2s071 Volume 2 DLM

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 388
| Attempts: 50
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  • 1/50 Questions

    What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates past recurring demand or reparable generation experience but Air Force stockage policy precluded establishment of a demand-based stock level?

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
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2s071 Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge of mission capable (MICAP) cause and delete codes within the Air Force logistics and supply chain management, focusing on stock levels, base decisions, and replenishment standards. It is crucial for personnel involved in logistics operations.

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates base decision not to stock the item?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. D
    Explanation
    The correct answer for this question is D. The reason for this is that in the context of mission capable (MICAP) cause codes, D indicates that the base has made a decision not to stock the item. This means that the base has determined that it is not necessary or cost-effective to keep the item in stock for mission readiness.

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  • 3. 

    What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates the depth of stock was insufficient to meet MICAP/due-out requirements?

    • F

    • G

    • H

    • J

    Correct Answer
    A. F
    Explanation
    Cause code F indicates that the depth of stock was insufficient to meet MICAP/due-out requirements.

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  • 4. 

    What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates stock replenishment requisition exceeds priority group Uniform Material Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) standards?

    • F

    • G

    • H

    • J

    Correct Answer
    A. H
    Explanation
    Cause code H indicates that the stock replenishment requisition exceeds the priority group Uniform Material Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) standards. This means that the requisition has a higher priority and needs to be fulfilled urgently in order to maintain mission capability.

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  • 5. 

    What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates less-than-full base stock, stock replenishment does not exceed Uniform material Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) time standards by priority groups, and awaiting part (AWP) assets are on order at time of MICAP?

    • X

    • T

    • S

    • R

    Correct Answer
    A. T
    Explanation
    The correct answer is T. The T cause code indicates that there is less-than-full base stock available, stock replenishment does not meet the UMMIPS time standards based on priority groups, and there are assets on order (AWP) at the time of the mission capable (MICAP) situation.

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  • 6. 

    What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates item satisfied through lateral support?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The mission capable (MICAP) delete code "3" indicates that the item has been satisfied through lateral support. This means that the item in question, which may have been needed for a mission, has been provided or replaced by another unit or organization within the same command or branch of the military. This code is used to track and manage the status and availability of critical items necessary for mission readiness.

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  • 7. 

    What mission capable (MICAP) deleted code indicates cannibalization has been used to preclude MICAP occurrence?

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    • 7

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
  • 8. 

    What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates request reported in error?

    • 0

    • 7

    • 8

    • 9

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    The mission capable (MICAP) delete code "9" indicates that the request was reported in error. This means that the request for mission capability was made mistakenly or inaccurately, and it should be deleted or disregarded.

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  • 9. 

    What activity code is used to identify issues processed through the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • X

    • U

    • R

    • J

    Correct Answer
    A. J
    Explanation
    The activity code "J" is used to identify issues processed through the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

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  • 10. 

    What due-out status code on the transaction identification code (TRIC) 1SH describes a release (due-out release)?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    A due-out release is described by a status code of 2 on the transaction identification code (TRIC) 1SH. This means that the release of the due-out item has been authorized and is in progress.

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  • 11. 

    What listing is used to monitor awaiting part (AWP) end items?

    • Q04

    • D19

    • D20

    • D23

    Correct Answer
    A. D19
  • 12. 

    To perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation, what listing is used?

    • Q04

    • D19

    • D20

    • D23

    Correct Answer
    A. D23
    Explanation
    The listing used to perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation is D23.

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  • 13. 

    What Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) detail records can be updated by the transaction identification code (TRIC) "DFM" input?

    • Memo and credit

    • Firm and credit

    • Firm and memo

    • Credit only

    Correct Answer
    A. Firm and memo
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Firm and memo". This means that the transaction identification code (TRIC) "DFM" can be used to update both the firm and memo details in the Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) records. It does not include the credit detail, which means that the credit cannot be updated using this TRIC.

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  • 14. 

    When monitoring awaiting part (AWP) end items, personnel at bases submit requests for repair parts on a fill or back-order basis using the urgency justification code (UJC)

    • "AB" only

    • "AR" only

    • "AA" or "AB"

    • "AR" or "BR"

    Correct Answer
    A. "AR" or "BR"
    Explanation
    Personnel at bases submit requests for repair parts on a fill or back-order basis using the urgency justification code (UJC). The given answer, "AR" or "BR", suggests that either "AR" or "BR" can be used as the UJC when submitting requests for repair parts on a fill or back-order basis. This means that personnel have the option to use either "AR" or "BR" to justify the urgency of their request, indicating that the repair part is needed immediately or that it can be back-ordered if necessary.

