CDC 2AX7X EOC: Air Craft Maintenance Test! Hardest Trivia Quiz

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What is the primary method used to ensure the widest dissemination of maintenance cross-tell information to highlight trends or safety conditions?

    • SMS
    • DMS
    • Dreams System
    • MMS
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About This Quiz

This is the hardest CDC 2AX7X EOC: aircraft maintenance test trivia quiz and most students have not been able to gunner a hundred percent of the marks. It combines some past questions that students had a hard time answering and gives you an idea of how questions for your finals may be set out. Give it a try!

CDC 2AX7X EOC: Air Craft Maintenance Test! Hardest Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    An IREP meeting is held at least

    • Annually

    • Quarterly

    • Monthly

    • Weekly

    Correct Answer
    A. Quarterly
    Explanation
    An IREP meeting is held quarterly, meaning it occurs every three months. This frequency allows for regular communication and updates among the participants. Holding the meeting on a quarterly basis ensures that there is enough time to gather relevant information, analyze it, and make informed decisions. It strikes a balance between having frequent meetings to stay updated and not overwhelming participants with too many meetings. Quarterly meetings also provide an opportunity to review progress, set new goals, and make necessary adjustments.

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  • 3. 

    What off-equipment level of maintenance consists primarily of testing and repair or replacement of component parts?

    • Depot

    • Scheduled

    • Intermediate

    • Organizational

    Correct Answer
    A. Intermediate
    Explanation
    Intermediate level of maintenance consists primarily of testing and repair or replacement of component parts. This level of maintenance is typically performed by skilled technicians or mechanics who have a deep understanding of the equipment and its components. It involves troubleshooting and diagnosing issues, conducting tests to identify faulty components, and either repairing them or replacing them with new ones. Intermediate maintenance is essential for ensuring the proper functioning and longevity of the equipment.

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  • 4. 

    What type of maintenance is a hybrid of 3LM and 2LM that combines intermediate level maintenance from bases at one location?

    • Centralized intermediate repair facility

    • Two-level maintenance

    • Regional repair center

    • Depot

    Correct Answer
    A. Regional repair center
    Explanation
    A regional repair center is a type of maintenance that combines intermediate level maintenance from bases at one location. It serves as a centralized facility where maintenance activities are conducted, providing support to multiple bases in a specific region. This allows for efficient coordination and utilization of resources, enabling the repair center to handle a larger volume of maintenance tasks. By combining the capabilities of 3LM and 2LM, the regional repair center can effectively perform intermediate level maintenance on various equipment and systems.

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  • 5. 

    Regarding the Reliability and Maintainability Program, who is responsible for developing a proactive program to analyze collected data and act accordingly to implement solutions for those systems under thier control?

    • Maintainers

    • Single managers

    • Group commanders

    • Squadron commanders

    Correct Answer
    A. Single managers
    Explanation
    Single managers are responsible for developing a proactive program to analyze collected data and implement solutions for systems under their control in the Reliability and Maintainability Program. This indicates that the responsibility lies with individual managers, rather than maintainers, group commanders, or squadron commanders.

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  • 6. 

    Who is responsible for co-chairing Product Improvement Working Group meetings with the lead command executive agent?

    • MAJCOM functional manager

    • Career field manager

    • Single manager

    • Lead engineer

    Correct Answer
    A. Single manager
    Explanation
    A single manager is responsible for co-chairing Product Improvement Working Group meetings with the lead command executive agent. This means that there is one individual who has been designated to fulfill this role. They are responsible for overseeing and facilitating these meetings, ensuring that they run smoothly and that all necessary tasks are completed. The other options, such as the MAJCOM functional manager, career field manager, and lead engineer, do not have the same level of responsibility for co-chairing these meetings.

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  • 7. 

    What level of OI is published when responsibilities apply to both the operations group and MXG?

