2AX7X Ure Questions 1-100 Volume 2
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This quiz consists of all 100 Unit Review Exercise questions for Volume 2 of the 7-Level Aerospace Maintenance Craftsman CDC
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(201) Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
- A.
Air Combat Command (ACC).
- B.
Air Training Command (ATC).
- C.
Air Reserve Command (AFRC).
- D.
Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
Correct Answer
D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).Explanation
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). This means that TDs fall under the command and authority of AETC for administrative purposes. AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel, so it makes sense that TDs, which are involved in training, would be assigned to this command.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(201) Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs) normally do not provide what type of training?
- A.
Cross utilization training.
- B.
Continuation training.
- C.
Ancillary training.
- D.
Formal training.
Correct Answer
C. Ancillary training.Explanation
AETC training detachments (TDs) do not provide ancillary training. Ancillary training refers to additional training that is not directly related to the main job or occupation. AETC TDs focus on providing formal training, which is the primary training required for a specific job or occupation. Ancillary training may be provided by other units or organizations within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(201) The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?
- A.
Any 7-level course.
- B.
Weight and Balance
- C.
Maintenance Orientation.
- D.
General Technical Order System.
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance Orientation.Explanation
The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation course in the Maintenance Training Flight (MTF). This method involves grouping related topics together in a block format, allowing for more efficient and focused learning. The Maintenance Orientation course provides an overview of the maintenance career field, including basic principles, policies, and procedures. It is designed to familiarize students with the overall maintenance environment and prepare them for further specialized training.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(201) Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within how many months?
- A.
11
- B.
12
- C.
13
- D.
14
Correct Answer
C. 13Explanation
Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within 13 months. This indicates that there is a specific time limit for completing these courses, and it is set at 13 months.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(201) Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual’s training records?
- A.
Specialty Training Standard
- B.
Career Field Education and Training Plan
- C.
AF Form 623, Individual Training Record.
- D.
AF IMT 623a, On-The-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet.
Correct Answer
C. AF Form 623, Individual Training Record.Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 623, Individual Training Record. This form is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's training and qualifications, including both formal and on-the-job training. It provides a standardized format for documenting and tracking an individual's training history, making it easier to review and assess their proficiency and readiness for specific tasks or positions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(201) All of the following can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular work center except
- A.
MAJCOMs
- B.
Supervisors
- C.
Commanders.
- D.
Unit training managers.
Correct Answer
D. Unit training managers.Explanation
Unit training managers are responsible for managing the training requirements and programs for a specific work center. They ensure that all personnel in the work center receive the necessary training to perform their duties effectively. However, they do not have the authority to designate critical tasks for a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). This responsibility typically falls under the purview of MAJCOMs, supervisors, and commanders who have a broader oversight and decision-making role in determining critical tasks for specific AFSCs.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(201) Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade?
- A.
Squadron operations officer.
- B.
MAJCOM functional manager.
- C.
Squadron commander (SQ/CC).
- D.
Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC).
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC).Explanation
The Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC) must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade. This indicates that the MXG/CC has the authority to grant exceptions and allow individuals to perform tasks that are typically reserved for higher-ranking personnel. The MXG/CC's approval ensures that the individual is qualified and capable of performing the task effectively.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(201) In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
- A.
Chief master sergeant (CMSgt).
- B.
Senior master sergeant (SMSgt).
- C.
Master sergeant (MSgt).
- D.
Technical sergeant (TSgt).
Correct Answer
C. Master sergeant (MSgt).Explanation
To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of master sergeant (MSgt). This means that only individuals who have reached the rank of MSgt and have been approved by the MGX/CC can have the authority to downgrade a "Red-X."Rate this question:
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- 9.
(202) What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
B. IIExplanation
The correct answer is II. This training phase consists of four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(202) What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?
- A.
Maintenance qualification.
- B.
Maintenance refresher
- C.
On-the-job
- D.
Ancillary
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance qualification.Explanation
Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement the initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. This type of training is focused on maintaining and enhancing maintenance qualifications.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(202) How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annually
Correct Answer
A. MonthlyExplanation
The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This suggests that the MTF regularly updates the MXG/CC on the progress and status of their training activities. By providing monthly briefings, the MTF ensures that the MXG/CC is kept informed and can make any necessary adjustments or decisions based on the training status.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(202) An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
If an individual is unable to complete their training recertification due to being on TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed up to 30 days after returning to complete the recertification before decertification is required. This means that as long as it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, they have a 30-day grace period to complete the training and maintain their certification.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(202) Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Operations officer
- B.
