2f051 Holloman Afb Edit Code 6

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1. What should you do first when fighting an electrical fire?

Explanation

When fighting an electrical fire, the first thing you should do is remove the power source. This is because electricity can fuel the fire and make it more dangerous. By disconnecting the power source, you can eliminate the source of the fire and prevent it from spreading further. This step is crucial to ensure your safety and the effectiveness of any other firefighting measures you may take.

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About This Quiz
Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz, titled '2F051 Holloman AFB Edit Code 6', evaluates knowledge pertinent to Air Force fuels management. It covers basic AFSC identification, roles within the Fuels Management Team, and systems like Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment, crucial for operational readiness and management.

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2. Which form is the primary means to record fuel issues to aircraft?

Explanation

The primary means to record fuel issues to aircraft is through the use of DD Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip. This form is specifically designed for recording the sale and transfer of energy, including fuel, and is commonly used in the Department of Defense. It allows for accurate documentation of fuel transactions and ensures proper accountability and tracking of fuel issues to aircraft. The other forms mentioned in the options are not primarily used for recording fuel issues to aircraft.

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3. What is the proper treatment for someone who has been splashed with cryogenic liquid, such as liquid oxygen (LOX) or liquid nitrogen (LIN)?

Explanation

When someone is splashed with cryogenic liquid such as liquid oxygen or liquid nitrogen, it is important to prevent further injury by wrapping the exposed area in a cotton blanket. This helps to insulate the area and prevent further contact with the cold liquid. Rewarming the body part as soon as possible may cause additional damage to the tissues. Giving the victim plenty of liquids is not necessary in this situation. Watching closely and treating for shock may be important, but the immediate priority is to protect the exposed area.

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4. What is the gallon capacity of the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 storage tank?

Explanation

The gallon capacity of the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 storage tank is 6,000.

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5. Which is not a position on the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler's pumping mode selector valve?

Explanation

The position "SINGLE-POINT" is not a position on the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler's pumping mode selector valve. This means that the refueler does not have a specific mode for single-point refueling, where fuel is pumped into a single point on the aircraft.

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6. The ability of a material to transmit or conduct electricity is known as

Explanation

Conductivity refers to the ability of a material to transmit or conduct electricity. It is a measure of how easily electric current can flow through a substance. Materials with high conductivity, such as metals, allow electric charges to move freely, while materials with low conductivity, such as rubber or plastic, impede the flow of electric current. Therefore, conductivity is the correct term to describe the ability of a material to transmit or conduct electricity.

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7. Which vehicles do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft?

Explanation

"Follow Me" trucks do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft because their primary function is to guide and lead aircraft on the ground. They are responsible for directing aircraft to their designated parking spots, taxiways, or runways. Their movements are coordinated with air traffic control and they have the authority to control the movement of aircraft on the ground. Therefore, other vehicles such as refueling units, fire trucks, and tugs must yield the right of way to "Follow Me" trucks as they have a higher priority and are essential for the safe navigation of aircraft on the ground.

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8. What type of cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Graduated." A graduated cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test. A graduated cylinder is a cylindrical container with markings on the side to measure the volume of liquid accurately. In the API gravity test, the density or specific gravity of petroleum liquids is measured, and a graduated cylinder is the appropriate equipment for this purpose. The other options, wide-mouth, precalibrated, and pharmaceutical, do not specifically relate to the API gravity test.

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9. You should discontinue fuel operations when electrical storms are within how many nautical miles of a fuel servicing area?

Explanation

When electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles of a fuel servicing area, it is recommended to discontinue fuel operations. This is because electrical storms can pose a significant risk of lightning strikes, which can ignite fuel and cause explosions or fires. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize safety and suspend fuel operations to prevent any potential accidents or hazards.

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10. What action must be taken if the sample flashes upon first application of the flame during a flashpoint analysis?

Explanation

If the sample flashes upon first application of the flame during a flashpoint analysis, it indicates that the initial test was not accurate or the conditions were not suitable for obtaining reliable results. Therefore, the best course of action would be to perform a new flash point test to ensure accurate and valid data.

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11. Which action should you initiate first if a fire or fuel leak occurs during a hot refueling operation?

Explanation

In the event of a fire or fuel leak during a hot refueling operation, the first action that should be initiated is to stop the fuel flow. This is crucial to prevent further fuel from feeding the fire or exacerbating the leak. Stopping the aircraft engines may be important, but it should be done after stopping the fuel flow. Notifying the fire department is also important, but it should be done after taking immediate action to stop the fuel flow. Disconnecting the fuel nozzle is a possible action to take, but it is not the first action that should be initiated.

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12. Maintaining radio transmission discipline over the radio net is the responsibility of the fuels

Explanation

The correct answer is controllers. Maintaining radio transmission discipline over the radio net is the responsibility of the fuels controllers. This means that the fuels controllers are responsible for ensuring that proper procedures and protocols are followed when transmitting information over the radio. They must ensure clear and effective communication within the radio net to avoid any misunderstandings or errors. This is an important responsibility as it helps to maintain efficient and reliable communication within the organization.

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13. Which specialized publications are primarily used to organize and simplify instructions?

Explanation

Abbreviated technical orders are specialized publications primarily used to organize and simplify instructions. These orders provide concise and condensed information, making it easier for users to understand and follow instructions. They are designed to streamline the process of accessing and comprehending technical information, ensuring that instructions are clear and concise. Time compliance technical orders, technical manual supplements, and commercial technical orders may contain more detailed information or serve different purposes, but they are not specifically focused on organizing and simplifying instructions like abbreviated technical orders.

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14. What handheld device is used to shut off fuel flow if the operator becomes incapacitated?

Explanation

A deadman control valve is a handheld device used to shut off fuel flow if the operator becomes incapacitated. This valve requires constant pressure from the operator to keep the fuel flowing. If the operator releases the pressure, the valve automatically shuts off the fuel flow, preventing any potential accidents or hazards.

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15. When performing flushing operations on a Type III, IV, or V system, in what position should the pump selector switch be placed?

Explanation

When performing flushing operations on a Type III, IV, or V system, the pump selector switch should be placed in the "Flush" position. This position allows the pump to run at maximum speed, ensuring that the flushing process is effective in removing any debris or buildup in the system. By selecting the "Flush" position, the pump is optimized for this specific operation, providing the necessary power and flow rate to thoroughly clean the system.

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16. At a minimum, how many feet behind an aircraft's operating jet engine is considered safe?

Explanation

The minimum safe distance behind an aircraft's operating jet engine is considered to be 200 feet. This is to ensure that individuals and objects are not exposed to the high temperatures, noise, and exhaust gases produced by the engine, which could cause harm or damage.

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17. What action, if any, should be taken if fuel flow does not stop during the fuel flow precheck of a cargo/passenger aircraft concurrent servicing operation?

Explanation

If fuel flow does not stop during the fuel flow precheck of a cargo/passenger aircraft concurrent servicing operation, it is necessary to stop the operation and not resume until the problem has been resolved. This is the correct action because if fuel flow does not stop, it could indicate a potential issue or malfunction with the fuel system. Continuing the operation without resolving the problem could lead to safety hazards or damage to the aircraft. Therefore, it is important to stop the operation temporarily and address the issue before proceeding.

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18. The best way to reduce the dangers of asphyxiation when performing work in areas suspected of fuel vapors is to use

Explanation

The two-person concept is the best way to reduce the dangers of asphyxiation when working in areas suspected of fuel vapors. This concept involves having two people present during the work, with one person acting as a standby to provide immediate assistance in case of an emergency. By having two people present, there is a higher likelihood of detecting and responding to any potential dangers or incidents, reducing the risk of asphyxiation.

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19. Much time and expense are involved in investigating and

Explanation

Investigating and solving accidents require a significant amount of time and resources to gather evidence, analyze data, and determine the root causes. However, the given question specifically mentions "investigating and" without mentioning the outcome or purpose of the investigation. Therefore, the correct answer is "b. reporting accidents" as reporting accidents involves documenting and communicating the details of the accident to the relevant authorities or stakeholders. This process also requires time and expense to ensure accurate and comprehensive reporting.

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20. What does a heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of a liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) transfer hose indicate?

Explanation

A heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of a LOX/LIN transfer hose indicates that the inner hose is damaged. This is because the liquid oxygen or liquid nitrogen is extremely cold, and if there is a leak or damage in the inner hose, it can cause the outer hose to freeze. The freezing occurs due to the extreme cold temperature of the cryogenic liquid escaping from the damaged inner hose and coming into contact with the outer hose. Therefore, the heavy freeze spot serves as an indication of a problem with the inner hose.

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21. What C-300/C-301 Ground-Servicing Unit's component allows the tank to breathe during loading and unloading operations?

Explanation

The vent valve allows the tank to breathe during loading and unloading operations. This component ensures that air can enter and exit the tank as needed, preventing pressure buildup or vacuum formation. Without the vent valve, the tank could become damaged or compromised during these operations. The other options, such as the float level sensor, bottom loading interlock, and emergency/bottom loading valve, are not directly related to allowing the tank to breathe.

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22. Which radio transmission 10 code means return to the fuels service center?

Explanation

The correct answer is 10-10. In radio transmissions, the 10 code system is used to convey messages quickly and efficiently. 10-10 specifically means "return to the fuels service center." This code is commonly used in situations where a vehicle or equipment needs to refuel or receive maintenance.

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23. After you obtain a sample with an in-line sampler, how many seconds should elapse before disassembling the sampler?

Explanation

After obtaining a sample with an in-line sampler, it is recommended to wait for 60 seconds before disassembling the sampler. This waiting period allows enough time for the sampler to collect a representative sample and ensures that the sample is not contaminated or altered during the disassembly process. Waiting for a shorter duration may result in an incomplete or inaccurate sample, while waiting for a longer duration may lead to sample degradation or contamination. Therefore, 60 seconds is the optimal time to wait before disassembling the sampler.

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24. What type of dye is used for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad?

