2f051 Holloman Afb Edit Code 6

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2f051 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The general Air Force specialty code (AFSC) used when you entered basic training is

    • A.

      A. 2F011.

    • B.

      B. 2F031.

    • C.

      C. 2F051.

    • D.

      D. 9T000.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 9T000.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. 9T000. This answer is correct because the question is asking for the general Air Force specialty code (AFSC) used when entering basic training. The AFSC 9T000 is the general AFSC for Basic Military Training (BMT) trainees. The other options (2F011, 2F031, 2F051) are specific AFSCs for different career fields within the Air Force and would not be the general AFSC used when entering basic training.

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  • 2. 

    What character in the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is used to identify the Fuels career field?

    • A.

      A. 0.

    • B.

      B. 2.

    • C.

      C. F.

    • D.

      D. X.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. F.
    Explanation
    The character "F" is used to identify the Fuels career field in the Air Force specialty code (AFSC). The AFSC is a system of identifying career fields within the Air Force, and each career field is assigned a specific code. In this case, the Fuels career field is represented by the letter "F" in the AFSC.

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  • 3. 

    Who forms a team to maintain command and control of the flight and is referred to as the Fuels Management Team?

    • A.

      A. Fuels manager and fuels supervisor.

    • B.

      B. Flight commander and fuels manager.

    • C.

      C. Fuels superintendent and fuels manager.

    • D.

      D. Flight commander and fuels supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Flight commander and fuels manager.
    Explanation
    The Flight commander and fuels manager are the ones who form a team to maintain command and control of the flight and are referred to as the Fuels Management Team.

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  • 4. 

    Unit type codes have how many alphanumeric characters designating a manpower, equipment, or both manpower and equipment force that is tasked with completing a specific mission?

    • A.

      A. Six.

    • B.

      B. Five.

    • C.

      C. Four.

    • D.

      D. Three.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Five.
    Explanation
    Unit type codes have five alphanumeric characters designating a manpower, equipment, or both manpower and equipment force that is tasked with completing a specific mission.

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  • 5. 

    A three-digit code that identifies personnel with special training or experience to meet contingency and base-level requirements is called a

    • A.

      A. Special experience indicator.

    • B.

      B. Special experience identifier.

    • C.

      C. Specific experience indicator.

    • D.

      D. Specific experience identifier.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Special experience identifier.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Special experience identifier. This three-digit code is used to identify personnel who have special training or experience that is necessary to meet contingency and base-level requirements. It helps to ensure that the right individuals are assigned to specific tasks or roles that require their specialized skills or knowledge.

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  • 6. 

    What system was developed to complement and eventually replace the Fuels Support Equipment components?

    • A.

      A. Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery.

    • B.

      B. Forward Area Refueling Point Equipment.

    • C.

      C. Cryotainer Maintenance and Support Equipment.

    • D.

      D. Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment.
    Explanation
    The Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment was developed to complement and eventually replace the Fuels Support Equipment components. This system is designed to enhance the operational readiness and capability of fuel support activities. It provides improved efficiency and effectiveness in fuel handling and distribution, ensuring that the necessary equipment is available to support fuel operations.

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  • 7. 

    The Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) System is not capable of

    • A.

      A. aircraft refueling.

    • B.

      B. aircraft defueling.

    • C.

      C. tank truck off-loading.

    • D.

      D. storage bladder transferring.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. aircraft defueling.
    Explanation
    The Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) System is designed for various fuel-related tasks, such as aircraft refueling, tank truck off-loading, and storage bladder transferring. However, it is not capable of aircraft defueling. This means that the FORCE System cannot be used to remove fuel from aircraft.

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  • 8. 

    Technical orders (TO) that cover installing, operating, troubleshooting, repairing, calibrating, servicing, or handling Air Force military systems are called

    • A.

      A. Index TO.

    • B.

      B. Time compliance TOs (TCTO).

    • C.

      C. Operations and maintenance TOs.

    • D.