Group commander.
- C.
Unit training manager
- D.
Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.
Correct Answer
C. Unit training managerExplanation
The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before the trainee starts a career development course (CDC).Rate this question:
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- 14.
(202) Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your next step is to
- A.
Evaluate training
- B.
Select training strategies
- C.
Determine training needs.
- D.
Determine training capabilities.
Correct Answer
C. Determine training needs.Explanation
After completing the master task list for the master training plan, the next step is to determine the training needs. This means identifying the specific areas or skills that need to be addressed through training. By determining the training needs, organizations can ensure that the training program is tailored to address the specific gaps or deficiencies in knowledge or skills. This step is crucial in designing an effective training program that meets the needs of the employees and the organization as a whole.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(203) In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what percentage of overhead manning?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
Correct Answer
B. 10Explanation
The logistics composite model (LCOM) allows for 10% of overhead manning to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks. This means that 10% of the resources allocated for logistics tasks can be used for these additional needs.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(203) Which element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study considers weather modeling conditions?
- A.
Support facilities
- B.
Support equipment
- C.
Operations requirements
- D.
Maintenance requirements
Correct Answer
C. Operations requirementsExplanation
The element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study that considers weather modeling conditions is operations requirements. This element focuses on the specific operational needs and considerations, including any impact that weather conditions may have on the logistics operations. It involves analyzing and planning for the necessary resources, processes, and procedures to ensure smooth and efficient operations, taking into account factors such as weather forecasts and potential disruptions caused by adverse weather conditions.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(203) Which factor is not modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study?
- A.
Spare parts
- B.
Maintenance people
- C.
Training deployments.
- D.
Aerospace ground equipment.
Correct Answer
C. Training deployments.Explanation
In a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study, spare parts, maintenance people, and aerospace ground equipment are all factors that are typically considered and modeled. However, training deployments are not typically included in the LCOM manpower study. This is because training deployments are temporary and do not have a long-term impact on the overall manpower requirements. Therefore, they are not included in the modeling process.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(203) Manpower authorizations are
- A.
Funded
- B.
Unfunded
- C.
Unvalidated
- D.
Both funded and unfunded
Correct Answer
A. FundedExplanation
Manpower authorizations are funded, meaning that they have the necessary financial resources allocated to support them. This implies that there is a budget in place to cover the costs associated with these authorizations, such as salaries and benefits for the personnel involved.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(203) A unit manpower document (UDM) does not
- A.
Show the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular position
- B.
Provide detailed information about each manpower requirement.
- C.
Show the name of person assigned to a particular position.
- D.
Show the required grade for a particular position.
Correct Answer
C. Show the name of person assigned to a particular position.Explanation
A unit manpower document (UDM) is a document that provides detailed information about each manpower requirement within a unit. It includes the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular position, the required grade for a particular position, and other relevant information. However, it does not show the name of the person assigned to a particular position, as this information can change frequently and is not included in the UDM.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(203) A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held
- A.
Weekly.
- B.
Monthly.
- C.
Quarterly.
- D.
Semiannually.
Correct Answer
B. Monthly.Explanation
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held monthly. This indicates that the meeting takes place once every month.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(203) Which maintenance group (MXG) office acts as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals?
- A.
Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).
- B.
Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA).
- C.
Maintenance operations center (MOC).
- D.
Programs and Resources Flight.
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA).Explanation
The Maintenance Data System Analysis (MDSA) office acts as the Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals. This means that they are responsible for analyzing and interpreting maintenance data to identify trends, patterns, and areas for improvement. They play a crucial role in ensuring that maintenance operations are efficient and effective by providing valuable insights and recommendations based on their analysis of the data.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(204) Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
- A.
Maintenance supply liaison.
- B.
Maintenance supply support.
- C.
Maintenance operations center.
- D.
Maintenance data system analysis.
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance supply liaison.Explanation
The correct answer is Maintenance supply liaison. The maintenance supply liaison is the agency responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a link between maintenance operations and supply support, ensuring that the necessary supplies and equipment are available for maintenance activities and addressing any issues that may arise in the supply chain.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(204) Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
- A.
Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions.
- B.
Advising supervisors on supply management documents.
- C.
Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.
- D.
Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
Correct Answer
D. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.Explanation
The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that are typically performed by a Maintenance Supply Liaison.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(204) The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(204) How often are operating commands required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs)?
