3d0x2 CDCs Volume 1

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

    • Homogeneous network
    • Intranetwork
    • Heterogeneous network
    • Internetwork
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Networking Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '3D0X2 CDCS VOLUME 1', assesses knowledge in computer networking, focusing on network types, configurations, and geographical networking scopes. It is designed for individuals aiming to certify in networking, enhancing both theoretical understanding and practical application.


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  • 2. 

    Knowledge-based identification and authentification methods require the user to provide something you?

    • Know

    • Have

    • Read

    • Need

    Correct Answer
    A. Know
    Explanation
    Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something they know, such as a password or personal information. This is different from methods that require something the user has, like a physical token or a fingerprint. In this case, the correct answer is "Know" because knowledge-based methods rely on the user's ability to recall and provide specific information as a means of verifying their identity.

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  • 3. 

    What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnitizing field?

    • Destroying

    • Degaussing

    • Sanitizing

    • Overwriting

    Correct Answer
    A. Degaussing
    Explanation
    Degaussing is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field. This process effectively demagnetizes the media, making the previously stored data unreadable. Degaussing is commonly used to securely erase sensitive information from magnetic storage devices such as hard drives, tapes, and floppy disks. It is a reliable method for ensuring that the data cannot be recovered or accessed by unauthorized individuals.

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  • 4. 

    What operational simple simple network management protocol(SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?

    • Get

    • Set

    • Getnext

    • Trap

    Correct Answer
    A. Trap
    Explanation
    A Trap message in SNMP is an unsolicited message sent from an agent to the manager. It is used to notify the manager about certain events or conditions that occur in the network. The agent sends the Trap message without any request from the manager, making it an unsolicited message. This allows the agent to proactively inform the manager about important events, such as system failures or security breaches, ensuring timely action can be taken.

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  • 5. 

    What documentation signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid(GIG)?

    • Denial of authorization to operation(DATO)

    • Interim authorization to operate(IATO)

    • Authorization to operate(ATO)

    • Interim authorization to test(IATT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Denial of authorization to operation(DATO)
    Explanation
    Denial of authorization to operation (DATO) is the correct answer because it signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid (GIG). This means that the system has been explicitly denied permission to operate on the GIG, indicating that it does not meet the necessary security requirements or has failed to comply with the necessary regulations. Therefore, DATO serves as a documentation to indicate that the system is not authorized to connect to the GIG.

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  • 6. 

    What is the  primary unclassified pki token for individual pki keys and certificates in the air force?

    • Hardware token

    • Software token

    • Cac

    • Identification key

    Correct Answer
    A. Cac
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CAC, which stands for Common Access Card. CAC is the primary unclassified PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the Air Force. It is a smart card that serves as an identification card and authentication tool for military personnel, contractors, and other authorized individuals. The CAC contains a microchip that stores cryptographic information and allows users to securely access computer systems and networks.

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  • 7. 

    What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

    • 1

    • 5

    • 2

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    To establish a computer network, a minimum of two computers is required. This is because a network is formed when two or more computers are connected together to share resources and communicate with each other. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect and create a network. Therefore, the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network is 2.

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  • 8. 

    What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

    • Homogeneous network

    • Intranetwork

    • Heterogeneous network

    • Internetwork

    Correct Answer
    A. Heterogeneous network
    Explanation
    A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In this type of network environment, there is a mix of hardware and software from various sources, making it diverse and complex. The presence of different operating systems and protocols requires careful integration and compatibility measures to ensure seamless communication and interoperability between the systems.

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  • 9. 

    How many users are in a single server network?

    • 10-50

    • 2-10

    • 50-250

    • 250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-50
    Explanation
    A single server network typically refers to a small-scale network where a single server is responsible for handling all network requests and providing services to a limited number of users. The range of 10-50 users suggests that this network is designed to support a small group of individuals or a small office environment. This number of users is manageable for a single server to handle the network traffic and provide efficient services without overwhelming the system.

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  • 10. 

    How many users are in a multi server network?

    • 10-50

    • 2-10

    • 50-250

    • 250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 50-250
    Explanation
    A multi server network typically consists of multiple servers that are interconnected to handle the network's workload. The number of users in such a network can vary depending on the size and capacity of the servers. The range of 50-250 suggests that there are a moderate number of users in the network, which is neither too small nor too large. This range allows for a sufficient number of users to be accommodated while ensuring that the network performance remains stable and efficient.

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  • 11. 

    What is a privately owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?

