2A753 Volume 2 Aircraft Structural Journeyman

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2A753 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (201) What two categories are Air Force publications divided into?

    • A.

      Job guide and technical.

    • B.

      Directive and non directive.

    • C.

      Technical and instructional.

    • D.

      Instructional and informative.

    Correct Answer
    B. Directive and non directive.
    Explanation
    Air Force publications are divided into two categories: directive and non-directive. Directive publications provide specific guidance and instructions on how to carry out tasks and procedures within the Air Force. They are authoritative and binding. Non-directive publications, on the other hand, provide information, guidance, and recommendations, but they are not binding. They may include technical manuals, handbooks, and informational materials that support the operations of the Air Force.

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  • 2. 

    (201) What is an example of a directive publication?

    • A.

      Catalog.

    • B.

      Pamphlet.

    • C.

      Handbook.

    • D.

      Supplement.

    Correct Answer
    D. Supplement.
    Explanation
    A directive publication is a document that provides specific instructions or guidance on a particular topic. While all the options listed can be considered publications, a supplement is a type of publication that is typically added to an existing document to provide additional information or updates. Therefore, a supplement is an example of a directive publication.

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  • 3. 

    (201) Informational publications which normally are “how to” documents are called

    • A.

      Catalogs

    • B.

      Manuals

    • C.

      Pamphlets

    • D.

      Supplements

    Correct Answer
    C. PampHlets
    Explanation
    Informational publications that provide instructions or guidance on how to do something are commonly referred to as pamphlets. Pamphlets are typically small, informative booklets that are distributed to provide specific information on a particular topic or subject. They are often used for educational purposes, to promote a product or service, or to provide instructions on various tasks or activities. Catalogs, manuals, and supplements may also contain information, but they do not specifically focus on providing "how to" instructions like pamphlets do.

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  • 4. 

    (202) Which is not one of the five major types of technical orders (TO) authorized for use in the Air force?

    • A.

      Operations and methods technical order

    • B.

      Time compliance technical order

    • C.

      Abbreviated technical order.

    • D.

      Index type technical order.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations and methods technical order
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Operations and methods technical order". This is not one of the five major types of technical orders authorized for use in the Air Force. The five major types of technical orders are Time compliance technical order, Abbreviated technical order, Index type technical order, General technical order, and Depot maintenance work requirement technical order.

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  • 5. 

    (202) Which technical order (TO) category includes the inspection work card and checklist?

    • A.

      Operations and maintenance.

    • B.

      Time compliance.

    • C.

      Abbreviated.

    • D.

      Index type.

    Correct Answer
    C. Abbreviated.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Abbreviated." Abbreviated technical orders (TOs) typically include inspection work cards and checklists. These TOs are condensed versions of the full TOs and provide a summary of the necessary steps for performing inspections and checks. They are designed to be more concise and user-friendly, making them easier to reference and follow during maintenance operations.

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  • 6. 

    (202) Which type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) is signified by a series of red Xs printed around the border of the first page?

    • A.

      Urgent

    • B.

      Routine

    • C.

      Inspection

    • D.

      Immediate

    Correct Answer
    D. Immediate
    Explanation
    The type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) signified by a series of red Xs printed around the border of the first page is "immediate." This indicates that the TCTO requires immediate action to address a critical issue or potential danger. The red Xs serve as a visual indicator to emphasize the urgency of the situation and ensure that it is not overlooked or delayed.

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  • 7. 

    (202) Which secure web application is used to view electronic technical orders (eTOs)?

    • A.

      Technical Content Manager (TCM).

    • B.

      Maintenance Integrated Data Access System (MIDAS).

    • C.

      Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

    • D.

      Joint Computer-Aided Acquisition and Logistics Support (JCALS).

    Correct Answer
    C. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).
  • 8. 

    (203) How many groups of numbers may be used in a technical order (TO) numbering pattern?

    • A.

      Three

    • B.

      Five

    • C.

      Seven

    • D.

