3D052 Volume 3

1. Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?

My base.

Single-sign-on.

Community of practice.

Virtual Military Personnel Flight.

2. Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?

Constitution.

Bill of Rights.

United States Title Code 10.

Uniform Code of Military Justice.

3. Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by

Providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems.

Taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data.

C. denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace

Allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they’re from.

4. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?

Cyber surety

Clien systems

Cyber transport

Cyber system operations

5. Records that are considered to be in draft format

Can be altered and are not officially released.

Can’t be altered, but are officially released.

Can’t be altered and are officially signed.

Officially signed and officially released.

6. The proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise is by

Placing them in approved staging containers.

Shipping it to Federal records centers in approved containers.

Altering the data on the records so in the event is compromised, it is recognizable.

Any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding; as long as personal data is not recognizable andbeyond reconstruction.

7. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions?

Cyber surety

Client systems

Cyber transport

Cyber system operations

8. When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?

Keep emails brief and to the point.

Read your email out loud to yourself.

Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.

Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message.

9. What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?

MyPay.

E-publishing.

Air Force Portal.

Virtual Military Personnel Flight.

10. Which function is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications by way of line-of-sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired resources?

Designed operational capability.

Theater deployable communications.

Manpower and equipment force packaging.

Joint operation planning and execution system.

11. A remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads is called a/an

High altitude endurance (HAE).

Unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV).

Type unit equipment detail file (TUDET).

Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

12. Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?

My base.

Single-sign-on.

Community of practice.

Virtual Military Personnel Flight.

13. A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, or the transfer to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one organization to another is called a

Retire.

Archive.

Acquisition.

Disposition.

14. Which theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires size, weight, power requirements, and equipment set-up times are kept to an absolute minimum to support the transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?

Mobility.

Survivability.

Interoperability.

Modularity-scalability.

15. What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

Modify training.

Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

Conduct climate training surveys.

Review the occupational analysis report.

16. Which system was originally designed as a specialized system for Army, Navy, and Air Force technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems?

JEWELER.

SEAMARK.

NEWSDEALER.

STREAMLINER.

17. What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?

Broadcasts.

Transmissions.

Telecommunications.

Voice over Internet Protocol.

18. Which component of theater deployable communications (TDC) is a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of a deployed communication network?

Basic access module (BAM).

Integrated communications access package (ICAP).

Promina multiplexer (P-MUX).

Flyaway tri-band satellite terminal (FTSAT).

19. For which exception will federal records centers accept records having less than 3 years of retention?

Casualties.

Base closures.

Deployed AF units.

Joint force operations.

20. In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?

1994

1995

1997

1998

21. Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?

Officially signed and not released.

Officially signed and officially released.

Can be altered and are not officially released.

Can’t be altered, but are not officially released.

22. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Unit training manger (UTM).

Base functional manager (BFM).

Major command functional manager MFM).

Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

23. Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?

Constitution.

Bill of Rights.

United States Title Code 10.

Uniform Code of Military Justice.

24. Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?

My base.

Single-sign-on.

Community of practice.

Virtual Military Personnel Flight.

25. Which document is not considered an official government record?

Published doctrines.

Geographical base maps.

Photographs of a retreat ceremony.

Library reference or museum exhibitions.

26. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

Spectrum Operations.

Ground Radar Systems.

Cable and Antenna Systems.

Radio Frequency Transmission.

27. Which system provides high-quality voice/data HF and ultra-high frequency (UHF) satellite communications to the president, vice president, cabinet members, and other senior government and military officials while aboard special airlift mission (SAM) aircraft?

Seamark.

NORAD.

Mystic Star.

MILSATCOM.

28. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?

Spectrum Operations

Ground Radar Systems

Cable and Antenna Systems.

Radio Frequency Transmission.

29. Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

Constitution.

Bill of Rights.

United States Title Code 10

Uniform Code of Military Justice.

30. What authorization generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office's file plan?

National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).

Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS).

Local operations instructions.

Command operations directives.

31. What determines the cutoff for active records?

End period.

Archive date.

Retention period.

Superseded date.

32. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

Spectrum operations

Ground radar systems

Cable and antenna systems

Radio frequency transmission

33. From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

Sunlight

Microwave

Ionizing radiation

Nonionizing radiation

34. As of September 2004, how many total flight hours have coalition unmanned aircrafts flown to support Operation ENDURING FREEDOM and Operation IRAQI FREEDOM?

80,000.

90,000.

100,000.

120,000.

35. A logical group of record is called a/an

File.

Field.

Database.

Enterprise.

36. Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?

Area Processing Center (APC).

Network Control Center (NCC).

Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).

37. Which system provides the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft; provide final approach guidance, and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather?

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).

Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

Deployable Air Traffic-Control and landing Systems (DATCALS).

38. Which system focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in near real-time?

High altitude endurance (HAE).

Unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV).

Tactical unmanned aerial vehicle (TUAV).

Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

39. What function provides the Department of Defense (DOD) with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via personal computers (PC), personal digital assistants (PDAs), land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and/or giant voice systems in realtime?

Command Post.

AtHoc’s solutions.

Regional warning system.

Command warning system.

40. Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?

Accept no unnecessary risk.

Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

41. Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?

Area Processing Center (APC).

Network Control Center (NCC).

Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).

42. Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?

Accept no unnecessary risk.

Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs

Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

43. Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

Core task

Duty competency

Core competency

Duty position task

44. Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?

Accept no unnecessary risk.

Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

45. An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a/an

File.

Record.

Database.

Enterprise.

46. The primary purpose for maintaining records is to ensure

Historical events are not forgotten.

The collection of data creates a wealth of information.

We can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed.

Data for individuals is readily available upon request and privacy act information is protected.

47. Which publication type are informational publications which are "how to" documents?

Air Force Pamphlets.

Air Force Instructions.

Air Force Publications.

Air Force Policy Directives.

48. Which system of interconnected computer networks is used by the United States Department of Defense and the United States Department of State?

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).

Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

Deployable Air Traffic Control and Lighting System (DATCALS).

49. Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?

Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

50. Which organization is responsible for air and space expeditionary force (AEF) sourcing of individual augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater requirements?

Global Force Management (GFM).

Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

Combatant Commander (CCDR).

Commander Air Combat Command (COMACC).

51. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

Unit training manger (UTM).

Base functional manager (BFM).

Major command functional manager (MFM).

Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

52. Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?

Joint Operability network.

Tactical data links network.

Strategic data control network.

Supervisory control and data acquisition.

53. Marking the records for filing is considered which step of file management?

First step.

Second step.

Third step.

Final step.

54. The 85th Engineering and Installation Squadron (EIS) is assigned to the

Air Combat Command (ACC).

Air Mobility Command (AMC).

Air Force Space Command (AFSC).

Special Operations Command (SOC).

55. What places air and space expeditionary force (AEF) forces in a "ready to deploy" state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)?

Posturing.

Tempo bands.

Unit type codes.

Joint manning document.

56. Which theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires equipment modules to be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19-inch rack mounted transit cases, vehicles, or shelterized configurations?

Mobility.

Survivability.

Interoperability.

Modularity-scalability.

57. In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?

1994

1995

1997

1998

58. Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?

Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

59. Which system capitalizes on the popular commercial direct broadcast satellite technology to provide critical information to the nation's warfighters?

Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

National Military Command System (NMCS).

60. What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?

MyPay.

E-publishing.

Air Force Portal.

Virtual Military Personnel Flight.

61. Which system asset can be tasked to provide liaison, control tower, Radar Approach Control (RAPCON), precision landing, and mobile Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) services as a standalone unit or in any combination?

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).

Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

Deployable Air Traffic-Control and landing Systems (DATCALS).

62. Which system provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets with minimal or no support?

Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS).

63. Which command and control structure has network node whose survivability is achieved using nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths?

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

National Military Command Center (NMCC).

National Military Command System (NMCS).

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

64. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

Base records manager.

Chief of Office of Records.

Command records manager.

Functional area records manager.

65. Under what program does the Department of Defense (DOD) collects, processes, produces, disseminates, and uses information?

Global Information Grid (GIG).

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR).

Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

66. Which document is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of air andspace expeditionary forces (AEF)?

Posturing.

Tempo bands.

Unit type codes.

Joint manning document.

67. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

Unit training manger (UTM).

Base functional manager (BFM).

Major command functional manager (MFM).

Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

68. Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?

Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

69. Which system is a service that broadcasts via communication payloads on military satellites (Ka band) and commercial satellites (Ku Band)?

Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

National Military Command System (NMCS).

70. Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?.

Air Force Doctrines.

Air Force Pamphlets.

Air Force Instructions.

Air Force Policy Directives.

71. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?

Core Task

Duty competency

Core Competency

Duty position task

72. Who has the primary mission of providing the joint force air component commander (JFACC) with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war within the scope and coordination of all land, sea, and air forces?

Global Force Management.

Air Force Personnel Center.

Commander, Air Force Forces.

Air and Space Operations Center.

73. Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief Operations (HUMRO), Non-Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO) and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples of

Operational capabilities packages.

Theater deployable communications.

Manpower and equipment force packaging.

Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) force modules.

74. Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment?"

91–46.

91-50.

91-64.

91-68.

75. Which function has the primary purpose of providing standard force package descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command?

Operational capabilities packages.

Theater deployable communications.

Manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK).

Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) force modules.

76. AFPD 10-4, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns what requirements with a matching force generation model?

Posturing.

Tempo bands.

Unit type codes.

Joint manning document.

77. Which system is a USAF program supporting Global, Defense Communication System (DCS) HF Entry, Mystic Star, and System of Inter- American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA) missions?

Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

High Frequency-Global Communications System (HF-GCS).

78. A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an

File.

Record.

Database.

Enterprise.

79. Which document is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and prepared for federal records centers, staging areas or to transfer records to another organization?

AF Form 55.

AF Form 457.

Standard Form 50.

Standard Form 135.

80. Which system is employed at more than 600 sites across the global information grid (GIG) and interconnected through the SIPRNET?

Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR).

Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

81. Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?

AFI 33-127.

AFI 33-129.

AFI 35-101.

AFI 35-108.

82. Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?"

91-46

91-50

91-64

91-68

83. Which document would you reference for guidance on "Web management and Internet use?"

AFI 33-118.

AFI 33-119.

AFI 33-127.

AFI 33-129.

84. Which system primarily deals with logistics planning data, such as transportation, personnel, and material requirements?

Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

Theatre Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

85. Which command and control structure is a priority component of the global information grid (GIG) designed to support the President, SECDEF, and the JCS in the exercise of their responsibilities?

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

National Military Command Center (NMCC).

National Military Command System (NMCS).

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

86. Which program was created in response to the FY 97–03 Defense Planning Guidance that directed a "program to migrate to a multi-intelligence, common, interoperable, open systems ground systems architecture?

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

National Military Command System (NMCS).

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

87. Which system is a radar tracker and correlator software program that is hosted on a powerful server based computer system, which takes inputs from long and short range radars and displays it all on a scope (computer monitor)?

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

National Military Command System (NMCS).

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

88. The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard

91-46

91-50

91-64

91-68

89. Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

Base records manager.

Chief of Office of Records.

Command records manager.

Functional area records manager.

90. Which command and control structure is a primary network used to transmit the emergency action messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

National Military Command System (NMCS).

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

91. Which system provides a solution to a decrease in manpower and increase in requirements, at the same time, taking advantage of new technological developments to deliver superior connectivity, flexibility, speed, reliability, and joint interoperability?

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).

Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

Deployable Air Traffic Control and Lighting System (DATCALS).

92. Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

Unit training manger (UTM).

Base functional manager (BFM).

Major command functional manager (MFM).

Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

93. Who is responsible for creating unique passwords for the office of primarily responsibility (OPR) records custodian?

Base records manager.

Chief of Office of Records.

Command records manager.

Functional area records manager.

94. Which major system employs the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES), Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS), Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES), and Common Operational Picture (COP) systems?

Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR).

Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

95. Which Air Force specific system uses the global information grid (GIG) backbone for inter-site communications and was designed to provide an automated and integrated planning and execution capability to the Combat Air Forces (CAF) and Joint/Combined Forces?

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).

Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

Deployable Air Traffic Control and Lighting System (DATCALS).

96. What system provides connectivity between the US and allied forces for critical missions and enhances worldwide readiness, mobility, responsiveness, and operations?

