CDC 2s071 Volume 2 -- 2015

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  • 1/50 Questions

    (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates past recurring demand or reparable generation experience but Air Force stockage policy precluded establishment of a demand-based stock level?

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled 'CDC 2S071 Volume 2 -- 2015', assesses knowledge on MICAP cause and delete codes in Air Force logistics. It covers topics such as stock replenishment standards, base stock decisions, and lateral support, essential for efficient inventory management.

CDC 2s071 Volume 2 -- 2015 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates base decision not to stock the item?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. D
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. The mission capable (MICAP) cause code D indicates that the base has made a decision not to stock the item. This means that the item is not considered necessary or essential for the mission and therefore will not be kept in stock.

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  • 3. 

    (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates the depth of stock was insufficient to meet MICAP/due-out requirements?

    • F

    • G

    • H

    • J

    Correct Answer
    A. F
    Explanation
    The correct answer is F. In the context of mission capable (MICAP) cause codes, F indicates that the depth of stock was insufficient to meet MICAP/due-out requirements. This means that there was not enough stock available to fulfill the necessary requirements for a mission capable status.

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  • 4. 

    (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates stock replenishment requisition exceeds priority group Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) standards?

    • F

    • G

    • H

    • J

    Correct Answer
    A. H
    Explanation
    Cause code H indicates that the stock replenishment requisition exceeds priority group UMMIPS standards. This means that the requisition has a higher priority and needs to be fulfilled urgently to ensure that the stock is replenished in a timely manner.

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  • 5. 

    (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates less-than-full base stock, stock replenishment does not exceed Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) time standards by priority groups, and awaiting part (AWP) assets are on order at time of MICAP?

    • X

    • T

    • S

    • R

    Correct Answer
    A. T
    Explanation
    The correct answer is T. The T cause code indicates that there is less-than-full base stock, stock replenishment does not meet UMMIPS time standards by priority groups, and there are awaiting part (AWP) assets on order at the time of the MICAP. This means that there is a shortage of stock and the required parts are not available in sufficient quantities to meet the demand.

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  • 6. 

    (202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates item satisfied through lateral support?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3. This delete code indicates that the item has been satisfied through lateral support. This means that the item was not available within the unit or organization, but was obtained from another unit or organization to fulfill the mission requirements.

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  • 7. 

    (202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates cannibalization has been used to preclude MICAP occurrence?

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    • 7

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
  • 8. 

    (202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates request reported in error?

    • 0

    • 7

    • 8

    • 9

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    The mission capable (MICAP) delete code "9" indicates that the request reported was made in error. This means that the request for mission capability was mistakenly reported and needs to be deleted or removed from the system.

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  • 9. 

    (203) What activity code is used to identify issues processed through the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • X

    • U

    • R

    • J

    Correct Answer
    A. J
    Explanation
    The activity code "J" is used to identify issues processed through the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS). IMDS is a system used to track and manage maintenance activities, and the activity code "J" likely corresponds to a specific type of issue or maintenance task within the system.

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  • 10. 

    (203) What due-out status code on the transaction identification code (TRIC) 1SH describes a release (due-out release)?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    A due-out status code of 2 on the transaction identification code (TRIC) 1SH indicates a release or a due-out release. This means that the item or material that was previously due-out is now being released and made available. This status code signifies that the item is no longer on hold or pending, and can now be accessed or utilized.

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  • 11. 

    (204) What listing is used to monitor awaiting part (AWP) end items?

    • Q04

    • D19

    • D20

    • D23

    Correct Answer
    A. D19
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D19. This listing is used to monitor awaiting part (AWP) end items.

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  • 12. 

    (204) To perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation, what listing is used?

    • Q04

    • D19

    • D20

    • D23

    Correct Answer
    A. D23
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D23. This listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation.

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  • 13. 

    (204) What Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) detail records can be updated by the transaction identification code (TRIC) “DFM” input?

    • Memo and credit.

    • Firm and credit.

    • Firm and memo.

    • Credit only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Firm and memo.
    Explanation
    The transaction identification code (TRIC) "DFM" allows for the update of both the firm and memo Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) detail records. This means that when the TRIC "DFM" is input, both the firm and memo DIFM records can be modified or updated. The other options, such as credit only or firm and credit, do not include the ability to update the memo DIFM record. Therefore, the correct answer is firm and memo.

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  • 14. 

    (205) When monitoring awaiting part (AWP) end items, personnel at bases submit requests for repair parts on a fill or back-order basis using the urgency justification code (UJC)

    • “AB” only.