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  • 15. 

    When the last awaiting part (AWP) due-out is released or canceled, what Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) status code is assigned as a result of AWP processing?

    • "02P"

    • "03P"

    • "AWP"

    • "FWP"

    Correct Answer
    A. "FWP"
    Explanation
    When the last awaiting part (AWP) due-out is released or canceled, the Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) status code "FWP" is assigned as a result of AWP processing. This status code indicates that the part is due in from maintenance and is awaiting processing.

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  • 16. 

    What required delivery date (RDD) is assigned to output requisition transactions for two-level maintenance (2LM) items?

    • 999

    • 777

    • 256

    • 123

    Correct Answer
    A. 777
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 777. In the context of two-level maintenance (2LM) items, the required delivery date (RDD) refers to the date by which the output requisition transactions for these items need to be delivered. The specific RDD assigned to these transactions is 777.

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  • 17. 

    What are additional warehouses called if they are located within the activities they are supporting?

    • Supply Points

    • Warehouses

    • Storage

    • Vault

    Correct Answer
    A. Supply Points
    Explanation
    Additional warehouses located within the activities they support are called supply points. These supply points are strategically placed to provide efficient and timely access to the goods and materials needed for the activities they support. They act as distribution centers, ensuring that the necessary supplies are readily available and easily accessible to support the operations and processes within their proximity. Supply points play a crucial role in maintaining a smooth and uninterrupted flow of goods and materials within a specific area or region.

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  • 18. 

    Who maintains accountability and control of assets in a supply point?

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)/Mobility Support

    • Material Management Flight

    • LRS/Supply Activity

    • Maintenance officer

    Correct Answer
    A. LRS/Supply Activity
    Explanation
    The LRS/Supply Activity maintains accountability and control of assets in a supply point. This unit is responsible for managing and distributing supplies, ensuring proper inventory control, and tracking the movement of assets. They play a crucial role in maintaining the availability and readiness of supplies for the organization.

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  • 19. 

    What type of war reserve material (WRM) equipment is authorized to support a peacetime function that ceases to exist in wartime, thereby allowing the equipment to satisfy a wartime requirement?

    • WRM

    • Mobility

    • Joint Use

    • Major command (MAJCOM) use

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Use
    Explanation
    Joint Use equipment is authorized to support a peacetime function that ceases to exist in wartime, allowing the equipment to satisfy a wartime requirement. This means that the equipment can be shared and used by multiple entities or organizations during peacetime, but in wartime, when the original function is no longer needed, it can be reallocated and utilized for other purposes to meet the demands of the war effort.

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  • 20. 

    What Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem set supports 150 personnel in the open -the-base force module?

    • B150

    • B-550i

    • B-550f

    • B-IO

    Correct Answer
    A. B150
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B150. The B150 component subsystem set supports 150 personnel in the open-the-base force module.

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  • 21. 

    What Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem is an additive set to the B-550i, which increases support to 1,100 people?

    • B-150

    • B550i

    • B-550f

    • B-IO

    Correct Answer
    A. B-550f
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-550f. The B-550f is a Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem that can be added to the B-550i to increase support for 1,100 people.

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  • 22. 

    How many personnel and fighter squadrons will a Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) Industrial Operations Set support?

    • 3,300 personnel/3 fighter squadrons

    • 3,300 personnel/5 fighter squadrons

    • 550 personnel/3fighter squadrons

    • 550 personnel/5 fighter sqadrons

    Correct Answer
    A. 3,300 personnel/3 fighter squadrons
    Explanation
    The Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) Industrial Operations Set will support 3,300 personnel and 3 fighter squadrons. This means that the BEAR set is designed to accommodate and provide resources for a larger number of personnel and a smaller number of fighter squadrons.

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  • 23. 

    How often is Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) authorization published?

    • Semi-annually

    • Quarterly

    • Monthly

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually
    Explanation
    MRSP authorization is published once a year. This means that the authorization for Mobility Readiness Spares Package is updated and released on an annual basis.

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  • 24. 

