2f051 Holloman Afb Edit Code 6
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The ability of a material to transmit or conduct electricity is known as
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A. Resistivity.
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B. Conductivity.
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C. Flammability.
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D. Current density.
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This quiz, titled '2F051 Holloman AFB Edit Code 6', evaluates knowledge pertinent to Air Force fuels management. It covers basic AFSC identification, roles within the Fuels Management Team, and systems like Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment, crucial for operational readiness and management.
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- 2.
Which vehicles do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft?
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A. “Follow Me” trucks.
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B. Refueling units.
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C. Fire trucks.
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D. Tugs.
Correct Answer
A. A. “Follow Me” trucks.Explanation
"Follow Me" trucks do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft because their primary function is to guide and lead aircraft on the ground. They are responsible for directing aircraft to their designated parking spots, taxiways, or runways. Their movements are coordinated with air traffic control and they have the authority to control the movement of aircraft on the ground. Therefore, other vehicles such as refueling units, fire trucks, and tugs must yield the right of way to "Follow Me" trucks as they have a higher priority and are essential for the safe navigation of aircraft on the ground.Rate this question:
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- 3.
You should discontinue fuel operations when electrical storms are within how many nautical miles of a fuel servicing area?
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A. 3.
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B. 5.
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C. 10.
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D. 25.
Correct Answer
A. B. 5.Explanation
When electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles of a fuel servicing area, it is recommended to discontinue fuel operations. This is because electrical storms can pose a significant risk of lightning strikes, which can ignite fuel and cause explosions or fires. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize safety and suspend fuel operations to prevent any potential accidents or hazards.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What should you do first when fighting an electrical fire?
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A. Aim the fire extinguisher at the base of the fire.
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B. Contact the base interior electric shop.
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C. Locate a water-type fire extinguisher.
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D. Remove the power source.
Correct Answer
A. D. Remove the power source.Explanation
When fighting an electrical fire, the first thing you should do is remove the power source. This is because electricity can fuel the fire and make it more dangerous. By disconnecting the power source, you can eliminate the source of the fire and prevent it from spreading further. This step is crucial to ensure your safety and the effectiveness of any other firefighting measures you may take.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is the proper treatment for someone who has been splashed with cryogenic liquid, such as liquid oxygen (LOX) or liquid nitrogen (LIN)?
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A. Rewarm the body part as soon as possible.
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B. Wrap the exposed area in a cotton blanket.
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C. Give the victim plenty of liquids.
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D. Watch closely and treat for shock.
Correct Answer
A. B. Wrap the exposed area in a cotton blanket.Explanation
When someone is splashed with cryogenic liquid such as liquid oxygen or liquid nitrogen, it is important to prevent further injury by wrapping the exposed area in a cotton blanket. This helps to insulate the area and prevent further contact with the cold liquid. Rewarming the body part as soon as possible may cause additional damage to the tissues. Giving the victim plenty of liquids is not necessary in this situation. Watching closely and treating for shock may be important, but the immediate priority is to protect the exposed area.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Maintaining radio transmission discipline over the radio net is the responsibility of the fuels
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Controllers.
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Management team
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Information service center superintendent
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Service center noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).
Correct Answer
A. Controllers.Explanation
The correct answer is controllers. Maintaining radio transmission discipline over the radio net is the responsibility of the fuels controllers. This means that the fuels controllers are responsible for ensuring that proper procedures and protocols are followed when transmitting information over the radio. They must ensure clear and effective communication within the radio net to avoid any misunderstandings or errors. This is an important responsibility as it helps to maintain efficient and reliable communication within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What type of cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?
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Graduated.
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Wide-mouth.
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Precalibrated.