    • “AR” only.

    • “AA” or “AB.”

    • “AR” or “BR.”

    Correct Answer
    A. “AR” or “BR.”
    Explanation
    When monitoring awaiting part (AWP) end items, personnel at bases can submit requests for repair parts using the urgency justification code (UJC) "AR" or "BR." This means that they can request repair parts either when they are urgently needed (UJC "AR") or when they are needed for backup purposes (UJC "BR"). This allows personnel to ensure that they have the necessary repair parts available either for immediate repairs or as a backup in case of future failures.

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  • 15. 

    (205) When the last awaiting part (AWP) due-out is released or canceled, what Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) status code is assigned as a result of AWP processing?

    • “02P.”

    • “03P.”

    • “AWP.”

    • “FWP.”

    Correct Answer
    A. “FWP.”
    Explanation
    When the last awaiting part (AWP) due-out is released or canceled, the Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) status code assigned as a result of AWP processing is "FWP."

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  • 16. 

    (206) What required delivery date (RDD) is assigned to output requisition transactions for two level maintenance (2LM) items?

    • 999

    • 777

    • 256

    • 123

    Correct Answer
    A. 777
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 777. This is the required delivery date (RDD) assigned to output requisition transactions for two level maintenance (2LM) items. The RDD is the date by which the items need to be delivered or made available for use. In this case, the RDD for 2LM items is 777.

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  • 17. 

    (206) What are additional warehouses called if they are located within the activities they are supporting?

    • Supply Points.

    • Warehouse.

    • Storage.

    • Vault.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supply Points.
    Explanation
    Additional warehouses that are located within the activities they are supporting are called supply points. These supply points serve as distribution centers or storage facilities that are strategically placed near the areas where the goods or materials are needed. By having supply points within the activities they support, it allows for more efficient and streamlined supply chain operations, reducing transportation costs and lead times.

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  • 18. 

    (206) Who maintains accountability and control of assets in a supply point?

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)/Mobility Support.

    • Materiel Management Flight.

    • LRS/Supply Activity.

    • Maintenance officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. LRS/Supply Activity.
    Explanation
    The LRS/Supply Activity maintains accountability and control of assets in a supply point. This means that they are responsible for keeping track of all the assets, ensuring they are properly stored and accounted for, and managing the overall inventory. This is an important role as it helps to ensure that the supply point is well-maintained and that assets are readily available when needed. The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)/Mobility Support and Materiel Management Flight may have related responsibilities, but the LRS/Supply Activity specifically focuses on accountability and control of assets in the supply point. The maintenance officer may have a role in maintaining the assets, but not specifically in maintaining accountability and control.

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  • 19. 

    (207) What type of war reserve materiel (WRM) equipment is authorized to support a peacetime function that ceases to exist in wartime, thereby allowing the equipment to satisfy a wartime requirement?

    • WRM.

    • Mobility

    • Joint use.

    • Major command (MAJCOM) use.

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint use.
    Explanation
    Joint use is the correct answer because it refers to war reserve materiel (WRM) equipment that is authorized to support a peacetime function that ceases to exist in wartime. This means that the equipment can be used by multiple entities or organizations during peacetime, but when wartime comes, the function it was originally intended for is no longer relevant. Joint use allows the equipment to be repurposed or redistributed to fulfill a different wartime requirement.

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  • 20. 

    (208) What Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem set supports 150 personnel in the open-the-base force module?

    • B-150.

    • B-550i.

    • B-550f.

    • B-IO.

    Correct Answer
    A. B-150.
    Explanation
    The Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem set that supports 150 personnel in the open-the-base force module is B-150. This means that the B-150 provides the necessary resources and equipment to support the needs of 150 personnel in establishing and operating an airfield in a deployed location. The other options, B-550i, B-550f, and B-IO, are not specified as being able to support 150 personnel or related to the BEAR subsystem set.

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  • 21. 

    (208) What Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem is an additive set to the B-550i, which increases support to 1,100 people?

    • B-150.

    • B-550i.

    • B-550f.

    • B-IO.

    Correct Answer
    A. B-550f.
    Explanation
    The B-550f is the correct answer because it is a Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem that can be added to the B-550i to increase support to 1,100 people. This suggests that the B-550f provides additional resources or capabilities that are necessary to accommodate a larger number of people.

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  • 22. 

    (208) How many personnel and fighter squadrons will a Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) Industrial Operations Set support?