    Which Air Force major command headquarters (HQ) office published Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) authorizations?

    • Air Combat Command (HQ ACC)/A4

    • Air Mobility Command (HQ AMC/LGX)

    • United States Air Force (HQ USAF/LGX)

    • Air Force Material Command (HQ AFMC)/A4

    Correct Answer
    A. United States Air Force (HQ USAF/LGX)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is United States Air Force (HQ USAF/LGX). This is because the question is asking which Air Force major command headquarters office published MRSP authorizations. The correct answer is the United States Air Force headquarters, specifically the LGX office. The other options, Air Combat Command (HQ ACC)/A4, Air Mobility Command (HQ AMC/LGX), and Air Force Material Command (HQ AFMC)/A4, are not the correct headquarters offices responsible for publishing MRSP authorizations.

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  • 25. 

    How long is the funded support period for Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) replenishment spares?

    • 30 days

    • 60 days

    • 90 days

    • 120 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days
    Explanation
    The funded support period for Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) replenishment spares is 30 days. This means that the funding for the support of these spares is available for a period of 30 days. After this period, additional funding may be required to continue the support.

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  • 26. 

    Who may elect to store items requiring functional check in the normal Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) locations or in a designated functional check holding area?

    • War Readiness

    • Accountable officer

    • Material Management superintendent

    • Mobility Non Commissioned Officer In Charge (NCOIC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Accountable officer
    Explanation
    The accountable officer may elect to store items requiring functional check in the normal Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) locations or in a designated functional check holding area.

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  • 27. 

    What systems do inventory managers use to formulate Readiness Spares Package (RSP) levels?

    • Personal computer aircraft sustainability module (PC-ASM)

    • Consumable Readiness Spares Packages (CRSP)

    • Mobility Readiness Spares Packages (MRSP)

    • In-place Readiness Spares Packages (IRSP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal computer aircraft sustainability module (PC-ASM)
    Explanation
    Inventory managers use the Personal computer aircraft sustainability module (PC-ASM) to formulate Readiness Spares Package (RSP) levels. This system helps them analyze and determine the necessary inventory levels of spares and consumables required to maintain aircraft readiness. PC-ASM provides data and tools for forecasting demand, monitoring inventory levels, and optimizing the allocation of resources. It allows inventory managers to make informed decisions and ensure that the right spares are available when needed, minimizing downtime and maximizing operational efficiency.

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  • 28. 

    Who has the responsibility for operation of a weapons storage facility?

    • Deployment and Distribution Flight

    • Material Management Flight

    • Squadron Readiness

    • War Readiness

    Correct Answer
    A. Material Management Flight
    Explanation
    The Material Management Flight is responsible for the operation of a weapons storage facility. They are in charge of managing and controlling the inventory of weapons, ensuring proper storage and security measures are in place, and coordinating with other units for the distribution and deployment of weapons as needed. This includes maintaining accurate records, conducting regular inspections, and adhering to all safety protocols and regulations.

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  • 29. 

    Who is responsible for preparing and packaging, inventorying, and maintaining bags?

    • Mobility

    • Readiness

    • War Readiness

    • Security Forces

    Correct Answer
    A. War Readiness
    Explanation
    War Readiness is responsible for preparing and packaging, inventorying, and maintaining bags. This implies that they are in charge of ensuring that all necessary items are properly packed and ready for use during war or combat situations. They also maintain an inventory of these bags to ensure that they are stocked and accounted for.

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  • 30. 

    What personal computer-based program is designed to account for mobility and chemical warfare defense equipment (CWDE)?

    • COMPES

    • DCAPES

    • WSMIS

    • MICAS (mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System)

    Correct Answer
    A. MICAS (mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System)
    Explanation
    MICAS (mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System) is the correct answer because it is a personal computer-based program specifically designed to account for mobility and chemical warfare defense equipment (CWDE). It helps in tracking and managing the inventory of these equipment, ensuring their availability and accountability. COMPES, DCAPES, and WSMIS are not specifically designed for this purpose, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 31. 

    During which phase of the deliberate planning process does the support major command (MAJCOM) theater commander in the area of operation determine the best approach to satisfy the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) tasking?

    • I

    • II

    • IV

    • V

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    In Phase II of the deliberate planning process, the support major command (MAJCOM) theater commander in the area of operation determines the best approach to satisfy the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) tasking. This phase involves conducting a mission analysis, assessing available resources, and developing potential courses of action. It is during this phase that the MAJCOM theater commander evaluates different options and selects the most effective approach to meet the JSCP tasking.