      D. Methods and procedures TOs (MPTO).

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Operations and maintenance TOs.
    Explanation
    Technical orders (TO) that cover installing, operating, troubleshooting, repairing, calibrating, servicing, or handling Air Force military systems are called Operations and maintenance TOs. These TOs provide instructions and guidelines for personnel to properly operate and maintain the military systems. They ensure that the systems are functioning correctly and are ready for use when needed. Index TOs, Time compliance TOs (TCTO), and Methods and procedures TOs (MPTO) are not specifically related to the installation, operation, troubleshooting, repairing, calibrating, servicing, or handling of military systems, so they are not the correct answer.

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  • 9. 

    Which technical order is issued to prevent use of equipment or procedures due to hazardous safety conditions that could cause a serious injury or death?

    • A.

      A. Safety.

    • B.

      B. Abbreviated.

    • C.

      C. Time compliance.

    • D.

      D. Methods and procedures.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Time compliance.
    Explanation
    The technical order issued to prevent the use of equipment or procedures due to hazardous safety conditions that could cause serious injury or death is the Time compliance order. This type of order is issued to ensure that equipment or procedures are not used beyond a certain time limit, as they may become unsafe or pose a risk to individuals. It is important to comply with these orders to prioritize safety and prevent any potential harm.

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  • 10. 

    Which specialized publications are primarily used to organize and simplify instructions?

    • A.

      A. Time compliance technical orders.

    • B.

      B. Technical manual supplements.

    • C.

      C. Abbreviated technical orders.

    • D.

      D. Commercial technical orders.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Abbreviated technical orders.
    Explanation
    Abbreviated technical orders are specialized publications primarily used to organize and simplify instructions. These orders provide concise and condensed information, making it easier for users to understand and follow instructions. They are designed to streamline the process of accessing and comprehending technical information, ensuring that instructions are clear and concise. Time compliance technical orders, technical manual supplements, and commercial technical orders may contain more detailed information or serve different purposes, but they are not specifically focused on organizing and simplifying instructions like abbreviated technical orders.

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  • 11. 

    The technical order (TO) that explains the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs is

    • A.

      A. TO 00–5–1, AF Technical Order System.

    • B.

      B. TO 00–5–15, AF Time Compliance Technical Order Process.

    • C.

      C. TO 00–5–18. Methods and Procedures AF Technical Order Numbering System.

    • D.

      D. TO 00–5–3, Methods and Procedures AF Technical Order Life cycle Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. TO 00–5–1, AF Technical Order System.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. TO 00–5–1, AF Technical Order System. This is because the question is asking for the technical order that explains the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs, and TO 00–5–1 specifically addresses the AF Technical Order System. The other options, TO 00–5–15, TO 00–5–18, and TO 00–5–3, do not specifically relate to reporting improvements in TOs.

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  • 12. 

    Which form would you most likely use to report technical order (TO) deficiencies?

    • A.

      A. AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.

    • B.

      B. AFTO Form 422, Differential Pressure Log.

    • C.

      C. AF Form 847, Recommendation for Change of Publication.

    • D.

      D. AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply.
    Explanation
    The AFTO Form 22 is used to report technical manual (TM) deficiencies and recommend changes. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of suggesting modifications to TMs and initiating a reply process. Therefore, it is the most appropriate form to use for reporting technical order (TO) deficiencies. The other options, such as AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report, AFTO Form 422, Differential Pressure Log, and AF Form 847, Recommendation for Change of Publication, are not specifically intended for reporting TO deficiencies.

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  • 13. 

    Which improvement recommendation should be submitted for a technical order (TO) deficiency that would result in a fatal or serious injury to personnel, or destruction of equipment?

    • A.

      A. Urgent.

    • B.

      B. Routine.

    • C.

      C. Emergency.

    • D.

      D. Time compliance.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Emergency.
    Explanation
    The improvement recommendation that should be submitted for a technical order (TO) deficiency that would result in a fatal or serious injury to personnel, or destruction of equipment is "c. Emergency." This is because an emergency situation requires immediate attention and action to prevent any harm or damage.

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  • 14. 

    Within how many hours is the responsible technical content manager required to take action on a technical order (TO) emergency improvement recommendation report?

    • A.

      A. 6.

    • B.

      B. 12.

    • C.

      C. 24.

    • D.

      D. 48.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 48.
    Explanation
    The responsible technical content manager is required to take action on a technical order (TO) emergency improvement recommendation report within 48 hours. This means that they have two days to review the report and implement any necessary changes or improvements to address the emergency situation. It is important for the manager to act quickly in order to ensure the safety and efficiency of the technical operations.

