2s071 Volume 2 Edition 7

88 Questions | Total Attempts: 93

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2s071 Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates the request was a first demand for the item?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 2. 
    Which mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates past recurring demand or reparable generation experience but Air Force stockage policy precluded establishment of a demand-based stock level?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 3. 
    Which mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates that Air Force stockage policy permits a demand-based stock level, but an external decision by HQ AFMC has determined that stocking the item at base should be restricted?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 4. 
    What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates base decision not to stock the item?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 5. 
    Which mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates the number of recoverable items in need of repair is equal to or greater than the authorized stock level?
    • A. 

      F

    • B. 

      G

    • C. 

      H

    • D. 

      J

  • 6. 
    Which mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates stock replenishment requisition exceeds priority group Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) standards?
    • A. 

      F

    • B. 

      G

    • C. 

      H

    • D. 

      J

  • 7. 
    Which mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates less-than-full base stock, stock replenishment does not exceed Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) time standards by priority groups, and awaiting part (AWP) assets are on order at time of MICAP?
    • A. 

      X

    • B. 

      T

    • C. 

      S

    • D. 

      R

  • 8. 
    Which mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates item received from Air Logistics Centers (ALC)?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 9. 
    Which mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates item satisfied through lateral support?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 10. 
    Which mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates request reported in error?
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      9

  • 11. 
    Which transaction identification code (TRIC) notification is used to notify the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) of a change in the due-out status of an item?
    • A. 

      DUO.

    • B. 

      DFM.

    • C. 

      ISU.

    • D. 

      1SH.

  • 12. 
    Which due-out status code on the transaction identification code (TRIC) 1SH describes a cancellation?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 13. 
    Which due-in from maintenance listing is used to monitor awaiting part (AWP) end items?
    • A. 

      Q04.

    • B. 

      D19.

    • C. 

      D20.

    • D. 

      D23.

  • 14. 
    To perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation, what listing is used?
    • A. 

      Q04.

    • B. 

      D19.

    • C. 

      D20.

    • D. 

      D23.

  • 15. 
    Which due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail record can be updated by the transaction identification code (TRIC) "DFM" input?
    • A. 

      Memo and credit.

    • B. 

      Firm and credit.

    • C. 

      Firm and memo.

    • D. 

      Credit only.

  • 16. 
    Failure to process turnaround (TRN) data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made by
    • A. 

      HQ AFMC.

    • B. 

      Cataloging and Standardization Office (CASO).

    • C. 

      Government Services Administration (GSA).

    • D. 

      Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).

  • 17. 
    Which update is prepared and processed by flight service center (FSC) to update demand data on the item record and repair cycle data on the repair cycle record?
    • A. 

      Calibration.

    • B. 

      Turnaround

    • C. 

      Repair cycle.

    • D. 

      Cannibalization.

  • 18. 
    Unserviceable assets are stored in the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) warehouse until when?
    • A. 

      Receipt of AFTO Form 350.

    • B. 

      Receipt of AF Form 1348–1A.

    • C. 

      Receipt of disposition instructions.

    • D. 

      Unserviceable assets are never stored in the LRS warehouse.

  • 19. 
    How is a decision normally made on whether to give a customer a refund for the turn-in of property?
    • A. 

      Automatically by the automated general support operating program (AGSOP).

    • B. 

      Automatically under the Materiel Management System program control.

    • C. 

      Externally by the accountable officer.

    • D. 

      Externally by the flight chief.

  • 20. 
    When monitoring awaiting part (AWP) end items, personnel at bases submit requests for repair parts on a fill or back-order basis using the urgency justification code (UJC)
    • A. 

      AB” only.

    • B. 

      AR” only.

    • C. 

      AA” or “AB.”

    • D. 

      AR” or “BR.”

  • 21. 
    When the last awaiting part (AWP) due-out is released or canceled, what due-in from maintenance (DIFM) status code is assigned as a result of AWP processing
    • A. 

      “02P.”

    • B. 

      03P.”

    • C. 

      AWP.”

    • D. 

      FWP.”

