2A6X1 Vol 1 Ure's (Mfe)

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  • 1/74 Questions

    Which squadrons form a maintenance group?

    • Operations, aircraft maintenance,flying
    • Maintenance, operations, quality assurance
    • Quality assurance, support,aircraft maintenance
    • Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.
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Aircraft Maintenance Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in aircraft maintenance fundamentals, specifically for the 2A6X1 MFE role in the Air Force. It covers squadron structure, QA processes, maintenance operations, and career development, essential for personnel in maintenance roles.

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  • 2. 

    QA recommends possible corective actions to which level?

    • Supervisors

    • Flight commanders

    • Group commanders

    • Squadron commanders

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisors
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Supervisors. The question asks about the level to which QA recommends possible corrective actions. The supervisors are responsible for overseeing the work and performance of their subordinates. Therefore, it is logical to assume that QA would recommend corrective actions to supervisors, as they are directly responsible for managing and addressing any issues within their teams.

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  • 3. 

    Who monitors flying and maintenace schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?

    • Operations support center

    • Maintenance operations center

    • Logistics support squadron

    • Operations support squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations center
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules and maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. They ensure that aircraft are properly maintained and serviced, and coordinate with other units to ensure smooth operations. They play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and efficiency of the fleet.

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  • 4. 

    When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned?

    • Debrief

    • Training

    • Specialist

    • Deployment

    Correct Answer
    A. Specialist
    Explanation
    If you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, you will most likely be assigned to the Specialist flight. This is because as an engine troop, your expertise and responsibilities will primarily revolve around the maintenance and repair of aircraft engines. Being assigned to the Specialist flight will allow you to focus on your specific area of expertise and carry out specialized tasks related to engine maintenance.

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  • 5. 

    What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge prtion of your job?

    • NCO academy

    • On-the-job training

    • Career development course

    • Task qualification training

    Correct Answer
    A. Career development course
    Explanation
    A career development course is a type of training provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training focuses on enhancing skills and knowledge related to one's career path. It may include classroom instruction, workshops, seminars, or online courses. By participating in a career development course, individuals can gain a deeper understanding of their job responsibilities, industry trends, and best practices. This training can contribute to professional growth, advancement opportunities, and overall job performance.

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  • 6. 

    You may attend ALS after having how many months in the Air Force?

    • 24

    • 36

    • 48

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 48
    Explanation
    After serving in the Air Force for 48 months, one may attend ALS (Airman Leadership School). This indicates that ALS is a higher-level training program that is only available to individuals who have a certain amount of experience and time in the Air Force. It is likely that attending ALS after 48 months allows individuals to have a solid foundation of knowledge and skills before taking on leadership roles within the Air Force.

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  • 7. 

    Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all air force employees?

    • ORM

    • MSDS

    • AFOSH

    • Flightline Safety

    Correct Answer
    A. AFOSH
    Explanation
    AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health. This program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all air force employees. It focuses on preventing accidents, injuries, and illnesses in the workplace by implementing safety measures, providing training, and conducting inspections. AFOSH plays a crucial role in maintaining the well-being of air force personnel and promoting a culture of safety within the organization.

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  • 8. 

    Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series

    • 91

    • 66

    • 127

    • 161

    Correct Answer
    A. 91
    Explanation
    Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series 91.

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  • 9. 

    Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?

    • 00-5-1

    • 00-20-1

    • 21-101

    • 36-2108

    Correct Answer
    A. 21-101
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and mandates that maintenance personnel exhibit integrity and adhere to all written guidance. This instruction likely outlines the standards and procedures for maintaining aircraft and equipment in the Air Force, ensuring that maintenance is conducted with a high level of quality and professionalism.

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  • 10. 

    Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?

    • Lock and pin the workstands

    • Check the AFTO form 781k

    • Check the intake for FOD

    • Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft

    Correct Answer
    A. Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft
    Explanation
    To ensure that it is safe to proceed with maintenance on the aircraft, it is important to check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft. This step is crucial as it allows for communication and coordination among the team members, ensuring that everyone is aware of the ongoing maintenance activities and any potential hazards or risks. By checking with other personnel, any potential conflicts or safety concerns can be addressed, promoting a safe working environment for all involved.

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  • 11. 

    How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?