      Nine

    Correct Answer
    C. Seven
    Explanation
    In a technical order (TO) numbering pattern, there are seven groups of numbers that may be used. This suggests that the TO numbering pattern is quite extensive and allows for a wide range of possibilities. It is important to have a sufficient number of groups in order to accommodate different variations and combinations within the TO system.

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  • 9. 

    (204) The Maintenance Integrated Data Access System (MIDAS) is

    • A.

      a two-digit numbering system expressed as one element of two digits.

    • B.

      a four-digit numbering system expressed as two elements of two digits each.

    • C.

      a six-digit numbering system expressed as three elements of two digits each.

    • D.

      An eight-digit numbering system expressed as four elements of two digits each.

    Correct Answer
    C. a six-digit numbering system expressed as three elements of two digits each.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a six-digit numbering system expressed as three elements of two digits each. This means that MIDAS consists of six digits, with each digit being represented by two elements. This numbering system allows for a larger range of possible combinations compared to the other options provided.

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  • 10. 

    (204) Which technical order (TO) contains operational checkout procedures?

    • A.

      Job guide

    • B.

      Fault isolation

    • C.

      General vehicle

    • D.

      Schematic diagram

    Correct Answer
    A. Job guide
    Explanation
    The job guide contains operational checkout procedures. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidelines for performing various tasks and checks related to the operation of a specific system or equipment. It helps technicians in ensuring that all necessary procedures are followed correctly and in the proper sequence to ensure the smooth operation of the system or equipment. The job guide is an essential resource for technicians to perform operational checkouts effectively.

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  • 11. 

    (205) Which technical order (TO) series is the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) that allows you to identify the most procurable parts for a specific aircraft?

    • A.

      -1

    • B.

      -2

    • C.

      -3

    • D.

      -4

    Correct Answer
    D. -4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is -4 because the -4 series of technical orders (TO) is typically used for the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) that helps in identifying the most procurable parts for a specific aircraft. The IPB provides detailed diagrams and descriptions of each part, making it easier to locate and procure the necessary parts for maintenance or repairs.

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  • 12. 

    ((205) Which section of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) can you look up parts by item name?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    C. III
    Explanation
    In section III of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB), you can look up parts by item name.

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  • 13. 

    (206) A revision to a publication is normally issued when the changes exceed at least what percentage of the basic technical order (TO)?

    • A.

      50%

    • B.

      60%

    • C.

      70%

    • D.

      80%

    Correct Answer
    D. 80%
    Explanation
    A revision to a publication is normally issued when the changes exceed at least 80% of the basic technical order (TO). This means that if the changes made to the publication are significant and exceed 80% of the original content, a revision is necessary to update the information and ensure accuracy.

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  • 14. 

    (206) Safety and operational supplements to technical orders (TO) should be filed in

    • A.

      reverse numerical sequence behind the basic TO.

    • B.

      reverse numerical sequence in front of the basic TO.

    • C.

      numerical sequence in front of the basic TO.

    • D.

      numerical sequence behind the basic TO.

    Correct Answer
    B. reverse numerical sequence in front of the basic TO.
    Explanation
    Safety and operational supplements to technical orders (TO) should be filed in reverse numerical sequence in front of the basic TO. This means that the supplements should be organized in descending order, with the highest supplement number being placed first, followed by the next highest, and so on. This allows for easy reference and ensures that the most recent supplements are readily accessible. Placing the supplements in front of the basic TO also helps to maintain the chronological order of the documents.

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  • 15. 

    (207) Which Air Force technical order (AFTO) form is used to correct errors in technical orders (TOs)?

    • A.

      22

    • B.

      32

    • C.

      100

    • D.

      200

    Correct Answer
    A. 22
    Explanation
    AFTO Form 22 is used to correct errors in technical orders (TOs). This form allows Air Force personnel to report any errors or discrepancies found in TOs, ensuring that accurate information is provided to those who rely on these documents for maintenance and operational purposes. By using AFTO Form 22, the Air Force can maintain the integrity and safety of its operations by promptly addressing and correcting any errors in TOs.

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  • 16. 

