2AX7X Ure Questions 1-100 Volume 2

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1/100 Questions

(201) Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
- Air Combat Command (ACC).
- Air Training Command (ATC).
- Air Reserve Command (AFRC).
- Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

About This Quiz

This quiz consists of all 100 Unit Review Exercise questions for Volume 2 of the 7-Level Aerospace Maintenance Craftsman CDC

2AX7X Ure Questions 1-100 Volume 2 - Quiz

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2.

(202) Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
- Operations officer
- Group commander.
- Unit training manager
- Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.
Correct Answer

A. Unit training manager

Explanation

The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before the trainee starts a career development course (CDC).

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3.

(208) Who is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?
- Nearest military installation
- Local law enforcement.
- Aircraft commander.
- Local fire chief.
Correct Answer

A. Aircraft commander.

Explanation

The aircraft commander is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing. As the highest-ranking officer on the aircraft, the aircraft commander has the authority and responsibility to ensure the security and safety of the aircraft and its equipment. This includes taking necessary measures to protect classified equipment from unauthorized access or tampering until appropriate authorities can take over.

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4.

(201) In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
- Chief master sergeant (CMSgt).
- Senior master sergeant (SMSgt).
- Master sergeant (MSgt).
- Technical sergeant (TSgt).
Correct Answer

A. Master sergeant (MSgt).

Explanation

To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of master sergeant (MSgt). This means that only individuals who have reached the rank of MSgt and have been approved by the MGX/CC can have the authority to downgrade a "Red-X."

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5.

(205) Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?
- XF3
- XD2
- XD1
- XB3
Correct Answer

A. XB3

Explanation

Before an asset can be placed on a bench stock, it must be assigned the expendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) XB3.

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6.

(211) Units cannot make local modifications to which AF publication?
- Manuals
- Instructions
- Policy Directives.
- Technical Orders.
Correct Answer

A. Technical Orders.

Explanation

Technical Orders cannot be locally modified by units. Technical Orders are official documents that provide detailed instructions for the installation, operation, and maintenance of military equipment. They are created and updated by the Department of Defense and are meant to be followed exactly as written. Local modifications to Technical Orders could lead to inconsistencies and potential safety hazards. Therefore, units are not authorized to make any local modifications to Technical Orders.

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7.

(213) “Red Ball” maintenance defines a situation that requires all of the following except
- Priority actions.
- A sense of urgency.
- Specific local procedures.
- An approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver.
Correct Answer

A. An approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver.

Explanation

A "Red Ball" maintenance situation refers to a critical and urgent maintenance issue that requires immediate attention. In such situations, priority actions, a sense of urgency, and specific local procedures are necessary to address the problem promptly and effectively. However, an approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver is not required in a "Red Ball" maintenance situation. This means that even if there is a waiver for TO compliance, it does not exempt the maintenance personnel from taking immediate action and following the necessary procedures to resolve the urgent issue.

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8.

(213) During “Red Ball” maintenance it is important that expediters have a quick reference list (QRL) available in order to
- Verify time change parts.
- Check supply delivery priorities.
- Reduce the time needed to research parts.
- Provide contact information for key personnel.
Correct Answer

A. Reduce the time needed to research parts.

Explanation

During "Red Ball" maintenance, expediters need to have a quick reference list (QRL) available. This QRL is important because it helps reduce the time needed to research parts. By having a list of commonly used parts and their specifications readily accessible, expediters can quickly find the information they need without having to spend time searching for it. This saves time and allows them to expedite the maintenance process more efficiently.

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9.

(215) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?
- Special Inspection.
- Personnel Evaluation
- Management Inspection.
- Quality Verification Inspection.
Correct Answer

A. Quality Verification Inspection.

Explanation

After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment. This inspection ensures that the task was completed to the required quality standards and verifies that all necessary maintenance procedures were followed correctly. It is a crucial step to ensure that the maintenance work meets the desired quality and safety standards.

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10.

(217) Which maintenance squadron (MXS) flight is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the maintenance group’s (MXG’s) Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instruction?
- Fabrication Flight.
- Accessories Flight.
- Maintenance Flight.
- Aerospace Ground Equipment Flight.
Correct Answer

A. Maintenance Flight.

Explanation

The correct answer is Maintenance Flight. The Maintenance Flight is responsible for the maintenance group's Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instruction. This means that they are in charge of overseeing the procedures and guidelines for recovering and repairing aircraft that have been involved in accidents, damaged, or disabled. The Maintenance Flight is responsible for ensuring that the CDDAR Program operates effectively and efficiently within the maintenance group.

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11.