    • 20 feet to the front and 15 feet to the rear

    • 15 feet to the front and 10 feet to the rear

    • 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear

    • 5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear
    Explanation
    A propeller's axis of rotation extends 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear. This means that the area in which the propeller rotates extends 10 feet forward from its center and 5 feet backward from its center.

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  • 12. 

    To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?

    • 100

    • 200

    • 300

    • 400

    Correct Answer
    A. 200
    Explanation
    To avoid the engine exhaust blast, the minimum distance to the rear of the aircraft should be 200 feet. This distance ensures that individuals and objects are at a safe distance from the powerful exhaust gases and any potential hazards associated with them.

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  • 13. 

    FOD is normaly caused by

    • People

    • Animals

    • Weather

    • Mechanical failure

    Correct Answer
    A. People
    Explanation
    FOD, or Foreign Object Debris, is typically caused by people. This refers to any object, substance, or debris that is not part of an aircraft or its components, but can cause damage or hazards if left in or around the aircraft. People can unintentionally introduce FOD during maintenance or construction activities, or by not properly securing loose objects in the vicinity of the aircraft. It is important for individuals working in and around aircraft to be vigilant and follow proper procedures to prevent FOD incidents.

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  • 14. 

    Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?

    • Quality assurance

    • Squadron commander

    • Production supervisor

    • Maintenance group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance group commander
    Explanation
    The maintenance group commander has overall responsibility for the FOD (Foreign Object Debris) program. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that the program is implemented and followed correctly. The maintenance group commander is responsible for overseeing the maintenance operations and ensuring that all procedures and protocols are followed to prevent FOD incidents. They have the authority to make decisions and allocate resources to ensure the success of the FOD program.

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  • 15. 

    During flightline and test cell operatios, you may be exposed to

    • Acetone

    • Toluene

    • Carbon dioxide

    • Carbon monoxide

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbon monoxide
    Explanation
    During flightline and test cell operations, exposure to various chemicals and gases is possible. Acetone and toluene are commonly used solvents in aviation maintenance and can be harmful if inhaled or absorbed through the skin. Carbon dioxide is a naturally occurring gas in the atmosphere and is not typically harmful unless present in high concentrations. However, carbon monoxide is a toxic gas that can be produced by the incomplete combustion of fuels, such as those used in aircraft engines. Exposure to carbon monoxide can lead to symptoms such as headache, dizziness, and even death in high concentrations. Therefore, it is important to be aware of the potential risks and take necessary precautions to minimize exposure to carbon monoxide during flightline and test cell operations.

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  • 16. 

    Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of

    • Aerosols

    • Liquids

    • Solids

    • Gases

    Correct Answer
    A. Gases
    Explanation
    Gases are the easiest form of toxic materials to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions. Unlike aerosols, liquids, and solids, gases can easily be inhaled and absorbed into the bloodstream through the lungs. Gases have the ability to quickly spread and penetrate the body's tissues and organs, leading to immediate toxic effects. Additionally, gases can also be easily inhaled in high concentrations, increasing the intensity of the toxic reaction.

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  • 17. 

    Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear,use, and maintain personal protective equipment?

    • Safety

    • Hospital

    • Supervisor

    • Environmental

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in charge of ensuring that employees are properly trained and equipped to protect themselves from potential hazards in the workplace. The supervisor plays a crucial role in promoting safety and ensuring that employees understand the importance of using personal protective equipment correctly.

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  • 18. 

    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent

    • Explosions

    • Unauthorized entry

    • Overflow of materials

    • Mixing of unlike materials

    Correct Answer
    A. Unauthorized entry
    Explanation
    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety and security of the facility and the surrounding environment. Unauthorized entry can lead to potential accidents, theft, or intentional harm. It is crucial to restrict access to authorized personnel who are trained to handle and manage hazardous materials properly. Unauthorized entry can also result in the mishandling or improper disposal of hazardous waste, which can have severe consequences for human health and the environment. Therefore, preventing unauthorized entry is a critical requirement for hazardous waste storage areas.

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  • 19. 

    A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is

    • Dilution

    • Incineration

    • Land disposal

    • Biodegradation

    Correct Answer
    A. Dilution
    Explanation
    Dilution is a common method for disposing of hazardous waste because it involves mixing the waste with a large volume of water or another solvent to reduce its concentration. This process helps to decrease the toxicity of the waste and make it less harmful to the environment. Dilution is often used for liquid or soluble hazardous waste, as it allows for easier transportation and treatment. However, it is important to note that dilution should be done carefully and within regulatory limits to ensure that the waste does not cause pollution or harm to ecosystems.