    (207) Which technical order (TO) should you use when filling out a deficiency report for errors in a TO?

    • A.

      00-5-1

    • B.

      00-5-3

    • C.

      00-20-2

    • D.

      00-20-5

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-5-1
    Explanation
    When filling out a deficiency report for errors in a technical order (TO), the correct TO to use is 00-5-1. This TO likely contains guidelines and procedures for reporting and correcting errors in TOs.

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  • 17. 

    (208) An atom that has gained or lost electrons and has acquired an electrical charge is called

    • A.

      An ion

    • B.

      A proton

    • C.

      A neutron

    • D.

      An electron

    Correct Answer
    A. An ion
    Explanation
    An atom that has gained or lost electrons and has acquired an electrical charge is called an ion. When an atom gains or loses electrons, it becomes either positively or negatively charged. This charge is balanced by the number of protons in the atom's nucleus. Therefore, an ion is formed when the number of electrons does not equal the number of protons, resulting in an overall charge. This distinguishes an ion from a proton, neutron, or electron, which are all fundamental particles of an atom but do not possess a net electrical charge.

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  • 18. 

    (208) Corrosion in an electrochemical cell always starts at the

    • A.

      cathodic surface.

    • B.

      surface of the metal.

    • C.

      weakest point in the metal path.

    • D.

      point where the electrolyte contacts the anode.

    Correct Answer
    B. surface of the metal.
    Explanation
    In an electrochemical cell, corrosion occurs when a metal reacts with its surrounding environment, typically in the presence of an electrolyte. The corrosion process begins at the surface of the metal, where the metal atoms come into contact with the electrolyte. This is because the metal surface is exposed to the corrosive agents in the environment, such as moisture or chemicals, which initiate the corrosion reaction. As a result, the surface of the metal is the starting point for the corrosion process in an electrochemical cell.

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  • 19. 

    (209) What is the rate of corrosion when the anode is smaller, in relation to the cathode in the electrochemical corrosion cell?

    • A.

      Slow and severe.

    • B.

      Rapid and severe.

    • C.

      Slow and superficial.

    • D.

      Rapid and superficial.

    Correct Answer
    B. Rapid and severe.
    Explanation
    When the anode is smaller than the cathode in an electrochemical corrosion cell, the rate of corrosion is rapid and severe. This is because the anode is the metal that undergoes oxidation and corrodes, while the cathode is the metal that undergoes reduction and is protected from corrosion. When the anode is smaller, it has less surface area for oxidation to occur, causing the corrosion to be more concentrated and intense, leading to a rapid and severe rate of corrosion.

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  • 20. 

    (209) Metals such as stainless steel and titanium that corrode slowly are referred to as

    • A.

      Anodic.

    • B.

      Cathodic.

    • C.

      Resistant.

    • D.

      Inhibited.

    Correct Answer
    B. Cathodic.
    Explanation
    Metals such as stainless steel and titanium that corrode slowly are referred to as cathodic. This is because cathodic metals have a lower tendency to undergo oxidation and instead act as the cathode in a corrosion cell. In this process, the metal gains electrons and is protected from corrosion. Stainless steel and titanium are commonly used in applications where resistance to corrosion is important, such as in the construction of bridges, aircraft, and medical implants.

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  • 21. 

    (209) Some metals have the ability to become electrochemically inactive or passive under certain conditions because of the formation of

    • A.

      oxide films.

    • B.

      Noble films

    • C.

      Inhibiter films

    • D.

      Chroamte films

    Correct Answer
    A. oxide films.
    Explanation
    Certain metals have the ability to become electrochemically inactive or passive under specific conditions. This is due to the formation of oxide films on their surface. These oxide films act as a protective layer, preventing further corrosion or reaction of the metal with its environment. This phenomenon is commonly observed in metals like aluminum, stainless steel, and titanium, where the oxide films provide excellent corrosion resistance and enhance the durability of the material. Therefore, the correct answer is oxide films.

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  • 22. 

    (209) Which scale is used to measure the strength of an electrolyte?