Explanation

Sodium fluorescein is used for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad. This type of dye is commonly used as a fluorescent tracer in various applications, including leak detection. It is highly visible under UV light, making it suitable for detecting leaks or identifying areas of concern in the aeronautical engine. Zinc chloride, phthalic anhydride, and lysergic acid diethylamide are not mentioned in the context of the AEL detector pad, so they are not the correct answer.

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25. When performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis, the fuel/water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for

Explanation

During a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis, the fuel/water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for five minutes. This duration ensures proper mixing and allows the FSII to effectively bind with any water present in the fuel. Shaking for a shorter time may result in incomplete mixing, while shaking for a longer time may not yield any additional benefits. Therefore, five minutes is the optimal duration for this process.

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26. The Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) System is not capable of

Explanation

The Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) System is designed for various fuel-related tasks, such as aircraft refueling, tank truck off-loading, and storage bladder transferring. However, it is not capable of aircraft defueling. This means that the FORCE System cannot be used to remove fuel from aircraft.

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27. Technical orders (TO) that cover installing, operating, troubleshooting, repairing, calibrating, servicing, or handling Air Force military systems are called

Explanation

Technical orders (TO) that cover installing, operating, troubleshooting, repairing, calibrating, servicing, or handling Air Force military systems are called Operations and maintenance TOs. These TOs provide instructions and guidelines for personnel to properly operate and maintain the military systems. They ensure that the systems are functioning correctly and are ready for use when needed. Index TOs, Time compliance TOs (TCTO), and Methods and procedures TOs (MPTO) are not specifically related to the installation, operation, troubleshooting, repairing, calibrating, servicing, or handling of military systems, so they are not the correct answer.

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28. The water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on which class of fire?

Explanation

Water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on Class A fires. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, cloth, and plastics. Water is an effective agent for extinguishing these fires as it cools down the fuel and removes the heat necessary for combustion. The water pressure from the extinguisher helps to disperse the water over the fire, quickly extinguishing it.

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29. Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with

Explanation

Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with local, state, and federal environmental laws and regulations. This is because these laws and regulations are put in place to protect the environment and ensure proper handling and disposal of hazardous materials. By following these guidelines, the risk of pollution and harm to the environment can be minimized.

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30. What is the maximum allowable speed in miles per hour (mph) when driving a special purpose vehicle on the flight line?

Explanation

The maximum allowable speed when driving a special purpose vehicle on the flight line is 10 mph. This speed limit is set to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment on the flight line. Driving at a slower speed allows for better control and reaction time, reducing the risk of accidents or collisions. Additionally, a lower speed limit helps to minimize noise and vibrations that may disrupt ongoing operations on the flight line. Therefore, option b is the correct answer.

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31. What does a flashing red and green light signal from the air traffic control tower mean to a moving vehicle on the flight line?

Explanation

A flashing red and green light signal from the air traffic control tower indicates a general warning and advises the moving vehicle on the flight line to use extreme caution. This signal is meant to alert the driver to potential hazards or dangers in the area and to proceed with heightened awareness and caution. It does not indicate a specific action such as returning to the starting point, crossing safely, or stopping, but rather serves as a general warning to exercise caution while on the flight line.

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32. The most accurate testing method to determine total solid content in a fuel sample is

Explanation

The bottle method is the most accurate testing method to determine total solid content in a fuel sample because it involves measuring the weight of a sample before and after evaporation to determine the amount of solid residue left behind. This method ensures that all solid particles in the fuel sample are accounted for, providing a precise measurement of the total solid content.

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33. Unlike most other fueling operations, cryogenic production does not stop when electrical storms are within

Explanation

Cryogenic production is unique because it doesn't have to stop during electrical storms that are within 5 nautical miles. This suggests that cryogenic production facilities have safety measures in place to continue operations even during adverse weather conditions.

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34. What character in the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is used to identify the Fuels career field?

Explanation

The character "F" is used to identify the Fuels career field in the Air Force specialty code (AFSC). The AFSC is a system of identifying career fields within the Air Force, and each career field is assigned a specific code. In this case, the Fuels career field is represented by the letter "F" in the AFSC.

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35. When conducting a field analysis for solids using the color and particle assessment method, what device is used to remove residual fuel from a single filter monitor?

Explanation

The metal syringe is used to remove residual fuel from a single filter monitor during a field analysis for solids using the color and particle assessment method. This device is specifically designed for this purpose and allows for precise and controlled extraction of the residual fuel. It is likely made of metal to ensure durability and resistance to the potentially harsh chemicals involved in the analysis process.

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36. The Gammon Aqua Glo water detector should be calibrated

Explanation

The Gammon Aqua Glo water detector should be calibrated daily prior to the first use because it is important to ensure accurate and reliable readings. Calibrating the detector daily before the first use helps to establish a baseline and ensure that it is functioning correctly. This is especially crucial as any inaccuracies in the readings could lead to false alarms or missed detections, which could have serious consequences in detecting water leaks or flooding. Therefore, daily calibration is necessary to maintain the effectiveness and reliability of the Gammon Aqua Glo water detector.

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37. What size mesh screen is used in the Type III hydrant system receiving strainer?  

Explanation

The Type III hydrant system receiving strainer uses a mesh screen size of 60.

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38. What system was developed to complement and eventually replace the Fuels Support Equipment components?

Explanation

The Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment was developed to complement and eventually replace the Fuels Support Equipment components. This system is designed to enhance the operational readiness and capability of fuel support activities. It provides improved efficiency and effectiveness in fuel handling and distribution, ensuring that the necessary equipment is available to support fuel operations.

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39. When are odors most prevalent during a liquid oxygen odor test?

Explanation

During a liquid oxygen odor test, odors are most prevalent when the sample has warmed to nearly room temperature. This is because at higher temperatures, the molecules in the liquid oxygen are more active and have a higher vapor pressure, causing more of the odor-causing compounds to evaporate and become detectable. As the sample cools down or heats up significantly, the odor may become less noticeable. Therefore, the presence of odors is highest when the sample is close to room temperature.

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40. How should the date wheels on an imprinter be set for 15 June 2017 (Julian calendar date 166th)?

Explanation

The correct answer is 17166. This is the correct setting for the date wheels on an imprinter for 15 June 2017 (Julian calendar date 166th).

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41. Who in a fuels management flight is responsible for administering the caution tag program?

Explanation

The correct answer is Fuels laboratory section. The fuels laboratory section is responsible for administering the caution tag program in a fuels management flight. This implies that they are in charge of ensuring that caution tags are properly implemented and maintained.

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42. The purpose of a portable vacuum gauge is to check the

Explanation

A portable vacuum gauge is used to measure the vacuum in the annular space. The annular space refers to the area between two concentric objects, such as the space between the inner and outer walls of a tank or pipe. By measuring the vacuum in this space, the gauge can provide information about the pressure difference between the inside and outside of the tank or pipe. This can be useful for various applications, such as monitoring the performance of vacuum systems or detecting leaks.

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43. Physical inventories on active storage tanks are normally taken between

Explanation

Physical inventories on active storage tanks are normally taken between 2400 and 0800 because this time period is when there is typically less activity and fewer disruptions in the storage facility. Taking inventories during this time allows for more accurate measurements and reduces the chances of errors or discrepancies. Additionally, it is easier to access the tanks and perform the necessary measurements during the late night and early morning hours when there is less traffic and fewer people present in the facility.

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44. Which is not a hazard of liquid nitrogen?

Explanation

Liquid nitrogen does not burn or explode upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel. It is a cryogenic liquid that can cause severe frostbite or tissue damage upon contact due to its extremely low temperature. It can also reduce the concentration of oxygen in an area if it evaporates, leading to asphyxiation. Additionally, if liquid nitrogen evaporates in a confined area, it can build up to tremendous pressure, posing a risk of explosion. However, it does not have a reaction with oil, grease, or jet fuel that would cause burning or explosion.

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45. Along with the unit training manager, which fuels section coordinates upgrade training programs and requirements for fuels personnel?

Explanation

The correct answer is Fuels training. The fuels training section, along with the unit training manager, is responsible for coordinating upgrade training programs and requirements for fuels personnel. This suggests that the fuels training section plays a crucial role in ensuring that fuels personnel receive the necessary training and qualifications for their job.

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46. Operating aircraft can commonly produce noise levels in decibel ranges of

Explanation

Operating aircraft can commonly produce high levels of noise due to the powerful engines and the speed at which they travel. The noise produced by aircraft can range from 110 to 130 decibels, which is considered to be very loud. This range is higher than the other options provided, indicating that the noise levels produced by aircraft are typically louder than 40 to 90, 80 to 100, and 90 to 110 decibels.

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47. The general Air Force specialty code (AFSC) used when you entered basic training is

Explanation

The correct answer is d. 9T000. This answer is correct because the question is asking for the general Air Force specialty code (AFSC) used when entering basic training. The AFSC 9T000 is the general AFSC for Basic Military Training (BMT) trainees. The other options (2F011, 2F031, 2F051) are specific AFSCs for different career fields within the Air Force and would not be the general AFSC used when entering basic training.

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48. During a visual sample what kind of dye is used to aid in distinguishing water from fuel?

Explanation

During a visual sample, food coloring is used to aid in distinguishing water from fuel. Food coloring is a dye that is easily visible and can be added to the sample to give it a distinct color. This helps in visually differentiating between water and fuel, as they would have different colors when mixed with food coloring. Acid dye, fluorescent, and reactive dye are not commonly used for this purpose.

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49. What company was the first to design and install the Type III hydrant system?

Explanation

Phillips Petroleum Company was the first to design and install the Type III hydrant system.

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50. Which is not a duty of the fuels flight-line expediter?

Explanation

The fuels flight-line expediter is responsible for assessing fueling operations, taking action to correct deficiencies, and providing assistance for hydrant-servicing operations. However, coordinating and directing cryogenic-servicing operations is not listed as one of their duties.

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51. When manually gauging a tank, where should fuel-finding paste be applied on the steel tape?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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52. The brake system on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler will automatically (engage), apply parking brakes when the

Explanation

When the air pressure in the brake system drops below 30 to 40 pounds per square inch (psi), the parking brakes on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler will automatically engage. This is a safety measure to ensure that the vehicle does not roll or move when the air pressure is insufficient to operate the brakes effectively. It helps prevent accidents and keeps the vehicle secure when it is not in use or parked.

