fall.

    • B. 

      Winter.

    • C. 

      Spring.

    • D. 

      Summer.

  • 48. 
    (215)  Sunspots are disturbances
    • A. 

      In the sun's atmosphere.

    • B. 

      On the sun's surface.

    • C. 

      In the ionosphere.

    • D. 

      Beneath the sun's surface.

  • 49. 
    (216)  For communications purposes, the useable frequency spectrum ranges from
    • A. 

      3 hertz (Hz) to 300 gigahertz (GHz).

    • B. 

      300 Hz to 300 GHz.

    • C. 

      3000 Hz to 3000 GHz.

    • D. 

      30 megahertz (MHz) to 300 MHz.

  • 50. 
    (216)  What U.S. government agency divides the radio frequency (RF) spectrum into different bands?
    • A. 

      Federal Aviation Agency.

    • B. 

      American National Standard Institute.

    • C. 

      Federal Communications Commission.

    • D. 

      Institute of Electrical & Electronics Engineers, Inc.

  • 51. 
    (217)  Near-vertical incidence sky (NVIS) wave operations are most effective when you're using
    • A. 

      Lower high frequency (HF) frequencies.

    • B. 

      Higher HF frequencies.

    • C. 

      Medium HF frequencies.

    • D. 

      Low takeoff antenna angles.

  • 52. 
    (217)  What frequency band is most susceptible to jamming?
    • A. 

      Low frequency.

    • B. 

      Medium frequency.

    • C. 

      High frequency.

    • D. 

      Very high frequency.

  • 53. 
    (217)  What frequency bands does the MILSTAR satellite system use?
    • A. 

      High frequency (HF) and ultrahigh frequency (UHF).

    • B. 

      Super-high frequency (SHF) and extremely high frequency (EHF).

    • C. 

      Very high frequency (VHF) and SHF.

    • D. 

      VHF and UHF.

  • 54. 
    (218)  The main very high frequency (VHF)/ultra high frequency (UHF) communications emphasis is on
    • A. 

      Long range deployable communications.

    • B. 

      Short range fixed communications.

    • C. 

      Emergency communications.

    • D. 

      Air-ground communications.

  • 55. 
    (219)  Super high frequency (SHF)/extremely high frequency (EHF) range is limited to
    • A. 

      Scattering.

    • B. 

      Line-of-sight (LOS).

    • C. 

      Earth's conductivity.

    • D. 

      Atmospheric absorption.

  • 56. 
    (220)  In a move to overcome the limited range of forward propagation by tropospheric scatter (FPTS) without requiring many costly relay systems, what was developed?
    • A. 

      Optical horizon radar.

    • B. 

      Satellite communications.

    • C. 

      Microwave communications.

    • D. 

      Line-of-sight (LOS) communications.

  • 57. 
    (220)  Why isn't very high frequency (VHF) normally used for satellite communications?
    • A. 

      The frequency is too low.

    • B. 

      The frequency is too high.

    • C. 

      Ionospheric refraction can occur.

    • D. 

      The rate of absorption is too great.

  • 58. 
    (220)  When comparing the radio and optical horizons, which one is farther away and by what percent?
    • A. 

      Optical; 15.

    • B. 

      Radio; 15.

    • C. 

      Optical; 33.

    • D. 

      Radio; 33.

  • 59. 
    (220)  When K is greater than 4/3, the radio horizon will
    • A. 

      Decrease, then increase.

    • B. 

      Remain the same.

    • C. 

      Decrease.

    • D. 

      Increase.

  • 60. 
    (220)  A radio wave originated at a center source in free space.  If the field strength at one mile from the source has a field strength of 100 microvolts per meter, what is the field strength at two miles?
    • A. 

      25 microvolts per meter.

    • B. 

      50 microvolts per meter.

    • C. 

      100 microvolts per meter.

    • D. 

      200 microvolts per meter.

  • 61. 
    (221)  Any military action involving the use of the electromagnetic (EM) spectrum to include directed energy to attack an enemy is called
    • A. 

      Electronic support (ES).

    • B. 

      Electronic warfare (EW).

    • C. 

      Electromagnetic pulse (EP).

    • D. 

      Electromagnetic interference (EI).

  • 62. 
    (221)  Which is not an example of electronic protection (EP)?
    • A. 

      Frequency agility in a radio.

    • B. 

      Communications intelligence.

    • C. 

      Electronic and material shielding for systems.

    • D. 

      Process to counter meaconing, interference, jamming, and intrusion.

  • 63. 
    (221)  Which electronic warfare (EW) component responds to taskings to search for, intercept, identify, and locate intentional and unintentional sources of radiated energy?
    • A. 

      Electronic attack (EA).

    • B. 

      Electronic control (EC).

    • C. 

      Electronic support (ES).

    • D. 

      Electronic protection (EP).

  • 64. 
    (222)  Electromagnetic (EM) deception as it applies to electronic warface (EW) is
    • A. 

      Controlling the information an enemy receives.