    • A.

      Vernier

    • B.

      Electrical

    • C.

      Concentration

    • D.

      Potential of hydrogen (pH)

    Correct Answer
    D. Potential of hydrogen (pH)
    Explanation
    The pH scale is used to measure the strength of an electrolyte. The pH scale measures the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution, which determines its acidity or alkalinity. A lower pH value indicates a higher concentration of hydrogen ions and a stronger electrolyte, while a higher pH value indicates a lower concentration of hydrogen ions and a weaker electrolyte. Therefore, the potential of hydrogen (pH) is the correct scale to measure the strength of an electrolyte.

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  • 23. 

    (210) On a polished surface, uniform surface corrosion is first seen as

    • A.

      a general dulling of the surface.

    • B.

      a discoloration of the paint.

    • C.

      white powdery deposits.

    • D.

      small pits or holes.

    Correct Answer
    A. a general dulling of the surface.
    Explanation
    Uniform surface corrosion refers to the gradual deterioration of a polished surface due to chemical reactions with the environment. As the corrosion process begins, the surface loses its shine and becomes dull. This is the initial sign of uniform surface corrosion, indicating that the material is starting to deteriorate. Discoloration of paint, white powdery deposits, and small pits or holes are not typically associated with the early stages of uniform surface corrosion.

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  • 24. 

    (210) Pitting corrosion of aluminum or magnesium is first noticed as

    • A.

      small pits or holes.

    • B.

      white powdery deposits.

    • C.

      a discoloration of the paint.

    • D.

      A general dulling of the surface.

    Correct Answer
    B. white powdery deposits.
    Explanation
    Pitting corrosion of aluminum or magnesium is a type of localized corrosion that occurs when small pits or holes form on the surface of the metal. These pits can lead to the formation of white powdery deposits, which are a characteristic sign of pitting corrosion. The other options, such as discoloration of the paint or a general dulling of the surface, may also occur in some cases of corrosion, but they are not specifically associated with pitting corrosion. Therefore, the presence of white powdery deposits is the most indicative of pitting corrosion in aluminum or magnesium.

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  • 25. 

    (210) What is an advanced form of Inter-granular corrosion?

    • A.

      Fatigue corrosion.

    • B.

      Filiform corrosion.

    • C.

      Crevice cell corrosion.

    • D.

      Exfoliation corrosion.

    Correct Answer
    D. Exfoliation corrosion.
    Explanation
    Exfoliation corrosion is an advanced form of intergranular corrosion where corrosion occurs along the grain boundaries of a metal, leading to the formation of layers or sheets that peel away from the surface. This type of corrosion is commonly observed in aluminum alloys, particularly those with a high copper content. It occurs due to the preferential attack of the grain boundaries by corrosive agents, leading to the weakening and eventual detachment of the corroded layers.

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  • 26. 

    (210) Which type of corrosion is produced by the simultaneous effects of tensile stress and a corrosive environment?

    • A.

      Pitting

    • B.

      Galvanic

    • C.

      Concentration cell

    • D.

      Stress-cracking

    Correct Answer
    D. Stress-cracking
    Explanation
    Stress-cracking corrosion occurs when a material is exposed to both tensile stress and a corrosive environment. The combination of these factors leads to the formation of cracks in the material, which can propagate and cause failure over time. This type of corrosion is commonly observed in materials such as metals and polymers, and it can occur in various industries such as oil and gas, chemical processing, and automotive. The cracks formed in stress-cracking corrosion are often narrow and can be difficult to detect, making it a significant concern for the integrity and reliability of structures and components.

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  • 27. 

    (211) When performing a corrosion inspection, which tool would you use to dislodge blisters or bubbles?

    • A.

      Knife

    • B.

      Straight-edge

    • C.

      Metal scraper

    • D.