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  • 15. 

    What type of recommendation must the technical content manager take action on within 40 days?

    • A.

      A. Urgent.

    • B.

      B. Routine.

    • C.

      C. Emergency.

    • D.

      D. Critical hazard.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Urgent.
    Explanation
    The technical content manager must take action on an urgent recommendation within 40 days. This implies that the recommendation requires immediate attention and cannot be delayed. It is important for the manager to prioritize and address this recommendation promptly to prevent any potential negative consequences or risks.

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  • 16. 

    Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation requires a reply within 45 days?

    • A.

      A. Urgent.

    • B.

      B. Routine.

    • C.

      C. Emergency.

    • D.

      D. Critical hazard.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Routine.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Routine. A routine technical order (TO) improvement recommendation requires a reply within 45 days. This means that it is not urgent or critical, but still important enough to require a response within a specified timeframe.

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  • 17. 

    Which type of Air Force publication includes instructions and manuals?

    • A.

      A. Standard.

    • B.

      B. Technical.

    • C.

      C. Recurring.

    • D.

      D. Specialized.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Standard.
    Explanation
    Standard Air Force publications include instructions and manuals. These publications serve as a guide for Air Force personnel and provide them with the necessary information and procedures to carry out their duties effectively. These publications are widely used throughout the Air Force and are essential for maintaining consistency and standardization in operations. Technical publications, on the other hand, focus more on specific technical aspects, recurring publications cover routine procedures, and specialized publications are tailored for specific purposes or audiences.

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  • 18. 

    An example of a directive standard publication is a

    • A.

      A. bulletin.

    • B.

      B. pamphlet.

    • C.

      C. staff digest.

    • D.

      D. supplement.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. supplement.
    Explanation
    A supplement is a type of directive standard publication that provides additional information or updates to an existing publication. It is typically used to add or clarify information that may have been missing or outdated in the original publication. Unlike a bulletin, pamphlet, or staff digest, a supplement is specifically designed to supplement or enhance an existing publication rather than being a standalone document. Therefore, the correct answer is d. supplement.

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  • 19. 

    Publications that set up the standard of management and control the official business of the Air Force are called

    • A.

      A. manuals.

    • B.

      B. pamphlets.

    • C.

      C. instructions.

    • D.

      D. operating instructions.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. instructions.
    Explanation
    Publications that set up the standard of management and control the official business of the Air Force are called instructions. Instructions provide specific guidance and procedures for carrying out tasks and operations within an organization. They are typically detailed documents that outline the steps to be followed in order to achieve a desired outcome. Manuals and pamphlets may contain instructions, but instructions themselves are specifically designed to provide clear and concise guidance for official business management and control. Operating instructions may be a subset of instructions that focus on specific operational procedures.

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  • 20. 

    What characteristic refers to how easy a liquid changes into a vapor state?

    • A.

      A. Viscosity.

    • B.

      B. Volatility.

    • C.

      C. Boiling point.

    • D.

      D. Vapor pressure.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Volatility.
    Explanation
    Volatility refers to how easily a liquid changes into a vapor state. It is a measure of the tendency of a substance to evaporate. Substances with high volatility evaporate quickly, while substances with low volatility evaporate slowly. Viscosity refers to the resistance of a liquid to flow, boiling point is the temperature at which a liquid changes into a gas, and vapor pressure is the pressure exerted by the vapor of a substance in equilibrium with its liquid phase.

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  • 21. 

    Which term is used to describe the temperature at which a liquid actively starts to vaporize?

    • A.

      A. Volatility.

    • B.

      B. Fire point.

    • C.

      C. Flash point.

    • D.

      D. Boiling point.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Boiling point.
    Explanation
    The boiling point is the temperature at which a liquid changes into a gas, and it is the term used to describe when a liquid actively starts to vaporize. Volatility refers to the tendency of a substance to evaporate, but it does not specifically indicate the temperature at which vaporization begins. Fire point and flash point are both related to the ignition of a substance, but they do not directly describe the temperature at which vaporization occurs. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Boiling point.

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  • 22. 

    What term is used to describe the ability of a substance to support combustion?

    • A.

      A. Volatility.

    • B.