    • Homogeneous network

    • Intranetwork

    • Local area network(LAN)

    • Internetwork

    Correct Answer
    A. Intranetwork
    Explanation
    An intranetwork is a privately owned network that restricts access to authorized personnel only. It is typically used within an organization to facilitate communication and data sharing among employees. Unlike an internetwork, which connects multiple networks together, an intranetwork is confined to a single organization and is not accessible to the public. A local area network (LAN) refers to a network that covers a small geographical area, while a homogeneous network refers to a network where all the connected devices have the same operating system or protocol.

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  • 12. 

    How many users are in a mulit server high speed backbone network?

    • 10-50

    • 2-10

    • 50-250

    • 250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 250-1000
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 250-1000. This range indicates that there are between 250 and 1000 users in a multi-server high-speed backbone network. This suggests that the network is capable of handling a significant number of users and is designed to provide fast and reliable connectivity for a large user base.

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  • 13. 

    What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

    • Media access control address

    • Network server name

    • Subnet mask address

    • Node serial number

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control address
    Explanation
    A Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communications on a physical network. It is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. Each network device has a unique MAC address, allowing data to be sent to the correct destination. This address is assigned by the manufacturer and is hardcoded into the device's network interface card.

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  • 14. 

    What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

    • Configuration

    • Accounting

    • Security

    • Performance

    Correct Answer
    A. Security
    Explanation
    The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security measures are implemented to ensure that unauthorized users are not able to access sensitive information or gain unauthorized access to the network. This includes implementing firewalls, encryption, access control lists, and other security measures to protect the network and its resources from potential threats and attacks.

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  • 15. 

    What are three primary ways to authenticate one-self?

    • Finger and voiceprints,or retinal scans

    • Passwords,finger prints,or identification cards

    • Passwords,fortezza cards,or identification cards

    • Something you know,something you have,or something you are

    Correct Answer
    A. Something you know,something you have,or something you are
    Explanation
    The three primary ways to authenticate oneself are through something you know, something you have, or something you are. This means that authentication can be based on knowledge (such as passwords), possession (such as identification cards), or physical characteristics (such as fingerprints or retinal scans). By requiring multiple forms of authentication, it increases the security and reduces the risk of unauthorized access.

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  • 16. 

    What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global information gri(GIG) system

    • Denial of authorization to operation(DATO)

    • Interim authorization to operate(IATO)

    • Authorization to operate(ATO)

    • Interim authorization to test(IATT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Authorization to operate(ATO)
    Explanation
    To permanently connect to the Global Information Grid (GIG) system, the documentation required is an Authorization to Operate (ATO). This means that the entity or organization has been granted official permission to operate and access the GIG system. The ATO indicates that the necessary security controls and measures have been implemented to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the system. It is a crucial document that ensures compliance with security standards and regulations before being granted access to the GIG system.

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  • 17. 

    How many users are usually in a peer to peer network?

    • 10-50

    • 2-10

    • 50-250

    • 250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-10
    Explanation
    In a peer-to-peer network, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This is because peer-to-peer networks are designed for small-scale connections where users directly interact with each other without the need for a central server. This smaller number of users allows for efficient communication and sharing of resources between the peers. Additionally, with fewer users, it is easier to maintain security and manage the network effectively.

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  • 18. 

    What series of the Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?

    • 10

    • 29

    • 30

    • 33

    Correct Answer
    A. 33
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction series 33 covers communications and information.

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  • 19. 

    What operational simple simple network management protocol(SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?

    • Get

    • Set

    • Getnext

    • Trap

    Correct Answer
    A. Set
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Set." In Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), the "Set" message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows network administrators to remotely configure and control network devices by changing the values of specific variables or parameters in the management information database. The "Set" message is an essential component of SNMP for managing and maintaining network devices.

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  • 20. 

    What provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?

    • Media access control(MAC)

    • Connection statistics

    • Protocol statistics

    • Node discovery

    Correct Answer
    A. Connection statistics
    Explanation
    Connection statistics provide information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes. This data helps in monitoring and analyzing the network performance, identifying any bottlenecks or issues with specific nodes, and optimizing the network resources. By tracking the number of connections and their utilization, administrators can ensure efficient allocation of bandwidth and troubleshoot any connectivity problems.

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  • 21. 

    What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media?

    • Destroying

    • Degaussing

    • Sanitizing

    • Overwriting

    Correct Answer
    A. Degaussing
    Explanation
    Degaussing is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media. Degaussing involves using a strong magnetic field to erase the data on the media, making it unrecoverable. This method is effective for tapes, hard drives, and other magnetic storage devices. Destroying the media physically or sanitizing it by overwriting the data are also viable options, but degaussing is considered the most secure method as it completely erases the magnetic properties of the media.