      Plastic scraper

    Correct Answer
    D. Plastic scraper
    Explanation
    A plastic scraper would be the most suitable tool to dislodge blisters or bubbles during a corrosion inspection. Unlike a knife or metal scraper, a plastic scraper is less likely to cause further damage to the surface being inspected. It is a softer and less abrasive tool that can effectively remove blisters or bubbles without scratching or gouging the material. Using a straight-edge may not be effective in dislodging blisters or bubbles, as it is primarily used for measuring or marking purposes.

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  • 28. 

    (211) Which formula would you use to determine maximum corrosion pit depth when using a depth gauge?

    • A.

      (A – B) ÷ 2 – C = Depth.

    • B.

      (A – B) ÷ 3 – C = Depth.

    • C.

      (A + B) ÷ 2 – C = Depth.

    • D.

      (A + B) ÷ 3 – C = Depth.

    Correct Answer
    C. (A + B) ÷ 2 – C = Depth.
    Explanation
    The formula (A + B) ÷ 2 - C = Depth would be used to determine the maximum corrosion pit depth when using a depth gauge. This formula calculates the average of A and B, and then subtracts C from the average to find the depth.

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  • 29. 

    (212) When inspecting exhaust paths for corrosion, what areas should be inspected because they cannot be reached with normal cleaning?

    • A.

      Spot-welds

    • B.

      Bilge areas

    • C.

      Seams and fairings

    • D.

      Water entrapment areas

    Correct Answer
    C. Seams and fairings
    Explanation
    Seams and fairings should be inspected because they cannot be reached with normal cleaning. Seams are the areas where two pieces of material are joined together, and fairings are the smooth surfaces that cover gaps or joints. These areas are often difficult to access and clean, making them prone to corrosion. By inspecting these areas, any potential corrosion can be identified and addressed before it becomes a more serious problem.

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  • 30. 

    (212) Which type of corrosion should you look for when inspecting engine frontal areas?

    • A.

      Stress-cracking corrosion.

    • B.

      Galvanic and filiform corrosion.

    • C.

      Pitting and intergranaular corrosion.

    • D.

      Crevice/concentration cell corrosion.

    Correct Answer
    C. Pitting and intergranaular corrosion.
    Explanation
    When inspecting engine frontal areas, you should look for pitting and intergranular corrosion. Pitting corrosion occurs when small pits or holes form on the surface of the metal due to localized chemical reactions. Intergranular corrosion, on the other hand, occurs along the grain boundaries of the metal, weakening the material. These types of corrosion can be particularly damaging to engine frontal areas and should be carefully inspected to ensure the structural integrity of the engine.

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  • 31. 

    (212) When inspecting spot welds for corrosion, which tool can be used to detect skin bulge in its early stage?

    • A.

      Borescope

    • B.

      Straight edge

    • C.

      Pit depth gauge

    • D.

      Magnifying glass

    Correct Answer
    B. Straight edge
    Explanation
    A straight edge can be used to detect skin bulge in the early stage of corrosion when inspecting spot welds. By placing the straight edge over the surface of the weld, any irregularities or bulges can be easily identified. This tool helps in identifying potential corrosion issues before they become more severe and cause structural damage.

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  • 32. 

    (212) How often do you inspect water entrapment areas?

    • A.

      Daily

    • B.

      Weekly

    • C.

      Monthly

    • D.

      Yearly

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    Water entrapment areas are areas where water can accumulate and pose a risk to safety. Inspecting these areas daily is important to ensure that there are no hazards or potential dangers present. Regular inspections allow for any issues to be identified and addressed promptly, reducing the risk of accidents or injuries. By inspecting water entrapment areas daily, any potential problems can be detected early on and appropriate measures can be taken to maintain a safe environment.

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  • 33. 

    (212) What is the first step of a general corrosion inspection?

    • A.

      Dislodge paint irregularities by scraping.

    • B.

      Determine the extent/degree of corrosion.

    • C.

      Ensure the area has been thoroughly cleaned.

    • D.

      Examine the area with a 10X magnifying glass.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure the area has been thoroughly cleaned.
    Explanation
    The first step of a general corrosion inspection is to ensure that the area has been thoroughly cleaned. This is important because any dirt, debris, or contaminants on the surface can interfere with the inspection and make it difficult to accurately assess the extent of corrosion. By cleaning the area beforehand, the inspector can get a clear view of the metal surface and identify any signs of corrosion more effectively.