      B. Fire point.

    • C.

      C. Flash point.

    • D.

      D. Flammability.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Flammability.
    Explanation
    Flammability is the correct answer because it refers to the ability of a substance to support combustion. It describes how easily a substance can catch fire and burn. Volatility refers to the tendency of a substance to vaporize, while fire point and flash point are specific temperatures at which a substance will ignite. Therefore, flammability is the most appropriate term to describe the ability of a substance to support combustion.

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  • 23. 

    What is the minimum temperature in degrees Fahrenheit (°F) at which combustible liquids have a flash point?

    • A.

      A. 100 °F.

    • B.

      B. 120 °F.

    • C.

      C. 140 °F.

    • D.

      D. 150 °F.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 100 °F.
    Explanation
    Combustible liquids have a flash point, which is the lowest temperature at which they can release enough vapor to ignite when exposed to an ignition source. The flash point is an important safety measure to determine the potential fire hazard of a liquid. The question asks for the minimum temperature at which combustible liquids have a flash point. Among the given options, the lowest temperature is 100 °F, which means that combustible liquids can have a flash point at this temperature or above.

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  • 24. 

    What temperature in degrees Fahrenheit (°F) is the minimum flash point of JP–5 jet fuel?

    • A.

      A. –20 F.

    • B.

      B. –40 F.

    • C.

      C. 100 F.

    • D.

      D. 140 F.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 140 F.
    Explanation
    The minimum flash point of JP-5 jet fuel is 140 °F. This means that the fuel will not ignite when exposed to an open flame or spark until it reaches a temperature of at least 140 °F. Any temperature below this threshold will not cause the fuel to ignite.

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  • 25. 

    The lowest temperature at which a flammable liquid gives off sufficient vapors, when mixed with air to support combustion, is known as a product’s

    • A.

      A. fire point.

    • B.

      B. flash point.

    • C.

      C. lower flammable limit.

    • D.

      D. auto ignition temperature.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. fire point.
    Explanation
    The fire point is the lowest temperature at which a flammable liquid gives off enough vapors to sustain combustion. It is a temperature above the flash point, which is the lowest temperature at which a flammable liquid can ignite momentarily. The fire point indicates the temperature at which a flammable liquid can continue to burn once ignited. The lower flammable limit refers to the minimum concentration of a flammable substance in air that can ignite, while the auto-ignition temperature is the minimum temperature at which a substance can ignite without an external ignition source.

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  • 26. 

    What is the freeze point for Jet-A jet fuel?

    • A.

      A. –40 degrees Fahrenheit (F).

    • B.

      B. –58 degrees Celsius (C).

    • C.

      C. –51 °F.

    • D.

      D. –40 °C.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. –40 degrees Fahrenheit (F).
    Explanation
    The freeze point for Jet-A jet fuel is -40 degrees Fahrenheit. This means that at temperatures below -40 degrees Fahrenheit, the jet fuel will solidify and become unusable.

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  • 27. 

    The ability of a material to transmit or conduct electricity is known as

    • A.

      A. Resistivity.

    • B.

      B. Conductivity.

    • C.

      C. Flammability.

    • D.

      D. Current density.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Conductivity.
    Explanation
    Conductivity refers to the ability of a material to transmit or conduct electricity. It is a measure of how easily electric current can flow through a substance. Materials with high conductivity, such as metals, allow electric charges to move freely, while materials with low conductivity, such as rubber or plastic, impede the flow of electric current. Therefore, conductivity is the correct term to describe the ability of a material to transmit or conduct electricity.

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  • 28. 

    At what temperature in degrees Fahrenheit (°F) will liquid oxygen (LOX) vaporize into a gaseous state?

    • A.

      A. –297 °F.

    • B.

      B. –321 °F.

    • C.

      C. –379 °F.

    • D.

      D. –395 °F.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. –297 °F.
    Explanation
    Liquid oxygen (LOX) vaporizes into a gaseous state at a temperature of –297 °F. This is because oxygen has a boiling point of –297 °F, which means that at this temperature, the liquid oxygen will start to boil and convert into a gas.

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  • 29. 

    How many cubic feet of gaseous oxygen at atmospheric pressure will one cubic foot (7.5 gallons) of liquid oxygen (LOX) expand to?