    • B. 

      The elimination of some or all of an adversary's electronic defenses.

    • C. 

      The deliberate radiation of EM energy intended to convery misleading information to an enemy.

    • D. 

      Degrading or interfering with the enemy's use of the EM spectrum to limit the enemy's combat capabilities.

  • 65. 
    (223)  What is the process of unscrambling encrypted informatino so that it is intelligible?
    • A. 

      Decryption.

    • B. 

      Encryption.

    • C. 

      Cryptography.

    • D. 

      Cryptanalysis.

  • 66. 
    (224)  How many selectable traffic key slots does the KG-84A have?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      8.

  • 67. 
    (224)  Which switch on the KY-57 VINSON zeroizes channels one through five?
    • A. 

      Fill.

    • B. 

      Mode.

    • C. 

      Power.

    • D. 

      Volume.

  • 68. 
    (225)  The common name for the method of changing the encryption keys over the radio channel in a two-way radio system is called
    • A. 

      Over-the-air-rekeying (OTAR).

    • B. 

      Asymmetric.

    • C. 

      Symmetric.

    • D. 

      Off-line.

  • 69. 
    (225)  Centralized control of encryption keys will not reduce
    • A. 

      Procedural problems.

    • B. 

      Operational problems.

    • C. 

      Security problems.

    • D. 

      Safety problems.

  • 70. 
    (226)  In frequency hopping (FH) operation, the interval at which each transmitter remains on a given frequency for a specific time is known as the
    • A. 

      Dwell time.

    • B. 

      Hopping rate.

    • C. 

      Frequency offset.

    • D. 

      Transmitter velocity.

  • 71. 
    (227)  Which RT-1523 SINCGARS subassembly removes synchronization and frequency hopping information that is embedded in a receive signal?
    • A. 

      The interleaver.

    • B. 

      The modulator.

    • C. 

      The demodulator.

    • D. 

      The exciter/power amplifier module.

  • 72. 
    (227)  The RT-1523 SINCGARS radio's time sync and correlator module manipulates control signal outputs during the frequency hopping (FH) mode to
    • A. 

      Stop frequency shifts during receive operations.

    • B. 

      Shut down reception only during frequency shifts.

    • C. 

      Shut down transmission only during frequency shifts.

    • D. 

      Shut down reception and transmission during frequency shifts.

  • 73. 
    (228)  Concerning HAVE QUICK II communications (MWOD), how long can each word of day (WOD) be used?
    • A. 

      Each WOD is used until it is manually changed.

    • B. 

      For a total of 3 days.

    • C. 

      For 48 hours.

    • D. 

      For 24 hours.

  • 74. 
    (229)  Which one of the following statement is not a characteristic of the AN/GRC-171B(V)4 transceiver?
    • A. 

      It operates from 116 MHZ to 149.975 megahertz (MHZ).

    • B. 

      It provides antijam communications in amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency modulation (FM).

    • C. 

      It contains both HAVE QUICK and HAVE QUICK II.

    • D. 

      It can communicate on any one of 7,000 available channels.

  • 75. 
    (229)  What does the low-pass filter of the AN/GRC-171B(V)4 transceiver perform?
    • A. 

      Image frequency rejection in receive and harmonic attenuation in transmit.

    • B. 

      Image frequency rejection in transmit and harmonic attenuation in receive.

    • C. 

      RF decoupling in transmit and harmonic suppression in receive.

    • D. 

      RF decoupling in receive and harmonic suppression in transmit.

  • 76. 
    (229)  The output power of the AN/GRC-171B(V)4 transceiver is
    • A. 

      25 Watts in both amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency modulation (FM).

    • B. 

      20 Watts in AM, 50 Watts in FM.

    • C. 

      20 Watts in AM, 20 Watts in FM.

    • D. 

      50 Watts in narrowband, 25 Watts in wideband.

  • 77. 
    (230)  The Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) is commonly referred to as
    • A. 

      Link 4A.

    • B. 

      Link 11.

    • C. 

      Link 16.

    • D. 

      Link 22.

  • 78. 
    (231)  Which service used the Enhanced Position Location Reporting System (EPLRS) to locate and track amphibious assault craft?
    • A. 

      Army.

    • B. 

      Navy.

    • C. 

      Marines.

    • D. 

      Air Force.

  • 79. 
    (231)  What type of network radio does the Air Force use for close air support?
    • A. 

      Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINCGARS).

    • B. 

      Enhanced Position Location Reporting System (EPLRS).

    • C. 

      Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS).

    • D. 

      Situation Awareness Data Link (SADL).

  • 80. 
    (232)  How many programmable devices can the multiband inter/intra team radio hold?
    • A. 

      3.

    • B. 

      5.

    • C. 

      7.

    • D. 

      10.

  • 81. 
    (233)  What must the primary and remote annunciators be capable of in an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
    • A. 

      Provide dual line of detection.

    • B. 

      Operate independently of one another.

    • C. 

      Backup power for one another.