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  • 34. 

    (212) Corrosion that appears as blisters and pitting as deep as 0.010 inch is classified as

    • A.

      Light

    • B.

      Severe

    • C.

      Moderate

    • D.

      Superficial

    Correct Answer
    C. Moderate
    Explanation
    Corrosion that appears as blisters and pitting as deep as 0.010 inch is classified as moderate. This indicates that the corrosion is not too severe, as it is not classified as severe. However, it is also not considered light or superficial, as the depth of the pitting suggests a more significant level of corrosion. Therefore, moderate is the appropriate classification for this type of corrosion.

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  • 35. 

    (212) Corrosion that appears as blistering, exfoliation, and scaling or flaking is classified as

    • A.

      Light

    • B.

      Severe

    • C.

      Moderate

    • D.

      Superficial

    Correct Answer
    B. Severe
    Explanation
    Corrosion that appears as blistering, exfoliation, and scaling or flaking is classified as severe. This is because these characteristics indicate significant damage and deterioration of the material, which can lead to structural weakness and potential failure. The presence of blisters, exfoliation, and scaling or flaking suggests that the corrosion has progressed to an advanced stage, requiring immediate attention and remediation to prevent further deterioration.

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  • 36. 

    (212) Prior to corrosion removal, what must be determined?

    • A.

      Type of removal tooling.

    • B.

      Type of removal method

    • C.

      Type of paint to be used to re-coat surface.

    • D.

      Allowable damage removal limits.

    Correct Answer
    D. Allowable damage removal limits.
    Explanation
    Before removing corrosion, it is necessary to determine the allowable damage removal limits. This means understanding the extent to which the corrosion can be removed without causing any further damage to the surface or structure. This is crucial in order to ensure that the removal process does not compromise the integrity or functionality of the object being treated. By determining the allowable damage removal limits, one can effectively plan and execute the corrosion removal process while minimizing any potential risks or negative consequences.

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  • 37. 

    (213) Material compatibility refers to using a medium that will

    • A.

      not cause additional corrosion.

    • B.

      slow down the corrosion rate.

    • C.

      speed up the corrosion rate.

    • D.

      cause additional corrosion.

    Correct Answer
    A. not cause additional corrosion.
    Explanation
    Material compatibility refers to the ability of a medium to not cause additional corrosion. This means that when choosing a material or medium to be used in a specific environment or with certain substances, it is important to select one that will not react with the surroundings in a way that promotes corrosion. The correct answer indicates that the chosen medium should not contribute to the corrosion process, ensuring the longevity and integrity of the material being used.

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  • 38. 

    (213) Which motion should you use when removing corrosion with a hand held wire brush?

    • A.

      Linear

    • B.

      Circular

    • C.

      Oscillating

    • D.

      Cross hatch

    Correct Answer
    A. Linear
    Explanation
    When removing corrosion with a hand-held wire brush, using a linear motion is the most suitable. This means moving the brush back and forth in a straight line. This motion allows for more controlled and consistent brushing, ensuring that the corrosion is effectively removed. Circular or oscillating motions may not provide the same level of precision and may result in uneven removal of the corrosion. Cross hatch motion, which involves brushing in a crisscross pattern, is not necessary for removing corrosion and may be more suitable for other purposes.

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  • 39. 

    (213) When removing corrosion with a pneumatic sander, how do you keep the sander from digging into the metal?

    • A.

      Move the sander slowly.

    • B.

      Only use light pressure.

    • C.

      Start the sander before it touches the metal.

    • D.

      By only allowing a portion of the sanding disc to contact the surface.

    Correct Answer
    C. Start the sander before it touches the metal.
    Explanation
    Starting the sander before it touches the metal allows the user to gradually apply pressure and control the sanding process. This prevents the sander from digging into the metal and causing damage. By starting the sander first, the user can ensure a smooth and controlled sanding motion, minimizing the risk of gouging or scratching the metal surface.