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Pharmaceutical
Correct Answer
A. Graduated.Explanation
The correct answer is "Graduated." A graduated cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test. A graduated cylinder is a cylindrical container with markings on the side to measure the volume of liquid accurately. In the API gravity test, the density or specific gravity of petroleum liquids is measured, and a graduated cylinder is the appropriate equipment for this purpose. The other options, wide-mouth, precalibrated, and pharmaceutical, do not specifically relate to the API gravity test.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What action must be taken if the sample flashes upon first application of the flame during a flashpoint analysis?
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Perform a new flash point test.
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Raise the room temperature.
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Increase fuel temperature.
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Record the temperature.
Correct Answer
A. Perform a new flash point test.Explanation
If the sample flashes upon first application of the flame during a flashpoint analysis, it indicates that the initial test was not accurate or the conditions were not suitable for obtaining reliable results. Therefore, the best course of action would be to perform a new flash point test to ensure accurate and valid data.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What is the gallon capacity of the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 storage tank?
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4,500.
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5,000.
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5,500.
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6,000.
Correct Answer
A. 6,000.Explanation
The gallon capacity of the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 storage tank is 6,000.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which is not a position on the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler’s pumping mode selector valve?
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DEFUELl.
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LOW-FLOW.
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HIGH-FLOW.
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SINGLE-POINT.
Correct Answer
A. SINGLE-POINT.Explanation
The position "SINGLE-POINT" is not a position on the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler's pumping mode selector valve. This means that the refueler does not have a specific mode for single-point refueling, where fuel is pumped into a single point on the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which action should you initiate first if a fire or fuel leak occurs during a hot refueling operation?
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Stop fuel flow.
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Stop the aircraft engines.
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Notify the fire department.
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Disconnect the fuel nozzle.
Correct Answer
A. Stop fuel flow.Explanation
In the event of a fire or fuel leak during a hot refueling operation, the first action that should be initiated is to stop the fuel flow. This is crucial to prevent further fuel from feeding the fire or exacerbating the leak. Stopping the aircraft engines may be important, but it should be done after stopping the fuel flow. Notifying the fire department is also important, but it should be done after taking immediate action to stop the fuel flow. Disconnecting the fuel nozzle is a possible action to take, but it is not the first action that should be initiated.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which form is the primary means to record fuel issues to aircraft?
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AF Form 1233, Bulk Storage Summary.
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AF Form 1235, Physical Inventory (Fuels/Missile Propellants).
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DD Form 1896, DOD Fuel Identaplate.
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DD Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip.
Correct Answer
A. DD Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip.Explanation
The primary means to record fuel issues to aircraft is through the use of DD Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip. This form is specifically designed for recording the sale and transfer of energy, including fuel, and is commonly used in the Department of Defense. It allows for accurate documentation of fuel transactions and ensures proper accountability and tracking of fuel issues to aircraft. The other forms mentioned in the options are not primarily used for recording fuel issues to aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which specialized publications are primarily used to organize and simplify instructions?
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A. Time compliance technical orders.
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B. Technical manual supplements.
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C. Abbreviated technical orders.
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D. Commercial technical orders.
Correct Answer
A. C. Abbreviated technical orders.Explanation
Abbreviated technical orders are specialized publications primarily used to organize and simplify instructions. These orders provide concise and condensed information, making it easier for users to understand and follow instructions. They are designed to streamline the process of accessing and comprehending technical information, ensuring that instructions are clear and concise. Time compliance technical orders, technical manual supplements, and commercial technical orders may contain more detailed information or serve different purposes, but they are not specifically focused on organizing and simplifying instructions like abbreviated technical orders.Rate this question:
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- 14.
At a minimum, how many feet behind an aircraft’s operating jet engine is considered safe?
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A. 50.
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B. 100.
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C. 150.
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D. 200.
Correct Answer
A. D. 200.Explanation
The minimum safe distance behind an aircraft's operating jet engine is considered to be 200 feet. This is to ensure that individuals and objects are not exposed to the high temperatures, noise, and exhaust gases produced by the engine, which could cause harm or damage.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What handheld device is used to shut off fuel flow if the operator becomes incapacitated?