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  • 22. 

    What is the database of record for registering all systems and applications?

    • Enterprise information technology data repository(EITDR)

    • Department of defense information technology system certification and accrediation process(DITSCAP)

    • Department of defense information assurance certification and accreditation process(DIACAP)

    • Security,interoperability,supportability,sustainability,and usability(SISSU)

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise information technology data repository(EITDR)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR). This is the database of record for registering all systems and applications. It serves as a central repository for storing and managing information related to enterprise IT systems and applications. It helps in maintaining a comprehensive record of all the systems and applications in an organization, including their details, configurations, and relationships. This database is essential for organizations to have a centralized and reliable source of information about their IT infrastructure.

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  • 23. 

    A base web server that interfaces with with the public must be placed in what area of the base network?

    • None are allowed

    • Outside the base network

    • De-militarized zone(DMZ)

    • At the core

    Correct Answer
    A. De-militarized zone(DMZ)
    Explanation
    A base web server that interfaces with the public must be placed in a de-militarized zone (DMZ) because it acts as a buffer zone between the internal network and the external network. By placing the web server in the DMZ, it provides an additional layer of security by segregating the public-facing services from the internal network. This prevents direct access to the internal network and protects sensitive information from potential attacks or unauthorized access.

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  • 24. 

    What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?

    • Public key cryptography

    • Asymmetric key infrastructure

    • Public key infrastructure(PKI)

    • Key distribution center

    Correct Answer
    A. Public key infrastructure(PKI)
    Explanation
    Public key infrastructure (PKI) is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that enables secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between unfamiliar parties. It uses asymmetric key cryptography, where each user has a pair of keys - a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. The public keys are stored in a centralized repository called a certificate authority (CA), which issues digital certificates to verify the authenticity of the public keys. This infrastructure ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and authentication of data transmitted over the network, making it an essential component for secure communication.

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  • 25. 

    What operational simple network management protocol(SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?

    • Get

    • Set

    • Getnext

    • Trap

    Correct Answer
    A. Get
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Get". In Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), the "Get" message is used to request a specific instance of management information from a network device. It is used by a manager to retrieve the value of a specific variable or object from an SNMP agent. This message allows the manager to obtain information about the device's configuration, performance, and other parameters for monitoring and troubleshooting purposes.

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  • 26. 

    What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusuable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitaion methods?

    • Destroying

    • Degaussing

    • Sanitizing

    • Overwriting

    Correct Answer
    A. Destroying
    Explanation
    Destroying is the correct answer because it refers to the process of physically damaging the media to the point where it becomes unusable and the data on it cannot be retrieved by any known exploitation methods. This can involve methods such as shredding, incinerating, or crushing the media to ensure that the information it contains is completely destroyed and cannot be recovered.

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  • 27. 

    What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?

    • Global area network(GAN)

    • Metropolitan area network(MAN)

    • Local area network(LAN)

    • Wide area network(WAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Local area network(LAN)
    Explanation
    A local area network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, schools, and other small-scale environments. They allow devices such as computers, printers, and servers to connect and share resources, data, and information within the local area. Unlike wide area networks (WANs) or global area networks (GANs) which cover larger areas, LANs are designed for smaller-scale connectivity needs.

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  • 28. 

    How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

    • 6

    • 2

    • 4

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. Octets are groups of 8 bits, and in the case of the internet protocol, each octet represents a portion of the IP address. The IP address is a 32-bit number, divided into 4 octets, with each octet ranging from 0 to 255. This division allows for a total of 4,294,967,296 unique IP addresses to be assigned, which is sufficient for the current needs of the internet.

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  • 29. 

    What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?

    • Centralized

    • Distributed

    • Hierarchical

    • Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized
    Explanation
    A centralized network architecture refers to a setup where all network management duties are handled by a single computer system located at a specific location. This means that all network management tasks, such as monitoring, configuration, and troubleshooting, are performed from this central system. This approach offers the advantage of simplicity and ease of control, as all management functions are concentrated in one place. It also allows for efficient resource allocation and decision-making.

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  • 30. 

    What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?

    • Intrusion detection devices

    • Network management software

    • Firewalls

    • Vunerability scanners

    Correct Answer
    A. Vunerability scanners
    Explanation
    Vulnerability scanners are network devices that perform thorough examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that could potentially lead to security breaches. These scanners are designed to search for vulnerabilities in software, networks, and systems, and provide detailed reports on any potential weaknesses found. By conducting rigorous examinations, vulnerability scanners help organizations identify and address vulnerabilities before they can be exploited by malicious actors, enhancing overall security.