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Annually.
- D.
Biennially.
Correct Answer
C. Annually.Explanation
Operating commands are required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs) on an annual basis. This means that they need to assess the status and condition of these packages once every year. This regular review ensures that the RSPs are up to date, properly maintained, and ready to be used in case of emergencies or operational needs. It allows the operating commands to identify any deficiencies or issues with the RSPs and take appropriate actions to address them.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(205) Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?
- A.
XF3
- B.
XD2
- C.
XD1
- D.
XB3
Correct Answer
D. XB3Explanation
Before an asset can be placed on a bench stock, it must be assigned the expendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) XB3.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(205) Shop stock should not exceed how many days of usage?
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
Correct Answer
C. 90Explanation
Shop stock should not exceed 90 days of usage because having excessive stock can lead to issues such as increased storage costs, risk of product obsolescence, and reduced cash flow. It is important for businesses to maintain an optimal level of stock that aligns with customer demand and avoids tying up too much capital in inventory. By keeping stock levels within a reasonable range, businesses can ensure efficient operations and minimize the potential for financial losses.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(205) Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date which type of shelf life item?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
B. IIExplanation
Shelf life items are classified into four types: I, II, III, and IV. According to the given information, if a shelf life item is still serviceable, it can be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date. Therefore, the correct answer is II.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(205) Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
- A.
Oil sheen on standing water.
- B.
Stressed vegetation.
- C.
Stains on ground.
- D.
Cloudy water.
Correct Answer
D. Cloudy water.Explanation
Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can occur naturally due to sediment or minerals present in the water. Oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to be indicators of pollution.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(205) Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
- A.
Operations officer.
- B.
Section supervisor.
- C.
Squadron commander.
- D.
Squadron safety monitor.
Correct Answer
B. Section supervisor.Explanation
The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This is because the section supervisor oversees the day-to-day operations and safety of the workcenter, and therefore has the knowledge and authority to identify and communicate the hazards to the personnel under their supervision. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may have a role in overall safety management, but the section supervisor is specifically responsible for the HAZCOM training plan.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(205) In the Maintenance Group (MXG), who is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance?
- A.
Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Commander
- B.
MXG Vice Commander
- C.
MXG Superintendent
- D.
MXG Commander.
Correct Answer
D. MXG Commander.Explanation
The MXG Commander is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance in the Maintenance Group (MXG). This role holds the highest authority and decision-making power within the MXG, making them responsible for overseeing and ensuring the proper implementation of procedures and controls for local manufacturing.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(205) Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?
- A.
MXG Commander
- B.
MXG Superintendent
- C.
MXG Vice Commander
- D.
Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).Explanation
The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements. This individual oversees the operations and maintenance activities within the squadron and is responsible for coordinating resources and ensuring that the necessary capabilities are in place to meet the specific requirements of local manufacture. They work closely with the MXG Commander and MXG Superintendent to ensure that the maintenance group is able to meet all operational needs.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(206) Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
- A.
Section supervisor.
- B.
Squadron Commander.
- C.
Flight Commander/Chief.
- D.
Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
Correct Answer
B. Squadron Commander.Explanation
The Squadron Commander is responsible for appointing an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This role involves managing and overseeing the equipment inventory and ensuring that it is properly maintained and accounted for. The Squadron Commander has the authority and responsibility to select a suitable person for this position, who will be accountable for the equipment under their care.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(206) An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
- A.
I
- B.
III
- C.
IIB
- D.
IIA
Correct Answer
C. IIBExplanation
Before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific block IIB of supply training.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(206) Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metals Recovery Program?
- A.
Silver.
- B.
Copper.
- C.
Iridium.
- D.
Rhodium.
Correct Answer
B. Copper.Explanation
The Precious Metals Recovery Program covers the recovery of precious metals such as silver, iridium, and rhodium. However, copper is not included in this program.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(206) Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metal?
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
G
- D.
P
Correct Answer
A. AExplanation
The correct answer is A. The Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) A indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metal. This means that the item does not have any precious metal content and is made of non-precious materials.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(206) Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
G
- D.
P
Correct Answer
B. CExplanation
The correct answer is C. The Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(207) Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
- A.
D18, Priority Monitor Report.
- B.
D04, Daily Document Register.
- C.
M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
- D.