(201) The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?
- Any 7-level course.
- Weight and Balance
- Maintenance Orientation.
- General Technical Order System.
Correct Answer

A. Maintenance Orientation.

Explanation

The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation course in the Maintenance Training Flight (MTF). This method involves grouping related topics together in a block format, allowing for more efficient and focused learning. The Maintenance Orientation course provides an overview of the maintenance career field, including basic principles, policies, and procedures. It is designed to familiarize students with the overall maintenance environment and prepare them for further specialized training.

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12.

(203) A unit manpower document (UDM) does not
- Show the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular position
- Provide detailed information about each manpower requirement.
- Show the name of person assigned to a particular position.
- Show the required grade for a particular position.
Correct Answer

A. Show the name of person assigned to a particular position.

Explanation

A unit manpower document (UDM) is a document that provides detailed information about each manpower requirement within a unit. It includes the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular position, the required grade for a particular position, and other relevant information. However, it does not show the name of the person assigned to a particular position, as this information can change frequently and is not included in the UDM.

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13.

(205) Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
- Oil sheen on standing water.
- Stressed vegetation.
- Stains on ground.
- Cloudy water.
Correct Answer

A. Cloudy water.

Explanation

Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can occur naturally due to sediment or minerals present in the water. Oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to be indicators of pollution.

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14.

(216) The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the
- Maintenance Flight.
- Quality Assurance section
- Engine Management section.
- Maintenance Operations Center.
Correct Answer

A. Quality Assurance section

Explanation

The correct answer is Quality Assurance section because the Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is responsible for monitoring and preventing damage caused by foreign objects on the aircraft's wings. This task falls under the purview of the Quality Assurance section, which is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance and operational procedures meet the required standards. The Quality Assurance section plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall safety and efficiency of the aircraft.

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15.

(217) The maximum total initial duty time (including home station duty, travel time, and recovery site duty upon arrival) that a maintenance recovery team member may be worked before being given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest is
- 14 hours.
- 16 hours.
- 18 hours.
- 20 hours.
Correct Answer

A. 16 hours.

Explanation

A maintenance recovery team member is allowed to work for a maximum total initial duty time, which includes home station duty, travel time, and recovery site duty upon arrival. After this maximum duty time, they must be given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest. The correct answer is 16 hours, which means that the team member can work for up to 16 hours before they must be given a break.

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16.

(212) Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order (TO) waivers or deviations?
- Telephone.
- Signed letter.
- Organizational e-mail.
- Defense Massage System.
Correct Answer

A. Telephone.

Explanation

Telephone is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order (TO) waivers or deviations. This means that using a telephone to communicate these waivers or deviations is not considered acceptable or authorized. The other options - signed letter, organizational email, and Defense Massage System - are all approved methods of communication for issuing TO waivers or deviations.

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17.

(213) When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during what type of operation?
- Compass rose.
- Hot cargo pad.
- Radiographic inspection.
- Radar operational testing.
Correct Answer

A. Compass rose.

Explanation

When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during a compass rose operation. This means that the aircraft is being towed in a circular pattern around a compass rose, which is a compass calibration tool on the ground. By attaching an external power unit, the aircraft's navigational equipment can be calibrated accurately while it is being towed in this specific operation.

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18.

(217) Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?
- AFTTP 3–21.1, Aircraft Maintenance.
- AFI 10–403, Deployment Planning and Execution.
- AFI 33–103, Requirements Development and Processing.
- AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.
Correct Answer

A. AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.

Explanation

AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management, provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication outlines the procedures and responsibilities for managing aircraft and equipment maintenance, including the planning and execution of maintenance operations. It covers topics such as maintenance management principles, maintenance documentation, maintenance planning, and resource management. Therefore, it is the most appropriate publication to refer to for guidance on executing an effective maintenance recovery operation.

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19.

(218) Which AF Portal link provides access to recurring AF periodicals like Airman Magazine and the Air & Space Journal?
- AF Electronic Publishing (AF e-Publishing).
- Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).
- AF Information Technology E-Learning (AF IT E-Learning).
- AF Center of Excellence for Knowledge Management (AFKM).
Correct Answer

A. AF Electronic Publishing (AF e-Publishing).

Explanation

AF Electronic Publishing (AF e-Publishing) is the correct answer because it is the link that provides access to recurring AF periodicals like Airman Magazine and the Air & Space Journal. AF e-Publishing is a platform that allows for the distribution and access of electronic publications within the Air Force. It is a centralized repository for official Air Force publications, including periodicals like Airman Magazine. Therefore, accessing AF e-Publishing would provide access to the recurring AF periodicals mentioned in the question.