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A. Hydrant control valve.
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B. Fuel flow shutoff valve.
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C. Deadman control valve.
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D. Emergency shutoff button.
Correct Answer
A. C. Deadman control valve.Explanation
A deadman control valve is a handheld device used to shut off fuel flow if the operator becomes incapacitated. This valve requires constant pressure from the operator to keep the fuel flowing. If the operator releases the pressure, the valve automatically shuts off the fuel flow, preventing any potential accidents or hazards.Rate this question:
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- 16.
When performing flushing operations on a Type III, IV, or V system, in what position should the pump selector switch be placed?
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A. Off.
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B. Idle.
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C. Auto.
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D. Flush.
Correct Answer
A. D. Flush.Explanation
When performing flushing operations on a Type III, IV, or V system, the pump selector switch should be placed in the "Flush" position. This position allows the pump to run at maximum speed, ensuring that the flushing process is effective in removing any debris or buildup in the system. By selecting the "Flush" position, the pump is optimized for this specific operation, providing the necessary power and flow rate to thoroughly clean the system.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What action, if any, should be taken if fuel flow does not stop during the fuel flow precheck of a cargo/passenger aircraft concurrent servicing operation?
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No action is required as this is a common occurrence.
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Stop the operation and do not resume until the problem has been resolved.
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Stop the operation temporarily, restart fuel flow, then re-attempt the fuel flow precheck.
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Continue the operation and inform the concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS) of the situation.
Correct Answer
A. Stop the operation and do not resume until the problem has been resolved.Explanation
If fuel flow does not stop during the fuel flow precheck of a cargo/passenger aircraft concurrent servicing operation, it is necessary to stop the operation and not resume until the problem has been resolved. This is the correct action because if fuel flow does not stop, it could indicate a potential issue or malfunction with the fuel system. Continuing the operation without resolving the problem could lead to safety hazards or damage to the aircraft. Therefore, it is important to stop the operation temporarily and address the issue before proceeding.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) System is not capable of
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A. aircraft refueling.
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B. aircraft defueling.
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C. tank truck off-loading.
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D. storage bladder transferring.
Correct Answer
A. B. aircraft defueling.Explanation
The Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) System is designed for various fuel-related tasks, such as aircraft refueling, tank truck off-loading, and storage bladder transferring. However, it is not capable of aircraft defueling. This means that the FORCE System cannot be used to remove fuel from aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Much time and expense are involved in investigating and
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A. solving accidents.
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B. reporting accidents.
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C. validating accidents.
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D. discovering accidents.
Correct Answer
A. B. reporting accidents.Explanation
Investigating and solving accidents require a significant amount of time and resources to gather evidence, analyze data, and determine the root causes. However, the given question specifically mentions "investigating and" without mentioning the outcome or purpose of the investigation. Therefore, the correct answer is "b. reporting accidents" as reporting accidents involves documenting and communicating the details of the accident to the relevant authorities or stakeholders. This process also requires time and expense to ensure accurate and comprehensive reporting.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The best way to reduce the dangers of asphyxiation when performing work in areas suspected of fuel vapors is to use
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A. safety precautions at all times.
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B. only qualified technicians.
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C. safe working time limits.
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D. the two-person concept.
Correct Answer
A. D. the two-person concept.Explanation
The two-person concept is the best way to reduce the dangers of asphyxiation when working in areas suspected of fuel vapors. This concept involves having two people present during the work, with one person acting as a standby to provide immediate assistance in case of an emergency. By having two people present, there is a higher likelihood of detecting and responding to any potential dangers or incidents, reducing the risk of asphyxiation.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which radio transmission 10 code means return to the fuels service center?
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10–4.
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10–10.
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10–14.
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10–15.