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  • 40. 

    (213) What is the last step in the general corrosion removal procedures?

    • A.

      Blend out edges of damaged area.

    • B.

      Re-evaluate using fluorescent penetrant.

    • C.

      Treat the surface and apply protective coatings.

    • D.

      Check to ensure allowable damage limits have not been exceeded.

    Correct Answer
    C. Treat the surface and apply protective coatings.
    Explanation
    The last step in the general corrosion removal procedures is to treat the surface and apply protective coatings. This is important to prevent further corrosion and protect the surface from future damage. By treating the surface, any remaining corrosion is removed and the area is prepared for the application of protective coatings, such as paint or sealants. These coatings act as a barrier, preventing moisture and corrosive substances from reaching the surface and causing corrosion.

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  • 41. 

    (213) What is the first step when using abrasive blasting to remove corrosion?

    • A.

      Mask or seal media entrapment areas.

    • B.

      Statically ground the equipment to be blasted.

    • C.

      Clean any oil, grease, or other soils from surfaces.

    • D.

      Determine what areas need protection from the media blast stream.

    Correct Answer
    C. Clean any oil, grease, or other soils from surfaces.
    Explanation
    Before using abrasive blasting to remove corrosion, it is important to clean any oil, grease, or other soils from surfaces. This step ensures that the abrasive blasting process is effective in removing the corrosion and prevents any contaminants from interfering with the process. By cleaning the surfaces beforehand, the abrasive blasting can target and remove the corrosion more efficiently, leading to better results.

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  • 42. 

    (214) The paint edges around the chemically stripped areas are feathered in order to

    • A.

      Ensure a smooth, overlapping transition between the old and new paint surfaces.

    • B.

      Allow for accurate measurements corrosion removal areas.

    • C.

      Ensure good surface contact for chemical strippers.

    • D.

      Allow for easier access to the bare metal areas.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure a smooth, overlapping transition between the old and new paint surfaces.
    Explanation
    The paint edges around the chemically stripped areas are feathered in order to ensure a smooth, overlapping transition between the old and new paint surfaces. Feathering the edges helps to blend the new paint with the existing paint, creating a seamless finish without any visible lines or edges. This technique is commonly used in automotive painting and other applications where a professional and high-quality appearance is desired.

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  • 43. 

    (214) When should you apply chemical conversion coating to metal?

    • A.

      Immediately after cleaning a water break-free surface.

    • B.

      Immediately after corrosion removal procedures.

    • C.

      During corrosion removal procedures.

    • D.

      Whenever it is convenient.

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately after cleaning a water break-free surface.
    Explanation
    Chemical conversion coating is a process used to protect metal surfaces from corrosion. Applying it immediately after cleaning a water break-free surface ensures that the metal is free from any contaminants or residues that could interfere with the coating's effectiveness. By applying the chemical conversion coating at this stage, the metal surface is prepared and ready to receive the protective coating, maximizing its adhesion and corrosion resistance properties. Applying the coating immediately after corrosion removal procedures may not be ideal as there could still be remnants of corrosion present on the surface, which could compromise the effectiveness of the coating.

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  • 44. 

    (215) Corrosion preventive compounds (CPC) are used to prevent

    • A.

      Corrosive materials from contacting and corroding bare metal surfaces.

    • B.

      Surface treatments from etching bare metal surfaces.

    • C.

      Corrosion from forming under the paint.

    • D.

      Paint from adhering to surfaces.

    Correct Answer
    A. Corrosive materials from contacting and corroding bare metal surfaces.
    Explanation
    Corrosion preventive compounds (CPC) are used to prevent corrosive materials from contacting and corroding bare metal surfaces. This means that CPC creates a protective barrier between the corrosive materials and the metal surfaces, preventing them from coming into direct contact and causing corrosion. By doing so, CPC helps to prolong the lifespan of the metal surfaces and maintain their integrity.

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  • 45. 

    (215) The two categories that corrosion preventive compounds (CPC) are separated into include

    • A.

