3d0x2 CDCs Volume 1

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CDCs Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    C. 2
    Explanation
    To establish a computer network, a minimum of two computers is required. This is because a network is formed when two or more computers are connected together to share resources and communicate with each other. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect and create a network. Therefore, the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network is 2.

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  • 2. 

    What is a privately owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?

    • A.

      Homogeneous network

    • B.

      Intranetwork

    • C.

      Local area network(LAN)

    • D.

      Internetwork

    Correct Answer
    B. Intranetwork
    Explanation
    An intranetwork is a privately owned network that restricts access to authorized personnel only. It is typically used within an organization to facilitate communication and data sharing among employees. Unlike an internetwork, which connects multiple networks together, an intranetwork is confined to a single organization and is not accessible to the public. A local area network (LAN) refers to a network that covers a small geographical area, while a homogeneous network refers to a network where all the connected devices have the same operating system or protocol.

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  • 3. 

    What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

    • A.

      Homogeneous network

    • B.

      Intranetwork

    • C.

      Heterogeneous network

    • D.

      Internetwork

    Correct Answer
    C. Heterogeneous network
    Explanation
    A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In this type of network environment, there is a mix of hardware and software from various sources, making it diverse and complex. The presence of different operating systems and protocols requires careful integration and compatibility measures to ensure seamless communication and interoperability between the systems.

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  • 4. 

    What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

    • A.

      Homogeneous network

    • B.

      Intranetwork

    • C.

      Heterogeneous network

    • D.

      Internetwork

    Correct Answer
    A. Homogeneous network
    Explanation
    A homogeneous network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices in the network are from the same manufacturer or are compatible with each other, and they all use the same operating system or network operating system. This type of network is easier to manage and troubleshoot because all the components are designed to work together seamlessly.

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  • 5. 

    What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?

    • A.

      Global area network(GAN)

    • B.

      Metropolitan area network(MAN)

    • C.

      Local area network(LAN)

    • D.

      Wide area network(WAN)

    Correct Answer
    C. Local area network(LAN)
    Explanation
    A local area network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, schools, and other small-scale environments. They allow devices such as computers, printers, and servers to connect and share resources, data, and information within the local area. Unlike wide area networks (WANs) or global area networks (GANs) which cover larger areas, LANs are designed for smaller-scale connectivity needs.

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  • 6. 

    What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?

    • A.

      Global area network(GAN)

    • B.

      Metropolitan area network(MAN)

    • C.

      Local area network(LAN)

    • D.

      Wide area network(WAN)

    Correct Answer
    B. Metropolitan area network(MAN)
    Explanation
    A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of communications network that connects a broad geographical region, typically within a city or metropolitan area. It covers a larger area than a Local Area Network (LAN) but is smaller than a Wide Area Network (WAN). MANs are designed to provide high-speed connectivity to businesses, organizations, and individuals within a specific geographic location, allowing them to share resources and communicate efficiently. This makes MAN the most suitable option for linking a broad geographical region.

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  • 7. 

    What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?

    • A.

      Global area network(GAN)

    • B.

      Metropolitan area network(MAN)

    • C.

      Local area network(LAN)

    • D.

      Wide area network(WAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Global area network(GAN)
    Explanation
    A Global Area Network (GAN) is a type of communications network that links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. Unlike a Local Area Network (LAN) or Metropolitan Area Network (MAN), which have limited coverage areas, a GAN allows for communication and data transfer across vast distances. A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a similar concept, but it typically refers to a network that covers a larger area than a GAN. Therefore, the correct answer is Global Area Network (GAN).

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  • 8. 

    How many users are usually in a peer to peer network?

    • A.

      10-50

    • B.

      2-10

    • C.

      50-250

    • D.

      250-1000

    Correct Answer
    B. 2-10
    Explanation
    In a peer-to-peer network, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This is because peer-to-peer networks are designed for small-scale connections where users directly interact with each other without the need for a central server. This smaller number of users allows for efficient communication and sharing of resources between the peers. Additionally, with fewer users, it is easier to maintain security and manage the network effectively.