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20.

(201) Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual’s training records?
- Specialty Training Standard
- Career Field Education and Training Plan
- AF Form 623, Individual Training Record.
- AF IMT 623a, On-The-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet.
Correct Answer

A. AF Form 623, Individual Training Record.

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 623, Individual Training Record. This form is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's training and qualifications, including both formal and on-the-job training. It provides a standardized format for documenting and tracking an individual's training history, making it easier to review and assess their proficiency and readiness for specific tasks or positions.

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21.

(203) Manpower authorizations are
- Funded
- Unfunded
- Unvalidated
- Both funded and unfunded
Correct Answer

A. Funded

Explanation

Manpower authorizations are funded, meaning that they have the necessary financial resources allocated to support them. This implies that there is a budget in place to cover the costs associated with these authorizations, such as salaries and benefits for the personnel involved.

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22.

(206) An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
- I
- III
- IIB
- IIA
Correct Answer

A. IIB

Explanation

Before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific block IIB of supply training.

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23.

(206) Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metals Recovery Program?
- Silver.
- Copper.
- Iridium.
- Rhodium.
Correct Answer

A. Copper.

Explanation

The Precious Metals Recovery Program covers the recovery of precious metals such as silver, iridium, and rhodium. However, copper is not included in this program.

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24.

(207) Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
- D18, Priority Monitor Report.
- D04, Daily Document Register.
- M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
- D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
Correct Answer

A. D04, Daily Document Register.

Explanation

The Daily Document Register (D04) is the correct answer because it provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document serves as a tracking tool for keeping a record of all documents that have been processed, allowing for easy reference and tracking of the documents throughout the day. The other options listed, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24), and Repair Cycle Asset Management List (D23), do not specifically provide information on all document numbers processed during the day.

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25.

(212) The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?
- Quality Assurance.
- Engine Management.
- Maintenance Operations Center.
- Maintenance Data System Analysis.
Correct Answer

A. Quality Assurance.

Explanation

The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section. This is because the role of the Product Improvement Manager is to oversee and manage the process of improving the quality of products or services. Quality Assurance is responsible for ensuring that products or services meet the required standards and specifications. Therefore, it makes sense for the Product Improvement Manager to be assigned to the Quality Assurance section, as they will work closely with this team to identify areas for improvement and implement strategies to enhance the overall quality of the products or services.

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26.

(213) What Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) section is required to ensure Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) equipped aircraft are identified as such in weekly schedules?
- Aircraft.
- Specialist.
- Aircrew and Maintenance Debrief.
- Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
Correct Answer

A. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

Explanation

The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section is responsible for ensuring that Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) equipped aircraft are identified as such in weekly schedules. This section is in charge of planning and scheduling maintenance activities, and it is crucial for them to accurately identify ASIP equipped aircraft to ensure their structural integrity is maintained.

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27.

(217) After initial training, how often must Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Team members receive additional academic and hands-on training?
- Annually.
- Quarterly.
- Semiannually.
- Biennially.
Correct Answer

A. Annually.

Explanation

Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Team members must receive additional academic and hands-on training on an annual basis. This ensures that they stay updated with the latest techniques, procedures, and equipment related to aircraft recovery. Regular training helps maintain their skills and knowledge, enabling them to effectively respond to and recover crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft.

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28.

(212) Who is the final approval authority for waivers of technical order (TO) system policies and procedures?
- HQ ACC/A4MT.
- HQ AFMC/A4YE.
- HQ USAF/A4MM.
- HQ AFMC/A4BM.
Correct Answer

A. HQ USAF/A4MM.

Explanation

HQ USAF/A4MM is the final approval authority for waivers of technical order (TO) system policies and procedures. This means that any requests for waivers must be submitted to HQ USAF/A4MM for review and approval. They have the ultimate authority to grant or deny these waivers based on their understanding of the TO system and its policies and procedures.

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29.

(213) Which of the following is not a member of the Joint Council on Aging Aircraft (JCAA)?
- US Army.
- US Air Force.
- Federal Aviation Administration.
- National Transportation Safety Board.
Correct Answer

A. National Transportation Safety Board.

Explanation

The Joint Council on Aging Aircraft (JCAA) is an organization that focuses on the safety and maintenance of aging aircraft. It is composed of various entities involved in aviation, such as the US Army, US Air Force, and the Federal Aviation Administration. The National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB), however, is not a member of the JCAA. The NTSB is an independent federal agency that investigates transportation accidents and makes recommendations to improve safety. While the NTSB plays a crucial role in aviation safety, it is not a member of the JCAA.