Correct Answer
A. 10–10.Explanation
The correct answer is 10-10. In radio transmissions, the 10 code system is used to convey messages quickly and efficiently. 10-10 specifically means "return to the fuels service center." This code is commonly used in situations where a vehicle or equipment needs to refuel or receive maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 22.
After you obtain a sample with an in-line sampler, how many seconds should elapse before disassembling the sampler?
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30.
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60.
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90.
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120.
Correct Answer
A. 60.Explanation
After obtaining a sample with an in-line sampler, it is recommended to wait for 60 seconds before disassembling the sampler. This waiting period allows enough time for the sampler to collect a representative sample and ensures that the sample is not contaminated or altered during the disassembly process. Waiting for a shorter duration may result in an incomplete or inaccurate sample, while waiting for a longer duration may lead to sample degradation or contamination. Therefore, 60 seconds is the optimal time to wait before disassembling the sampler.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What type of dye is used for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad?
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Zinc chloride.
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Phthalic anhydride.
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Sodium fluorescein.
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Lysergic acid diethylamide.
Correct Answer
A. Sodium fluorescein.Explanation
Sodium fluorescein is used for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad. This type of dye is commonly used as a fluorescent tracer in various applications, including leak detection. It is highly visible under UV light, making it suitable for detecting leaks or identifying areas of concern in the aeronautical engine. Zinc chloride, phthalic anhydride, and lysergic acid diethylamide are not mentioned in the context of the AEL detector pad, so they are not the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 24.
When performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis, the fuel/water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for
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One minute.
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Three minutes.
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Five minutes.
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Seven minutes.
Correct Answer
A. Five minutes.Explanation
During a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis, the fuel/water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for five minutes. This duration ensures proper mixing and allows the FSII to effectively bind with any water present in the fuel. Shaking for a shorter time may result in incomplete mixing, while shaking for a longer time may not yield any additional benefits. Therefore, five minutes is the optimal duration for this process.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What does a heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of a liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) transfer hose indicate?
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A. The inner hose is damaged.
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B. The outer hose is damaged.
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C. A faulty valve at the tank outlet.
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D. The hose connection is not tight enough.
Correct Answer
A. A. The inner hose is damaged.Explanation
A heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of a LOX/LIN transfer hose indicates that the inner hose is damaged. This is because the liquid oxygen or liquid nitrogen is extremely cold, and if there is a leak or damage in the inner hose, it can cause the outer hose to freeze. The freezing occurs due to the extreme cold temperature of the cryogenic liquid escaping from the damaged inner hose and coming into contact with the outer hose. Therefore, the heavy freeze spot serves as an indication of a problem with the inner hose.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What C-300/C-301 Ground-Servicing Unit’s component allows the tank to breathe during loading and unloading operations?
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Vent valve.
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Float level sensor.
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Bottom loading interlock.
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Emergency/bottom loading valve.
Correct Answer
A. Vent valve.Explanation
The vent valve allows the tank to breathe during loading and unloading operations. This component ensures that air can enter and exit the tank as needed, preventing pressure buildup or vacuum formation. Without the vent valve, the tank could become damaged or compromised during these operations. The other options, such as the float level sensor, bottom loading interlock, and emergency/bottom loading valve, are not directly related to allowing the tank to breathe.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What character in the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is used to identify the Fuels career field?
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A. 0.
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B. 2.
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C. F.
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D. X.
Correct Answer
A. C. F.Explanation
The character "F" is used to identify the Fuels career field in the Air Force specialty code (AFSC). The AFSC is a system of identifying career fields within the Air Force, and each career field is assigned a specific code. In this case, the Fuels career field is represented by the letter "F" in the AFSC.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What system was developed to complement and eventually replace the Fuels Support Equipment components?
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A. Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery.
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B. Forward Area Refueling Point Equipment.
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C. Cryotainer Maintenance and Support Equipment.
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D. Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment.