    • 3,300 personnel/3 fighter squadrons

    • 3,300 personnel/5 fighter squadrons

    • 550 personnel/3 fighter squadrons

    • 550 personnel/5 fighter squadrons

    Correct Answer
    A. 3,300 personnel/3 fighter squadrons
    Explanation
    The BEAR Industrial Operations Set is designed to support 3,300 personnel and 3 fighter squadrons. This means that it can accommodate a large number of personnel and provide resources and facilities for the operations of three fighter squadrons. The other options either have a smaller number of personnel or a larger number of fighter squadrons, which would not be suitable for the capabilities of the BEAR Industrial Operations Set.

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  • 23. 

    (209) How often is Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) authorization published?

    • Semi-annually.

    • Quarterly.

    • Monthly.

    • Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Annually." This means that the Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) authorization is published once a year.

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  • 24. 

    (209) Which Air Force major command headquarters (HQ) office published Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) authorizations?

    • Air Combat Command (HQ ACC)/A4.

    • Air Mobility Command (HQ AMC/LGX).

    • United States Air Force (HQ USAF/LGX).

    • Air Force Materiel Command (HQ AFMC)/A4

    Correct Answer
    A. United States Air Force (HQ USAF/LGX).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is United States Air Force (HQ USAF/LGX). This is because the question is asking which Air Force major command headquarters office published Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) authorizations. The United States Air Force (HQ USAF/LGX) is the highest level of command in the Air Force and is responsible for overall policy and guidance. Therefore, it would be the office that publishes MRSP authorizations.

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  • 25. 

    (209) How long is the funded support period for Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) replenishment spares?

    • 30 days

    • 60 days.

    • 90 days

    • 120 days.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days
    Explanation
    The funded support period for Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) replenishment spares is 30 days. This means that the funding provided for the spares will cover a period of 30 days. After this period, additional funding would be required to continue supporting the spares.

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  • 26. 

    (210) What system do inventory managers use to formulate Readiness Spares Package (RSP)levels?

    • Personal computer aircraft sustainability module (PC-ASM).

    • Consumable Readiness Spares Packages (CRSP).

    • Mobility Readiness Spares Packages (MRSP).

    • In-place Readiness Spares Packages (IRSP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal computer aircraft sustainability module (PC-ASM).
    Explanation
    Inventory managers use the Personal computer aircraft sustainability module (PC-ASM) system to formulate Readiness Spares Package (RSP) levels. This system allows them to track and manage inventory levels for aircraft sustainability, ensuring that the necessary spare parts and supplies are available when needed. The PC-ASM system helps in optimizing inventory levels, reducing costs, and improving overall readiness and efficiency in maintaining aircraft operations.

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  • 27. 

    (211) Who has the responsibility for operation of a weapons storage facility?

    • Deployment and Distribution Flight.

    • Materiel Management Flight

    • Squadron Readiness

    • War Readiness

    Correct Answer
    A. Materiel Management Flight
    Explanation
    The Materiel Management Flight is responsible for the operation of a weapons storage facility. This flight is responsible for managing and controlling the inventory of materials and equipment, including weapons, ensuring their proper storage, maintenance, and distribution. They are tasked with ensuring the safe and secure operation of the weapons storage facility, including implementing security protocols and procedures to prevent unauthorized access or loss of weapons.

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  • 28. 

    (212) Who is responsible for preparing and packaging, inventorying, and maintaining bags?

    • Mobility.

    • Readiness

    • War Readiness.

    • Security Forces

    Correct Answer
    A. War Readiness.
    Explanation
    War Readiness is responsible for preparing and packaging, inventorying, and maintaining bags. This implies that War Readiness is in charge of ensuring that bags are properly prepared and packaged, keeping track of inventory, and ensuring bags are well-maintained. The other options, Mobility, Readiness, and Security Forces, do not specifically mention these responsibilities and therefore are not the correct answer.

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  • 29. 

    (212) What personal computer-based program is designed to account for mobility and chemical warfare defense equipment (CWDE)?

    • COMPES

    • DCAPES.

    • WSMIS.

    • MICAS (Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System).

    Correct Answer
    A. MICAS (Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System).
    Explanation
    MICAS (Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System) is a personal computer-based program that is specifically designed to account for mobility and chemical warfare defense equipment (CWDE). It allows for the tracking and management of these specialized equipment, ensuring their availability and readiness for deployment. COMPES, DCAPES, and WSMIS are not specifically designed for this purpose, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 30. 

    (210) Who may elect to store items requiring functional check in the normal Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) locations or in a designated functional check holding area?

    • War Readiness.

    • Accountable officer.