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53. What Type III system component signals the microprocessor to turn on the lead pump when the system pressure drops below 60 pounds per square inch (psi)?

Explanation

A pressure indicating transmitter is a Type III system component that signals the microprocessor to turn on the lead pump when the system pressure drops below 60 psi. This transmitter measures the pressure in the system and sends a signal to the microprocessor when it falls below the set threshold, indicating the need to activate the lead pump to increase the pressure.

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54. What is the process of connecting two or more metallic objects together using a conductor?

Explanation

The process of connecting two or more metallic objects together using a conductor is called bonding. Bonding is done to ensure that there is an equal potential between the metallic objects, preventing the buildup of static electricity or potential differences that could lead to electrical hazards. It helps to create a safe and efficient electrical system by providing a continuous path for electrical currents to flow and preventing the occurrence of electrical shocks or damage to equipment.

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55. On the Type III hydrant system, what would the sequence of the other pumps be if pump # 2 is selected as the lead pump?

Explanation

In a Type III hydrant system, the lead pump is the first pump that is activated during an emergency. The sequence of the other pumps is determined by the order in which they are activated after the lead pump. Since pump #2 is selected as the lead pump, the sequence of the other pumps would be 3, 4, 5, and 1. This means that pump #3 would be activated after pump #2, followed by pump #4, pump #5, and finally pump #1.

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56. Turbine engine oil is included in which recoverable and waste petroleum product category?

Explanation

Turbine engine oil falls under the category of synthetic oils. This is because turbine engine oil is specifically formulated to meet the unique requirements of turbine engines, which often operate at high temperatures and under extreme conditions. Synthetic oils are designed to provide superior performance and protection compared to conventional oils, making them ideal for use in turbine engines.

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57. What are cryotainer safety relief valves tested with?

Explanation

Cryotainer safety relief valves are tested with compressed air. This is because compressed air is commonly used in testing and calibrating safety relief valves. It allows for the simulation of pressure conditions that the valve may experience in real-world scenarios. Testing with compressed air ensures that the valve functions properly and can safely release excess pressure when needed.

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58. A fuel spill less than two feet in any plane direction is classified in this spill category.

Explanation

A fuel spill less than two feet in any plane direction is classified as a Class I spill. This means that it is a small spill that can be easily contained and cleaned up. Class I spills are considered to have a low risk of spreading or causing significant damage.

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59. When concurrently servicing cargo/passenger aircraft, passengers may

Explanation

When cargo/passenger aircraft are being serviced concurrently, passengers are allowed to enter or exit the aircraft as long as a jetway is used. This means that passengers can access the aircraft through a covered walkway that connects the airport terminal to the aircraft, ensuring their safety and convenience during the boarding and disembarking process.

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60. What is the maximum amount of gallons of fuel permitted in a fuel laboratory?

Explanation

The maximum amount of gallons of fuel permitted in a fuel laboratory is 10. This implies that any amount of fuel exceeding 10 gallons is not allowed in the laboratory.

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61. What type of dispensing unit has two meters, but only one pump contained within its housing?

Explanation

A dual dispensing, single product unit has two meters to measure the amount of product dispensed, but only one pump to actually pump the product. This means that the unit can dispense the same product from two separate outlets or nozzles simultaneously, allowing for faster and more efficient dispensing.

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62. How is fuel used at the automotive fuel storage and dispensing system normally received?

Explanation

Fuel at the automotive fuel storage and dispensing system is normally received through tank trucks. Tank trucks are commonly used to transport fuel from refineries or fuel terminals to the storage and dispensing system. They are equipped with large tanks that can hold a substantial amount of fuel and are designed to safely transport and deliver the fuel to its destination. Tank trucks are a convenient and efficient method of receiving fuel, especially for smaller automotive fuel systems that may not require the use of larger transportation methods such as tank cars or barges.

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63. When receiving fuel at the military service station, what information is not required on the Department of Defense (DD) Form 250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report?

Explanation

The delivery schedule is not required on the Department of Defense (DD) Form 250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report. This form is used to document the receipt of materials or fuel at a military service station. It includes information such as seal numbers, fuel grade, and quantity, but the delivery schedule is not necessary for this report.

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64. Who must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detected in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts?

Explanation

The appropriate quality assurance representative (QAR) must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detected in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts. This is because the QAR is responsible for ensuring the quality and compliance of the products received. They have the knowledge and authority to make decisions regarding the disposition of contaminated fuel and take appropriate actions to prevent further issues. The company who shipped the product, base fuels laboratory personnel, and area laboratory personnel may also need to be notified, but the QAR is the primary person who should be informed in this situation.

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65. What is the maximum time interval permitted by the vehicle identification link (VIL) in which to make a pump selection?

Explanation

The maximum time interval permitted by the vehicle identification link (VIL) to make a pump selection is 999 seconds. This means that the VIL system allows users up to 999 seconds to choose a pump.

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66. After you obtain a sample with an in-line sampler, how many seconds should elapse before disassembling the sampler?

Explanation

After obtaining a sample with an in-line sampler, it is recommended to wait for 60 seconds before disassembling the sampler. This waiting period allows enough time for the sampler to collect a representative sample and ensures that any remaining particles or contaminants are properly captured. Disassembling the sampler too soon may result in an inaccurate or incomplete sample.

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67. What is the maximum amount of time that can elapse between obtaining a conductivity sample and taking the conductivity reading?

Explanation

The maximum amount of time that can elapse between obtaining a conductivity sample and taking the conductivity reading is 24 hours. This means that the sample can be collected and stored for up to 24 hours before the reading is taken.

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68. Inert solids including rust, metal fragments, dust, and fibers are known as

Explanation

Inert solids such as rust, metal fragments, dust, and fibers are referred to as particulate matter. These substances are typically suspended in the air or water and can have negative effects on human health and the environment. They can cause respiratory problems when inhaled and can also contribute to the pollution of water bodies. Therefore, particulate matter is the appropriate term to describe these types of inert solids.

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69. Which form would you most likely use to report technical order (TO) deficiencies?

Explanation

The AFTO Form 22 is used to report technical manual (TM) deficiencies and recommend changes. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of suggesting modifications to TMs and initiating a reply process. Therefore, it is the most appropriate form to use for reporting technical order (TO) deficiencies. The other options, such as AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report, AFTO Form 422, Differential Pressure Log, and AF Form 847, Recommendation for Change of Publication, are not specifically intended for reporting TO deficiencies.

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70. What two gauges are permanently installed on cryotainers?

Explanation

The two gauges that are permanently installed on cryotainers are pressure and quantity. Pressure gauge is used to measure the pressure inside the cryotainer, while the quantity gauge is used to measure the amount of cryogenic liquid present in the cryotainer. These gauges are essential for monitoring and ensuring the proper functioning and safety of the cryotainer.

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71. What vehicles must be processed through the checkpoint for daily inspections?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Only vehicles needed to support daily mission requirements." This means that not all vehicles need to go through the checkpoint for daily inspections, only the ones that are necessary for the daily mission. This implies that vehicles that are not needed for the mission do not need to be processed through the checkpoint.

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72. What should you do if a frayed bonding cable is found during the operator maintenance check?

Explanation

If a frayed bonding cable is found during the operator maintenance check, the appropriate action would be to repair the bonding cable. This means fixing the frayed section of the cable to ensure its proper functioning. This option is the most practical and cost-effective solution as it addresses the issue without the need to replace the entire cable or remove the equipment from service. Additionally, reporting the finding to refueling maintenance may be necessary for documentation purposes, but it is not the immediate action to be taken in this situation.

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73. What heat related injuries may occur when you have muscle cramps in the abdominal wall or limbs?

Explanation

When experiencing muscle cramps in the abdominal wall or limbs, it is likely a case of heat cramps. Heat cramps are caused by dehydration and an imbalance of electrolytes in the body, particularly sodium and potassium. These cramps can be painful and are often accompanied by heavy sweating. Heat exhaustion and heatstroke are more severe heat-related injuries that can occur when the body is unable to regulate its temperature properly. Sunstroke is not a recognized medical term and is likely referring to heatstroke.

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74. What is the freeze point for Jet-A jet fuel?

Explanation

The freeze point for Jet-A jet fuel is -40 degrees Fahrenheit. This means that at temperatures below -40 degrees Fahrenheit, the jet fuel will solidify and become unusable.

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75. At what temperature in degrees Fahrenheit (°F) will liquid oxygen (LOX) vaporize into a gaseous state?

Explanation

Liquid oxygen (LOX) vaporizes into a gaseous state at a temperature of –297 °F. This is because oxygen has a boiling point of –297 °F, which means that at this temperature, the liquid oxygen will start to boil and convert into a gas.

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76. Which cable assembly on the Intellicheck2® and Intellitrol® Overfill Prevention Control Systems connects to the refueler for filling operations?

Explanation

The Sculcon cable assembly on the Intellicheck2® and Intellitrol® Overfill Prevention Control Systems connects to the refueler for filling operations.

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77. When backing an R-12 servicing vehicle towards an aircraft, you must always have a

Explanation

When backing an R-12 servicing vehicle towards an aircraft, it is necessary to have a spotter behind the unit to ensure that there are no obstacles or hazards in the way. Additionally, a prepositioned chock should be placed behind the unit to prevent it from rolling backwards and causing damage to the aircraft. Therefore, the correct answer is to have both a spotter and a prepositioned chock behind the unit.

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78. Which fuel spill classification involves an area not more than 10 feet in any plane direction?

Explanation

Class II fuel spills involve an area not more than 10 feet in any plane direction. This classification is used for spills that are relatively small and can be contained and cleaned up easily. Class II spills pose a lower risk compared to larger spills and are typically easier to manage and mitigate.

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79. Unit type codes have how many alphanumeric characters designating a manpower, equipment, or both manpower and equipment force that is tasked with completing a specific mission?