    • A.

      A. 500.

    • B.

      B. 760.

    • C.

      C. 800.

    • D.

      D. 860.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 860.
    Explanation
    When liquid oxygen (LOX) is converted into gaseous oxygen, it expands in volume. The expansion ratio is determined by the temperature and pressure conditions. In this case, it is stated that the conversion is happening at atmospheric pressure. At atmospheric pressure, one cubic foot of liquid oxygen will expand to 860 cubic feet of gaseous oxygen.

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  • 30. 

    Which is not a hazard of liquid nitrogen?

    • A.

      A. Reduces the concentration of oxygen.

    • B.

      B. Freezes or badly damages human tissue upon contact.

    • C.

      C. Burns or explodes upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel.

    • D.

      D. Builds up to tremendous pressure if it evaporates in a confined area.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Burns or explodes upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel.
    Explanation
    Liquid nitrogen does not burn or explode upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel. It is a cryogenic liquid that can cause severe frostbite or tissue damage upon contact due to its extremely low temperature. It can also reduce the concentration of oxygen in an area if it evaporates, leading to asphyxiation. Additionally, if liquid nitrogen evaporates in a confined area, it can build up to tremendous pressure, posing a risk of explosion. However, it does not have a reaction with oil, grease, or jet fuel that would cause burning or explosion.

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  • 31. 

    Much time and expense are involved in investigating and

    • A.

      A. solving accidents.

    • B.

      B. reporting accidents.

    • C.

      C. validating accidents.

    • D.

      D. discovering accidents.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. reporting accidents.
    Explanation
    Investigating and solving accidents require a significant amount of time and resources to gather evidence, analyze data, and determine the root causes. However, the given question specifically mentions "investigating and" without mentioning the outcome or purpose of the investigation. Therefore, the correct answer is "b. reporting accidents" as reporting accidents involves documenting and communicating the details of the accident to the relevant authorities or stakeholders. This process also requires time and expense to ensure accurate and comprehensive reporting.

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  • 32. 

    What is the process of connecting two or more metallic objects together using a conductor?

    • A.

      A. Bonding.

    • B.

      B. Strapping.

    • C.

      C. Equalizing.

    • D.

      D. Grounding.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Bonding.
    Explanation
    The process of connecting two or more metallic objects together using a conductor is called bonding. Bonding is done to ensure that there is an equal potential between the metallic objects, preventing the buildup of static electricity or potential differences that could lead to electrical hazards. It helps to create a safe and efficient electrical system by providing a continuous path for electrical currents to flow and preventing the occurrence of electrical shocks or damage to equipment.

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  • 33. 

    How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before inserting any object, even to determine the level of the fuel?

    • A.

      A. 15.

    • B.

      B. 20.

    • C.

      C. 30.

    • D.

      D. 35.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 30.
    Explanation
    After filling a tank, it is necessary to wait for a certain amount of time before inserting any object to determine the level of the fuel. The correct answer of 30 minutes suggests that it takes approximately 30 minutes for the fuel to settle and for an accurate reading to be obtained. Waiting for this period of time ensures that the fuel has properly distributed and any disturbances caused by filling the tank have settled, allowing for an accurate measurement to be taken.

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  • 34. 

    What is the maximum allowable speed in miles per hour (mph) when driving a special purpose vehicle on the flight line?

    • A.

      A. 5 mph.

    • B.

      B. 10 mph.

    • C.

      C. 15 mph.

    • D.

      D. 20 mph.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 10 mph.
    Explanation
    The maximum allowable speed when driving a special purpose vehicle on the flight line is 10 mph. This speed limit is set to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment on the flight line. Driving at a slower speed allows for better control and reaction time, reducing the risk of accidents or collisions. Additionally, a lower speed limit helps to minimize noise and vibrations that may disrupt ongoing operations on the flight line. Therefore, option b is the correct answer.

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  • 35. 

    Which vehicles do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft?

    • A.

      A. “Follow Me” trucks.

    • B.

      B. Refueling units.

    • C.

      C. Fire trucks.

    • D.