    • Wing

    • Group

    • MAJCOM

    • Numbered AF

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing
    Explanation
    When responsibilities apply to both the operations group and MXG, the published level of OI is at the wing level. This means that the instructions and guidelines for operations and maintenance will be provided at the wing level, encompassing both the operations group and MXG. The wing level is higher than the group, MAJCOM, and numbered AF levels, indicating that it has broader authority and oversight in managing operations and maintenance activities.

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  • 8. 

    Who does the OPR designate to meet daily responsibilities for administering an OI?

    • Section NCOIC

    • Information security program manager

    • POC

    • Flight chief

    Correct Answer
    A. POC
    Explanation
    The OPR designates the POC (Point of Contact) to meet daily responsibilities for administering an OI (Operating Instruction). The POC is responsible for coordinating and communicating with relevant parties, ensuring compliance with the OI, and addressing any issues or concerns that may arise. They act as a central point of contact for all matters related to the OI and play a crucial role in its effective implementation and administration.

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  • 9. 

    Which MXG organization acts as the OPR for maintenance policy guidance as it pertains to OIs?

    • Maintenance operations center

    • Programs and resource flight

    • Maintenance training flight

    • Quality assurance

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality assurance
    Explanation
    Quality assurance is the MXG organization that acts as the OPR (Office of Primary Responsibility) for maintenance policy guidance as it pertains to OIs (Operating Instructions). Quality assurance is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance operations are conducted in accordance with established policies and procedures. They are also responsible for conducting audits and inspections to ensure compliance and identify areas for improvement. By serving as the OPR for maintenance policy guidance, quality assurance plays a critical role in maintaining the overall quality and effectiveness of maintenance operations within the MXG.

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  • 10. 

    What type of support agreement is developed when two or more branches of the military are involved?

    • Intra-service

    • Inter-service

    • International

    • Inter-command

    Correct Answer
    A. Inter-service
    Explanation
    When two or more branches of the military are involved, they develop an inter-service support agreement. This agreement allows for coordination and cooperation between the different branches, ensuring that they work together effectively and efficiently. It helps to streamline processes, share resources, and improve overall military operations.

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  • 11. 

    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • Air combat command (ACC)

    • Air training command (ACT)

    • Air reserve command (AFRC)

    • Air education training command (AETC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air education training command (AETC)
    Explanation
    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel. As such, it is the appropriate MAJCOM to oversee the administrative assignments of TDs, which are specialized units that provide training and support to various Air Force units and personnel. The other options, Air Combat Command (ACC), Air Training Command (ACT), and Air Reserve Command (AFRC), do not have the specific focus on training and education that AETC does.

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  • 12. 

    Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs) normally do not provide what type of training?

    • Cross utilization training

    • Continuation training

    • Ancillary training

    • Formal training

    Correct Answer
    A. Ancillary training
    Explanation
    Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs) typically do not provide ancillary training. Ancillary training refers to training that is supplementary or additional to the main or formal training. TDs are primarily focused on providing formal training to personnel in the Air Force. Cross utilization training, continuation training, and formal training are all types of training that TDs may provide.

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  • 13. 

    The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

    • Any 7-level course

    • Weight and balance

    • Maintenance orientation

    • General technical order system

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance orientation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the maintenance orientation course in the Maintenance Training Flight (MTF). This course is designed to provide an introduction and overview of the maintenance processes and procedures within the MTF. The block training method involves grouping related topics together and teaching them in a concentrated and comprehensive manner, allowing for efficient and effective learning. This method is particularly suitable for the maintenance orientation course as it helps to build a solid foundation of knowledge and understanding for new maintenance personnel.

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  • 14. 

    Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within how many months?

    • 11

    • 12

    • 13

    • 14

    Correct Answer
    A. 13
    Explanation
    Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within 13 months. This time frame allows for comprehensive training and ensures that students have enough time to learn and practice the necessary skills and knowledge required for the A&P certification. Completing the course within this timeframe also helps students stay on track and progress efficiently towards their career goals in the aviation industry.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records?