  • 22. 
    Which required delivery date (RDD) is assigned to output requisition transactions for two-level maintenance (2LM) items?
    • A. 

      999

    • B. 

      777

    • C. 

      256

    • D. 

      123

  • 23. 
    What are additional warehouses called if they are located within the activities they are supporting?
    • A. 

      Supply points.

    • B. 

      Warehouse.

    • C. 

      Storage.

    • D. 

      Vault.

  • 24. 
    Who maintains accountability and control of assets in a supply point?
    • A. 

      Logistics readiness squadron (LRS)/quality assurance.

    • B. 

      LRS/materiel management activity.

    • C. 

      AFMC SCM-R quality assurance.

    • D. 

      AFMC SCM-R stock control activity.

  • 25. 
    Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete supply point details?
    • A. 

      MSI.

    • B. 

      ISU.

    • C. 

      FSP.

    • D. 

      DFM.

  • 26. 
    Which activity and organization code is used when loading a supply point detail document number?
    • A. 

      B, 005.

    • B. 

      B, 100.

    • C. 

      S, 005.

    • D. 

      S, 100.

  • 27. 
    What type of war reserve materiel (WRM) equipment is authorized to support a peacetime function that ceases to exist in wartime, thereby allowing the equipment to satisfy a wartime requirement?
    • A. 

      WRM.

    • B. 

      Mobility.

    • C. 

      Joint use.

    • D. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) use.

  • 28. 
    What type of war reserve materiel (WRM) equipment is needed to be moved with a unit or is needed for deployment in an emergency or during wartime?
    • A. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) use.

    • B. 

      Mobility.

    • C. 

      Joint use.

    • D. 

      WRM.

  • 29. 
    Which major command (MAJCOM) is the lead command for Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) systems?
    • A. 

      Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC)/A4.

    • B. 

      Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)/A4.

    • C. 

      Air Mobility Command (AMC)/A4.

    • D. 

      Air Combat Command (ACC)/A4.

  • 30. 
    How many sets comprise the Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystems?
    • A. 

      9

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      6

  • 31. 
    Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem set supports 150 personnel in the open-the-base force module?
    • A. 

      B–150.

    • B. 

      B–550i.

    • C. 

      B–550f.

    • D. 

      B–IO

  • 32. 
    Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem is a stand-alone set that provides a robust camp consisting of billeting, feeding, and hygiene to support 550 personnel?
    • A. 

      B–150.

    • B. 

      B–550i.

    • C. 

      B–550f.

    • D. 

      B–FF.

  • 33. 
    Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem is an additive set to the B–550i, which increases support to 1,100 people?
    • A. 

      B–150.

    • B. 

      B–IF.

    • C. 

      B–550f.

    • D. 

      B–IO

  • 34. 
    This is an air transportable package of readiness spares, repair parts, and related maintenance supplies required to support planned wartime or contingency operations of a weapon system or support system for a specified period of time pending resupply.
    • A. 

      In-place readiness spares packages (IRSP).

    • B. 

      Mobility readiness spares packages (MRSP).

    • C. 

      Consumable readiness spares packages (CRSP).

    • D. 

      Flexible consumable readiness spares packages (FCRSP).

  • 35. 
    How often is mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) authorization published?
    • A. 

      Semi-annually

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 36. 
    Which Air Force headquarters (HQ) office published mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) authorizations?
    • A. 

      Air Combat Command (HQ ACC)/A4.

    • B. 

      Air Mobility Command (HQ AMC/LGX).

    • C. 

      United States Air Force (HQ USAF/LGX).

    • D. 

      Air Force Materiel Command (HQ AFMC)/A4.

  • 37. 
    Who will authorize readiness spares package (RSP) for allocation to specific units/bases?
    • A. 

      LRS.

    • B. 

      SOS.

    • C. 

      MAJCOM.

    • D. 

      AFMC.

  • 38. 
    Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load the serial number/control record for readiness spares package (RSP) authorizations?
    • A. 

      ISU.

    • B. 

      MSI.

    • C. 

      1EB.

    • D. 

      1UB.