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30.

(202) How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
- Monthly
- Quarterly.
- Semiannually
- Annually
Correct Answer

A. Monthly

Explanation

The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This suggests that the MTF regularly updates the MXG/CC on the progress and status of their training activities. By providing monthly briefings, the MTF ensures that the MXG/CC is kept informed and can make any necessary adjustments or decisions based on the training status.

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31.

(205) Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
- Operations officer.
- Section supervisor.
- Squadron commander.
- Squadron safety monitor.
Correct Answer

A. Section supervisor.

Explanation

The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This is because the section supervisor oversees the day-to-day operations and safety of the workcenter, and therefore has the knowledge and authority to identify and communicate the hazards to the personnel under their supervision. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may have a role in overall safety management, but the section supervisor is specifically responsible for the HAZCOM training plan.

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32.

(208) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
- Flight Service Center (FSC).
- Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
- Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).
- Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).
Correct Answer

A. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).

Explanation

The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for accounting for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records. This office is specifically designated to handle the tracking and management of these assets, ensuring that they are properly accounted for and maintained. The other options listed, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the specific responsibility for SPRAM assets managed on in-use detail records.

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33.

(208) When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every
- Hour
- 2 hours
- 3 hours
- 4 hours
Correct Answer

A. 3 hours

Explanation

When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, they must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every 3 hours. This is important to ensure the safety and security of the aircraft when it is unattended. Regular security checks help to prevent unauthorized access, tampering, or any potential threats to the aircraft. By conducting these checks every 3 hours, any suspicious activities or issues can be identified and addressed promptly, reducing the risk of any security breaches or incidents.

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34.

(209) When items are placed in an aircraft’s tail number bin (TNB), which entry is not normally needed?
- Security classification.
- Date received.
- Status.
- Noun
Correct Answer

A. Security classification.

Explanation

When items are placed in an aircraft's tail number bin (TNB), the security classification is not normally needed. The security classification refers to the level of sensitivity or confidentiality of the items, and it is not relevant or necessary for the placement of items in the TNB. The other entries - date received, status, and noun - may be important for tracking and organizing the items in the TNB.

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35.

(214) How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
Correct Answer

A. 9

Explanation

An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. The question asks how many digits make up this code. The correct answer is 9. This means that the EID code consists of 9 digits.

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36.

(215) Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?
- Wing Inspector General.
- MAJCOM Inspector General.
- Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).
- Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).
Correct Answer

A. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).

Explanation

The Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector is directly responsible to the Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT) for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed.

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37.

(216) What time-frame is used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object?
- Take-off to landing.
- Taxi-out to taxi-in for final park.
- Engine start to engine shut down.
- Crew-show until aircraft released to maintenance.
Correct Answer

A. Engine start to engine shut down.

Explanation

The time-frame used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object is from engine start to engine shut down. This means that any item that falls off the aircraft during this time period must be reported.

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38.

(202) An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
- 15
- 30
- 45
- 60
Correct Answer

A. 30

Explanation

If an individual is unable to complete their training recertification due to being on TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed up to 30 days after returning to complete the recertification before decertification is required. This means that as long as it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, they have a 30-day grace period to complete the training and maintain their certification.

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39.

(203) Which element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study considers weather modeling conditions?
- Support facilities
- Support equipment
- Operations requirements
- Maintenance requirements
Correct Answer

A. Operations requirements

Explanation

The element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study that considers weather modeling conditions is operations requirements. This element focuses on the specific operational needs and considerations, including any impact that weather conditions may have on the logistics operations. It involves analyzing and planning for the necessary resources, processes, and procedures to ensure smooth and efficient operations, taking into account factors such as weather forecasts and potential disruptions caused by adverse weather conditions.

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40.

(212) Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?
- Urgent.
- Routine.
- Standard.
- Emergency.
Correct Answer

A. Standard.

Explanation

The question asks for a technical order (TO) change priority category that is not included in the given options. The options provided are Urgent, Routine, Standard, and Emergency. Among these options, Standard is the only one that is not a TO change priority category.

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41.

(212) An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as what technical order (TO) change priority?
- Urgent.
- Routine
- Standard.
- Emergency.
Correct Answer

A. Urgent.

Explanation

An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as an urgent technical order (TO) change priority because it involves addressing a potential safety or environmental hazard. Urgent TO changes are typically reserved for situations that require immediate action to prevent harm or mitigate risks.

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42.

(216) The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?
- 8
- 12
- 24
- 48
Correct Answer

A. 24

Explanation

The correct answer is 24. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is required to notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This is important for reporting and addressing any potential damage caused by foreign objects, such as debris or particles, that could impact the safety and performance of aircraft. Timely notification allows for prompt investigation and necessary actions to prevent further incidents and ensure the ongoing safety of operations.