Explanation

Unit type codes have five alphanumeric characters designating a manpower, equipment, or both manpower and equipment force that is tasked with completing a specific mission.

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80. Which sampling device has a projecting stem on a valve rod that opens automatically when the sampler strikes the bottom of a tank?

Explanation

The bacon bomb sampler is the correct answer because it is the only sampling device listed that has a projecting stem on a valve rod that opens automatically when the sampler strikes the bottom of a tank. This feature allows for easy and efficient sampling of liquids in tanks without the need for manual opening of the valve. The other options listed do not have this specific feature.

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81. Which sampling device is used for sampling pressurized systems under flow conditions?

Explanation

The in-line sampler is used for sampling pressurized systems under flow conditions. This device is designed to extract a representative sample from a continuous flow of pressurized fluid without interrupting the flow. It allows for accurate and reliable sampling while maintaining the integrity of the system. The other options mentioned, such as the drum thief, bacon bomb sampler, and weighted bottle sampler, are not specifically designed for sampling pressurized systems under flow conditions.

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82. What major command (MAJCOM) developed the Type IV hydrant system?  

Explanation

The Type IV hydrant system was developed by the United States Air Forces in Europe (USAFE). This suggests that the system was specifically designed and implemented by the USAFE for use in their operations and facilities in Europe. The other options, Pacific Air Forces (PACAF), Air Combat Command (ACC), and Air Mobility Command (AMC), are not the correct answers as they do not pertain to the development of the Type IV hydrant system.

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83. When equipped with the proper batteries, the model 1152 conductivity meter is approved for use in which locations?

Explanation

The model 1152 conductivity meter is approved for use in hazardous locations when equipped with the proper batteries. This means that it is designed to be safe to use in environments where there may be flammable gases, vapors, or dust present.

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84. How many tanks are used with the Type IV hydrant system and how many gallons will each hold?

Explanation

The Type IV hydrant system uses 4 tanks, and each tank can hold 50,000 gallons.

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85. What is the minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the laboratory from other portions of the building?

Explanation

The minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the laboratory from other portions of the building is 60 minutes. This means that these walls are designed to withstand fire for at least 60 minutes, providing a barrier and preventing the spread of fire to other areas of the building. A higher fire rating ensures greater protection and allows more time for evacuation and firefighting efforts.

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86. The technical order (TO) that explains the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs is

Explanation

The correct answer is a. TO 00–5–1, AF Technical Order System. This is because the question is asking for the technical order that explains the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs, and TO 00–5–1 specifically addresses the AF Technical Order System. The other options, TO 00–5–15, TO 00–5–18, and TO 00–5–3, do not specifically relate to reporting improvements in TOs.

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87. Within how many hours is the responsible technical content manager required to take action on a technical order (TO) emergency improvement recommendation report?

Explanation

The responsible technical content manager is required to take action on a technical order (TO) emergency improvement recommendation report within 48 hours. This means that they have two days to review the report and implement any necessary changes or improvements to address the emergency situation. It is important for the manager to act quickly in order to ensure the safety and efficiency of the technical operations.

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88. What is the standard gallon capacity for an above ground fuel storage tank used at a military service station?

Explanation

The standard gallon capacity for an above ground fuel storage tank used at a military service station is 12,000 gallons.

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89. What type of fuel-servicing operations would not require a fuels flight-line expediter?

Explanation

Ground fuel-servicing operations would not require a fuels flight-line expediter. This is because ground fuel-servicing involves refueling stationary aircraft on the ground, which does not require the coordination and expediter role that is necessary for other operations such as aircraft defueling, multiple-source refueling, and concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft.

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90. Heat can be transferred in cryotainers by

Explanation

Heat can be transferred in cryotainers through conduction, convection, and radiation. Conduction is the transfer of heat through direct contact between objects or substances. Convection is the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids or gases. Radiation is the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves. In cryotainers, heat can be conducted through the walls of the container, convected through the movement of the cryogenic fluid, and radiated through the walls of the container. Therefore, all three methods of heat transfer are involved in transferring heat in cryotainers.

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91. To use engine braking in the Kovatch-Series R-11s, what gear selector position can you use?

Explanation

In order to use engine braking in the Kovatch-Series R-11s, the gear selector position that can be used is "Three". This suggests that the vehicle has a specific gear labeled as "Three" which allows for engine braking.

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92. How many cubic feet of gaseous oxygen at atmospheric pressure will one cubic foot (7.5 gallons) of liquid oxygen (LOX) expand to?

Explanation

When liquid oxygen (LOX) is converted into gaseous oxygen, it expands in volume. The expansion ratio is determined by the temperature and pressure conditions. In this case, it is stated that the conversion is happening at atmospheric pressure. At atmospheric pressure, one cubic foot of liquid oxygen will expand to 860 cubic feet of gaseous oxygen.

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93. During Type IV hydrant system operations, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the "hot pad?"

Explanation

The hot refueling supervisor is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the "hot pad" during Type IV hydrant system operations. This role involves overseeing the entire hot refueling process, including ensuring the safe and efficient positioning of the aircraft for refueling. The hot refueling supervisor is responsible for coordinating with the hot refueling crewman and other personnel involved in the operation to ensure that all safety protocols are followed and that the aircraft is positioned correctly for refueling.

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94. During fueling operations with the Beta-Freightliner R-12 Hydrant-Servicing Unit, the deadman switch must be re-activated, to prevent automatic shutdown, every

Explanation

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95. When defueling with a Beta-Freightliner R-12, what button do you press to adjust the pressure to the desired level, to maintain a steady flow?

Explanation

To adjust the pressure to the desired level and maintain a steady flow while defueling with a Beta-Freightliner R-12, the button that needs to be pressed is "INC." This suggests that pressing the "INC" button increases the pressure to the desired level for a steady flow.

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96. Which procedure is only accomplished during a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt?

Explanation

During a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, the procedure that is only accomplished is testing for odor. This is because liquid oxygen has no color or taste, but it does have a distinct odor. Testing for odor is important to ensure that there are no leaks or contamination in the LOX, as any foreign substances can be hazardous and affect its quality and safety. Monitoring for leaks, checking the Department of Defense (DD) Form 250, and ensuring sufficient ullage in the receiving tank are important procedures in general, but they are not specific to a LOX receipt.

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97. At least how many feet from the fuels laboratory building must a 55-gallon waste drum be positioned?

Explanation

Based on safety regulations and guidelines, a 55-gallon waste drum should be positioned at least 50 feet away from the fuels laboratory building. This distance is necessary to minimize the risk of fire or explosion in case of any accidents or leaks from the drum. It allows for a safe buffer zone to protect the building and its occupants from potential hazards.

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98. As a minimum, liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tanks should be purged every

Explanation

Liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tanks should be purged every 365 days because oxygen has the potential to react with other substances and cause fires or explosions. Purging removes any contaminants or impurities that may have accumulated in the tank over time, ensuring the safety and stability of the stored oxygen. Regular purging helps maintain the quality and purity of the oxygen, reducing the risk of accidents or hazards associated with its storage.

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99. Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within how many feet of operating aircraft radar?

Explanation

Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within 300 feet of operating aircraft radar because the radar emits electromagnetic waves that can interfere with the fueling process and potentially cause a fire or explosion. It is important to maintain a safe distance to ensure the safety of both the aircraft and the personnel involved in fuel servicing operations.

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100. What is the minimum number of minutes that must pass to eliminate static charges before disassembling an in-line sampler?

Explanation

The minimum number of minutes that must pass to eliminate static charges before disassembling an in-line sampler is 1. This suggests that it only takes 1 minute for the static charges to dissipate and become safe to disassemble the sampler.

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101. Product loss caused by a hostile activity in a deployed location is categorized as what type of determinable variance?

Explanation

Product loss caused by a hostile activity in a deployed location is categorized as a combat loss. Combat loss refers to the loss of products or resources that occurs during a military conflict or combat situation. In this scenario, the hostile activity in the deployed location indicates a situation of conflict, making combat loss the most appropriate category for this determinable variance.

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102. What is the purpose of the Type III hydrant system lockout key?

Explanation

The purpose of the Type III hydrant system lockout key is to transfer control from one microprocessor to the other. This key allows for the seamless transition of control between the two microprocessors, ensuring uninterrupted operation and preventing any system failures or disruptions. It is an essential tool in maintaining the proper functioning and reliability of the Type III hydrant system.

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103. What cleaning agent should be used to clean conductivity probes?

Explanation

Isopropyl alcohol is the correct answer because it is a commonly used cleaning agent for conductivity probes. It is effective in removing any residue or contaminants that may affect the accuracy of the probe's readings. Isopropyl alcohol is also safe to use on most materials and does not leave behind any residue itself. Petroleum ether, turbine fuel, and acetone are not suitable for cleaning conductivity probes as they may damage the probe or leave behind harmful residues.

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104. Who should be contacted if the DD Form 250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report, or contractor delivery ticket is not available upon arrival of a fuel tank truck and prior to fuel receipt?

Explanation

If the DD Form 250 or contractor delivery ticket is not available upon arrival of a fuel tank truck and prior to fuel receipt, the correct person to contact would be the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) quality assurance representative (QAR). The QAR is responsible for ensuring that the quality and quantity of the fuel received meets the required standards. They would be able to provide guidance on how to proceed in the absence of the necessary documentation.

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105. During receipt operations, how far in front and to the rear of a tank truck should danger signs be placed when offloading in an unsecure area?

Explanation

During receipt operations, danger signs should be placed 50 feet to the front and rear of a tank truck when offloading in an unsecure area.

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106. A temporary means of warning personnel against potential hazards or as a caution against unsafe practices is the

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 980, Caution Tag. This form is used as a temporary means of warning personnel against potential hazards or as a caution against unsafe practices. It is specifically designed for this purpose and is the appropriate form to use in these situations.

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107. Who should be notified when a caution tag has been removed from a vehicle or equipment?