      D. Tugs.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. “Follow Me” trucks.
    Explanation
    "Follow Me" trucks do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft because their primary function is to guide and lead aircraft on the ground. They are responsible for directing aircraft to their designated parking spots, taxiways, or runways. Their movements are coordinated with air traffic control and they have the authority to control the movement of aircraft on the ground. Therefore, other vehicles such as refueling units, fire trucks, and tugs must yield the right of way to "Follow Me" trucks as they have a higher priority and are essential for the safe navigation of aircraft on the ground.

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  • 36. 

    What does a flashing red and green light signal from the air traffic control tower mean to a moving vehicle on the flight line?

    • A.

      A. General warning, use extreme caution.

    • B.

      B. Return to starting point.

    • C.

      C. Safe to cross.

    • D.

      D. Stop.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. General warning, use extreme caution.
    Explanation
    A flashing red and green light signal from the air traffic control tower indicates a general warning and advises the moving vehicle on the flight line to use extreme caution. This signal is meant to alert the driver to potential hazards or dangers in the area and to proceed with heightened awareness and caution. It does not indicate a specific action such as returning to the starting point, crossing safely, or stopping, but rather serves as a general warning to exercise caution while on the flight line.

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  • 37. 

    When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, under most circumstances, you will not position it any closer than what minimum distance (feet) from any portion of an aircraft?

    • A.

      A. 5.

    • B.

      B. 10.

    • C.

      C. 25.

    • D.

      D. 50.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 10.
    Explanation
    When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, it is important to maintain a safe distance from the aircraft to prevent any potential accidents or damage. The minimum distance that the refueling vehicle should be positioned from any portion of the aircraft is 10 feet. This distance allows for enough space to maneuver the vehicle safely and reduces the risk of any accidental contact with the aircraft.

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  • 38. 

    Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within how many feet of operating aircraft radar?

    • A.

      A. 100.

    • B.

      B. 150.

    • C.

      C. 200.

    • D.

      D. 300.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 300.
    Explanation
    Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within 300 feet of operating aircraft radar because the radar emits electromagnetic waves that can interfere with the fueling process and potentially cause a fire or explosion. It is important to maintain a safe distance to ensure the safety of both the aircraft and the personnel involved in fuel servicing operations.

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  • 39. 

    You should discontinue fuel operations when electrical storms are within how many nautical miles of a fuel servicing area?

    • A.

      A. 3.

    • B.

      B. 5.

    • C.

      C. 10.

    • D.

      D. 25.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 5.
    Explanation
    When electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles of a fuel servicing area, it is recommended to discontinue fuel operations. This is because electrical storms can pose a significant risk of lightning strikes, which can ignite fuel and cause explosions or fires. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize safety and suspend fuel operations to prevent any potential accidents or hazards.

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  • 40. 

    A fuel spill less than two feet in any plane direction is classified in this spill category.

    • A.

      A. Class I.

    • B.

      B. Class II.

    • C.

      C. Class III.

    • D.

      D. Class IV.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Class I.
    Explanation
    A fuel spill less than two feet in any plane direction is classified as a Class I spill. This means that it is a small spill that can be easily contained and cleaned up. Class I spills are considered to have a low risk of spreading or causing significant damage.

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  • 41. 

    Which fuel spill classification involves an area not more than 10 feet in any plane direction?

    • A.

      A. Class I.

    • B.

      B. Class II.

    • C.

      C. Class III.

    • D.

      D. Class IV.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Class II.
    Explanation
    Class II fuel spills involve an area not more than 10 feet in any plane direction. This classification is used for spills that are relatively small and can be contained and cleaned up easily. Class II spills pose a lower risk compared to larger spills and are typically easier to manage and mitigate.

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  • 42. 

    Operating aircraft can commonly produce noise levels in decibel ranges of

    • A.

      A. 40 to 90.

    • B.

      B. 80 to 100.

    • C.

      C. 90 to 110.

    • D.

      D. 110 to 130.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 110 to 130.
    Explanation
    Operating aircraft can commonly produce high levels of noise due to the powerful engines and the speed at which they travel. The noise produced by aircraft can range from 110 to 130 decibels, which is considered to be very loud. This range is higher than the other options provided, indicating that the noise levels produced by aircraft are typically louder than 40 to 90, 80 to 100, and 90 to 110 decibels.

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  • 43. 

    Normally, what minimum safe distance (in feet) should be maintained from the front and sides of jet engine intakes?