  • 39. 
    Which program is an automated way of processing readiness spares package (RSP) authorizations?
    • A. 

      S05

    • B. 

      S07.

    • C. 

      SIFS.

    • D. 

      DIREP.

  • 40. 
    How are readiness spares package (RSP) data inputted authorization records received from MAJCOM?
    • A. 

      FKD.

    • B. 

      XSF.

    • C. 

      XVF.

    • D. 

      1EB.

  • 41. 
    Which program is used to perform the readiness spares package (RSP) reconciliation?
    • A. 

      Q05.

    • B. 

      S05.

    • C. 

      R07.

    • D. 

      S07.

  • 42. 
    Which deployed flag reflects that mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are deployed?
    • A. 

      D

    • B. 

      F

    • C. 

      M

    • D. 

      T

  • 43. 
    The decision to transfer mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) rests with the host and the
    • A. 

      Losing accountable officer.

    • B. 

      Losing MAJCOM.

    • C. 

      Gaining MAJCOM.

    • D. 

      Gaining accountable officer.

  • 44. 
    What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to transfer between mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) and war reserve materiel (WRM) detail records?
    • A. 

      DOR.

    • B. 

      ISU.

    • C. 

      1EB.

    • D. 

      1KT.

  • 45. 
    What action code is used when transferring multiple quantities from a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) or war reserve materiel (WRM) detail record?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      S

    • D. 

      M

  • 46. 
    When processing transaction identification code (TRIC) 1KT, what occurs if the gaining detail record asset and the action quantity exceed the authorized quantity?
    • A. 

      Reject.

    • B. 

      Back order.

    • C. 

      Management notice.

    • D. 

      Record reversal and correction actions.

  • 47. 
    Which program involves shelf life controls and other inspection functions for readiness spares package (RSP) assets?
    • A. 

      TAV.

    • B. 

      SIFS.

    • C. 

      COSIS.

    • D. 

      DIREPS.

  • 48. 
    Which system do inventory managers use to formulate readiness spares package (RSP) levels?
    • A. 

      Personal computer aircraft sustainability module (PC–ASM).

    • B. 

      Consumable readiness spares packages (CRSP).

    • C. 

      Mobility readiness spares packages (MRSP).

    • D. 

      In-place readiness spares packages (IRSP).

  • 49. 
    Who has the responsibility for operation of a weapons storage facility when mobilization is authorized?
    • A. 

      Deployment and distribution activity.

    • B. 

      Materiel management activity.

    • C. 

      Squadron readiness.

    • D. 

      War readiness.

  • 50. 
    Which product is used to manage and account for small arms and light weapons (SA/LW)?
    • A. 

      Weapons registry.

    • B. 

      Organizational visibility list.

    • C. 

      Organizational equipment listing.

    • D. 

      Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing.

  • 51. 
    Who can direct small arms and light weapon (SA/LW) transfers from one accountable activity to another within or outside the Air Force?
    • A. 

      Defense Supply Center Columbus (DSCC).

    • B. 

      Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).

    • C. 

      Air Force Materiel Command Small Arms and Light Weight (AFMC SA/LW) function.

    • D. 

      Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Equipment Activity.

  • 52. 
    How often are small arms and light weapons (SA/LW) inventoried?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Annually.

    • D. 

      Semi-annually.

  • 53. 
    How many workdays does the custodian have to complete a small arms and light weapons (SA/LW) inventory?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      25

    • D. 

      30

  • 54. 
    Who is responsible for the storage, inventory, inspection and issue of mobility bags, Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear and High-Yield Explosive (CBRNE) equipment and Individual Body Armor?
    • A. 

      Security forces.

    • B. 

      Central storage element.

    • C. 

      Individual protection equipment (IPE) element.

    • D. 

      Individual equipment element.

  • 55. 
    Identify the first step individual protective equipment (IPE) personnel will take prior to mobility assets being issued to a customer.
    • A. 

      Receive assets into Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System (MICAS) web.

    • B. 

      Flag assets as deployed in MICAS web

    • C. 

      Run a report in MICAS web to create a checklist

    • D. 

      Coordinate with Equipment Accountability Office.

