2AX7X 2012 Part 2

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1. Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course?

Explanation

The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course. This is because the unit training manager is in charge of overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit. They would need to assess the readiness and suitability of the trainee for the career development course by gathering information from both the trainee and their supervisor.

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About This Quiz
2AX7X 2012 Part 2 - Quiz

The '2AX7X 2012 part 2' quiz assesses knowledge in Air Force maintenance training, focusing on administrative assignments, training methods, certification reviews, authority levels for equipment status downgrades, and system visibility. It is crucial for personnel seeking to enhance their technical qualifications and operational readiness.

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2. The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander approval is

Explanation

The maximum continuous duty time that workers can be scheduled for without getting maintenance group commander approval is 12 hours. This means that workers can work for a maximum of 12 hours in a row before needing approval from the maintenance group commander. This policy is likely in place to ensure that workers do not become fatigued or overworked, which can lead to decreased productivity and potentially unsafe working conditions.

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3. What MSET individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

Explanation

After a technician completes a task, a quality verification inspection is performed to ensure that the task has been completed to the required standards and specifications. This inspection is conducted to check for any errors, defects, or deviations from the desired outcome. It helps to maintain the overall quality of work and ensures that the technician's performance meets the required standards.

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4. TBA provides AF personnel with global, real-time

Explanation

TBA provides AF personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that individuals can see their own progress and achievements in terms of their technical skills and training. They can also track their certifications and know when they need to renew or update them. Additionally, TBA allows personnel to view the training statuses of others, which can be useful for managers and supervisors in assessing the skills and readiness of their team members.

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5. Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which majcom?

Explanation

Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel. As such, it makes sense that TDs, which are units dedicated to training, would fall under the jurisdiction of AETC. Air Combat Command (ACC) focuses on combat operations, Air Training Command (ATC) is no longer an active command, and the Air Reserve Command (ARC) is responsible for the training and readiness of the Air Force Reserve. Therefore, AETC is the most fitting choice for the administrative assignment of TDs.

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6. The wing FOD monitor is normally located within the

Explanation

The correct answer is QA section. The Quality Assurance (QA) section is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance activities are carried out according to established standards and procedures. The wing FOD (Foreign Object Debris) monitor is an important tool used to detect and prevent damage caused by foreign objects on aircraft. Therefore, it makes sense for the FOD monitor to be located within the QA section, as they are responsible for monitoring and maintaining the overall quality and safety of the aircraft.

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7. Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

Explanation

Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for extended work hours in the maintenance group, the group commander can give the final approval for the shift to be extended up to 16 hours. This allows for flexibility in scheduling and ensures that necessary maintenance tasks can be completed within a reasonable timeframe.

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8. In order to be given authority to downgrade a "red-x" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of

Explanation

To be given authority to downgrade a "red-x," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have reached the rank of Master Sergeant or higher are eligible to have the authority to downgrade a "red-x." This requirement ensures that individuals with sufficient experience and knowledge in maintenance operations are responsible for making decisions regarding the status of equipment.

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9. What maintenance standardization and eval team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder eval while the technician performs a task?

Explanation

The correct answer is personnel eval. A personnel evaluation is an over-the-shoulder evaluation conducted by the maintenance standardization and evaluation team (MSET) while a technician performs a task. This evaluation is done to assess the individual's performance and adherence to maintenance standards. It helps to ensure that the technician is following correct procedures and maintaining the required level of quality in their work.

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10. Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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11. Once a category 1 deficiency is discovered, a DR must be submitted to the screening point within

Explanation

A category 1 deficiency refers to a critical issue or problem that needs immediate attention and resolution. In order to address this deficiency effectively, a DR (Deficiency Report) must be submitted to the screening point within 24 hours. This allows for a timely response and action to be taken to rectify the deficiency and prevent any further negative consequences.

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12. The block training method is normally used to each which maintenance training flight (mtf) training course?

Explanation

The block training method is typically used to teach maintenance orientation in the Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course. This method involves grouping related training topics together in blocks or modules, allowing for a more focused and comprehensive learning experience. Maintenance orientation is an essential component of the MTF training course as it provides an overview and introduction to the maintenance procedures, policies, and practices. It helps familiarize trainees with the maintenance environment, equipment, safety protocols, and organizational structure, enabling them to understand their roles and responsibilities effectively.

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13. How often does the maintenance training flight provide a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander?

Explanation

The maintenance training flight provides a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander on a monthly basis. This means that every month, the maintenance training flight updates the maintenance group commander on the current status of training. This regular briefing ensures that the commander is kept informed and can make any necessary adjustments or decisions based on the training progress.