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  • 9. 

    How many users are in a single server network?

    • A.

      10-50

    • B.

      2-10

    • C.

      50-250

    • D.

      250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-50
    Explanation
    A single server network typically refers to a small-scale network where a single server is responsible for handling all network requests and providing services to a limited number of users. The range of 10-50 users suggests that this network is designed to support a small group of individuals or a small office environment. This number of users is manageable for a single server to handle the network traffic and provide efficient services without overwhelming the system.

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  • 10. 

    How many users are in a multi server network?

    • A.

      10-50

    • B.

      2-10

    • C.

      50-250

    • D.

      250-1000

    Correct Answer
    C. 50-250
    Explanation
    A multi server network typically consists of multiple servers that are interconnected to handle the network's workload. The number of users in such a network can vary depending on the size and capacity of the servers. The range of 50-250 suggests that there are a moderate number of users in the network, which is neither too small nor too large. This range allows for a sufficient number of users to be accommodated while ensuring that the network performance remains stable and efficient.

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  • 11. 

    How many users are in a mulit server high speed backbone network?

    • A.

      10-50

    • B.

      2-10

    • C.

      50-250

    • D.

      250-1000

    Correct Answer
    D. 250-1000
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 250-1000. This range indicates that there are between 250 and 1000 users in a multi-server high-speed backbone network. This suggests that the network is capable of handling a significant number of users and is designed to provide fast and reliable connectivity for a large user base.

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  • 12. 

    What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or  around the globe?

    • A.

      Metropoltian area network(MAN)

    • B.

      Local area network(LAN)

    • C.

      Multi server high-speed backbone network

    • D.

      Enterprise network

    Correct Answer
    D. Enterprise network
    Explanation
    An enterprise network is the correct answer because it is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe. It is designed to support the communication needs of a large organization, providing connectivity and data sharing between different locations. This network allows for efficient communication and collaboration among employees, regardless of their physical location.

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  • 13. 

    What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

    • A.

      Media access control address

    • B.

      Network server name

    • C.

      Subnet mask address

    • D.

      Node serial number

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control address
    Explanation
    A Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communications on a physical network. It is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. Each network device has a unique MAC address, allowing data to be sent to the correct destination. This address is assigned by the manufacturer and is hardcoded into the device's network interface card.

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  • 14. 

    How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. Octets are groups of 8 bits, and in the case of the internet protocol, each octet represents a portion of the IP address. The IP address is a 32-bit number, divided into 4 octets, with each octet ranging from 0 to 255. This division allows for a total of 4,294,967,296 unique IP addresses to be assigned, which is sufficient for the current needs of the internet.

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  • 15. 

    What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?

    • A.

      01100110

    • B.

      00001100

    • C.

      10000001

    • D.

      01100000

    Correct Answer
    D. 01100000
    Explanation
    The binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96 is 01100000.

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  • 16. 

    What is the network ID of internet protocol address 131.10.230.120/24

    • A.

      0.0.0.120.

    • B.

      0.10.230.0.

    • C.

      131.10.230.0.

    • D.

      255.255.255.0.

    Correct Answer
    C. 131.10.230.0.
    Explanation
    The network ID of an IP address is obtained by setting all the host bits to 0. In this case, the IP address is 131.10.230.120/24, which means that the first 24 bits represent the network ID. Therefore, the network ID is 131.10.230.0.

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  • 17. 

    What is the host ID od internet protocol address 131.10.230.120/24?

    • A.

      0.0.0.120.

    • B.

      0.10.230.0.

    • C.

      131.10.230.0.

    • D.

      255.255.255.0.

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.0.0.120.
    Explanation
    The host ID of an IP address is the portion of the address that identifies a specific device on a network. In this case, the given IP address is 131.10.230.120/24. The "/24" indicates that the first 24 bits of the address represent the network portion, and the remaining 8 bits represent the host portion. Therefore, the host ID is 0.0.0.120.