Correct Answer
A. D. Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment.Explanation
The Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment was developed to complement and eventually replace the Fuels Support Equipment components. This system is designed to enhance the operational readiness and capability of fuel support activities. It provides improved efficiency and effectiveness in fuel handling and distribution, ensuring that the necessary equipment is available to support fuel operations.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Technical orders (TO) that cover installing, operating, troubleshooting, repairing, calibrating, servicing, or handling Air Force military systems are called
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A. Index TO.
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B. Time compliance TOs (TCTO).
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C. Operations and maintenance TOs.
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D. Methods and procedures TOs (MPTO).
Correct Answer
A. C. Operations and maintenance TOs.Explanation
Technical orders (TO) that cover installing, operating, troubleshooting, repairing, calibrating, servicing, or handling Air Force military systems are called Operations and maintenance TOs. These TOs provide instructions and guidelines for personnel to properly operate and maintain the military systems. They ensure that the systems are functioning correctly and are ready for use when needed. Index TOs, Time compliance TOs (TCTO), and Methods and procedures TOs (MPTO) are not specifically related to the installation, operation, troubleshooting, repairing, calibrating, servicing, or handling of military systems, so they are not the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is the maximum allowable speed in miles per hour (mph) when driving a special purpose vehicle on the flight line?
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A. 5 mph.
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B. 10 mph.
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C. 15 mph.
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D. 20 mph.
Correct Answer
A. B. 10 mph.Explanation
The maximum allowable speed when driving a special purpose vehicle on the flight line is 10 mph. This speed limit is set to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment on the flight line. Driving at a slower speed allows for better control and reaction time, reducing the risk of accidents or collisions. Additionally, a lower speed limit helps to minimize noise and vibrations that may disrupt ongoing operations on the flight line. Therefore, option b is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What does a flashing red and green light signal from the air traffic control tower mean to a moving vehicle on the flight line?
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A. General warning, use extreme caution.
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B. Return to starting point.
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C. Safe to cross.
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D. Stop.
Correct Answer
A. A. General warning, use extreme caution.Explanation
A flashing red and green light signal from the air traffic control tower indicates a general warning and advises the moving vehicle on the flight line to use extreme caution. This signal is meant to alert the driver to potential hazards or dangers in the area and to proceed with heightened awareness and caution. It does not indicate a specific action such as returning to the starting point, crossing safely, or stopping, but rather serves as a general warning to exercise caution while on the flight line.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Unlike most other fueling operations, cryogenic production does not stop when electrical storms are within
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A. 1 nautical mile.
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B. 3 nautical miles.
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C. 5 nautical miles.
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D. 7 nautical miles.
Correct Answer
A. C. 5 nautical miles.Explanation
Cryogenic production is unique because it doesn't have to stop during electrical storms that are within 5 nautical miles. This suggests that cryogenic production facilities have safety measures in place to continue operations even during adverse weather conditions.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on which class of fire?
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A. A.
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B. B.
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C. C.
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D. D.
Correct Answer
A. A. A.Explanation
Water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on Class A fires. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, cloth, and plastics. Water is an effective agent for extinguishing these fires as it cools down the fuel and removes the heat necessary for combustion. The water pressure from the extinguisher helps to disperse the water over the fire, quickly extinguishing it.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The most accurate testing method to determine total solid content in a fuel sample is
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The bottle method.
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A correlation sample.
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The single weight monitor.
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The matched weight monitor.
Correct Answer
A. The bottle method.Explanation
The bottle method is the most accurate testing method to determine total solid content in a fuel sample because it involves measuring the weight of a sample before and after evaporation to determine the amount of solid residue left behind. This method ensures that all solid particles in the fuel sample are accounted for, providing a precise measurement of the total solid content.Rate this question:
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- 35.
When conducting a field analysis for solids using the color and particle assessment method, what device is used to remove residual fuel from a single filter monitor?
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Metal syringe.
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Vacuum flask.
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Roto-vap flask.
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Industrial syringe.