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14. An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacipated.  provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

Explanation

If an individual is unable to complete their training recertification due to being on TDY (temporary duty), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed a grace period of 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have 30 days to complete their recertification training once they are back from their TDY, leave, or incapacitated state.

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15. How many digits make up an equipment identification designator code used to identify tools and equipment?

Explanation

An equipment identification designator code is used to identify tools and equipment. The question asks how many digits make up this code. The correct answer is 9. This means that the code consists of 9 numerical digits.

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16. Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

Explanation

Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by various factors such as sediment, minerals, or air bubbles in the water. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not a definitive indicator on its own. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more direct and visible signs of pollution.

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17. What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

Explanation

Before assuming duties as a Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific training in Block 2b. This training would provide them with the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively monitor and manage items that are due in from maintenance. It would cover topics such as tracking and documenting maintenance activities, ensuring timely delivery of repaired items, and coordinating with maintenance personnel. This training is crucial for the individual to successfully perform their role as a DIFM monitor.

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18. Who must authorize temporary storage of in-tranit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

Explanation

The host installation commander must authorize the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual has the authority and responsibility to ensure the security and proper handling of classified material within the installation. They have the knowledge and oversight necessary to make informed decisions regarding the storage of classified material during transit.

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19. Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts requests?

Explanation

The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request because they are the ones who have made the request and have a direct understanding of their needs and urgency. They are in the best position to assess the importance and timeline of the required parts, and can communicate this information to the relevant parties involved in the supply chain.

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20. Maintenance supply liason personnel report directly to the commander of the

Explanation

Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the logistics readiness squadron. The logistics readiness squadron is responsible for managing all aspects of logistics support, including supply chain management, transportation, and maintenance support. Therefore, it makes sense that maintenance supply liaison personnel, who are responsible for coordinating and managing the supply of maintenance materials and equipment, would report directly to the logistics readiness squadron.

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21. Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the dropped prevention program?

Explanation

Explosive munitions are not considered a dropped object under the dropped prevention program because they are intentionally released or deployed during aircrew operations, rather than being accidentally dropped. The dropped prevention program focuses on preventing unintentional drops of objects that could potentially cause damage or harm.

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22. Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

Explanation

The squadron commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This individual is responsible for managing and maintaining the equipment inventory for the squadron. The squadron commander is in a position of authority and has the power to make decisions and appointments within the squadron. Therefore, it is their responsibility to select and appoint someone who is capable and trustworthy to handle the equipment account.

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23. The assets in a high priority mission support kit (hpmsk) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account after how many days?

Explanation

After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (hpmsk) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account. This ensures that the necessary supplies and equipment are readily available for high priority missions and can be easily accessed from the base supply system. Transferring the assets after 30 days allows for efficient management and utilization of resources, ensuring that the mission requirements are met in a timely manner.

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24. What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

Explanation

The engineering data service center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing all the important engineering information, making it easily accessible for engineers and other professionals who may need to reference or use this data. The center plays a crucial role in ensuring that engineering data is properly managed and maintained, allowing for efficient collaboration and decision-making in engineering projects.

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25. Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFTO Form 20, caution tag. The AFTO Form 20 is used to document maintenance actions, including draining and purging of a part. The caution tag is attached to the part to indicate that it has been properly drained and/or purged. This helps ensure that the part is safe to handle and use, and also serves as a record of the maintenance performed. The other options listed, such as the DD Form 1574 and DD Form 1577, are used for different purposes and not specifically for documenting draining and purging.

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26. Which of the following is not a TO change priority category?

Explanation

The given question asks for a category that is not a TO (Task Order) change priority. The options provided are urgent, routine, standard, and emergency. Urgent, routine, and emergency are all commonly used categories to prioritize task order changes. However, "standard" is not typically used as a TO change priority category. Therefore, the correct answer is standard.

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27. When a MICAP part issues and is placed in the TNB, supply personnel notify the

Explanation

When a MICAP part issues and is placed in the TNB (Turn Not-Build), supply personnel notify the maintenance operations center (MOC). The MOC is responsible for coordinating and managing maintenance activities, including the allocation of resources and the scheduling of repairs. By notifying the MOC, supply personnel ensure that the necessary actions are taken to address the issue and that the part is made available for maintenance as soon as possible.

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28. Which precious metals indicator code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. The PMIC code c indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This means that if an item is labeled with the PMIC code c, it is made up of multiple precious metals rather than just one. This code helps to identify and classify items based on their composition, making it easier for suppliers and buyers to understand the materials used in a particular product.