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  • 18. 

    How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      64

    • C.

      48

    • D.

      128

    Correct Answer
    B. 64
    Explanation
    An internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask typically covers 64 bits. IPv6 uses a 128-bit address space, and the subnet mask is used to divide this address space into subnets. By using a 64-bit subnet mask, the first 64 bits of the IPv6 address are used to identify the network, while the remaining 64 bits are used to identify the host within that network. This allows for a large number of unique network addresses and a large number of unique host addresses within each network.

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  • 19. 

    What series of the Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      29

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      33

    Correct Answer
    D. 33
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction series 33 covers communications and information.

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  • 20. 

    What Air Force instruction provides policy,direction,and structure for the Air Force global information grid(AF-GIG)?

    • A.

      AFFD 33-1

    • B.

      AFI 33-115v1

    • C.

      AFI 33-112

    • D.

      AFI 29-2603v2

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 33-115v1
    Explanation
    AFI 33-115v1 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force instruction that provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG). This instruction outlines the guidelines and procedures for managing and operating the AF-GIG, which is the Air Force's worldwide network of information systems and services. It ensures that the AF-GIG is secure, reliable, and interoperable, supporting the Air Force's mission and enabling effective communication and information sharing across the organization.

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  • 21. 

    According to the Air Force network structure,what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    According to the Air Force network structure, the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC) is classified as Tier 1.

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  • 22. 

    What network entity provides reliable,secure networks and network services for base level customers?

    • A.

      Network control center deployable(NCC-D)

    • B.

      Network control center(NCC)

    • C.

      Network operations center(NOSC)

    • D.

      Air Force network operations center(AFNOSC)

    Correct Answer
    B. Network control center(NCC)
    Explanation
    The Network Control Center (NCC) is the network entity that provides reliable and secure networks and network services for base level customers. It is responsible for monitoring and controlling network operations, ensuring network availability, and resolving any network issues that may arise. The NCC plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall performance and security of the network infrastructure.

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  • 23. 

    What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?

    • A.

      Fault management server

    • B.

      Performance management server

    • C.

      Security management server

    • D.

      Network management server

    Correct Answer
    D. Network management server
    Explanation
    A network management server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It is responsible for monitoring and managing network devices, analyzing network performance, troubleshooting network issues, and optimizing network resources. By providing centralized control and visibility over the network, a network management server helps organizations ensure smooth network operations, minimize downtime, and enhance overall productivity.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following are the most common network management architectures?

    • A.

      Centralized,hierarchical,distributed

    • B.

      Centralized,hybrid,distributed

    • C.

      Centralized,hierarchical,and hybrid

    • D.

      Hybrid,hierarchical,and distributed

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized,hierarchical,distributed
    Explanation
    The most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all network management functions are performed by a central entity, providing control and monitoring capabilities. In a hierarchical architecture, network management functions are divided into multiple levels, each with its own set of responsibilities and control. In a distributed architecture, network management functions are distributed across multiple entities, allowing for more flexibility and scalability. These three architectures are commonly used in various network management systems to effectively manage and control network operations.

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  • 25. 

    What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?

    • A.

      Centralized

    • B.

      Distributed

    • C.

      Hierarchical

    • D.

      Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized
    Explanation
    A centralized network architecture refers to a setup where all network management duties are handled by a single computer system located at a specific location. This means that all network management tasks, such as monitoring, configuration, and troubleshooting, are performed from this central system. This approach offers the advantage of simplicity and ease of control, as all management functions are concentrated in one place. It also allows for efficient resource allocation and decision-making.

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  • 26. 

    What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management,with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?

    • A.

      Centralized

    • B.

      Distributed

    • C.

      Hierarchical

    • D.

      Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    C. Hierarchical
    Explanation
    A hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients. In this architecture, the central server has control over the network and manages the communication between the clients. The clients rely on the central server for network management tasks such as routing, security, and resource allocation. This hierarchical structure allows for efficient management and control of the network, with the central server acting as a central point of authority.