Correct Answer
A. Metal syringe.Explanation
The metal syringe is used to remove residual fuel from a single filter monitor during a field analysis for solids using the color and particle assessment method. This device is specifically designed for this purpose and allows for precise and controlled extraction of the residual fuel. It is likely made of metal to ensure durability and resistance to the potentially harsh chemicals involved in the analysis process.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The Gammon Aqua Glo water detector should be calibrated
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Weekly.
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Monthly.
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Semiannually.
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Daily prior to the first use.
Correct Answer
A. Daily prior to the first use.Explanation
The Gammon Aqua Glo water detector should be calibrated daily prior to the first use because it is important to ensure accurate and reliable readings. Calibrating the detector daily before the first use helps to establish a baseline and ensure that it is functioning correctly. This is especially crucial as any inaccuracies in the readings could lead to false alarms or missed detections, which could have serious consequences in detecting water leaks or flooding. Therefore, daily calibration is necessary to maintain the effectiveness and reliability of the Gammon Aqua Glo water detector.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What size mesh screen is used in the Type III hydrant system receiving strainer?
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A. 20.
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B. 40.
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C. 60.
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D. 80.
Correct Answer
A. C. 60.Explanation
The Type III hydrant system receiving strainer uses a mesh screen size of 60.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with
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A. local and state environmental guidelines.
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B. state and federal environmental guidelines.
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C. local, state, and federal environmental laws and regulations.
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D. state, federal, and international environmental laws and regulations.
Correct Answer
A. C. local, state, and federal environmental laws and regulations.Explanation
Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with local, state, and federal environmental laws and regulations. This is because these laws and regulations are put in place to protect the environment and ensure proper handling and disposal of hazardous materials. By following these guidelines, the risk of pollution and harm to the environment can be minimized.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The general Air Force specialty code (AFSC) used when you entered basic training is
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A. 2F011.
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B. 2F031.
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C. 2F051.
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D. 9T000.
Correct Answer
A. D. 9T000.Explanation
The correct answer is d. 9T000. This answer is correct because the question is asking for the general Air Force specialty code (AFSC) used when entering basic training. The AFSC 9T000 is the general AFSC for Basic Military Training (BMT) trainees. The other options (2F011, 2F031, 2F051) are specific AFSCs for different career fields within the Air Force and would not be the general AFSC used when entering basic training.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which is not a hazard of liquid nitrogen?
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A. Reduces the concentration of oxygen.
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B. Freezes or badly damages human tissue upon contact.
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C. Burns or explodes upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel.
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D. Builds up to tremendous pressure if it evaporates in a confined area.
Correct Answer
A. C. Burns or explodes upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel.Explanation
Liquid nitrogen does not burn or explode upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel. It is a cryogenic liquid that can cause severe frostbite or tissue damage upon contact due to its extremely low temperature. It can also reduce the concentration of oxygen in an area if it evaporates, leading to asphyxiation. Additionally, if liquid nitrogen evaporates in a confined area, it can build up to tremendous pressure, posing a risk of explosion. However, it does not have a reaction with oil, grease, or jet fuel that would cause burning or explosion.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Operating aircraft can commonly produce noise levels in decibel ranges of
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A. 40 to 90.
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B. 80 to 100.
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C. 90 to 110.
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D. 110 to 130.
Correct Answer
A. D. 110 to 130.Explanation
Operating aircraft can commonly produce high levels of noise due to the powerful engines and the speed at which they travel. The noise produced by aircraft can range from 110 to 130 decibels, which is considered to be very loud. This range is higher than the other options provided, indicating that the noise levels produced by aircraft are typically louder than 40 to 90, 80 to 100, and 90 to 110 decibels.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Along with the unit training manager, which fuels section coordinates upgrade training programs and requirements for fuels personnel?