    • Materiel Management superintendent

    • Mobility Non Commissioned Officer In Charge (NCOIC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Accountable officer.
    Explanation
    The accountable officer may elect to store items requiring functional check in either the normal Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) locations or in a designated functional check holding area. The accountable officer is responsible for the proper management and oversight of the items, ensuring their accountability and readiness for use. This decision may be based on factors such as the availability of space, the urgency of the functional check, or other logistical considerations.

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  • 31. 

    (213) During which phase of the deliberate planning process does the supported major command (MAJCOM) theater commander in the area of operation determine the best approach to satisfy the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) tasking?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    During Phase II of the deliberate planning process, the supported major command (MAJCOM) theater commander in the area of operation determines the best approach to satisfy the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) tasking. This phase involves conducting a mission analysis, which includes evaluating the mission, identifying potential courses of action, and developing a recommended course of action. The commander considers various factors such as available resources, capabilities, and the desired end state to determine the most effective approach to fulfill the JSCP tasking.

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  • 32. 

    (213) During which phase of the deliberate planning process are support agreements drawn and finalized?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. IV
    Explanation
    Support agreements are drawn and finalized during Phase IV of the deliberate planning process. This phase involves the development of detailed plans and orders, including support agreements with other organizations or entities. This ensures that all necessary support and resources are secured and coordinated for the successful execution of the plan.

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  • 33. 

    (213) As it applies to wartime capability documents, what computer database tells you who, what, where, when, and how things need to deploy if the operations plan is implemented? 

    • DOC statement.

    • LOGMOD.

    • TPFDDL

    • OPORD.

    Correct Answer
    A. TPFDDL
    Explanation
    TPFDDL stands for Time Phased Force and Deployment Data Listing. In wartime capability documents, TPFDDL is a computer database that provides information on who, what, where, when, and how things need to deploy if the operations plan is implemented. It is a crucial tool for planning and coordinating the deployment of forces during military operations.

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  • 34. 

    (213) For wartime capability, a unit that is not combat ready is identified by a

    • C-1 Rating

    • C-2 Rating

    • C-3 Rating

    • C-4 Rating

    Correct Answer
    A. C-4 Rating
    Explanation
    A C-4 rating is used to identify a unit that is not combat ready for wartime capability.

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  • 35. 

    (214) What Department of Defense (DOD) automated reporting system provides National Command Authority (NCA) and Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) with basic unit identity and readiness status?

    • ART.

    • SORTS

    • PC-ASM.

    • WMP-3 Part 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. SORTS
    Explanation
    SORTS stands for Status of Resources and Training System, which is a Department of Defense (DOD) automated reporting system. It provides the National Command Authority (NCA) and Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) with basic unit identity and readiness status. This system allows the NCA and JCS to have a comprehensive understanding of the readiness and capabilities of military units, which is crucial for effective decision-making and strategic planning.

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  • 36. 

    (214) What allows Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) allocated units the ability to report unit-type code (UTC) level readiness data?

    • ART

    • SORTS

    • PC-ASM

    • WMP-3 Part 2

    Correct Answer
    A. ART
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ART. ART stands for Air Force Readiness Test system, which allows Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) allocated units to report unit-type code (UTC) level readiness data. This system helps in assessing the readiness of units and enables them to provide accurate and timely information about their capabilities and readiness levels.

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  • 37. 

    (215) What type of Adjusted Stock Level is identified by type level flag “E”?

    • Fixed.

    • Minimum

    • Maximum.

    • Restricted.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fixed.
    Explanation
    The type level flag "E" indicates a Fixed Adjusted Stock Level. This means that the stock level is set at a specific quantity and does not change, regardless of demand or other factors. This type of stock level is often used for items that have a consistent and predictable demand pattern, where it is important to maintain a certain quantity of stock at all times.

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  • 38. 

    (216) How often does the readiness base level (RBL) system run at Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) to push RBLs to both base and depot?

    • Daily

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    • Semi-annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Quarterly.
    Explanation
    The readiness base level (RBL) system at Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) runs quarterly to push RBLs to both base and depot. This means that the system is updated and synchronized every three months to ensure that the readiness levels are accurately reflected and distributed to both the base and depot.

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  • 39. 

    (216) Readiness base levels (RBL) are forwarded to the base for retail supply system implementation via

    • An electronic Headquarters Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) Computed Level Transaction (XCC).

    • An electronic Headquarters AFMC Computed Level Transaction (XCA).

    • Stock Number User Directory (SNUD).