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  • 27. 

    What level of network activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?

    • A.

      Inactive

    • B.

      Reactive

    • C.

      Proactive

    • D.

      Interactive

    Correct Answer
    D. Interactive
    Explanation
    When the network manager is monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause, they are working at the interactive level of network activity. This level involves actively engaging with the network and its components to identify and address any issues that arise. It requires hands-on involvement and a proactive approach to ensure smooth network operation.

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  • 28. 

    What level of network activity are you working at when you working at when thw automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis,giving a root cause alarm for the problem at hand?

    • A.

      Inactive

    • B.

      Reactive

    • C.

      Proactive

    • D.

      Interactive

    Correct Answer
    C. Proactive
    Explanation
    When working at a level where automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis and gives a root cause alarm for the problem at hand, you are working at a proactive level of network activity. This means that you are actively monitoring and analyzing the network to identify and address potential issues before they become major problems. By being proactive, you can prevent network downtime and ensure the smooth functioning of the network.

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  • 29. 

    Performance management can be broke into what two seperate functional categories?

    • A.

      Monitoring and analyzing

    • B.

      Monitoring and replacing

    • C.

      Monitoring and tuning

    • D.

      Analyzing and tuning

    Correct Answer
    C. Monitoring and tuning
    Explanation
    Performance management involves monitoring the performance of systems or processes and making necessary adjustments to optimize their performance. Monitoring involves tracking and measuring performance metrics, while tuning refers to making adjustments or fine-tuning the system to improve its performance. Therefore, monitoring and tuning are the two separate functional categories of performance management.

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  • 30. 

    Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?

    • A.

      Tuning

    • B.

      Analyzing

    • C.

      Gathering

    • D.

      Monitoring

    Correct Answer
    D. Monitoring
    Explanation
    Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves tracking activities on the network and collecting historical data. By monitoring the network, organizations can keep track of the performance and health of their systems, identify any issues or anomalies, and gather data for analysis and improvement purposes. Monitoring allows for real-time tracking and provides valuable insights into network performance, security, and overall efficiency.

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  • 31. 

    What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

    • A.

      Configuration

    • B.

      Accounting

    • C.

      Security

    • D.

      Performance

    Correct Answer
    C. Security
    Explanation
    The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security measures are implemented to ensure that unauthorized users are not able to access sensitive information or gain unauthorized access to the network. This includes implementing firewalls, encryption, access control lists, and other security measures to protect the network and its resources from potential threats and attacks.

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  • 32. 

    What is established to distinguish between errors that fall between a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?

    • A.

      Tolerance parameters

    • B.

      Low level software alarms

    • C.

      Fault paramters

    • D.

      Low level hardware alarms

    Correct Answer
    A. Tolerance parameters
    Explanation
    Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors caused by a fault. These parameters define the acceptable limits for errors or deviations from the expected behavior. By setting tolerance parameters, organizations can determine when errors are considered acceptable and when they indicate a fault or abnormal behavior. This helps in identifying and addressing issues that may arise due to faults or errors exceeding the defined tolerance levels.

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  • 33. 

    Network management protocols are designed in most cases to reside above what layer of the operational system interface(OSI) model?

    • A.

      Transport

    • B.

      Session

    • C.

      Presentation

    • D.

      Application

    Correct Answer
    B. Session
    Explanation
    Network management protocols are designed to reside above the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between network devices. Network management protocols, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), operate at a higher layer to monitor and control network devices and services. They utilize the Session layer's capabilities to establish and manage communication sessions between the network management system and the managed devices. Therefore, the correct answer is Session.

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  • 34. 

    What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from a network devices?

    • A.

      Object identifier

    • B.

      Network device map

    • C.

      Network protocol list

    • D.