Explanation

When a caution tag has been removed from a vehicle or equipment, the Fuels service center should be notified. This is because the Fuels service center is responsible for managing and maintaining the fuel-related operations and equipment. They need to be informed about any changes or updates regarding the equipment to ensure proper maintenance and safety protocols are followed. The Fuels management team, Fuels information service center superintendent, and Fuels environmental safety office may have related responsibilities, but they are not specifically mentioned in relation to the removal of a caution tag.

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108. What is the minimum temperature in degrees Fahrenheit (°F) at which combustible liquids have a flash point?

Explanation

Combustible liquids have a flash point, which is the lowest temperature at which they can release enough vapor to ignite when exposed to an ignition source. The flash point is an important safety measure to determine the potential fire hazard of a liquid. The question asks for the minimum temperature at which combustible liquids have a flash point. Among the given options, the lowest temperature is 100 °F, which means that combustible liquids can have a flash point at this temperature or above.

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109. What engine is the Kovatch-International R-11 equipped with?

Explanation

The Kovatch-International R-11 is equipped with an International 6-cylinder, liquid-cooled diesel engine.

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110. The Kovatch-International and Volvo R-11 refuelers both carry the same noncollapsible

Explanation

The correct answer is 60-foot long 2 ½-inch and 1 ½-inch hoses. This is the correct answer because it states that both the Kovatch-International and Volvo R-11 refuelers carry the same noncollapsible hoses that are 60 feet long and have diameters of 2 ½ inches and 1 ½ inches.

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111. Which condition will cause the vibrating horn to sound on the Type III hydrant system?

Explanation

When the engine generator has a fault, it will cause the vibrating horn to sound on the Type III hydrant system. This suggests that the vibrating horn is connected to the engine generator and is triggered when a fault occurs. The other options, such as refueling pumps running simultaneously, a closed manual valve on the product recovery tank, or an inoperative flow control valve on the hydrant servicing vehicle, do not directly relate to the functioning of the engine generator and therefore would not cause the vibrating horn to sound.

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112. Which Type III hydrant system valve will open to relieve thermal expansion?

Explanation

The pressure control valve is designed to open and relieve excess pressure in the hydrant system caused by thermal expansion. This valve helps to prevent damage to the system and maintain a safe operating pressure. The other options, such as the bypass, defuel/flush, and hydrant control valves, do not specifically address relieving thermal expansion pressure.

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113. At what gallons per minute (gpm) maximum rate can you fill the tank on the Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler using the bottom loading system?

Explanation

The maximum rate at which the tank on the Kovatch-series R-11 Refueler can be filled using the bottom loading system is 600 gallons per minute (gpm). This means that the refueler is capable of filling the tank at a rate of 600 gallons per minute, which is the highest rate among the given options of 300, 450, 600, and 750 gpm.

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114. How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before inserting any object, even to determine the level of the fuel?

Explanation

After filling a tank, it is necessary to wait for a certain amount of time before inserting any object to determine the level of the fuel. The correct answer of 30 minutes suggests that it takes approximately 30 minutes for the fuel to settle and for an accurate reading to be obtained. Waiting for this period of time ensures that the fuel has properly distributed and any disturbances caused by filling the tank have settled, allowing for an accurate measurement to be taken.

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115. Who raises the lift platform on a Beta-Freightliner R-12 when servicing fuel to an aircraft?

Explanation

The crew chief is responsible for raising the lift platform on a Beta-Freightliner R-12 when servicing fuel to an aircraft. They are in charge of overseeing the maintenance and servicing of the aircraft, including fueling operations. The crew chief ensures that all necessary equipment, such as the lift platform, is properly operated and maintained during the fueling process.

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116. The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is at the

Explanation

The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is at the point at which the principal surface of the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale. This is because the API gravity test measures the density or specific gravity of petroleum liquids, and the hydrometer is used to determine this. The point where the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale indicates the specific gravity of the liquid, which is used to calculate the API gravity.

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117. The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245 is

Explanation

The AFTO Form 245 is a continuation of the AFTO Form 244. This means that the information recorded on the AFTO Form 244 can be continued and expanded upon on the AFTO Form 245. It is likely that the AFTO Form 245 is used to provide additional details or updates to the information initially recorded on the AFTO Form 244.

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118. Which one do you like?

Explanation

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119. What type of container should not be used when obtaining conductivity samples?

Explanation

Plastic should not be used when obtaining conductivity samples because it is an insulator and does not allow the flow of electrical current. Conductivity measurements require a container that allows the transfer of electrical charge, and plastic does not possess this property. Glass and metal, on the other hand, are both conductive materials and can be used to obtain conductivity samples.

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120. What component on the Type IV hydrant system shuts down the fueling pumps when water and sediment are detected in the fuel?

Explanation

The contamination monitor is the component on the Type IV hydrant system that shuts down the fueling pumps when water and sediment are detected in the fuel. This device is specifically designed to detect and monitor the presence of contaminants in the fuel, such as water and sediment, and it automatically triggers a shutdown of the fueling pumps to prevent further contamination of the fuel.

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121. On the Type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling should a hose separate from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. A dry break coupler located inside the hose will close automatically. This means that if the hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation, the dry break coupler will automatically close, preventing fuel from spilling.

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122. At a minimum, all assigned fuel-servicing vehicles and equipment must be inspected at least once every how many days when not used?

Explanation

All assigned fuel-servicing vehicles and equipment must be inspected at least once every 7 days when not used. This ensures that the vehicles and equipment are in proper working condition and any potential issues or maintenance needs are identified and addressed promptly. Regular inspections help to prevent breakdowns, ensure safety, and maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the fuel-servicing vehicles and equipment.

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123. The power takeoff (PTO) interlock system on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler prevents the

Explanation

The power takeoff (PTO) interlock system on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler prevents the auxiliary throttle from operating when the PTO is in the vehicle drive position. This means that when the vehicle is in motion, the auxiliary throttle cannot be engaged, ensuring that the vehicle operates safely and efficiently while driving.

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124. When should the fuels manager, fuels flight commander, and/or terminal superintendent review the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 39 and sign page 2 in the Management Form Review sections?

Explanation

The fuels manager, fuels flight commander, and/or terminal superintendent should review the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 39 and sign page 2 in the Management Form Review sections on a monthly basis. This ensures that they stay updated on any changes or updates in the technical order and can address any issues or concerns in a timely manner. Reviewing the form on a monthly basis allows for regular monitoring and maintenance of the fuel management system.

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125. When manually gauging a tank for temperature, at a minimum, how long must the thermometer be left in the fuel to ensure an accurate temperature reading?

Explanation

To ensure an accurate temperature reading when manually gauging a tank for temperature, the thermometer must be left in the fuel for at least 5 minutes. This is because it takes time for the thermometer to adjust to the temperature of the fuel and provide an accurate reading. Leaving it in for less than 5 minutes may result in an inaccurate reading as the thermometer may not have fully adjusted to the temperature of the fuel.

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126. Who must inform the squadron commander, Air Force Petroleum Office, and other affected agencies of any deficiency in a fixed hydrant system that compromises mission accomplishment?

Explanation

The Fuels management team must inform the squadron commander, Air Force Petroleum Office, and other affected agencies of any deficiency in a fixed hydrant system that compromises mission accomplishment. They are responsible for managing and overseeing all aspects of the fuel operations, including the fixed hydrant system. As such, they have the knowledge and authority to report any issues or deficiencies in the system to ensure that mission objectives are not compromised.

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127. On a fillstand equipped with the Scully Intellitrol® control system, how often are electrical pulses sent to the high-level sensor during a filling operation?

Explanation

The Scully Intellitrol control system sends electrical pulses to the high-level sensor 30 times per second during a filling operation.

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128. Under normal conditions and as a minimum, how many hours must fuel in above ground tanks settle prior to transferring?

Explanation

Fuel in above ground tanks must settle for a minimum of 8 hours before transferring. This settling time allows any impurities or sediments in the fuel to settle at the bottom of the tank, preventing them from being transferred along with the fuel. By waiting for 8 hours, the fuel can be transferred with a higher level of purity and quality.

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129. The C-300/C-301 Ground-Servicing Unit is normally equipped with how many feet of 1½-inch diameter hose?

Explanation

The C-300/C-301 Ground-Servicing Unit is typically equipped with 100 feet of 1½-inch diameter hose.

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130. In inches, what is the diameter of the manway with access ladder used for military service station above and below ground tanks?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. 36. The diameter of the manway with access ladder used for military service stations above and below ground tanks is 36 inches.

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131. The information that is carried over to the new Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 422, Differential Pressure Log, when the old AFTO Form 422 is full, is the last

Explanation

When the old AFTO Form 422 is full and a new form is initiated, the information that is carried over to the new form is the last four readings. This means that the technician fills in the four most recent readings from the old form onto the new form. The purpose of this is to ensure continuity and accuracy in tracking the differential pressure measurements. The initials of the technician initiating the new form are not mentioned as part of the information carried over.

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132. What system is designed to cut all electric current running to all dispensers when activated?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Emergency power down system. This system is designed to cut all electric current running to all dispensers when activated. It is specifically designed for emergency situations where it is necessary to quickly and safely shut off power to the dispensers. This system helps prevent any potential hazards or accidents that may occur due to the continued flow of electric current.

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133. Before being used for a bottle method, test membrane filters are dried at

Explanation

Test membrane filters are dried at 194 °F. This temperature is necessary to ensure that the filters are completely dry and free from any moisture before they are used for the bottle method. Drying the filters at a lower temperature may not effectively remove all the moisture, which can impact the accuracy and reliability of the test results.

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134. Printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test should be replaced

Explanation

The printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test should be replaced annually. This is because the standards used in the laboratory need to be accurate and up-to-date in order to ensure reliable and consistent test results. Replacing the standards on an annual basis allows for any potential changes or degradation in the quality of the standards to be addressed and ensures that the tests are conducted with the most current and accurate standards available.

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135. What is the rated gallons per minute (gpm) output of the positive displacement pump on the C-300/C-301 Ground-Servicing Unit?

Explanation

The rated gallons per minute (gpm) output of the positive displacement pump on the C-300/C-301 Ground-Servicing Unit is 100.

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136. What is the most significant factor that affects a fuel sample's conductivity reading?