D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
Correct Answer
B. D04, Daily Document Register.Explanation
The Daily Document Register (D04) is the correct answer because it provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document serves as a tracking tool for keeping a record of all documents that have been processed, allowing for easy reference and tracking of the documents throughout the day. The other options listed, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24), and Repair Cycle Asset Management List (D23), do not specifically provide information on all document numbers processed during the day.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(207) Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
- A.
D18, Priority Monitor Report.
- B.
D04, Daily Document Register.
- C.
M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
- D.
D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
Correct Answer
A. D18, Priority Monitor Report.Explanation
The Priority Monitor Report is a supply tracking document that is produced daily. It lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. The UND code of A indicates that the parts are urgently needed. Therefore, the Priority Monitor Report is the correct answer as it fulfills the criteria mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(207) Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?
- A.
D18, Priority Monitor Report.
- B.
D04, Daily Document Register.
- C.
M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
- D.
D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List
Correct Answer
C. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.Explanation
The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) is the correct answer because it is a supply tracking document that provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. The other options, D18, D04, and D23, are not specifically designed for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(208) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
- A.
Flight Service Center (FSC).
- B.
Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
- C.
Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).
- D.
Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).
Correct Answer
B. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).Explanation
The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for accounting for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records. This office is specifically designated to handle the tracking and management of these assets, ensuring that they are properly accounted for and maintained. The other options listed, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the specific responsibility for SPRAM assets managed on in-use detail records.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(208) What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares?
- A.
F
- B.
D
- C.
B
- D.
A
Correct Answer
D. AExplanation
The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares is A.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(208) What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spares?
- A.
F
- B.
D
- C.
B
- D.
A
Correct Answer
A. FExplanation
The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spares is F.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(208) Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
- A.
Flight commander/Chief
- B.
Maintenance Group commander.
- C.
Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
- D.
Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).
Correct Answer
C. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.Explanation
The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. They have the responsibility and authority to ensure that all supply assets are properly inspected and maintained to meet operational requirements. The Flight commander/Chief, Maintenance Group commander, and Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) may have some involvement in the process, but the LRS Chief Inspector has the ultimate authority in this matter.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(208) Which of the following is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
- A.
Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).
- B.
Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
- C.
Maintenance Group commander.
- D.
Flight commander/Chief.
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance Group commander.Explanation
The Maintenance Group commander is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. The Maintenance Group commander is responsible for overall maintenance operations and management, but they are not directly involved in the review process for these specific items. The other options, such as the Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT), Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector, and Flight commander/Chief, are more likely to be involved in the review chain for these types of assets.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(208) Who ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft?
- A.
Aircraft commander.
- B.
Host installation commander.
- C.
Operations Group Commander.
- D.
Mission Support Group commander.
Correct Answer
A. Aircraft commander.Explanation
The aircraft commander ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft. This is because the aircraft commander is responsible for the overall operation and safety of the aircraft, including the security of classified assets. They have the authority to assess the security measures in place and make the final decision on whether the security is adequate or not.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(208) Who is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?
- A.
Nearest military installation
- B.
Local law enforcement.
- C.
Aircraft commander.
- D.
Local fire chief.
Correct Answer
C. Aircraft commander.Explanation
The aircraft commander is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing. As the highest-ranking officer on the aircraft, the aircraft commander has the authority and responsibility to ensure the security and safety of the aircraft and its equipment. This includes taking necessary measures to protect classified equipment from unauthorized access or tampering until appropriate authorities can take over.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(208) When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every
- A.
Hour
- B.
2 hours
- C.
3 hours
- D.
4 hours
Correct Answer
C. 3 hoursExplanation
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, they must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every 3 hours. This is important to ensure the safety and security of the aircraft when it is unattended. Regular security checks help to prevent unauthorized access, tampering, or any potential threats to the aircraft. By conducting these checks every 3 hours, any suspicious activities or issues can be identified and addressed promptly, reducing the risk of any security breaches or incidents.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(209) What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
The appropriate supply delivery priority for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing would be priority 3. This indicates that the supplies are needed within 24 hours. This priority level ensures that the necessary supplies are delivered in a timely manner without any significant delay.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(209) What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock requirements?
- A.
4
- B.
5
- C.
6
- D.
7
Correct Answer
B. 5Explanation
Supply delivery priority 5 is appropriate for bench stock requirements. This means that bench stock items should be delivered within 24 hours. This ensures that the necessary spare parts and materials are readily available for maintenance and repair tasks, minimizing downtime and ensuring operational readiness.Rate this question:
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Aug 16, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Jan 03, 2012Quiz Created by
Snavery
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