      Management information base

    Correct Answer
    D. Management information base
    Explanation
    A Management Information Base (MIB) is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from a network device. It provides a standardized way to organize and access information about the device's configuration, performance, and status. MIBs are used by network management systems to monitor and control network devices. They contain a collection of objects, each identified by a unique object identifier (OID), which represents a specific piece of information about the device. The MIB acts as a database of information that can be queried and manipulated by network administrators.

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  • 35. 

    What area of the simple network management protocol(SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?

    • A.

      Management

    • B.

      Directory

    • C.

      Private

    • D.

      Experimental

    Correct Answer
    C. Private
    Explanation
    The area of the SNMP tree structure that is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment is called "Private". In this area, vendors can define their own labels and leaf objects to provide additional management capabilities for their equipment. This allows for customization and flexibility in managing different types of equipment from different vendors.

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  • 36. 

    What area of the simple network management protocol(SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring,collecting and reporting management data to the mangement system?

    • A.

      Primary domain controller(PDC)

    • B.

      Manager

    • C.

      Backup domain controller

    • D.

      Agent

    Correct Answer
    D. Agent
    Explanation
    The SNMP node is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. The agent is a component of the SNMP node that performs these tasks. It collects information from the managed devices, such as routers or switches, and sends it to the management system for analysis and monitoring. The agent acts as an intermediary between the managed devices and the management system, ensuring that the data is properly collected and reported.

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  • 37. 

    What operational simple network management protocol(SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?

    • A.

      Get

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Getnext

    • D.

      Trap

    Correct Answer
    A. Get
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Get". In Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), the "Get" message is used to request a specific instance of management information from a network device. It is used by a manager to retrieve the value of a specific variable or object from an SNMP agent. This message allows the manager to obtain information about the device's configuration, performance, and other parameters for monitoring and troubleshooting purposes.

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  • 38. 

    What operational simple network management protocol(SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?

    • A.

      Get

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Getnext

    • D.

      Trap

    Correct Answer
    C. Getnext
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Getnext." The Getnext message is used in SNMP to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. It allows the SNMP manager to request the next set of data from the SNMP agent, making it efficient for retrieving sequential data. This message is commonly used in polling operations where the manager needs to retrieve multiple variables in a single request.

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  • 39. 

    What operational simple simple network management protocol(SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?

    • A.

      Get

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Getnext

    • D.

      Trap

    Correct Answer
    B. Set
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Set." In Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), the "Set" message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows network administrators to remotely configure and control network devices by changing the values of specific variables or parameters in the management information database. The "Set" message is an essential component of SNMP for managing and maintaining network devices.

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  • 40. 

    What operational simple simple network management protocol(SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?

    • A.

      Get

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Getnext

    • D.

      Trap

    Correct Answer
    D. Trap
    Explanation
    A Trap message in SNMP is an unsolicited message sent from an agent to the manager. It is used to notify the manager about certain events or conditions that occur in the network. The agent sends the Trap message without any request from the manager, making it an unsolicited message. This allows the agent to proactively inform the manager about important events, such as system failures or security breaches, ensuring timely action can be taken.

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  • 41. 

    What is the type of probe that collects inter device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases(MIB)?

    • A.

      Virtual local area network(VLAN) probe

    • B.

      Containment probe

    • C.

      Neighbor probe

    • D.

      System information probe

    Correct Answer
    C. Neighbor probe
    Explanation
    A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects inter device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB). It is specifically designed to gather information about neighboring devices in a network, including their IP addresses, MAC addresses, and other relevant details. This probe helps in monitoring and managing network connectivity by providing insights into the relationships and connectivity between devices in a network.

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  • 42. 

    What centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system(SMARTS) application?

    • A.

      Domain manager

    • B.

      Broker

    • C.

      Clients

    • D.

      Map console

    Correct Answer
    A. Domain manager
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Domain manager." In a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application, the domain manager is the centerpiece. It is responsible for managing and monitoring the various components of the system, such as brokers, clients, and the map console. The domain manager ensures smooth communication and coordination between these components, allowing for efficient tracking and reporting of system activities.