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  • 20. 

    For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify

    • Incineration

    • Land disposal

    • Biodegradation

    • Chemico-physical treatment

    Correct Answer
    A. Incineration
    Explanation
    Incineration is the most suitable method for hazardous waste disposal for the Air Force because it involves the controlled burning of waste at high temperatures, which helps to reduce the volume and toxicity of the waste. This method is effective in destroying hazardous substances and minimizing the environmental impact. Land disposal may pose risks of contamination to soil and groundwater, while biodegradation and chemico-physical treatment may not fully eliminate the hazardous properties of the waste. Therefore, incineration is the most justifiable option for the Air Force.

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  • 21. 

    A specialized function of the supply mission is

    • Repair

    • Service

    • Disposal

    • Retreival

    Correct Answer
    A. Disposal
    Explanation
    The specialized function of the supply mission mentioned in the question is disposal. This means that the mission is focused on getting rid of or getting rid of unwanted or waste materials. This could involve disposing of items that are no longer needed or are no longer usable, ensuring proper waste management and environmental sustainability.

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  • 22. 

    From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?

    • Base system

    • Weapopns system

    • Inventory system

    • Geographical system

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapopns system
    Explanation
    The RSS manages supply from the perspective of the weapons system. This means that the focus of their supply management is on ensuring the availability and proper functioning of weapons within the organization. They prioritize the procurement, maintenance, and distribution of weapons to support operational needs and ensure the readiness of their armed forces.

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  • 23. 

    Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?

    • Depot Level Repair System

    • Repair Cycle Support System

    • Standard Base Supply System

    • Precious Metals Recovery System

    Correct Answer
    A. Repair Cycle Support System
    Explanation
    The Repair Cycle Support System manages the repair cycle system. This system is responsible for coordinating and supporting the repair process, ensuring that damaged or faulty equipment is repaired and returned to service in a timely manner. It involves tracking and managing repair orders, coordinating with repair facilities, and ensuring that necessary parts and resources are available for the repair process. The Repair Cycle Support System plays a crucial role in maintaining the operational readiness of military equipment.

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  • 24. 

    Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require

    • Overhaul

    • Retest OK

    • Time change

    • Repair cycle support

    Correct Answer
    A. Overhaul
    Explanation
    Certain equipment items may require overhaul when returned to the depot due to their design characteristics, function, or application. Overhaul refers to a comprehensive examination and repair of the equipment to ensure its proper functioning. This process involves disassembling, inspecting, repairing or replacing worn-out components, and reassembling the equipment. Overhaul is necessary to maintain the equipment's performance, extend its lifespan, and address any issues or damage that may have occurred during its use.

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  • 25. 

    Which supply document provieds a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed dudring the day by the SBSS?

    • Priority Monitor Report(D18)

    • Daily Document Register(D04)

    • Due-out Validation Listing (M30

    • Reoair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23)

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily Document Register(D04)
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS. This register keeps track of all the documents processed, allowing organizations to have a comprehensive view of the documents processed on a daily basis. The other options, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Due-out Validation Listing (M30), and Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23), do not specifically provide a means for reviewing all document numbers processed during the day.

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  • 26. 

    Base supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis becuase of what difference in each organization?

    • Mission

    • Contract

    • Location

    • Type of Aircraft

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission
    Explanation
    The base supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because each organization has a different mission. The mission of an organization determines its specific needs and requirements, including the parts and supplies it requires. Therefore, the base supply must prioritize and deliver the necessary parts based on the mission of each organization.

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  • 27. 

    What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?

    • Origin of an item

    • Why the item broke

    • How long the item will take to repair

    • The responsible reparable processing center

    Correct Answer
    A. Origin of an item
    Explanation
    A completed AFTO Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used in the United States Air Force to document the history and maintenance of equipment. By completing this form, personnel can track the origin of an item, including when and where it was acquired. This information is important for inventory management, maintenance planning, and tracking the life cycle of equipment.

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  • 28. 

    Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag?