  • 56. 
    What information needs continuous monitoring in the individual protection equipment (IPE) element?
    • A. 

      Expiration dates.

    • B. 

      Contract number.

    • C. 

      Lot number.

    • D. 

      Issues.

  • 57. 
    Which capability document plans for the conduct of military operations?
    • A. 

      OPLAN.

    • B. 

      OPORD.

    • C. 

      FRAGORD.

    • D. 

      DOC statement.

  • 58. 
    During which phase of the deliberate planning process does the supported major command (MAJCOM) theater commander in the area of operation determine the best approach to satisfy the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) tasking?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II.

    • C. 

      IV

    • D. 

      V

  • 59. 
    During which phase of the deliberate planning process are support agreements drawn and finalized?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      IV

    • D. 

      V

  • 60. 
    What five-character alphanumeric code uniquely identifies an armed forces unit?
    • A. 

      DOC statement.

    • B. 

      OPLAN

    • C. 

      TPFDD.

    • D. 

      UTC.

  • 61. 
    What Department of Defense (DOD) automated reporting system provides National Command Authority (NCA) and Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) with basic unit identity and readiness status?
    • A. 

      ART.

    • B. 

      SORTS.

    • C. 

      PC–ASM

    • D. 

      WMP–3 Part 2.

  • 62. 
    Which wartime capability system provides Headquarters United States Air Force (USAF), Air Force component commanders, major commands (MAJCOM), and the Directorate of Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations readiness information to employ, manage, and sustain Expeditionary Air Force Operations?
    • A. 

      ART.

    • B. 

      SORTS.

    • C. 

      PC–ASM

    • D. 

      WMP–3 Part 2.

  • 63. 
    What allows Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) allocated units the ability to report unit-type code (UTC) level readiness data?
    • A. 

      ART.

    • B. 

      SORTS.

    • C. 

      PC–ASM.

    • D. 

      WMP–3 Part 2.

  • 64. 
    What type of adjusted stock level (ASL) is identified by type level flag "E"?
    • A. 

      Fixed.

    • B. 

      Minimum.

    • C. 

      Maximum.

    • D. 

      Restricted.

  • 65. 
    What is an Air Force form 1996 used for?
    • A. 

      Establish a bench stock.

    • B. 

      Report excess bench stock.

    • C. 

      Request adjusted stock level (ASL).

    • D. 

      Terminate invalid ASL.

  • 66. 
    What input changes an adjusted stock level (ASL) detail record from memo (confirmed) to firm (confirmed)?
    • A. 

      1F3A.

    • B. 

      1F3C.

    • C. 

      1F3D

    • D. 

      1F3L.

  • 67. 
    Which process is designed to alter base demand levels for additions or losses of a number of weapon system end items at a base?
    • A. 

      Mission change data.

    • B. 

      Readiness based level (RBL).

    • C. 

      Proactive demand leveling (PDL).

    • D. 

      Customer oriented leveling technique (COLT).

  • 68. 
    What is designed to set base stock levels on DLA-managed items in a way that minimizes base wide unit customer wait time per dollar spent?
    • A. 

      Mission change data.

    • B. 

      Readiness based level (RBL).

    • C. 

      Proactive demand leveling (PDL).

    • D. 

      Customer oriented leveling technique (COLT).

  • 69. 
    Which system is designed to allocate Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) computed worldwide peacetime requirements among Air Force bases and depots to minimize worldwide time-weighted expected backorders?
    • A. 

      Mission change data.

    • B. 

      Readiness based level (RBL).

    • C. 

      Proactive demand leveling (PDL).

    • D. 

      Customer oriented leveling technique (COLT).

  • 70. 
    How often does the readiness base level (RBL) system run at Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) to push RBLs to both base and depot?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Semi-annually.

  • 71. 
    Readiness base levels (RBL) are forwarded to the base for retail supply system implementation via
    • A. 

      Referral orders.

    • B. 

      An electronic headquarters AFMC Computed Level Transaction (XCA).

    • C. 

      Stock number user directory (SNUD).

    • D. 

      Message, mail, or phone call.