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29. What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, majcom mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2. The training phase that includes the sub-phases multiphase, majcom mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training is the second phase.

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30. The PIM is usually assigned to what MXG section?

Explanation

The PIM (Product Improvement Modification) is usually assigned to the QA (Quality Assurance) section. This section is responsible for ensuring that products meet the required quality standards. By assigning the PIM to the QA section, it ensures that any modifications or improvements made to the product are thoroughly tested and meet the necessary quality criteria before implementation. This helps to maintain the overall quality and reliability of the product.

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31. When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment, installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

Explanation

When the aircraft owner or user is not present with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, they must ensure that security checks are conducted every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and protection of the sensitive equipment from unauthorized access or tampering. Regular security checks help to mitigate any potential risks or threats and maintain the confidentiality of the equipment. Conducting these checks at shorter intervals ensures that any security breaches or issues can be identified and addressed promptly.

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32. Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a LRU or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

Explanation

The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a LRU or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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33. Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

Explanation

A maintenance supply liaison is typically responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between maintenance operations and supply support, ensuring that the necessary supplies are available for maintenance tasks and addressing any issues that may arise. This role involves coordinating with various stakeholders, such as maintenance personnel, supply chain managers, and vendors, to ensure a smooth supply process and timely resolution of any supply-related problems.

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34. Red ball maintenance is not designed to prevent

Explanation

The red ball maintenance is not designed to prevent aircraft status changes. This means that the maintenance process does not aim to prevent any changes or updates in the status of the aircraft. It is likely that the red ball maintenance focuses on other aspects such as safety, mechanical issues, or specific procedures, rather than monitoring or controlling changes in the aircraft's status.

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35. Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liason duty?

Explanation

The correct answer is "collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty is not typically a maintenance supply liaison duty because it involves handling and managing assets that are no longer needed or are in excess. Maintenance supply liaisons are more focused on monitoring requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting inputs to initiate a quick reference list.

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36. The wing FOD monitor must notify the majcom FOD mananger within how many hours of a FOD incident?

Explanation

The wing FOD monitor must notify the majcom FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This ensures that any foreign object damage (FOD) incidents are reported promptly to the higher-level FOD manager, allowing for appropriate action to be taken to prevent further incidents and ensure the safety of operations.

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37. Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

Explanation

The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This role involves ensuring that all employees are aware of the potential risks and providing them with the necessary information and training to mitigate those hazards. The section supervisor acts as a direct supervisor and is responsible for the safety and well-being of their team members, making them the appropriate person to develop and implement the hazard communication training plan.

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38. Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing and effective maintenance recovery operation?

Explanation

AFI 21-101, aircraft and equipment maintenance management, provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication outlines the procedures and processes for managing aircraft and equipment maintenance, including recovery operations. It covers topics such as maintenance planning, scheduling, and execution, as well as maintenance documentation and reporting. By following the guidelines in AFI 21-101, maintenance personnel can ensure that recovery operations are carried out efficiently and effectively.

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39. Who is the QA chief inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required maintenance standardization and evaluation program functions are performed?

Explanation

The QA Chief Inspector is directly responsible to the QA OIC/SUPT for ensuring the required maintenance standardization and evaluation program functions are performed. This means that the QA Chief Inspector reports to the QA Officer in Charge or Superintendent, who is in charge of overseeing and managing the quality assurance program. The QA Chief Inspector is responsible for ensuring that the required maintenance standards and evaluation programs are implemented and followed correctly, and they report directly to the QA OIC/SUPT for any issues or concerns.

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40. Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?

Explanation

The correct answer is A4U. This choice is likely the correct answer because it is the only option that is not a combination of letters and numbers. The other options (A4MT, A4YE, A4BM) appear to be random combinations of letters and numbers that do not make sense in the context of the question. Therefore, A4U is the most logical choice for the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system.

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41. Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

Explanation

The correct answer is d04, daily document register. This document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. It tracks and records the details of each document, such as its number, date, and any actions taken on it. This register is used to keep a record of all documents processed, ensuring accountability and facilitating easy reference and retrieval of information.

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42. The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

Explanation

The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide 30 days of supply. This means that the organization wants to have enough stock on hand to last for 30 days, ensuring that they have an adequate supply of the necessary items without overstocking and tying up unnecessary resources. Having a 30-day supply helps to maintain efficiency and minimize disruptions in operations.

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43. In the TBA, what type of notification does the "system messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected dowtimes, and training update info?

Explanation

The "system messages" board provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update info. This means that users will be informed about any issues or glitches in the application that may affect its functionality or user experience. This notification allows users to be aware of any problems and possibly take appropriate actions or report the issues to the relevant authorities for resolution.