      Light and heavy.

    • B.

      Clear and translucent.

    • C.

      Viscous and non-viscous.

    • D.

      Water displacing and non-water displacing.

    Correct Answer
    D. Water displacing and non-water displacing.
    Explanation
    Corrosion preventive compounds (CPC) are categorized into water displacing and non-water displacing. Water displacing CPCs are designed to displace moisture and create a protective barrier on metal surfaces, preventing corrosion. Non-water displacing CPCs, on the other hand, do not displace moisture and instead form a protective film on the metal surface to prevent corrosion. This categorization is based on the different mechanisms by which CPCs prevent corrosion and their ability to displace water.

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  • 46. 

    (216) At a minimum, material data safety sheets (MSDS) are made available to

    • A.

      Everyone

    • B.

      Shop chiefs

    • C.

      Shift supervisors

    • D.

      Immediate supervisors

    Correct Answer
    A. Everyone
    Explanation
    Material data safety sheets (MSDS) contain important information about the hazards, handling, and storage of materials. Making them available to everyone ensures that all individuals in the workplace have access to this crucial information. This promotes a safe working environment by allowing everyone to be aware of the potential risks associated with the materials they may come into contact with. By providing MSDS to everyone, it ensures that all employees, regardless of their position or level of responsibility, have the necessary information to handle materials safely.

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  • 47. 

    (216) How many gallons of hazardous waste is the maximum amount you can store in one satellite point?

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      55

    • C.

      150

    • D.

      155

    Correct Answer
    B. 55
    Explanation
    The maximum amount of hazardous waste that can be stored in one satellite point is 55 gallons. This limit is set to ensure the safe storage and handling of hazardous materials, as exceeding this amount could pose a greater risk of accidents or environmental damage. It is important to adhere to these regulations to protect both human health and the environment.

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  • 48. 

    (216) How high can you stack drums containing flammable liquids?

    • A.

      2-3 high

    • B.

      3-4 high

    • C.

      No more than 2 high

    • D.

      They should not be stacked

    Correct Answer
    C. No more than 2 high
    Explanation
    Drums containing flammable liquids should not be stacked more than 2 high. This is because stacking them higher increases the risk of accidents, such as the drums toppling over or the liquids spilling. Keeping the stack to a maximum of 2 drums reduces the chances of these incidents occurring, ensuring the safety of the flammable liquids and the surrounding environment.

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  • 49. 

    (217) What must you do before you can wear a respirator with a tight-fitting face-piece?

    • A.

      Thoroughly clean and disinfect it.

    • B.

      Inspect for damaged or un-serviceable parts

    • C.

      Ensure that no facial hair comes between the sealing surface of the face-piece

    • D.

      Be fit tested with the same make, model, style, of respirator that will be used in the workplace.

    Correct Answer
    D. Be fit tested with the same make, model, style, of respirator that will be used in the workplace.
    Explanation
    Before wearing a respirator with a tight-fitting face-piece, it is necessary to be fit tested with the same make, model, and style of respirator that will be used in the workplace. This ensures that the respirator fits properly and provides an effective seal. Thoroughly cleaning and disinfecting the respirator, inspecting for damaged parts, and ensuring that no facial hair comes between the sealing surface of the face-piece are important steps for maintaining the respirator's functionality, but they are not specifically required before wearing it.

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  • 50. 

    (217) How often should a respirator be cleaned and disinfected?

    • A.

      At least once a week.

    • B.

      At least once a month.

    • C.

      At the end of each day in which it is used.

    • D.

      At the end of each day, regardless of use.

    Correct Answer
    C. At the end of each day in which it is used.
    Explanation
    A respirator should be cleaned and disinfected at the end of each day in which it is used to ensure that it remains sanitary and effective. Cleaning and disinfecting the respirator regularly helps to remove any contaminants or pathogens that may have accumulated on the surface during use. This practice is important to maintain the respiratory health and safety of the user and to prevent the spread of any potential infections.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Aug 30, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 08, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Jbesrod
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