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  • 31. 

    Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in garrison units for the duration of a contingency?

    • Open system standards team

    • Initial communications support teams

    • Combat itegrated system teams

    • Sustained communications support teams

    Correct Answer
    A. Sustained communications support teams
    Explanation
    Sustained communications support teams provide uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in garrison units for the duration of a contingency. These teams are responsible for ensuring that communication systems are operational and reliable, allowing for effective communication between different units and personnel during critical missions.

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  • 32. 

    What program is known as a state of the art ground to ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base?

    • Theater deployable communications

    • Commercial off the shelf

    • Combat itegrated system

    • Integrated communications access package

    Correct Answer
    A. Theater deployable communications
    Explanation
    The program known as theater deployable communications is a state of the art ground to ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base.

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  • 33. 

    What network entity provides reliable,secure networks and network services for base level customers?

    • Network control center deployable(NCC-D)

    • Network control center(NCC)

    • Network operations center(NOSC)

    • Air Force network operations center(AFNOSC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Network control center(NCC)
    Explanation
    The Network Control Center (NCC) is the network entity that provides reliable and secure networks and network services for base level customers. It is responsible for monitoring and controlling network operations, ensuring network availability, and resolving any network issues that may arise. The NCC plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall performance and security of the network infrastructure.

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  • 34. 

    Which compnent of the public key infrastructure is responsible for establishing,authenticating,maintaining,and revoking certificates?

    • Registation authority

    • Certificate authority

    • Certificate repository

    • Certificate policy manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Certificate authority
    Explanation
    A certificate authority is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates in a public key infrastructure. It is a trusted entity that issues digital certificates to verify the authenticity of public keys and ensure secure communication between parties. The certificate authority verifies the identity of individuals or organizations requesting certificates, signs the certificates to confirm their authenticity, and manages the revocation process if necessary.

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  • 35. 

    What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?

    • Global area network(GAN)

    • Metropolitan area network(MAN)

    • Local area network(LAN)

    • Wide area network(WAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Global area network(GAN)
    Explanation
    A Global Area Network (GAN) is a type of communications network that links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. Unlike a Local Area Network (LAN) or Metropolitan Area Network (MAN), which have limited coverage areas, a GAN allows for communication and data transfer across vast distances. A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a similar concept, but it typically refers to a network that covers a larger area than a GAN. Therefore, the correct answer is Global Area Network (GAN).

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  • 36. 

    Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?

    • Tuning

    • Analyzing

    • Gathering

    • Monitoring

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitoring
    Explanation
    Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves tracking activities on the network and collecting historical data. By monitoring the network, organizations can keep track of the performance and health of their systems, identify any issues or anomalies, and gather data for analysis and improvement purposes. Monitoring allows for real-time tracking and provides valuable insights into network performance, security, and overall efficiency.

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  • 37. 

    What component of the systems management automated report tracking system(SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?

    • Consoles

    • Broker

    • Clients

    • Probes

    Correct Answer
    A. Broker
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Broker". In the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application, the broker component is responsible for maintaining knowledge of available domain managers. The broker acts as a central hub, connecting the consoles, clients, and probes to the appropriate domain managers based on their availability and workload. It facilitates communication and coordination between the different components of the system, ensuring efficient management and tracking of reports.

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  • 38. 

    What is a measure used to verify the eligibilty of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?

    • Identification

    • Recertification

    • Authentication

    • Accrediation

    Correct Answer
    A. Authentication
    Explanation
    Authentication is the measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and their ability to access certain information. It involves verifying the identity of the subject through credentials such as passwords, biometrics, or security tokens. This process ensures that only authorized individuals can access the information and helps prevent unauthorized access or data breaches.

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  • 39. 

    According to the Air Force network structure,what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?

    • 1

    • 3

    • 2

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    According to the Air Force network structure, the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC) is classified as Tier 1.

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  • 40. 

    What do you call currrent and perceived capibility,intention,or attack,directed to cause denial of service?

    • Vulnerability

    • Compromise

    • Tunneling

    • Threat

    Correct Answer
    A. Threat
    Explanation
    The term "threat" refers to the current and perceived capability, intention, or attack directed towards causing a denial of service. It encompasses the idea of a potential danger or harm that can disrupt or compromise the functioning of a system or network. It is different from vulnerability, compromise, or tunneling, as it specifically focuses on the intention and capability to cause harm rather than the weaknesses or methods used to exploit them.