Global Information Grid (GIG).

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR).

Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

97. Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

Base records manager.

Chief of Office of Records.

Command records manager.

Functional area records manager.

98. Which systems basic functions operational elements are tasking, processing, exploitation, and dissemination (TPED)?

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

National Military Command System (NMCS).

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

99. Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

Base records manager.

Chief of Office of Records.

Command records manager.

Functional area records manager.

100. Which system can be deployed in either the Control Reporting Center or Control Reporting Element configurations?

Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS).

3d052 Volume 3

1. Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?

3. Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by

4. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?

5. Records that are considered to be in draft format

6. The proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise is by

7. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions?

8. When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?

9. What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?

10. Which function is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications by way of line-of-sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired resources?

11. A remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads is called a/an

12. Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?

13. A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, or the transfer to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one organization to another is called a

14. Which theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires size, weight, power requirements, and equipment set-up times are kept to an absolute minimum to support the transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?

15. What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

16. Which system was originally designed as a specialized system for Army, Navy, and Air Force technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems?

17. What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?

18. Which component of theater deployable communications (TDC) is a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of a deployed communication network?

19. For which exception will federal records centers accept records having less than 3 years of retention?

20. In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?

21. Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?

22. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

23. Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?

24. Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?

25. Which document is not considered an official government record?

26. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

27. Which system provides high-quality voice/data HF and ultra-high frequency (UHF) satellite communications to the president, vice president, cabinet members, and other senior government and military officials while aboard special airlift mission (SAM) aircraft?

28. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?

29. Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

30. What authorization generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office's file plan?

31. What determines the cutoff for active records?

32. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

33. From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

34. As of September 2004, how many total flight hours have coalition unmanned aircrafts flown to support Operation ENDURING FREEDOM and Operation IRAQI FREEDOM?

35. A logical group of record is called a/an

36. Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?

37. Which system provides the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft; provide final approach guidance, and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather?

38. Which system focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in near real-time?

39. What function provides the Department of Defense (DOD) with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via personal computers (PC), personal digital assistants (PDAs), land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and/or giant voice systems in realtime?

40. Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?

41. Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?

42. Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?

43. Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

44. Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?

45. An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a/an

46. The primary purpose for maintaining records is to ensure

47. Which publication type are informational publications which are "how to" documents?

48. Which system of interconnected computer networks is used by the United States Department of Defense and the United States Department of State?

49. Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?

50. Which organization is responsible for air and space expeditionary force (AEF) sourcing of individual augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater requirements?

51. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

52. Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?

53. Marking the records for filing is considered which step of file management?

54. The 85th Engineering and Installation Squadron (EIS) is assigned to the

55. What places air and space expeditionary force (AEF) forces in a "ready to deploy" state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)?

56. Which theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires equipment modules to be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19-inch rack mounted transit cases, vehicles, or shelterized configurations?

57. In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?

58. Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?

59. Which system capitalizes on the popular commercial direct broadcast satellite technology to provide critical information to the nation's warfighters?

60. What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?

61. Which system asset can be tasked to provide liaison, control tower, Radar Approach Control (RAPCON), precision landing, and mobile Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) services as a standalone unit or in any combination?

62. Which system provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets with minimal or no support?

63. Which command and control structure has network node whose survivability is achieved using nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths?

64. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

65. Under what program does the Department of Defense (DOD) collects, processes, produces, disseminates, and uses information?

66. Which document is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of air andspace expeditionary forces (AEF)?

67. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

68. Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?

69. Which system is a service that broadcasts via communication payloads on military satellites (Ka band) and commercial satellites (Ku Band)?

70. Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?.

71. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?

72. Who has the primary mission of providing the joint force air component commander (JFACC) with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war within the scope and coordination of all land, sea, and air forces?

73. Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief Operations (HUMRO), Non-Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO) and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples of

74. Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment?"

75. Which function has the primary purpose of providing standard force package descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command?

76. AFPD 10-4, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns what requirements with a matching force generation model?

77. Which system is a USAF program supporting Global, Defense Communication System (DCS) HF Entry, Mystic Star, and System of Inter- American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA) missions?