Explanation

The most significant factor that affects a fuel sample's conductivity reading is temperature. Conductivity is a measure of how well a substance conducts electricity, and temperature can greatly influence this property. As temperature increases, the movement of charged particles in the fuel sample also increases, leading to higher conductivity. Conversely, as temperature decreases, the movement of charged particles slows down, resulting in lower conductivity. Therefore, temperature plays a crucial role in determining the conductivity reading of a fuel sample.

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137. Cleaning of the probe before conductivity testing is not required

Explanation

Cleaning of the probe before conductivity testing is not required when the conductivity meter can be zeroed with the probe attached. This means that if the meter can be calibrated and read accurately without cleaning the probe, then there is no need to clean it. Cleaning is typically necessary to remove any residue or contaminants that could affect the accuracy of the conductivity reading. However, if the meter can still be zeroed and provide accurate readings with the probe attached, it indicates that the probe is clean enough and does not require further cleaning.

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138. A three-digit code that identifies personnel with special training or experience to meet contingency and base-level requirements is called a

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Special experience identifier. This three-digit code is used to identify personnel who have special training or experience that is necessary to meet contingency and base-level requirements. It helps to ensure that the right individuals are assigned to specific tasks or roles that require their specialized skills or knowledge.

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139. The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) Energy Form 702 is prepared to cover a 24-hour duty day that runs from

Explanation

The correct answer is a. 2400 to 2400. This means that the DLA Energy Form 702 is prepared to cover a 24-hour duty day that starts at midnight (2400) and ends at midnight (2400). This ensures that the form covers a full day without any gaps or overlaps.

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140. Which term is used to describe the temperature at which a liquid actively starts to vaporize?

Explanation

The boiling point is the temperature at which a liquid changes into a gas, and it is the term used to describe when a liquid actively starts to vaporize. Volatility refers to the tendency of a substance to evaporate, but it does not specifically indicate the temperature at which vaporization begins. Fire point and flash point are both related to the ignition of a substance, but they do not directly describe the temperature at which vaporization occurs. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Boiling point.

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141. Which one do you like?

Explanation

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142. Use the ether starting aid for the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler when the temperature is below

Explanation

The correct answer is 40 degrees Fahrenheit (°F). This is because the starting aid for the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler should be used when the temperature is below 45°F.

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143. How many fuel-servicing hoses are the Beta-International Hydrant-Servicing vehicles equipped with?

Explanation

The Beta-International Hydrant-Servicing vehicles are equipped with four fuel-servicing hoses.

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144. You are performing servicing operations with the C-300/C-301 Ground-Servicing Unit. What position do you shift the transmission lever in after pulling out the power takeoff (PTO) handle?

Explanation

After pulling out the power takeoff (PTO) handle, you need to shift the transmission lever to the Neutral (N) position. This is because the Neutral position disengages the transmission from the engine, allowing you to safely perform servicing operations without any power being transmitted to the ground-servicing unit. Shifting to Drive (D), Third (3), or Second (2) positions would engage the transmission and could potentially cause the ground-servicing unit to move unexpectedly, posing a safety risk.

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145. During a flashpoint analysis, apply heat to the sample so that the temperature increases at a rate of

Explanation

During a flashpoint analysis, it is important to apply heat to the sample at a controlled rate to ensure accurate results. The correct answer states that the temperature should increase at a rate of 9°F–11°F per minute. This range allows for a gradual increase in temperature, which helps to prevent any sudden changes or fluctuations that could affect the accuracy of the analysis. It also provides a balance between a slow rate of increase that could prolong the analysis unnecessarily and a fast rate that could potentially cause safety concerns or compromise the integrity of the sample.

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146. What type of special servicing operation involves transferring fuel out of the fuel tanks of an aircraft with one or more engines operating?

Explanation

Hot defueling is a type of special servicing operation that involves transferring fuel out of the fuel tanks of an aircraft while one or more engines are still operating. This process is done to remove excess fuel or to prepare the aircraft for maintenance or storage. It is called "hot" defueling because it is performed while the engines are still running, which requires careful coordination and safety measures to prevent accidents or fuel leaks.

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147. What is the minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would require a dike area?

Explanation

The minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would require a dike area is 661 gallons. This means that any tank with a capacity equal to or greater than 661 gallons would need to have a dike area to contain any potential spills or leaks.

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148. A sample taken 6 inches below the surface of the contents of a JP–8 jet fuel bulk storage tank is called

Explanation

A sample taken 6 inches below the surface of the contents of a JP-8 jet fuel bulk storage tank is called a top sample because it is taken from the uppermost layer of the fuel. This sample represents the quality and characteristics of the fuel at the surface, which can be different from the lower levels due to factors like sedimentation or contamination settling down. Therefore, it is important to take a sample from the top to ensure accuracy in testing and analysis.

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149. On the Type III hydrant system, the light-emitting diode (LED) in the battery backup system in each microprocessor will indicate a problem at least how many days in advance before the battery becomes weak enough to jeopardize the integrity of the memory?

Explanation

The Type III hydrant system has a battery backup system in each microprocessor. The light-emitting diode (LED) in the battery backup system will indicate a problem at least 3 days in advance before the battery becomes weak enough to jeopardize the integrity of the memory. This allows for timely maintenance and replacement of the battery to ensure uninterrupted functioning of the system.

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150. Multiple refueling source restrictions do not apply to

Explanation

The given correct answer is "single hydrant-servicing units equipped with two refueling hoses." This means that there are no restrictions on using multiple refueling sources for single hydrant-servicing units that have two refueling hoses. This implies that these units have the capability to connect to and refuel from multiple sources simultaneously, which is not the case for the other options mentioned.

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151. What form is used as a temporary means of identifying conditions that could result in death, disability, or a lost workday?

Explanation

AF Form 979, Danger Tag is used as a temporary means of identifying conditions that could result in death, disability, or a lost workday. This form is used to alert individuals of potential hazards and to ensure that appropriate precautions are taken to prevent accidents or injuries. It serves as a visual reminder to personnel to exercise caution and follow safety procedures when working in hazardous environments.

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152. When servicing an Air Force aircraft that does not have an identaplate, obtain the necessary billing information from the aircraft's

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781F, Aerospace Vehicle Identification Document. This form contains the necessary billing information for servicing an Air Force aircraft without an identaplate. It serves as an identification document for the aircraft, providing important details such as the tail number and mission number. Other options like DD Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip, and station plate are not relevant to obtaining billing information for servicing the aircraft.

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153. Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation requires a reply within 45 days?

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Routine. A routine technical order (TO) improvement recommendation requires a reply within 45 days. This means that it is not urgent or critical, but still important enough to require a response within a specified timeframe.

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154. When replacing tires on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11, torque the lug nuts between

Explanation

When replacing tires on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11, it is recommended to torque the lug nuts between 400 to 500 foot-pounds (ft-lbs.). This torque range ensures that the lug nuts are tightened to the appropriate level, providing sufficient clamping force to secure the tires to the vehicle. Torquing the lug nuts within this range helps prevent them from becoming loose during operation, which could lead to wheel detachment and potential accidents.

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155. Fuels management and civil engineering (CE)/water and fuel systems maintenance (WSFM) personnel will develop specific operating instructions for hydrant system flushing based on the

Explanation

Fuels management and civil engineering (CE)/water and fuel systems maintenance personnel will develop specific operating instructions for hydrant system flushing based on the type of system. This means that the specific instructions for flushing the system will vary depending on the type of hydrant system being used. The type of system could refer to factors such as the design, layout, or components of the system. By considering the specific characteristics of the system, personnel can ensure that the flushing process is carried out effectively and efficiently.

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156. Which organization provides detailed schematic charts and coordinates with the fuels management team for operating checklists on each permanently installed fuel system?

Explanation

Base civil engineering provides detailed schematic charts and coordinates with the fuels management team for operating checklists on each permanently installed fuel system. This means that they are responsible for providing the necessary information and support for the proper functioning of the fuel systems.

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157. During aircraft hot refueling, the hot refueling supervisor

Explanation

The correct answer is "ensures the aircrew maintains their hands out of the cockpit instrumentation area." During aircraft hot refueling, it is important for the aircrew to keep their hands out of the cockpit instrumentation area to prevent any accidental activation or interference with the aircraft systems. The hot refueling supervisor is responsible for ensuring that the aircrew follows this safety protocol to avoid any potential hazards or accidents during the refueling process.

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158. All items must be contained in each servicing clipboard except

Explanation

All items must be contained in each servicing clipboard except the Standard Form (SF) 91, Motor Vehicle Accident Report. This means that the SF 91 is not required to be included in the servicing clipboard.

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159. During a concurrent servicing operation (CSO) supporting combat sortie generation (CSG) all of the following maintenance items may be done except

Explanation

During a concurrent servicing operation (CSO) supporting combat sortie generation (CSG), various maintenance tasks are performed simultaneously to ensure the aircraft is ready for combat missions. These tasks typically include oil servicing, liquid nitrogen servicing, and hydraulic fluid servicing to maintain the functionality and performance of the aircraft. However, liquid oxygen servicing is not typically performed during a CSO as it is primarily used for aircraft oxygen systems and not directly related to combat sortie generation.

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160. Methane, acetylene, ethane, ethylene, propane, and butane are what type of hydrocarbons?

Explanation

The given hydrocarbons, methane, acetylene, ethane, ethylene, propane, and butane, are classified as light hydrocarbons. This is because they have relatively low molecular weights and boiling points compared to other hydrocarbons. Light hydrocarbons are typically gaseous at room temperature and are commonly found in natural gas. They are also used as fuel for heating and cooking due to their high energy content.

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161. The refueling vehicle engine should not be allowed to operate more than how many minutes during in-shelter refueling operations if the aircraft entry doors are closed?

Explanation

During in-shelter refueling operations, it is important to ensure the safety of both the refueling vehicle and the aircraft. If the aircraft entry doors are closed, it indicates that passengers or crew members may still be inside the aircraft. To prevent any potential risks or hazards, the refueling vehicle engine should not be allowed to operate for more than 20 minutes. This time limit ensures that the vehicle does not emit excessive fumes or pose any danger to the people inside the aircraft.