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  • 41. 

    What operational simple network management protocol(SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?

    • Get

    • Set

    • Getnext

    • Trap

    Correct Answer
    A. Getnext
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Getnext." The Getnext message is used in SNMP to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. It allows the SNMP manager to request the next set of data from the SNMP agent, making it efficient for retrieving sequential data. This message is commonly used in polling operations where the manager needs to retrieve multiple variables in a single request.

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  • 42. 

    An information system on your network that is not set to require the use of a cac or password would be considered a?

    • Vulnerability

    • Compromise

    • Risk

    • Threat

    Correct Answer
    A. Vulnerability
    Explanation
    An information system on a network that does not require the use of a CAC or password would be considered a vulnerability. This means that unauthorized individuals could potentially gain access to the system and its information without any form of authentication. This lack of security measures increases the risk of a breach or compromise, making it a vulnerability that needs to be addressed.

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  • 43. 

    What type of malicious logic can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file?

    • Worm

    • Bot

    • Virus

    • Trojan horse

    Correct Answer
    A. Worm
    Explanation
    A worm is a type of malicious logic that can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file. Unlike viruses or trojan horses, worms can self-replicate and spread across networks or systems without the need for human intervention. This allows them to quickly infect multiple computers and cause widespread damage. Worms often exploit vulnerabilities in network protocols or operating systems to propagate and can consume significant network bandwidth or system resources.

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  • 44. 

    What is a file that is kept with you and will allow you to decrypt files encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code?

    • Public key

    • Private key

    • Public key infrastructure(PKI)certificate

    • Token

    Correct Answer
    A. Private key
    Explanation
    A private key is a file that is kept with you and allows you to decrypt files that have been encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code. It is called a private key because it is meant to be kept secret and not shared with others. By using your private key, you can unlock and access encrypted information that is intended only for you.

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  • 45. 

    What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or  around the globe?

    • Metropoltian area network(MAN)

    • Local area network(LAN)

    • Multi server high-speed backbone network

    • Enterprise network

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise network
    Explanation
    An enterprise network is the correct answer because it is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe. It is designed to support the communication needs of a large organization, providing connectivity and data sharing between different locations. This network allows for efficient communication and collaboration among employees, regardless of their physical location.

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  • 46. 

    What is the host ID od internet protocol address 131.10.230.120/24?

    • 0.0.0.120.

    • 0.10.230.0.

    • 131.10.230.0.

    • 255.255.255.0.

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.0.0.120.
    Explanation
    The host ID of an IP address is the portion of the address that identifies a specific device on a network. In this case, the given IP address is 131.10.230.120/24. The "/24" indicates that the first 24 bits of the address represent the network portion, and the remaining 8 bits represent the host portion. Therefore, the host ID is 0.0.0.120.

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  • 47. 

    What is a collection of of computing environments connected by one or more internal networks under the control of a single approval authority and security policy?

    • Enclave

    • Bastion

    • Base

    • Circuits

    Correct Answer
    A. Enclave
    Explanation
    An enclave is a collection of computing environments connected by internal networks and controlled by a single approval authority and security policy. This term is commonly used in the field of cybersecurity to refer to a secure and isolated network or system. Enclaves are designed to protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access, ensuring that all communication and data exchange within the enclave is secure and controlled.

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  • 48. 

    What device is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks?

    • Firewall

    • Intrusion detection system(IDS)

    • De-militarized zone (DMZ)

    • Vulnerability scanner

    Correct Answer
    A. Intrusion detection system(IDS)
    Explanation
    An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a device that is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks. It is designed to detect and alert the system administrator about any suspicious or malicious activities that may be occurring on the network. Unlike a firewall, which primarily focuses on preventing unauthorized access, an IDS is specifically designed to detect and respond to potential attacks. It analyzes network traffic and system logs to identify patterns or behaviors that indicate a possible intrusion. By monitoring all attempted attacks, an IDS helps to enhance the overall security of the network.

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  • 49. 

    What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?

    • Second message encryption

    • Tunneling

    • Identification spoofing

    • Application based attacks

    Correct Answer
    A. Tunneling
    Explanation
    Tunneling is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall. This technique allows the attacker to bypass the firewall's security measures by hiding the malicious message within a seemingly harmless one. By using tunneling, the attacker can successfully deliver the malicious payload to the target system without being detected or blocked by the firewall.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 31, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Vpucke11
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