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  • 32. 

    During which phase of the deliberate planning process are support agreements drawn and finalized?

    • I

    • II

    • IV

    • V

    Correct Answer
    A. V
    Explanation
    Support agreements are drawn and finalized during Phase V of the deliberate planning process. This phase is known as the Plan Development phase, where the detailed plans are created, reviewed, and approved. Support agreements are crucial in ensuring that all necessary resources, capabilities, and support from external entities are secured and coordinated effectively. This phase involves finalizing agreements with partner organizations, government agencies, and other stakeholders to ensure a smooth execution of the plan.

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  • 33. 

    As it applies to wartime capability documents, what computer database tells you who, what, where, when and how things need to deploy if the operations plan is implemented?

    • DOC statement

    • LOGMOD

    • TPFDDL

    • OPORD

    Correct Answer
    A. TPFDDL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TPFDDL. TPFDDL stands for Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data List, which is a computer database that provides information about who, what, where, when, and how things need to be deployed if the operations plan is implemented. This database helps in planning and coordinating the movement of forces and resources during wartime.

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  • 34. 

    For wartime capability, a unit that is not combat ready is identified by a

    • C-1 Rating

    • C-2 Rating

    • C-3 Rating

    • C-4 Rating

    Correct Answer
    A. C-4 Rating
    Explanation
    A C-4 rating is used to identify a unit that is not combat ready for wartime capability. This rating indicates that the unit is not fully trained, equipped, or prepared for combat operations. It suggests that the unit may lack the necessary resources, training, or readiness to effectively engage in combat scenarios.

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  • 35. 

    What Department of Defense (DOD) automated reporting system provides National Command Authority (NCA) and Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) with basic unit identity and readiness status?

    • ART

    • SORTS

    • PC-ASM

    • WMP-3 Part 2

    Correct Answer
    A. SORTS
    Explanation
    SORTS stands for Status of Resources and Training System. It is an automated reporting system used by the Department of Defense (DOD) to provide the National Command Authority (NCA) and Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) with basic unit identity and readiness status. This system allows for the tracking and reporting of the readiness of military units, including their resources and training. By using SORTS, the NCA and JCS can have a clear picture of the readiness levels of various military units, which is crucial for effective decision-making and strategic planning.

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  • 36. 

    What allows Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) allocated units the ability to report unit-type code (UTC) level readiness data?

    • ART

    • SORTS

    • PC-ASM

    • WMP-3 Part 2

    Correct Answer
    A. ART
    Explanation
    ART stands for Air Force Reporting Tool. It is a system that allows Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) allocated units to report unit-type code (UTC) level readiness data. This tool enables units to provide accurate and timely information regarding their readiness status, which is crucial for effective planning and deployment of forces. By using ART, units can track their readiness levels and ensure that they are prepared to fulfill their assigned missions.

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  • 37. 

    What type of Adjusted Stock Level is identified by type level flag "E"?

    • Fixed

    • Minimum

    • Maximum

    • Restricted

    Correct Answer
    A. Fixed
    Explanation
    The type of Adjusted Stock Level identified by the type level flag "E" is Fixed.

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  • 38. 

    How often does the readiness base level (RBL) system run at Air Force Material Command (AFMC) to push RBLs to both base and depot?

    • Daily

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semi-annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Quarterly
    Explanation
    The readiness base level (RBL) system at Air Force Material Command (AFMC) runs quarterly to push RBLs to both base and depot. This means that the system is updated and synchronized every three months to ensure that the RBLs are current and accurate. This regular schedule allows for timely adjustments and maintenance of the RBL system to support operational readiness and logistics planning.

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  • 39. 

    Readiness base level (RBL) are forwarded to the base for retail supply system implementation via

    • An electronic Headquarters Air Force Material Command (AFMC) Computed Level Transaction (XCC)

    • An electronic Headquarters AFMC Computed Level Transaction (XCA)

    • Stock Number User Directory (SNUD)

    • Message, mail, or phone call

    Correct Answer
    A. An electronic Headquarters AFMC Computed Level Transaction (XCA)
  • 40. 

    What shipment results from redistribution orders (RDO) and referral orders?