    • Specialty training standards

    • Careerfield education and training plan

    • Af form 623, individual record

    • Af imt 623a on-the-job training record continuation sheet

    Correct Answer
    A. Af form 623, individual record
    Explanation
    The correct answer is af form 623, individual record. This form is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's training and includes information such as the individual's personal data, training history, and qualifications. It is an important document that helps track and document an individual's training progress and achievements.

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  • 16. 

    All of the following can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular work center except

    • MAJCOMS

    • Supervisors

    • Commanders

    • Unit training managers

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training managers
    Explanation
    The question is asking which of the following options does not designate critical tasks that apply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular work center. The options given are MAJCOMS, supervisors, commanders, and unit training managers. MAJCOMS, supervisors, and commanders are all positions that can assign critical tasks to a specific AFSC in a work center. However, unit training managers are responsible for managing the training requirements and programs for a work center, rather than assigning specific tasks to AFSCs. Therefore, unit training managers do not designate critical tasks for a specific AFSC in a work center.

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  • 17. 

    Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade?

    • Squadron operations officer

    • MAJCOM functional manager

    • Squadron commander (SC/CC)

    • Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade. This indicates that the MXG/CC holds the authority and responsibility to grant waivers for individuals to perform tasks that are typically assigned to higher-grade personnel.

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  • 18. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red X" an individual must be approved by the Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • CMSgt

    • SMSgt

    • MSgt

    • TSgt

    Correct Answer
    A. MSgt
    Explanation
    To be authorized to downgrade a "Red X," an individual must have the approval of the Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) and hold at least the rank of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have reached the rank of MSgt or higher and have been approved by the MXG/CC have the authority to downgrade a "Red X."

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  • 19. 

    What training phase has these four sub-phrases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, free flow, and maintenance qualification training?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II. The four sub-phrases mentioned (multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, free flow, and maintenance qualification training) are all part of the second training phase.

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  • 20. 

    What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?

    • Maintenance qualification

    • Maintenance refresher

    • On the-job

    • Ancillary

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance qualification
    Explanation
    Continuation training refers to the academic and practical hands-on courses that enhance the initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. In this context, the correct answer is "maintenance qualification" as it aligns with the concept of ongoing training to maintain and enhance skills in the maintenance field.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is a general rule you should follow while developing support agreements?

    • It should cover only one receiver

    • It should clearly state two suppliers

    • It may hinder mission accomplishment

    • It voids existing contracts when they perform the same service

    Correct Answer
    A. It should cover only one receiver
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "it should cover only one receiver." This means that when developing support agreements, it is important to ensure that the agreement is specific to one recipient or entity. This helps to avoid confusion or misunderstandings and allows for a more effective and targeted support system.

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  • 22. 

      Once a formal aircraft modification proposal has been submitted, who...in addition to the single point manager and the lead command configuration review board...must approve it?

    • Hq/usaf/a4m

    • Af chief of staff

    • Secretary of the af

    • MAJCOM command chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Hq/usaf/a4m
    Explanation
    After a formal aircraft modification proposal has been submitted, it must be approved by the hq/usaf/a4m, in addition to the single point manager and the lead command configuration review board. The hq/usaf/a4m likely holds a position of authority or expertise in aircraft modification within the Air Force, and their approval is necessary to ensure that the proposal meets the necessary standards and requirements. The af chief of staff, secretary of the af, and MAJCOM command chief are not mentioned in relation to the approval process, so they are not the correct answer.

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  • 23. 

    In addition to the MAJCOM system functional manager, who is consulted on disposition instructions for a serially controlled item that does not have a readable serial number?

    • HQ/USAF/A4M

    • Chief/lead engineer

    • MAJCOM Command Chief

    • Air Logistics Center item manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Logistics Center item manager
    Explanation
    The Air Logistics Center item manager is consulted on disposition instructions for a serially controlled item that does not have a readable serial number. This is because the item manager is responsible for managing and controlling the inventory of items within the Air Logistics Center. They have the expertise and knowledge to determine the appropriate disposition instructions for such items, ensuring that they are properly handled and accounted for. The MAJCOM system functional manager may also be consulted, but the item manager is the primary authority in this situation.