  • 72. 
    Which shipment results from redistribution orders (RDO) and referral orders?
    • A. 

      Special.

    • B. 

      Directed.

    • C. 

      Automatic.

    • D. 

      Non-directed.

  • 73. 
    What is the first step in documenting a base’s entitlement to reimbursement for referral order shipments?
    • A. 

      Shipped not credited (SNC), distribution code 2.

    • B. 

      Shipped not received (SNR), distribution code 2.

    • C. 

      Billed not received (BNR), distribution code 4.

    • D. 

      Received not billed (RNB), distribution code 4.

  • 74. 
    Customer due-outs with urgency of need designator (UND) C will be validated using what listing?
    • A. 

      D18.

    • B. 

      M30.

    • C. 

      Q12.

    • D. 

      R01.

  • 75. 
    Which listing provides a user to selectively monitor priority requirements?
    • A. 

      D18.

    • B. 

      M30.

    • C. 

      Q12.

    • D. 

      R01.

  • 76. 
    Which code identifies equipment items that are accounted for on authorized or in-use details (EAID)?
    • A. 

      Excess exception.

    • B. 

      Allowance source.

    • C. 

      Shipment exception.

    • D. 

      Equipment management codes (EMC).

  • 77. 
    Which authorization identifies items and maximum quantities required to perform assigned peacetime and wartime missions, functions and duties of Air Force organizations and individual specialists?
    • A. 

      Equipment management code.

    • B. 

      Allowance standard.

    • C. 

      Allowance index.

    • D. 

      Basis of issue.

  • 78. 
    Which expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) identifies a special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) asset?
    • A. 

      XD/XF.

    • B. 

      ND/NF.

    • C. 

      XB/XF

    • D. 

      XD/XB.

  • 79. 
    How often is a special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) account inventoried and authorizations validated?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semi-annually.

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 80. 
    Which Air Force form is used to request a change to an allowance standards (AS) or an equipment item whose basis of issue (BOI) requires approval above wing or base level?
    • A. 

      2005.

    • B. 

      2009.

    • C. 

      600.

    • D. 

      601.

  • 81. 
    Which menu option in the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) (C001) is used to enter equipment allowance change requests electronically?
    • A. 

      TORC.

    • B. 

      TRAC.

    • C. 

      TACR.

    • D. 

      OLVIMS.

  • 82. 
    Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to transfer equipment from one custodian account to another?
    • A. 

      FIC.

    • B. 

      FET.

    • C. 

      FEX.

    • D. 

      FIS.

  • 83. 
    Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to transfer equipment from one base account to another?
    • A. 

      SHP.

    • B. 

      1ET.

    • C. 

      FET.

    • D. 

      TRM.

  • 84. 
    Which document updates the central weapon file when transactions are processed at base level to increase or decrease the base asset position?
    • A. 

      Asset change notice.

    • B. 

      Daily change report.

    • C. 

      Weapon control record.

    • D. 

      Document control record.

  • 85. 
    Serial numbers for weapon items on hand in Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) are maintained on what type detail?
    • A. 

      249.

    • B. 

      250.

    • C. 

      Due-in from maintenance (DIFM).

    • D. 

      Nonequipment authorization inventory data (EAID).

  • 86. 
    On what day of the year is the weapons reconciliation scheduled to be performed?
    • A. 

      30 March.

    • B. 

      1 April.

    • C. 

      30 April.

    • D. 

      15 September.

  • 87. 
    What output document reflects the serial numbers for each weapon and communication security (COMSEC) transaction?
    • A. 

      D20 report.

    • B. 

      D24 report.

    • C. 

      F114 management notice.

    • D. 

      F117 management notice.

  • 88. 
    What does Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) (ACOM screen) send to a base that fails to process the communication security (COMSEC) reconciliation as required?
    • A. 

      XHA COMSEC variance record.

    • B. 

      COMSEC error assessment notification.

    • C. 

      XHA, COMSEC variance record with COMSEC error assessment code “2B.”

    • D. 

      XHB, COMSEC control reject report with COMSEC error notification code “7B.”