    • Message, mail, or phone call

    Correct Answer
    A. An electronic Headquarters AFMC Computed Level Transaction (XCA).
  • 40. 

    (217) What shipment results from redistribution orders (RDO) and referral orders?

    • Special

    • Directed.

    • Automatic.

    • Nondirected.

    Correct Answer
    A. Directed.
    Explanation
    Redistribution orders (RDO) and referral orders both involve directing shipments to specific locations or recipients. RDO refers to the process of redistributing inventory from one location to another based on demand, while referral orders are requests to send products to a specific customer or location. Therefore, the correct answer is "Directed" as both RDO and referral orders require specific directions for the shipment.

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  • 41. 

    (217) What transaction identification code is used to transfer assets to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service?

    • A2x

    • A5J

    • TRM

    • FTR

    Correct Answer
    A. TRM
    Explanation
    The transaction identification code used to transfer assets to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service is TRM.

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  • 42. 

    (217) At least how often is the Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program (NGV597) run to identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria?

    • Quarterly

    • Semi-annually

    • Once a month

    • Twice a month

    Correct Answer
    A. Twice a month
    Explanation
    The Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program (NGV597) is run twice a month to identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria. This means that the program is conducted every two weeks to ensure regular monitoring and identification of shipments that require tracing.

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  • 43. 

    (217) What Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) Tracer Reconciliation Listing identifies delayed or lost requisitions that were previously identified as received by Traffic Management Office (TMO); however, not received in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)?

    • Parcel post tracer listing

    • Transportation tracer listing.

    • Receipt acknowledged error listing

    • Consolidated shipment error listing

    Correct Answer
    A. Receipt acknowledged error listing
    Explanation
    The Receipt acknowledged error listing identifies delayed or lost requisitions that were previously marked as received by the Traffic Management Office (TMO) but were not actually received by the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). This listing helps to identify any errors or discrepancies in the receipt and movement of shipments, allowing for timely resolution and ensuring that all requisitions are properly accounted for.

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  • 44. 

    (218) What code identifies equipment items that are accounted for on authorized or in-use details (EAID)?

    • Excess exception

    • Allowance source

    • Shipment exception

    • Equipment management codes (EMC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment management codes (EMC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Equipment management codes (EMC). Equipment management codes are used to identify equipment items that are accounted for on authorized or in-use details. These codes help in tracking and managing equipment effectively. Excess exception, allowance source, and shipment exception are not relevant to identifying equipment items on authorized or in-use details.

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  • 45. 

    (219) Nonequipment authorization inventory data (EAID) item requests are identified by what expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD)?

    • XD2

    • XB3

    • NF1.

    • ND1

    Correct Answer
    A. NF1.
    Explanation
    EAID item requests are identified by an expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD). The correct answer, NF1, indicates that the item is nonexpendable, non-recoverable, non-reparable, and has a cost designator of 1.

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  • 46. 

    (219) What menu option in the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) (C001) is used to enter equipment allowance change requests electronically?

    • TORC

    • TRAC.

    • TACR

    • OLVIMS

    Correct Answer
    A. TACR
    Explanation
    TACR is the menu option in the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) that is used to enter equipment allowance change requests electronically.

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  • 47. 

    (220) Personnel at what Air Force Air Logistics Center (ALC) activity maintains a central file of all weapon items by serial number?

    • OO-ALC

    • SA-ALC

    • OC-ALC

    • WR-ALC

    Correct Answer
    A. WR-ALC
    Explanation
    WR-ALC stands for Warner Robins Air Logistics Center. This Air Force Air Logistics Center activity is responsible for maintaining a central file of all weapon items by serial number. They keep track of the serial numbers of all weapons and ensure that the information is organized and easily accessible.

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  • 48. 

    (220) Serial numbers for weapon items on hand in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) are maintained on what type detail?

    • 249

    • 250

    • Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM).

    • Nonequipment authorization inventory data (EAID).

    Correct Answer
    A. 249
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 249. This is because serial numbers for weapon items on hand in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) are maintained on a 249 detail.

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  • 49. 

    (220) On what day of the year is the weapons reconciliation scheduled to be performed?

    • 30 March.

    • 1 April

    • 30 April.

    • 15 September

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 April.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30 April. This can be inferred from the information given in the question, which states that the weapons reconciliation is scheduled to be performed on a specific day of the year. Out of the options provided, 30 April is the only date mentioned. Therefore, it can be concluded that the weapons reconciliation is scheduled to be performed on 30 April.

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  • Jun 27, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 15, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Estelle8395

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