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  • 24. 

    Historical aircraft records are normally centrally located within the possessing unit. Who, if anyone, may authorize the files to be decentralized?

    • Operations officer

    • Squadron commander

    • MXG/CC

    • AMU/OIC

    Correct Answer
    A. MXG/CC
    Explanation
    The MXG/CC, or Maintenance Group Commander, may authorize the files to be decentralized. This means that they have the authority to allow the historical aircraft records to be located in different areas within the possessing unit, rather than being centrally located. The MXG/CC is responsible for overseeing the maintenance operations of the unit, so they have the authority to make decisions regarding the organization and management of the records.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following may authorize "special application uses" for the AFTO IMT 95?

    • AMU/OIC

    • MXG/CC

    • Squadron commander

    • Operations officer

    Correct Answer
    A. MXG/CC
    Explanation
    The MXG/CC (Maintenance Group Commander) may authorize "special application uses" for the AFTO IMT 95. The MXG/CC is responsible for overseeing maintenance operations and has the authority to grant special permissions or exceptions as needed for specific applications of the AFTO IMT 95.

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  • 26. 

    Which AFMC agency is the "primary user" of engine inventory management data entered into the Comprehensive Engine Management System?

    • Ogden Air Logistics Center

    • Oklahoma City Air Logistics Center

    • Warner Robins Air Logistics Center

    • Aerospace Maintenance and Regeneration Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Oklahoma City Air Logistics Center
    Explanation
    The Oklahoma City Air Logistics Center is the primary user of engine inventory management data entered into the Comprehensive Engine Management System. This means that they are the main agency responsible for utilizing and managing the data in the system.

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  • 27. 

    Which MXG section is responsible for leading the Data Integrity Team?

    • Engine Management

    • Maintenance Operations Center

    • Maintenance Data System Analysis

    • Plans, Scheduling and Documentation

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Data System Analysis
    Explanation
    The MXG section responsible for leading the Data Integrity Team is the Maintenance Data System Analysis. This section is responsible for analyzing the maintenance data system and ensuring the integrity of the data. They are in charge of identifying any errors or discrepancies in the data and taking appropriate actions to correct them. They play a crucial role in maintaining the accuracy and reliability of the maintenance data system.

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  • 28. 

    What is the common "standard interval" used for calculating the Fix Rate on non-fighter type aircraft?

    • 4

    • 8

    • 12

    • 16

    Correct Answer
    A. 12
    Explanation
    The common "standard interval" used for calculating the Fix Rate on non-fighter type aircraft is 12.

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  • 29. 

    How is an aircraft flight malfunction classified if an identical malfunction occurred on this same aircraft four sorties ago?

    • Recur

    • Repeat

    • Not Classified

    • CND

    Correct Answer
    A. Recur
    Explanation
    If an identical malfunction occurred on the same aircraft four sorties ago, it is classified as a "Recur" malfunction. This means that the malfunction has happened before and is happening again. This classification helps in identifying patterns or recurring issues with the aircraft, which can be investigated and fixed to prevent future occurrences.

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  • 30. 

    What maintenance priority designator is assigned to the repair of AGE needed to support primary mission aircraft within six work hours of a scheduled launch?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Maintenance priority designator 2 is assigned to the repair of AGE (Aerospace Ground Equipment) needed to support primary mission aircraft within six work hours of a scheduled launch. This indicates that the repair of AGE equipment is considered to be of high priority and must be completed within the specified timeframe to ensure the smooth operation and readiness of the primary mission aircraft.

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  • 31. 

    How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the MTF updates the MXG/CC on the current status of training activities and progress made by the maintenance group. This regular briefing allows the MXG/CC to stay informed and make any necessary adjustments or decisions based on the training status.

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  • 32. 

    An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it "has not been more than 60 days since the original due date", how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    If an individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that as long as it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, they have a grace period of 30 days to complete the recertification after returning.

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  • 33. 