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43.

(217) How often must the Team Chief for the Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program conduct a CDDAR exercise?
- Monthly.
- Semiannually.
- Quarterly.
- Annually.
Correct Answer

A. Annually.

Explanation

The Team Chief for the Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program must conduct a CDDAR exercise annually. This means that the exercise must be carried out once every year.

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44.

(203) In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what percentage of overhead manning?
- 5
- 10
- 15
- 20
Correct Answer

A. 10

Explanation

The logistics composite model (LCOM) allows for 10% of overhead manning to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks. This means that 10% of the resources allocated for logistics tasks can be used for these additional needs.

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45.

(204) Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
- Maintenance supply liaison.
- Maintenance supply support.
- Maintenance operations center.
- Maintenance data system analysis.
Correct Answer

A. Maintenance supply liaison.

Explanation

The correct answer is Maintenance supply liaison. The maintenance supply liaison is the agency responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a link between maintenance operations and supply support, ensuring that the necessary supplies and equipment are available for maintenance activities and addressing any issues that may arise in the supply chain.

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46.

(206) Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
- Section supervisor.
- Squadron Commander.
- Flight Commander/Chief.
- Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
Correct Answer

A. Squadron Commander.

Explanation

The Squadron Commander is responsible for appointing an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This role involves managing and overseeing the equipment inventory and ensuring that it is properly maintained and accounted for. The Squadron Commander has the authority and responsibility to select a suitable person for this position, who will be accountable for the equipment under their care.

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47.

(209) Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
- 1A or JA.
- AR or BR.
- AA or AM.
- BM or CM.
Correct Answer

A. AR or BR.

Explanation

The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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48.

(211) Who is responsible for establishing a maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group missions and activities?
- Maintenance Squadron Commander (MXS CC).
- MXG Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).
- MXG Superintendent (MXG/SUPT).
- MXG Commander (MXG/CC).
Correct Answer

A. MXG Commander (MXG/CC).

Explanation

The MXG Commander (MXG/CC) is responsible for establishing a maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group missions and activities. This means that the MXG Commander is in charge of appointing someone within the MXG to oversee the implementation and compliance of TOs within the group.

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49.

(211) Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?
- Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.
- Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts.
- Advising MXG/CC on TO availability.
- Resolving TO availability problems.
Correct Answer

A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.

Explanation

This duty is not normally performed by a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office. The MXG technical order distribution office is responsible for assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not a typical duty of the MXG technical order distribution office.

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2AX7X Ure Questions 1-100 Volume 2

(201) Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

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(202) Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

(208) Who is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?

(201) In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

(205) Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?

(211) Units cannot make local modifications to which AF publication?

(213) “Red Ball” maintenance defines a situation that requires all of the following except

(213) During “Red Ball” maintenance it is important that expediters have a quick reference list (QRL) available in order to

(215) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

(217) Which maintenance squadron (MXS) flight is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the maintenance group’s (MXG’s) Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instruction?

(201) The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

(203) A unit manpower document (UDM) does not

(205) Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

(216) The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the

(217) The maximum total initial duty time (including home station duty, travel time, and recovery site duty upon arrival) that a maintenance recovery team member may be worked before being given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest is

(212) Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order (TO) waivers or deviations?

(213) When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during what type of operation?

(217) Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

(218) Which AF Portal link provides access to recurring AF periodicals like Airman Magazine and the Air & Space Journal?

(201) Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual’s training records?

(203) Manpower authorizations are

(206) An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

(206) Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metals Recovery Program?

(207) Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

(212) The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

(213) What Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) section is required to ensure Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) equipped aircraft are identified as such in weekly schedules?

(217) After initial training, how often must Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Team members receive additional academic and hands-on training?

(212) Who is the final approval authority for waivers of technical order (TO) system policies and procedures?

(213) Which of the following is not a member of the Joint Council on Aging Aircraft (JCAA)?

(202) How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

(205) Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

(208) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

(208) When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

(209) When items are placed in an aircraft’s tail number bin (TNB), which entry is not normally needed?

(214) How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

(215) Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?

(216) What time-frame is used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object?

(202) An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

(203) Which element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study considers weather modeling conditions?

(212) Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?

(212) An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as what technical order (TO) change priority?

(216) The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?

(217) How often must the Team Chief for the Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program conduct a CDDAR exercise?

(203) In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what percentage of overhead manning?

(204) Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

(206) Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

(209) Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

(211) Who is responsible for establishing a maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group missions and activities?

(211) Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?