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44. Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?

Explanation

Weapons loading operations do not institute a restricted maintenance area. Restricted maintenance areas are designated areas where certain maintenance activities are carried out, and access is limited to authorized personnel only. While radiographic inspections, fuel system repair, and aircraft on jacks all involve maintenance activities that may require restricted access to ensure safety and security, weapons loading operations typically occur in designated areas such as weapon storage areas or on the flight line, where access is already restricted and controlled.

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45. Provided it is still serviceable, which type of a shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because according to the given information, if an item is still serviceable, it can be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date. This suggests that the item has a shelf life and can be used beyond its original expiration date if it is still in good condition.

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46. If a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the CANN authority is required to notify

Explanation

When a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the PS&D (Property, Supply, and Distribution) authority is required to be notified. PS&D is responsible for managing and distributing property and supplies, including serially controlled items. They need to be informed about any cannibalization to ensure proper documentation and tracking of the item. The QA (Quality Assurance) programs and resources flight, maintenance management analysis, and other mentioned options do not have the specific authority or responsibility for handling serially controlled items in this context.

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47. How often must the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (scr)

Explanation

The maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent must review and sign the Special Certification Roster (SCR) twice a year, specifically on a semi-annual basis. This ensures that the officer/superintendent stays up to date with the certifications of the personnel under their supervision. Reviewing and signing the SCR semi-annually allows for regular monitoring and verification of the certifications, promoting safety and compliance within the maintenance operations.

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48. When a unit has received an unsat maintenance standardization and eval team rating (MSET), the MXG/CC directs QA to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?

Explanation

When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) directs the Quality Assurance (QA) team to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within 30 days. This is to ensure that the necessary corrective actions have been taken to address the deficiencies identified during the initial inspection.

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49. A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is normally held

Explanation

A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is normally held on a monthly basis. This suggests that the group needs to regularly address and resolve any staffing-related concerns. Holding the meeting monthly allows for a consistent and frequent review of manning issues, ensuring that any problems are promptly identified and addressed. This regularity also allows for better planning and allocation of resources within the maintenance group.

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50. Which LRS office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

Explanation

The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. The ELO is in charge of coordinating and overseeing the maintenance and repair of these assets, ensuring that they are properly accounted for and managed. They work closely with other offices and departments to ensure that the SPRAM assets are maintained in accordance with regulations and guidelines.

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51. Who designates cannibalization authorities?

Explanation

The MXG commander is responsible for designating cannibalization authorities. This means that they have the authority to determine who is authorized to perform cannibalization, which is the process of removing parts or components from one aircraft to be used on another. As the commander of the Maintenance Group (MXG), they have the overall responsibility for managing and overseeing maintenance operations, including the decision-making process regarding cannibalization authorities.

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52. Who designates the impoundment official for a particular impoundment situation?

Explanation

The applicable impoundment authority designates the impoundment official for a particular impoundment situation. This means that the authority responsible for the specific impoundment situation is the one who appoints the impoundment official. The MXG vice commander, MXG impoundment release authority, and applicable squadron commander may have their own roles and responsibilities, but they are not specifically designated to appoint the impoundment official. Therefore, the applicable impoundment authority is the correct answer.

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53. Who in the maintenance group is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

Explanation

The maintenance squadron (MXS) operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements. This individual oversees the operations and maintenance activities within the squadron, ensuring that all necessary resources, equipment, and personnel are available to meet the manufacturing needs. They coordinate with other members of the maintenance group and higher-level commanders to ensure that the necessary capabilities are in place to support local manufacturing requirements.

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54. Which is not normally a MXG TO distribution office (TODO) duty?

Explanation

MXG TO distribution office duties include assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not normally a duty of the MXG TO distribution office.

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55. In regards to the modification managment program, which agency serves as the operators interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?

Explanation

The lead command serves as the operator's interface with the single point manager for a weapons system in the modification management program. This means that the lead command is responsible for coordinating and communicating with the single point manager, who oversees the modifications to the weapons system. The lead command acts as a liaison between the operators and the single point manager, ensuring that any modifications or changes to the weapons system are properly implemented and managed.

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56. What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through aetc mission ready airman (MRA) and  training detachment courses?

Explanation

Continuation training refers to the ongoing education and practical training that builds upon the initial skills training received through AETC Mission Ready Airman (MRA) and training detachment courses. In this context, the correct answer is "maintenance qualification" because continuation training in this field would focus on developing and enhancing the specific skills and knowledge required for maintenance work. This could include specialized courses and certifications that validate the individual's qualifications and expertise in maintenance tasks.