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • Operations officer

    • Group commander

    • Unit training manager

    • Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or Chief.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training manager
    Explanation
    The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). This interview is important to assess the trainee's readiness for the course and to gather information from the supervisor about the trainee's performance and potential. The unit training manager plays a crucial role in ensuring that the trainee is well-prepared and supported throughout their career development journey.

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  • 34. 

    Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your "next step" is to

    • Evaluate training

    • Select training strategies

    • Determine training needs

    • Determine training capabilities

    Correct Answer
    A. Determine training needs
    Explanation
    After completing the master task list for the master training plan, the "next step" would be to determine the training needs. This involves assessing the current skills and knowledge of the individuals or team that will be undergoing the training, identifying any gaps or areas for improvement, and determining what specific training is required to address those needs. This step is crucial in ensuring that the training provided is targeted and effective in meeting the desired outcomes.

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  • 35. 

    In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what "percentage of overhead manning"?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The logistics composite model (LCOM) allows for a "percentage of overhead manning" of 10%. This means that 10% of the total manning is allocated for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks. This allows for flexibility in addressing unexpected needs and ensures that resources are available for essential tasks that may not be directly related to maintenance.

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  • 36. 

    Which element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study considers weather modeling conditions?

    • Support facilities

    • Support equipment

    • Operations requirements

    • Maintenance requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations requirements
    Explanation
    The element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study that considers weather modeling conditions is operations requirements. This element takes into account the specific needs and demands of the operations, including the impact of weather conditions on the logistics process. It involves analyzing and planning for various weather scenarios to ensure that the operations can be carried out efficiently and effectively.

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  • 37. 

    Which factor is "not" modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study?

    • Spare parts

    • Maintenance people

    • Training deployments

    • Aerospace ground equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Training deployments
    Explanation
    In a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study, the factor that is "not" modeled is training deployments. This means that the study does not take into account the impact of training deployments on the manpower requirements. The study may consider factors such as spare parts, maintenance people, and aerospace ground equipment, but it does not specifically account for the manpower needed for training deployments.

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  • 38. 

    Manpower authorizations are

    • Funded

    • Unfunded

    • Unvalidated

    • Both funded and unfunded

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations are funded, meaning that they have the necessary financial resources allocated to support them. This implies that there is a budget in place to cover the costs associated with these authorizations, such as salaries, benefits, and other related expenses. Having funded manpower authorizations ensures that the organization has the means to hire and retain the necessary workforce to meet its operational needs.

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  • 39. 

    A unit manpower document (UDM) does "not"

    • Show the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular position

    • Provide detailed information about each manpower requirement

    • Show the name of person assigned to a particular position

    • Show the required grade for a particular position

    Correct Answer
    A. Show the name of person assigned to a particular position
    Explanation
    A unit manpower document (UDM) provides detailed information about each manpower requirement, including the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular position and the required grade for a particular position. However, it does not show the name of the person assigned to a particular position.

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  • 40. 

    A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is "normally held"

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is "normally held" monthly. This implies that the meeting takes place on a regular basis, but not as frequently as weekly. Monthly meetings allow for a more comprehensive review of manning issues and provide enough time for the group to gather relevant information and make necessary adjustments.

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  • 41. 

    What maintenance priority designator is assigned to primary mission aircraft undergoing scheduled maintenance that if not accomplished would prevent or delay mission accomplishment?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    Maintenance priority designator 3 is assigned to primary mission aircraft undergoing scheduled maintenance that, if not accomplished, would prevent or delay mission accomplishment. This indicates that the maintenance task is critical for the aircraft's operational readiness and must be completed in a timely manner to ensure the aircraft's availability for its primary mission.

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  • 42. 

    What maintenance priority designator is assigned to non-primary aircraft undergoing extensive repair?

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    • 7

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The maintenance priority designator assigned to non-primary aircraft undergoing extensive repair is 5. This means that the repair work on these aircraft is considered to be of medium priority. It suggests that while the repair is important, it may not be as urgent or critical as repairs on primary aircraft.

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  • 43. 