    • Special

    • Directed

    • Automatic

    • Nondirected

    Correct Answer
    A. Directed
    Explanation
    Redistribution orders (RDO) involve the movement of goods from one location to another within the same organization, typically to balance inventory levels. Referral orders, on the other hand, involve the transfer of goods from one organization to another. The term "directed" implies that these shipments are specifically directed or instructed by someone, indicating a deliberate and planned movement of goods. Therefore, the correct answer is "Directed."

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  • 41. 

    What transaction identification code is used to transfer assets to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service?

    • A2x

    • A5J

    • TRM

    • FTR

    Correct Answer
    A. TRM
    Explanation
    The transaction identification code used to transfer assets to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service is TRM.

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  • 42. 

    At leas how often is the Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program (NGV587) run to identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria?

    • Quarterly

    • Semi-annually

    • Once a month

    • Twice a month

    Correct Answer
    A. Twice a month
    Explanation
    The MILSTAMP tracer reconciliation program is run twice a month to identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria. This means that the program is conducted every two weeks to ensure regular monitoring and tracking of shipments.

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  • 43. 

    What Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) Tracer Reconciliation Listing identified delayed or lost requisitions that were previously identified as received by Traffic management Office (TMO); however, not received in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)?

    • Parcel post tracer listing

    • Transportation tracer listing

    • Receipt acknowledged error listing

    • Consolidated shipment error listing

    Correct Answer
    A. Receipt acknowledged error listing
    Explanation
    The Receipt acknowledged error listing is the correct answer because it identifies delayed or lost requisitions that were previously acknowledged as received by the Traffic Management Office (TMO), but were not actually received in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). This listing helps to reconcile any errors in the receipt process and ensure that all requisitions are properly accounted for.

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  • 44. 

    What code identifies equipment items that are accounted for on authorized or in-use details (EAID)?

    • Excess exception

    • Allowance source

    • Shipment exception

    • Equipment management codes (EMC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment management codes (EMC)
    Explanation
    Equipment management codes (EMC) are used to identify equipment items that are accounted for on authorized or in-use details (EAID). These codes help in tracking and managing equipment by providing a unique identifier for each item. By using EMC, organizations can easily keep a record of their equipment and ensure that it is properly accounted for and utilized.

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  • 45. 

    Nonequipment authorization inventory data (EAID) items requests are identified by what expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD)?

    • XD2

    • XB3

    • NF1

    • ND1

    Correct Answer
    A. NF1
    Explanation
    EAID items requests are identified by the ERRCD code, which stands for expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator. The correct answer, NF1, represents a specific ERRCD code that is used to identify these requests. However, without further context or information, it is difficult to provide a more detailed explanation of what the NF1 code specifically represents.

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  • 46. 

    What menu options in the Air Force Equipment management System (AFEMS) (C001) is used to enter equipment allowance change requests electronically?

    • TORC

    • TRAC

    • TACR

    • OLVIMS

    Correct Answer
    A. TACR
    Explanation
    TACR is the menu option in the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) that is used to enter equipment allowance change requests electronically.

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  • 47. 

    Personnel at what Air Force Air Logistics Center (ALC) activity maintains a central file of all weapon items by serial number?

    • OO-ALC

    • SA-ALC

    • OC-ALC

    • WR-ALC

    Correct Answer
    A. WR-ALC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is WR-ALC. WR-ALC stands for Warner Robins Air Logistics Complex, which is an Air Force Air Logistics Center (ALC) activity. This activity is responsible for maintaining a central file of all weapon items by serial number.

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  • 48. 

    Serial numbers for weapon items on hand in the Logistics readiness Squadron (LRS) are maintained ion what type detail?

    • 249

    • 250

    • Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM)

    • Nonequipment authorization inventory data (EAID)

    Correct Answer
    A. 249
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 249. This suggests that the serial numbers for weapon items on hand in the Logistics readiness Squadron (LRS) are maintained in some type of detail, possibly a system or database, identified by the number 249. This detail could be used for tracking and managing the weapons inventory within the squadron.

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  • 49. 

    On what days of the year is the weapons reconciliation scheduled to be performed?

    • 30 March

    • 1 April

    • 30 April

    • 15 Septmeber

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 April
    Explanation
    The weapons reconciliation is scheduled to be performed on 30 April.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 19, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Dmcclelland

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