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162. Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with shelter doors completely closed should have at least how many minutes of low or no fuel vapor exposure between operations?

Explanation

Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with shelter doors completely closed should have at least 60 minutes of low or no fuel vapor exposure between operations. This is necessary to ensure their safety and minimize the risk of fuel vapor inhalation, which can be harmful to their health. By allowing for a sufficient amount of time between operations, the crew members can ensure that any fuel vapor present in the shelter dissipates and the air quality returns to a safe level before they resume their work.

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163. What type of special servicing operation involves using more than one refueler, or a combination of refuelers and hydrant-servicing equipment, to rapidly service large frame aircraft?

Explanation

Multisource refuel is the correct answer because it involves using more than one refueler or a combination of refuelers and hydrant-servicing equipment to rapidly service large frame aircraft. This method allows for quicker refueling by utilizing multiple sources of fuel simultaneously, which is necessary for efficiently servicing larger aircraft.

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164. To perform a liquid oxygen particulate test, use all of the following equipment except

Explanation

To perform a liquid oxygen particulate test, filter paper is not required. Filter paper is typically used to separate solid particles from a liquid or gas, but in this case, the test is specifically for liquid oxygen particulates. The other equipment mentioned, such as clean white paper, glass beaker, and aluminum or glass beaker cover, may be necessary for the test to observe and analyze the particulates in the liquid oxygen.

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165. Which alarm indicator on the Type III system, when actuated, shuts down all fueling pumps that are operating at the time?

Explanation

When the low level alarm indicator on the Type III system is actuated, it indicates that the fuel level in the tanks has dropped to a dangerously low level. In order to prevent any further fueling, the system automatically shuts down all fueling pumps that are currently in operation. This is done to avoid any potential damage to the pumps or the fueling system, as well as to prevent any safety hazards that may arise from operating the pumps with insufficient fuel.

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166. In what block of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898, Energy Sale Slip, will the crew chief enter his or her initials to ensure joint verification?

Explanation

The crew chief will enter his or her initials in the PRODUCT CODE block of the DD Form 1898 to ensure joint verification. This is because the PRODUCT CODE block is where the specific code for the energy being sold is recorded. By entering their initials in this block, the crew chief is confirming that they have verified the accuracy of the code and are jointly responsible for the transaction.

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167. When performing a daily inspection of fixed hydrant system filter separators, you must inspect the vessel for ¾ to 1 inch markings that include all of the following information except

Explanation

When performing a daily inspection of fixed hydrant system filter separators, you must inspect the vessel for ¾ to 1 inch markings that include all of the following information except the date of last filter element change in the MMM/YY format. The markings should include the type of filter elements installed, the maximum allowable differential pressure, and the date of next filter element change in the MMM/YY format. This information is important for monitoring the condition of the filter elements and ensuring timely maintenance and replacement.

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168. What is the maximum allowable pounds per square inch (psi) of fueling nozzle pressure used with the Beta-Freightliner R-12 Hydrant-Servicing Unit?

Explanation

The maximum allowable pounds per square inch (psi) of fueling nozzle pressure used with the Beta-Freightliner R-12 Hydrant-Servicing Unit is 55.

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169. What symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to represent an unsatisfactory condition exists, but it is not sufficiently dangerous enough to warrant not using the equipment?

Explanation

The symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 that is used to represent an unsatisfactory condition exists, but it is not sufficiently dangerous enough to warrant not using the equipment is a red diagonal. This symbol indicates that there is a minor issue or defect that does not pose a significant risk to the equipment or its operation. It serves as a visual reminder to the user that there is a problem that should be addressed, but it does not require immediate action or equipment shutdown.

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170. What is the gallon capacity of the C-300/C-301 Ground-Servicing Unit's storage tank?

Explanation

The gallon capacity of the C-300/C-301 Ground-Servicing Unit's storage tank is 1,200.

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171. What component on the C-300/C-301 Ground-Servicing Unit prevents the vehicle from moving during filling operations?

Explanation

The bottom loading interlock is the component on the C-300/C-301 Ground-Servicing Unit that prevents the vehicle from moving during filling operations. This interlock system ensures that the vehicle remains stationary while fuel is being loaded, preventing any accidents or spills that could occur if the vehicle were to move. It is a safety measure that is essential to the proper functioning of the filling operations.

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172. An example of a directive standard publication is a

Explanation

A supplement is a type of directive standard publication that provides additional information or updates to an existing publication. It is typically used to add or clarify information that may have been missing or outdated in the original publication. Unlike a bulletin, pamphlet, or staff digest, a supplement is specifically designed to supplement or enhance an existing publication rather than being a standalone document. Therefore, the correct answer is d. supplement.

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173. What size torque wrench is recommended to have in the preventive maintenance tool kit?

Explanation

A torque wrench is a tool used to apply a specific amount of torque to a fastener. The size of the torque wrench refers to the size of the drive, which is the square-shaped end that connects to the socket. The larger the drive size, the more torque the wrench can handle. In this case, a 3/4" drive torque wrench is recommended because it can handle a range of torque from 100 to 600 foot-pounds, which is suitable for most preventive maintenance tasks.

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174. The low air pressure warning light and alarm on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler will activate when the air pressure drops below how many pounds per square inch (psi)?

Explanation

The low air pressure warning light and alarm on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler will activate when the air pressure drops below 60 pounds per square inch (psi).

Submit
175. How quickly will the emergency shutoff valve close after a power failure, or the emergency stop button is pushed?

Explanation

The emergency shutoff valve will close 10 seconds after a power failure or the emergency stop button is pushed.

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176. How often should active storage tanks be inventoried?

Explanation

Active storage tanks should be inventoried daily to ensure that the inventory levels are accurate and to prevent any potential issues or disruptions in the supply chain. Daily inventory allows for timely detection of any leaks, spills, or other abnormalities that may occur, allowing for immediate action to be taken. This frequent inventory also helps in managing inventory levels effectively and ensuring that there is no shortage or excess of materials in the tanks. In addition, daily inventory provides real-time data that can be used for planning and decision-making purposes.

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177. The surge suppressor gauge on the Beta-Freightliner R-12 Hydrant-Servicing Unit should be precharged to

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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178. Before issuing liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) to a receiving cryotainer, open the pressure build-up valve until the pressure gauge, in pounds per square inch (psi), indicates

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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179. When performing a flashpoint analysis, ensure the sample and the test cup temperature is

Explanation

In a flashpoint analysis, it is important to ensure that the sample and the test cup temperature is at least 32°F below the expected flashpoint. This is because the flashpoint is the temperature at which a substance can ignite when exposed to an open flame or spark. By keeping the sample and test cup temperature below the expected flashpoint, it helps to prevent any accidental ignition during the analysis process.

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180. Normally, what minimum safe distance (in feet) should be maintained from the front and sides of jet engine intakes?

Explanation

Jet engine intakes are extremely powerful and can create strong suction forces. To ensure safety, a minimum distance of 25 feet should be maintained from the front and sides of jet engine intakes. This distance helps to prevent any objects or individuals from being pulled into the intake, which could cause damage to the engine or pose a risk to people nearby.

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181. An unacknowledged alarm condition that has returned to normal is indicated by a

Explanation

When an alarm condition returns to normal but is not acknowledged, it is indicated by a flashing green color. This means that the system has detected and resolved the issue, but it still requires acknowledgement from the user. The flashing green color serves as a visual reminder that there was an alarm condition that needs attention.

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182. Fuels laboratories must have certain features, such as

Explanation

Fuels laboratories must have windows made of reinforced wire safety glass to ensure the safety of the laboratory and its occupants. This type of glass is designed to withstand high levels of impact and prevent shattering, reducing the risk of injuries from broken glass. It provides an extra layer of protection in case of accidents or explosions that may occur in the laboratory.

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183. To log a retest sample on an equipment item, first you must check the retest box and enter what information in the attached box?

Explanation

To log a retest sample on an equipment item, you need to check the retest box and enter the previous sample number in the attached box. This is important because the previous sample number helps in identifying and tracking the specific sample that is being retested. It allows for proper documentation and comparison of the retest results with the previous sample results.

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184. Who is responsible for completing the "Maintenance Status" column on page 2 of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 39?

Explanation

Water and fuel systems maintenance personnel are responsible for completing the "Maintenance Status" column on page 2 of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 39. This is because they are directly involved in the maintenance and operation of the water and fuel systems, which are critical components of aircraft operation. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to accurately assess and report the maintenance status of these systems on the form.

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185. Publications that set up the standard of management and control the official business of the Air Force are called

Explanation

Publications that set up the standard of management and control the official business of the Air Force are called instructions. Instructions provide specific guidance and procedures for carrying out tasks and operations within an organization. They are typically detailed documents that outline the steps to be followed in order to achieve a desired outcome. Manuals and pamphlets may contain instructions, but instructions themselves are specifically designed to provide clear and concise guidance for official business management and control. Operating instructions may be a subset of instructions that focus on specific operational procedures.

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186. What is the desired engine speed, in revolutions per minute (rpm), for LOW FLOW servicing operations on the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler?

Explanation

The desired engine speed for LOW FLOW servicing operations on the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler is 1,000±50 revolutions per minute (rpm).

Submit
187. What is the maximum gallons per minute (gpm) flow rate of the R–12's defuel pump?

Explanation

The maximum gallons per minute (gpm) flow rate of the R-12's defuel pump is 300 gpm.

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188. When flushing Type III, IV, and V hydrant systems, a visual sample should be drawn on the return loop at the

Explanation

When flushing Type III, IV, and V hydrant systems, it is recommended to draw a visual sample on the return loop at the midpoint of flushing operations. This is because flushing operations are typically done to remove sediment and debris from the system, and drawing a sample at the midpoint allows for an assessment of the effectiveness of the flushing process. Drawing a sample at the beginning may not provide an accurate representation of the overall cleanliness of the system, while waiting until the completion of flushing operations may result in unnecessary flushing if the system has already been adequately cleaned.