    Weekly maintenance scheduling meetings forecast and monitor maintenance requirements for the current month as well as how many months in the future?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Weekly maintenance scheduling meetings forecast and monitor maintenance requirements for the current month as well as the next month. This allows the team to plan and allocate resources accordingly, ensuring that maintenance tasks are completed on time and any potential issues are addressed in a timely manner. By monitoring maintenance requirements for two months in advance, the team can effectively manage their workload and prevent any potential disruptions to the maintenance schedule.

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  • 44. 

    In support of the weekly maintenance scheduling meeting, each aircraft maintenance unit is required to provide a one week forecast of all scheduled maintenance by 1600 on

    • Tuesday

    • Wednesday

    • Thursday

    • Friday

    Correct Answer
    A. Friday
    Explanation
    Each aircraft maintenance unit is required to provide a one week forecast of all scheduled maintenance by 1600 on Friday. This suggests that the weekly maintenance scheduling meeting takes place after this deadline, indicating that Friday is the correct answer. The other days mentioned (Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday) are not mentioned in relation to the deadline for providing the forecast, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 45. 

    Who has sole responsibility and authority to develop and implement MESLs for RDT&E missions and aircraft in support of RDT&E?

    • Headquarters AF

    • Owning organization

    • AF Flight Test Center

    • AF Material Command

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Material Command
    Explanation
    The AF Material Command has the sole responsibility and authority to develop and implement MESLs (Mission Essential Systems Lists) for RDT&E (Research, Development, Test, and Evaluation) missions and aircraft. This means that they are in charge of creating and implementing the necessary systems lists for these missions and aircraft, ensuring their effectiveness and efficiency. The other options, such as Headquarters AF, the owning organization, and AF Flight Test Center, do not have the same level of responsibility and authority in this matter.

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  • 46. 

    What status is reported for an aircraft that has degraded system, subsystem, or component performance but is "capable of full mission performance"?

    • NMC

    • FMC

    • PMC

    • NMC Airworthy

    Correct Answer
    A. FMC
    Explanation
    The status reported for an aircraft that has degraded system, subsystem, or component performance but is "capable of full mission performance" is FMC. This means that even though there may be some issues with the aircraft's performance, it is still able to perform its intended mission without any major limitations or restrictions.

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  • 47. 

    What overall C-level is reported for a unit that possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, portions of the wartime mission(s) for which it was organized and designed?

    • C-1

    • C-2

    • C-3

    • C-4

    Correct Answer
    A. C-3
    Explanation
    A unit that possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, portions of the wartime mission(s) for which it was organized and designed would be classified as C-3. This means that the unit has a moderate level of readiness and capability, as it is able to handle a significant portion of its assigned tasks but may require additional support or training for certain aspects of the mission.

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  • 48. 

    For a Wing's SORTS reporting, who monitors overall weapons load crew status and advises the MXG/CC when the number of fully certified crews falls below the "minimum" set limit?

    • Wing Weapons Manager

    • Chief of Quality Assurance

    • Armament Flight commander

    • Maintenance Operations Flight commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing Weapons Manager
    Explanation
    The Wing Weapons Manager is responsible for monitoring the overall weapons load crew status and advising the MXG/CC when the number of fully certified crews falls below the "minimum" set limit. This role is specifically focused on overseeing and managing the wing's weapons operations, ensuring that all load crews are properly trained and certified. They are responsible for maintaining the necessary crew levels to meet operational requirements and ensure the safety and effectiveness of the wing's weapons systems.

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  • 49. 

    Who is responsible for the status of a unit's individual UTC requirements as reported by the ART?

    • Wing commander

    • Squadron/Unit Commander

    • Wing deployment manager

    • Squadron/Unit deployment manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron/Unit Commander
    Explanation
    The Squadron/Unit Commander is responsible for the status of a unit's individual UTC requirements as reported by the ART. They oversee and manage the unit's deployment and ensure that all personnel meet the necessary UTC requirements. This includes coordinating with the Wing deployment manager and ensuring that the unit is prepared for deployment.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 24, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Rklange0618

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