    • AFMAN 23-110

    • TO 00-20-2

    • AFI 91-301

    • TO 00-5-1

    Correct Answer
    A. TO 00-20-2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TO 00-20-2. This document provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag.

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  • 29. 

    If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?

    • AF IMT 2005

    • AFTO Form 349

    • AFTO Form 350

    • DD Form 1574

    Correct Answer
    A. AF IMT 2005
    Explanation
    If you are TDY (Temporary Duty) and both IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) and SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) are not available, you would use AF IMT 2005 to order an engine part. This form is specifically designed for requesting and tracking the status of items not available through normal supply channels. It allows personnel to document and submit their requirements for items that are urgently needed but cannot be obtained through the usual systems.

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  • 30. 

    If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN

    • 23-110

    • 23-254

    • 91-110

    • 91-254

    Correct Answer
    A. 23-110
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 23-110. This answer is based on the information provided in the question, which states that if you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, you should refer to AFMAN 23-110.

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  • 31. 

    Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance?

    • DD Form 1574

    • DD Form 1575

    • DD Form 1577-2

    • DD Form 1577-3

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 1575
  • 32. 

    Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?

    • Supply

    • Shelf-life

    • Inspection

    • Bench stock

    Correct Answer
    A. Shelf-life
    Explanation
    Shelf-life is the correct answer because it refers to the period of time during which a product, such as food or medicine, can be stored and remain usable or effective. Assigning a storage time period to an item ensures that it will be used or consumed before it reaches its expiration date, guaranteeing that it will perform satisfactorily over the specified period of time.

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  • 33. 

    When a bench stock item has a type 1 shelf-life, it means the item

    • Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended

    • Should be returned to supply after expiration date

    • Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life

    • Should be inspected or tested

    Correct Answer
    A. Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life
    Explanation
    A bench stock item with a type 1 shelf-life has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item has a specific amount of time before it expires and cannot be used beyond that period. Unlike items with an extendible shelf-life, which can have their shelf-life extended, a type 1 shelf-life item must be used or disposed of before the expiration date. This ensures that the item is still safe and effective for use.

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  • 34. 

    A Category 1 DR is used to report a deficiency

    • That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager

    • Found during initial acceptance inspection(critical or major defects only

    • That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system

    • That identifies a potential enhancement(applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle)

    Correct Answer
    A. That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system
    Explanation
    A Category 1 DR is used to report a deficiency that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system. This means that the deficiency identified is critical and has the potential to cause significant harm if not addressed. It is important to track and rectify such deficiencies to ensure the safety and functionality of the equipment or system in question.

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  • 35. 

    Within how many hours must Category 1 DR be forwarded to the screening point?

    • 8

    • 12

    • 24

    • 72

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 12
    A. 24
    Explanation
    Category 1 DR must be forwarded to the screening point within 12 to 24 hours. This suggests that there is a time limit within which the DR needs to be processed and forwarded for screening. The specific time frame is not mentioned, but it falls between 12 and 24 hours.

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  • 36. 

    Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL?

    • Shelf-life

    • Bench stock

    • Hazardous materials

    • Equipment Authorization Inventory Data

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment Authorization Inventory Data
    Explanation
    The CA/CRL (Cataloging Activity/Commodity Research List) must reflect Equipment Authorization Inventory Data. This means that the inventory data for authorized equipment should be included in the CA/CRL. The CA/CRL is a comprehensive list that catalogs various items, and in this case, it specifically includes data related to equipment authorization.

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  • 37. 

    To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the

    • Shop chief

    • Supervisor

    • Commander

    • Supply chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander
    Explanation
    To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the commander. The commander holds the highest authority and is responsible for making appointments and decisions within the organization. As an equipment custodian, it is essential to have the commander's approval and trust to handle and manage the equipment effectively. The commander's appointment ensures that the individual is capable and reliable in fulfilling the responsibilities of an equipment custodian.

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  • 38. 

    The first part of a TO number identifies the

    • Sectionalization of the TO

    • Type of instructions found in the TO

    • Category and type of equipment in the TO

    • Model series of the equipment covered by the TO

    Correct Answer
    A. Category and type of equipment in the TO
    Explanation
    The first part of a TO number is used to identify the category and type of equipment in the TO. This helps to classify and organize the TOs based on the specific equipment they pertain to. By including this information in the TO number, it becomes easier for users to locate the appropriate TO for a particular piece of equipment.