    • D. 

      Located within the same area for redundancy.

  • 82. 
    (233)  On a sensor system the annunciation display must be able to differentiate between
    • A. 

      Alarms and tampers.

    • B. 

      Alarms and equipment failtures.

    • C. 

      Tampers and nuisance alarms.

    • D. 

      Failed self test and power loss.

  • 83. 
    (233)  The interior sensor that operates on a principle of magnetic fields imposed on a reed switch is a
    • A. 

      Dual-phenomenology.

    • B. 

      Passive infrared sensor.

    • C. 

      Balanced magnetic switch.

    • D. 

      Ported coaxial cable sensor.

  • 84. 
    (234)  Which personnel identification device provides positive identification through measurement of biometrics?
    • A. 

      Cardreader personal identification number (PIN) pad.

    • B. 

      Cardreader prompt.

    • C. 

      Hand geometry unit (HGU).

    • D. 

      X-ray machine.

  • 85. 
    (234)  On the advanced entry control system (AECS), which panel configuration monitors sensors and reports and alarm conditions detected?
    • A. 

      Security.

    • B. 

      Distribution.

    • C. 

      Portal control.

    • D. 

      Intrusion detection.

  • 86. 
    (234)  What device on the advanced entry control system (AECS) allows the operator to install, review, modify, and broadcast databases created to all other workstations?
    • A. 

      Enrollment operator workstation.

    • B. 

      System administrator terminal.

    • C. 

      Enrollment master station.

    • D. 

      Security workstation.

  • 87. 
    (234)  How many hours of power must the uninterrupted power supply (UPS) in an advanced entry control system (AECS) provide in the event that the station power is lost?
    • A. 

      4.

    • B. 

      6.

    • C. 

      8.

    • D. 

      10.

  • 88. 
    (235)  Which site configuration was designed to provide coverage for a small geographical area?
    • A. 

      Single-site.

    • B. 

      Multi-site.

    • C. 

      Simulcast.

    • D. 

      Multicast.

  • 89. 
    (236)  What provides the interface between dispatch consoles and the central controller in a trunking system?
    • A. 

      Modems.

    • B. 

      Access control.

    • C. 

      Switching equipment.

    • D. 

      System management computer.

  • 90. 
    (236)  How many talkgroups can a trunked mobile radio monitor at one time?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      Every talkgroup programmed in the radio.

  • 91. 
    (236)  What has the ability to patch different talkgroups together?
    • A. 

      Control station.

    • B. 

      Dispatch console.

    • C. 

      Portable.

    • D. 

      Mobile.

  • 92. 
    (237)  What Air Force instruction (AFI) requires communications squadrons to maintain "installation warning systems"?
    • A. 

      AFI 10-2501.

    • B. 

      AFI 21-116.

    • C. 

      AFI 33-106.

    • D. 

      AFI 33-119.

  • 93. 
    (237)  What is a common problem with a mass alert system in a deployed environment?
    • A. 

      Low power out.

    • B. 

      Efficiency.

    • C. 

      Cleanliness.

    • D. 

      Reliability.

  • 94. 
    (238)  In the Whelen siren stacks, what size driver does a speaker cell contain?
    • A. 

      40-watt.

    • B. 

      60-watt.

    • C. 

      100-watt.

    • D. 

      400-watt.

  • 95. 
    (238)  In the Whelen siren cabinet, what controls signal routing and power distribution of the system?
    • A. 

      Landline board.

    • B. 

      Control board.

    • C. 

      Motherboard.

    • D. 

      Radio board.

  • 96. 
    (238)  With the Whelen configuration software, which tabs allow you to troubleshoot the system?
    • A. 

      Status and multi-format decoding (MFD).

    • B. 

      Status and dual tone multi-frequency (DTMF).

    • C. 

      Status and radio.

    • D. 

      Status and siren.

  • 97. 
    (239)  In high frequency (HF) communications, your station's self address is
    • A. 

      User programmed into your system.

    • B. 

      Shared with other members.

    • C. 

      The address of an unprogrammed station.

    • D. 

      The same address of other stations in the net.

  • 98. 
    (240)  We define link quality analysis (LQA) as
    • A. 

      Reviewing a network station listing and determining which is assigned a clear channel.

    • B. 

      Reviewing a network station listing and assigning a channel to each.

    • C. 

      The process of sounding and determining channel clarity.

    • D. 

      The process of calling and determining channel clarity.

  • 99. 
    (241)  What is the maximum power of the AN/PRC-150 in frequency modulation (FM) mode?
    • A. 

      5 watts.

    • B. 

      10 watts.

    • C. 

      15 watts.

    • D. 

      20 watts.

  • 100. 
    (242)  Where do the modulation and digital-to-analog (D/A) converstion take place in the AN/PRC-150?
    • A. 

      Signal process and control module.

    • B. 

      Information security (INFOSEC) printed wiring board.

    • C. 

      Antenna coupler assembly.

    • D. 

      Crypto assembly.