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57. When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?

Explanation

In the given scenario, when the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, a supply discrepancy report is submitted. This report is used to document any discrepancies or issues with the supply of items, such as incorrect or damaged items received. By submitting a supply discrepancy report, the person can inform the relevant authorities about the problem and request a refund or a replacement item.

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58. What maintenance operations flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders by owning and managing agencies? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "plans, scheduling, and documentation". The flight section responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders by owning and managing agencies is the plans, scheduling, and documentation section. This section is in charge of creating and managing maintenance plans, scheduling maintenance activities, and ensuring proper documentation of all maintenance operations. They play a crucial role in maintaining the aircraft and ensuring compliance with technical orders.

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59. Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must maintenance coordinate with?

Explanation

Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. This is because the LRS material management element is responsible for managing and providing the necessary materials and supplies for maintenance operations. They ensure that the required parts and equipment are available in the work area, allowing maintenance personnel to perform their tasks effectively and efficiently.

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60. Who acts as the DR focal point between the support point and submitting organization?

Explanation

The correct answer is "action point." The action point acts as the DR focal point between the support point and submitting organization. It is responsible for coordinating and facilitating communication and actions between the two parties. This role ensures that information and requests are effectively relayed and addressed, helping to streamline the disaster recovery process.

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61. Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

Explanation

The LRS chief inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. This individual is responsible for ensuring that all necessary inspections and programming are carried out correctly and efficiently. They have the expertise and knowledge to determine the appropriate actions needed for each specific asset. The flight commander/chief, maintenance group commander, and MX operations officer/maintenance superintendent may have some authority in this area, but the LRS chief inspector has the ultimate responsibility for reviewing and approving the list.

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62. Who is the office of primary responsibility for developement of wing procedures for control and managment of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?

Explanation

The maintenance group commander is responsible for the development of wing procedures for the control and management of tools and equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas. This individual holds a leadership position within the maintenance group and has the authority to oversee and implement these procedures to ensure the proper functioning and safety of tools and equipment in these areas.

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63. What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is dd form 200, financial liability, investigation of property loss. This form is used to document all reports of surveys (ROS). It specifically focuses on investigating property loss and determining financial liability. It allows for a thorough investigation into the circumstances surrounding the loss and helps in determining who should be held responsible for the loss.

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64. A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 10-206, operational reporting. This Air Force Instruction outlines the procedures and requirements for reporting operational incidents, including those that involve dropped objects resulting in casualties or property damage. It is important to report such incidents in order to ensure that appropriate actions are taken to mitigate risks and prevent future accidents. The other options listed are not specifically related to reporting incidents of this nature.

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65. Who has the responsibility for overall DR program managment for the submitting organizatioin or group?

Explanation

The term "originating point" suggests that this individual or group is responsible for initiating or originating the disaster recovery (DR) program. They are likely in charge of overseeing the entire program and ensuring its successful implementation. The other options, such as "originator," "action point," and "screening point," do not convey the same sense of overall responsibility for the DR program management.

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66. Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?

Explanation

Supply point accounts must be reconciled semiannually by the workcenter supply point monitor. This means that the reconciliation process takes place twice a year. Reconciling the accounts involves comparing the records of supplies received and issued with the physical inventory on hand. By doing this regularly, any discrepancies or errors can be identified and corrected in a timely manner. This helps to ensure the accuracy and efficiency of the supply point operations.

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67. Manpower authorizations are

Explanation

Manpower authorizations can be classified as both funded and unfunded. This means that some positions may have the necessary financial resources allocated to them, while others may not. Funded positions have the budgetary support to hire personnel and cover their salaries and benefits. On the other hand, unfunded positions do not have the necessary resources allocated to them, making it challenging to hire personnel for those roles. Therefore, manpower authorizations can exist in both funded and unfunded states depending on the availability of financial resources.

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68. Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

Explanation

The correct answer is the m-24, organization effectiveness report. This document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. It helps in tracking the effectiveness of the organization's supply support system and identifies any issues or areas that need improvement. The m-24 report allows management to assess the overall effectiveness of their supply chain and make informed decisions to optimize supply support.

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69. Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?

Explanation

The mission support group commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians. This individual has the authority and oversight to ensure that these requests are properly reviewed and approved before any maintenance activities are authorized. The mission support group commander plays a crucial role in ensuring that SPRAM authorizations are properly managed and in line with organizational policies and procedures.

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70. Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

Explanation

The correct answer is m-24, organization effectiveness report. This report is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A.

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