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189. When inspecting a pantograph, which item is not required to be attached to the pantograph with a cable to eliminate foreign object damage (FOD)?

Explanation

The locking bar is not required to be attached to the pantograph with a cable to eliminate foreign object damage (FOD). The locking bar is used to secure the pantograph in the raised position during maintenance or storage, but it does not pose a risk of foreign object damage if it is not attached with a cable. On the other hand, the dust cap, latch pin, and cotter pin are all items that should be attached with a cable to prevent them from becoming loose or falling off and causing foreign object damage.

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190. Hot defueling is approved for all of the following aircraft except

Explanation

Hot defueling is a process in which fuel is removed from an aircraft while the engines are still running. This procedure is generally considered risky and is therefore not approved for all aircraft. In this case, the correct answer is C-5 Galaxy, indicating that hot defueling is not approved for this particular aircraft. The other three options, C-27 Spartan, C-130 Hercules, and C-17 Globemaster III, do allow for hot defueling.

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191. What are the clipboard color-coding requirements for unleaded automotive gasoline vehicles?

Explanation

The correct answer is red clipboard with green stripes. This color-coding requirement is used for unleaded automotive gasoline vehicles. The red color indicates that the vehicle is fueled by gasoline, while the green stripes indicate that the gasoline is unleaded. This color combination helps to easily identify and differentiate these vehicles from others.

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192. Which radio transmission 10 code means request fire truck at location?

Explanation

The correct answer is 10-18. In radio transmission 10 code, 10-18 means "request fire truck at location." This code is used by emergency personnel to communicate quickly and efficiently during emergencies.

Submit
193. To concurrently service cargo/passenger aircraft, which action must the single-point receptacle (SPR) monitor take before connecting the nozzle to the aircraft?

Explanation

Before connecting the nozzle to the aircraft, the single-point receptacle (SPR) monitor must visually inspect the locking pins/lugs and seal for serviceability. This is important to ensure that the connection is secure and there are no issues with the locking mechanism or seal that could cause fuel leakage or other safety hazards during the refueling process. It is necessary to visually inspect these components before making the connection to ensure that they are in proper working condition.

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194. Which technical order is issued to prevent use of equipment or procedures due to hazardous safety conditions that could cause a serious injury or death?

Explanation

The technical order issued to prevent the use of equipment or procedures due to hazardous safety conditions that could cause serious injury or death is the Time compliance order. This type of order is issued to ensure that equipment or procedures are not used beyond a certain time limit, as they may become unsafe or pose a risk to individuals. It is important to comply with these orders to prioritize safety and prevent any potential harm.

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195. How many gallons will a TMU–20/E cryotainer hold?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. 5,000. This is because the question asks about the capacity of a TMU-20/E cryotainer in gallons, and the correct answer is the option that states it can hold 5,000 gallons.

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196. What type of recommendation must the technical content manager take action on within 40 days?

Explanation

The technical content manager must take action on an urgent recommendation within 40 days. This implies that the recommendation requires immediate attention and cannot be delayed. It is important for the manager to prioritize and address this recommendation promptly to prevent any potential negative consequences or risks.

Submit
197. What type of insulation is used in the annular space of a liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) transfer hose?

Explanation

Glass wool is the correct answer because it is commonly used as insulation material in cryogenic applications. It has low thermal conductivity and is able to withstand extremely low temperatures, making it suitable for insulating the annular space of a LOX/LIN transfer hose. Glass wool is also lightweight and easy to handle, making it a practical choice for this application.

Submit
198. What does an illuminated green indicator light on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11's pump control panel indicate?

Explanation

The illuminated green indicator light on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11's pump control panel indicates that the tank is not filled to capacity. This suggests that the dry sensor is detecting that there is not enough liquid in the tank.

Submit
199. On the Type III hydrant system, which filter separator control valve function will prevent the elements from bursting and allowing contaminated fuel downstream?

Explanation

The maximum differential pressure shutoff function in the Type III hydrant system will prevent the elements from bursting and allowing contaminated fuel downstream. This function is designed to automatically shut off the flow of fuel when the pressure difference between the inlet and outlet of the filter separator exceeds a certain threshold. By doing so, it prevents excessive pressure buildup that could cause the elements to burst and ensures that only clean fuel is allowed to pass through downstream.

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200. Pantographs are low maintenance refueling units capable of flow rates up to

Explanation

Pantographs are low maintenance refueling units that have the capability of flow rates up to 600.

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What should you do first when fighting an electrical fire?
Which form is the primary means to record fuel issues to aircraft?
What is the proper treatment for someone who has been splashed with...
What is the gallon capacity of the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 storage tank?
Which is not a position on the Kovatch-International R-11 Refueler's...
The ability of a material to transmit or conduct electricity is known...
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Which action should you initiate first if a fire or fuel leak occurs...
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Which specialized publications are primarily used to organize and...
What handheld device is used to shut off fuel flow if the operator...
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The best way to reduce the dangers of asphyxiation when performing...
Much time and expense are involved in investigating and
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What C-300/C-301 Ground-Servicing Unit's component allows the tank to...
Which radio transmission 10 code means return to the fuels service...
After you obtain a sample with an in-line sampler, how many seconds...
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When performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) analysis, the...
The Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) System is...
Technical orders (TO) that cover installing, operating,...
The water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on which class of...
Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed...
What is the maximum allowable speed in miles per hour (mph) when...
What does a flashing red and green light signal from the air traffic...
The most accurate testing method to determine total solid content in a...
Unlike most other fueling operations, cryogenic production does not...
What character in the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is used to...
When conducting a field analysis for solids using the color and...
The Gammon Aqua Glo water detector should be calibrated
What size mesh screen is used in the Type III hydrant system receiving...
What system was developed to complement and eventually replace the...
When are odors most prevalent during a liquid oxygen odor test?
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Who in a fuels management flight is responsible for administering the...
The purpose of a portable vacuum gauge is to check the
Physical inventories on active storage tanks are normally taken...
Which is not a hazard of liquid nitrogen?
Along with the unit training manager, which fuels section coordinates...
Operating aircraft can commonly produce noise levels in decibel ranges...
The general Air Force specialty code (AFSC) used when you entered...
During a visual sample what kind of dye is used to aid in...
What company was the first to design and install the Type III hydrant...
Which is not a duty of the fuels flight-line expediter?
When manually gauging a tank, where should fuel-finding paste be...
The brake system on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11 Refueler will automatically...
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What is the process of connecting two or more metallic objects...
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A fuel spill less than two feet in any plane direction is classified...
When concurrently servicing cargo/passenger aircraft, passengers may
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How is fuel used at the automotive fuel storage and dispensing system...
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What is the maximum amount of time that can elapse between obtaining a...
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Unit type codes have how many alphanumeric characters designating a...
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Which sampling device is used for sampling pressurized systems under...
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When equipped with the proper batteries, the model 1152 conductivity...
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The technical order (TO) that explains the procedures for reporting...
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During fueling operations with the Beta-Freightliner R-12...
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How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before inserting any...
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The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum...
The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245 is
Which one do you like?
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On the Type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling...
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Printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test...
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Which one do you like?
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You are performing servicing operations with the C-300/C-301...
During a flashpoint analysis, apply heat to the sample so that the...
What type of special servicing operation involves transferring fuel...
What is the minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would...
A sample taken 6 inches below the surface of the contents of a...
On the Type III hydrant system, the light-emitting diode (LED) in the...
Multiple refueling source restrictions do not apply to
What form is used as a temporary means of identifying conditions that...
When servicing an Air Force aircraft that does not have an...
Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation requires a reply...
When replacing tires on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11, torque the lug nuts...
Fuels management and civil engineering (CE)/water and fuel systems...
Which organization provides detailed schematic charts and coordinates...
During aircraft hot refueling, the hot refueling supervisor
All items must be contained in each servicing clipboard except
During a concurrent servicing operation (CSO) supporting combat sortie...
Methane, acetylene, ethane, ethylene, propane, and butane are what...
The refueling vehicle engine should not be allowed to operate more...
Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with shelter doors...
What type of special servicing operation involves using more than one...
To perform a liquid oxygen particulate test, use all of the following...
Which alarm indicator on the Type III system, when actuated, shuts...
In what block of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 1898, Energy Sale...
When performing a daily inspection of fixed hydrant system filter...
What is the maximum allowable pounds per square inch (psi) of fueling...
What symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used...
What is the gallon capacity of the C-300/C-301 Ground-Servicing Unit's...
What component on the C-300/C-301 Ground-Servicing Unit prevents the...
An example of a directive standard publication is a
What size torque wrench is recommended to have in the preventive...
The low air pressure warning light and alarm on the Kovatch-Volvo R-11...
How quickly will the emergency shutoff valve close after a power...
How often should active storage tanks be inventoried?
The surge suppressor gauge on the Beta-Freightliner R-12...
Before issuing liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) to a receiving...
When performing a flashpoint analysis, ensure the sample and the test...
Normally, what minimum safe distance (in feet) should be maintained...
An unacknowledged alarm condition that has returned to normal is...
Fuels laboratories must have certain features, such as
To log a retest sample on an equipment item, first you must check the...
Who is responsible for completing the "Maintenance Status" column on...
Publications that set up the standard of management and control the...
What is the desired engine speed, in revolutions per minute (rpm), for...
What is the maximum gallons per minute (gpm) flow rate of the...
When flushing Type III, IV, and V hydrant systems, a visual sample...
When inspecting a pantograph, which item is not required to be...
Hot defueling is approved for all of the following aircraft except
What are the clipboard color-coding requirements for unleaded...
Which radio transmission 10 code means request fire truck at location?
To concurrently service cargo/passenger aircraft, which action must...
Which technical order is issued to prevent use of equipment or...
How many gallons will a TMU–20/E cryotainer hold?
What type of recommendation must the technical content manager take...
What type of insulation is used in the annular space of a liquid...
What does an illuminated green indicator light on the Kovatch-Volvo...
On the Type III hydrant system, which filter separator control valve...
Pantographs are low maintenance refueling units capable of flow rates...
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