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Fuels information service center
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Fuels management team
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Fuels training
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Fuels mobility
Correct Answer
A. Fuels trainingExplanation
The correct answer is Fuels training. The fuels training section, along with the unit training manager, is responsible for coordinating upgrade training programs and requirements for fuels personnel. This suggests that the fuels training section plays a crucial role in ensuring that fuels personnel receive the necessary training and qualifications for their job.Rate this question:
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- 43.
During a visual sample what kind of dye is used to aid in distinguishing water from fuel?
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Acid dye.
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Fluorescent.
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Reactive dye.
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Food coloring.
Correct Answer
A. Food coloring.Explanation
During a visual sample, food coloring is used to aid in distinguishing water from fuel. Food coloring is a dye that is easily visible and can be added to the sample to give it a distinct color. This helps in visually differentiating between water and fuel, as they would have different colors when mixed with food coloring. Acid dye, fluorescent, and reactive dye are not commonly used for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 44.
When are odors most prevalent during a liquid oxygen odor test?
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The sample has been heated to 10 degrees above room temperature.
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The sample has warmed to nearly room temperature.
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Near 90°F.
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Near 30°F.
Correct Answer
A. The sample has warmed to nearly room temperature.Explanation
During a liquid oxygen odor test, odors are most prevalent when the sample has warmed to nearly room temperature. This is because at higher temperatures, the molecules in the liquid oxygen are more active and have a higher vapor pressure, causing more of the odor-causing compounds to evaporate and become detectable. As the sample cools down or heats up significantly, the odor may become less noticeable. Therefore, the presence of odors is highest when the sample is close to room temperature.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Who in a fuels management flight is responsible for administering the caution tag program?
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Fuels laboratory section.
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Fuels management team.
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Fuels environmental safety office.
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Fuels information service center superintendent.
Correct Answer
A. Fuels laboratory section.Explanation
The correct answer is Fuels laboratory section. The fuels laboratory section is responsible for administering the caution tag program in a fuels management flight. This implies that they are in charge of ensuring that caution tags are properly implemented and maintained.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What company was the first to design and install the Type III hydrant system?
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A. Phillips Petroleum Company.
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B. Panero Petroleum Systems.
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C. Pritchard Petroleum Company.
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D. Palacios Petroleum Systems.
Correct Answer
A. A. Phillips Petroleum Company.Explanation
Phillips Petroleum Company was the first to design and install the Type III hydrant system.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Physical inventories on active storage tanks are normally taken between
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A. 2200 and 0600.
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B. 2300 and 0700.
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C. 2400 and 0800.
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D. 0100 and 0900.
Correct Answer
A. C. 2400 and 0800.Explanation
Physical inventories on active storage tanks are normally taken between 2400 and 0800 because this time period is when there is typically less activity and fewer disruptions in the storage facility. Taking inventories during this time allows for more accurate measurements and reduces the chances of errors or discrepancies. Additionally, it is easier to access the tanks and perform the necessary measurements during the late night and early morning hours when there is less traffic and fewer people present in the facility.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The purpose of a portable vacuum gauge is to check the
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A. pressure on the hoses.
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B. pressure in the inner tank.
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C. vacuum on the buildup coil.
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D. vacuum in the annular space.
Correct Answer
A. D. vacuum in the annular space.Explanation
A portable vacuum gauge is used to measure the vacuum in the annular space. The annular space refers to the area between two concentric objects, such as the space between the inner and outer walls of a tank or pipe. By measuring the vacuum in this space, the gauge can provide information about the pressure difference between the inside and outside of the tank or pipe. This can be useful for various applications, such as monitoring the performance of vacuum systems or detecting leaks.Rate this question:
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- 49.
How should the date wheels on an imprinter be set for 15 June 2017 (Julian calendar date 166th)?
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17166.
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17615.
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61517.
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15617.
Correct Answer
A. 17166.Explanation
The correct answer is 17166. This is the correct setting for the date wheels on an imprinter for 15 June 2017 (Julian calendar date 166th).Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 21, 2018Quiz Created by
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