    • A.

      A. 10.

    • B.

      B. 15.

    • C.

      C. 25.

    • D.

      D. 50.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 25.
    Explanation
    Jet engine intakes are extremely powerful and can create strong suction forces. To ensure safety, a minimum distance of 25 feet should be maintained from the front and sides of jet engine intakes. This distance helps to prevent any objects or individuals from being pulled into the intake, which could cause damage to the engine or pose a risk to people nearby.

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  • 44. 

    At a minimum, how many feet behind an aircraft’s operating jet engine is considered safe?

    • A.

      A. 50.

    • B.

      B. 100.

    • C.

      C. 150.

    • D.

      D. 200.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 200.
    Explanation
    The minimum safe distance behind an aircraft's operating jet engine is considered to be 200 feet. This is to ensure that individuals and objects are not exposed to the high temperatures, noise, and exhaust gases produced by the engine, which could cause harm or damage.

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  • 45. 

    What is the minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would require a dike area?

    • A.

      A. 661 barrels.

    • B.

      B. 561 barrels.

    • C.

      C. 661 gallons.

    • D.

      D. 561 gallons.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 661 gallons.
    Explanation
    The minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would require a dike area is 661 gallons. This means that any tank with a capacity equal to or greater than 661 gallons would need to have a dike area to contain any potential spills or leaks.

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  • 46. 

    Unlike most other fueling operations, cryogenic production does not stop when electrical storms are within

    • A.

      A. 1 nautical mile.

    • B.

      B. 3 nautical miles.

    • C.

      C. 5 nautical miles.

    • D.

      D. 7 nautical miles.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 5 nautical miles.
    Explanation
    Cryogenic production is unique because it doesn't have to stop during electrical storms that are within 5 nautical miles. This suggests that cryogenic production facilities have safety measures in place to continue operations even during adverse weather conditions.

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  • 47. 

    Fuels laboratories must have certain features, such as

    • A.

      A. a deluge shower in the corner of the laboratory.

    • B.

      B. windows made of reinforced wire safety glass.

    • C.

      C. at least 210 square feet of working space.

    • D.

      D. doors that are fireproof and open inward.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. windows made of reinforced wire safety glass.
    Explanation
    Fuels laboratories must have windows made of reinforced wire safety glass to ensure the safety of the laboratory and its occupants. This type of glass is designed to withstand high levels of impact and prevent shattering, reducing the risk of injuries from broken glass. It provides an extra layer of protection in case of accidents or explosions that may occur in the laboratory.

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  • 48. 

    What is the minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the laboratory from other portions of the building?

    • A.

      A. 15 minutes.

    • B.

      B. 30 minutes.

    • C.

      C. 45 minutes.

    • D.

      D. 60 minutes.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 60 minutes.
    Explanation
    The minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the laboratory from other portions of the building is 60 minutes. This means that these walls are designed to withstand fire for at least 60 minutes, providing a barrier and preventing the spread of fire to other areas of the building. A higher fire rating ensures greater protection and allows more time for evacuation and firefighting efforts.

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  • 49. 

    Self-closing metal containers used for combustible waste disposal in fuels laboratories are identified by being painted

    • A.

      A. red with yellow letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE.

    • B.

      B. yellow with red letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE.

    • C.

      C. red with yellow band and COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE stenciled in 2-inch letters inside the band.

    • D.

      D. yellow with red band and COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE stenciled in 2-inch letters inside the band.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. yellow with red letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. yellow with red letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE. This is because the question is asking for the identification of self-closing metal containers used for combustible waste disposal in fuels laboratories. These containers are identified by being painted yellow with red letters specifically designating them as combustible solid waste containers.

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  • 50. 

    At least how many feet from the fuels laboratory building must a 55-gallon waste drum be positioned?

    • A.

      A. 10.

    • B.

      B. 20.

    • C.

      C. 50.

    • D.

      D. 100.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 50.
    Explanation
    Based on safety regulations and guidelines, a 55-gallon waste drum should be positioned at least 50 feet away from the fuels laboratory building. This distance is necessary to minimize the risk of fire or explosion in case of any accidents or leaks from the drum. It allows for a safe buffer zone to protect the building and its occupants from potential hazards.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 21, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    RobertSemcho
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