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  • 43. 

    What component of the systems management automated report tracking system(SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?

    • A.

      Consoles

    • B.

      Broker

    • C.

      Clients

    • D.

      Probes

    Correct Answer
    B. Broker
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Broker". In the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application, the broker component is responsible for maintaining knowledge of available domain managers. The broker acts as a central hub, connecting the consoles, clients, and probes to the appropriate domain managers based on their availability and workload. It facilitates communication and coordination between the different components of the system, ensuring efficient management and tracking of reports.

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  • 44. 

    What are the three types of  systems management automated report tracking system(SMARTS) notifications?

    • A.

      Compound events,alarm,and trend

    • B.

      Compound events, problems,and network

    • C.

      Auto-discovery,compound,and symtomatic events

    • D.

      Compound events, problems,and symtomatic events

    Correct Answer
    D. Compound events, problems,and symtomatic events
    Explanation
    The three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications are compound events, problems, and symptomatic events. These notifications help in identifying and addressing various issues and events that occur within the system. Compound events refer to a combination of multiple events that may indicate a larger problem. Problems are specific issues that need to be resolved. Symptomatic events are events that indicate potential problems or abnormalities in the system. These different types of notifications allow for effective monitoring and management of the system.

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  • 45. 

    What color on the systems management automated report tracking system(SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events?

    • A.

      Blue

    • B.

      Purple

    • C.

      Orange

    • D.

      Yellow

    Correct Answer
    B. Purple
    Explanation
    Purple color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events.

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  • 46. 

    How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?

    • A.

      21

    • B.

      7

    • C.

      19

    • D.

      14

    Correct Answer
    A. 21
    Explanation
    The performance monitor provides 21 different categories of information about your network.

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  • 47. 

    What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?

    • A.

      Windows advanced server

    • B.

      Network root router

    • C.

      Protocol analyzer

    • D.

      Systems management automated report tracking system(SMARTS)

    Correct Answer
    C. Protocol analyzer
    Explanation
    A protocol analyzer is a device that allows for digital network diagnostics and the development of communications software. It is used to capture, analyze, and decode network traffic, providing valuable insights into network performance and troubleshooting. This tool helps in identifying and resolving network issues by examining the protocols and data packets transmitted over the network. It is an essential device for network administrators and developers involved in maintaining and optimizing network infrastructure.

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  • 48. 

    What device provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?

    • A.

      Connection statistics

    • B.

      Protocol statistics

    • C.

      Media access control(MAC) node statistics

    • D.

      Node discovery

    Correct Answer
    B. Protocol statistics
    Explanation
    Protocol statistics provide information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol. This includes data on the performance and efficiency of the protocol, such as the number of packets transmitted and received, error rates, and overall network utilization. By analyzing protocol statistics, network administrators can identify any issues or bottlenecks in the network and take appropriate measures to optimize its performance.

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  • 49. 

    What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence(FCS) short frames,and jabbers?

    • A.

      Media access control(MAC) node statistics

    • B.

      Connection statistics

    • C.

      Protocol statistics

    • D.

      Node discovery

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control(MAC) node statistics
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Media access control(MAC) node statistics. Media access control (MAC) node statistics provide information about errors that occur at the physical layer, such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. These statistics help in monitoring and troubleshooting network issues related to the physical layer.

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  • 50. 

    What automatically runs in the backround when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

    • A.

      Media access control(MAC)

    • B.

      Connection statistics

    • C.

      Protocol statistics

    • D.

      Node discovery

    Correct Answer
    D. Node discovery
    Explanation
    When the protocol analyzer application is activated, node discovery automatically runs in the background. Node discovery is a process that identifies and maps the network nodes or devices present in a network. It helps in creating a network topology and allows the protocol analyzer to gather information about the network's structure and connections. This information is crucial for analyzing network traffic and troubleshooting network issues.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 31, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Vpucke11
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