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  • 39. 

    The second part of a TO number gives the

    • TO classification

    • Type of equipment in the TO

    • Type of instructions found in the TO

    • Model and series for equipment type in the TO

    Correct Answer
    A. Model and series for equipment type in the TO
    Explanation
    The second part of a TO number provides information about the model and series for the equipment type in the TO. This means that by looking at the second part of the TO number, one can identify the specific model and series of the equipment that the TO is referring to. This information is important for accurately locating and using the correct set of instructions for a particular piece of equipment.

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  • 40. 

    In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?

    • Index

    • Preliminary

    • Methods and procedure

    • Operational maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Index
    Explanation
    In the given options, the correct answer is "Index". An index is a type of TO (Technical Order) where you can find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment. It serves as a reference guide or a catalog that helps users easily locate and access the relevant TOs related to a particular equipment category.

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  • 41. 

    Which type of techinical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?

    • General equipment

    • General system

    • Fault isolation

    • Job guide

    Correct Answer
    A. Job guide
    Explanation
    A job guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance for performing specific maintenance tasks on equipment or systems. This type of manual is often used by technicians or maintenance personnel to ensure that they follow the correct procedures and sequence of actions when performing maintenance actions. It helps to streamline the maintenance process and ensure that tasks are completed correctly and efficiently.

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  • 42. 

    Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals(IETMS)?

    • Rapid action changes

    • Operational supplements

    • Urgent recommendations

    • Time compliance technical order

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent recommendations
    Explanation
    Interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMs) do not typically provide urgent recommendations as additional data. IETMs are designed to provide technical information and instructions for maintenance, repair, and operation of equipment or systems. Urgent recommendations, on the other hand, are time-sensitive advisories that may require immediate action to ensure safety or prevent equipment failure. While IETMs may include information on regular maintenance procedures and updates, urgent recommendations are usually communicated separately through other channels, such as bulletins or notifications.

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  • 43. 

    What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?

    • Introduction

    • Numerical index

    • Group assembly parts list

    • Time compliance technical orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Introduction
    Explanation
    The introduction section of the IPB typically contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB. This section provides an overview of the structure and format of the IPB, including any abbreviations, symbols, or codes used throughout the document. It helps users understand how to interpret and navigate the information presented in the IPB, making it an essential resource for effectively using the manual.

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  • 44. 

    What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?

    • Record

    • Urgent action

    • Routine action

    • Immediate action

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediate action
    Explanation
    Immediate action TCTOs are issued to correct unsafe conditions that have the potential to cause a fatality or serious injury to personnel. These TCTOs require immediate attention and action to mitigate the risk and ensure the safety of individuals. Unlike other categories such as routine or record TCTOs, immediate action TCTOs prioritize urgent and critical situations that demand immediate corrective measures.

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  • 45. 

    Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?

    • 00-5-1

    • 00-5-2

    • 00-20-1

    • 00-20-2

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-5-1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00-5-1 because it is the only option that specifically mentions the Air Force TO system. The other options do not provide any information related to the Air Force TO system.

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  • 46. 

    How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?

    • The text or picture will be marked in color

    • The text or picture will be highlighted in yellow

    • The word"changed" will be marked on the text or picture

    • A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture

    Correct Answer
    A. A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture
    Explanation
    When the text or picture in a TO has been changed, it will be indicated by a bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture. This visual cue helps the reader easily identify the modifications made to the original content.

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  • 47. 

    An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for

    • Job guides

    • Work cards

    • Preliminary TOs

    • Methods and procedures

    Correct Answer
    A. Preliminary TOs
    Explanation
    An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for preliminary TOs because it is a form used for documenting discrepancies and maintenance actions on aircraft. Preliminary TOs, on the other hand, refer to technical orders that provide guidance for performing specific tasks or procedures. Therefore, the AFTO IMT 22 would not be applicable or necessary for preliminary TOs.

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  • 48. 

    Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?

    • Initiator

    • Commander

    • Supervisor of initiator

    • Product improvement office

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor of initiator
    Explanation
    The supervisor of the initiator is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission. They oversee the work of the initiator and have the authority to review and approve the document before it is submitted. As the supervisor, they have the knowledge and expertise to assess the accuracy and completeness of the AFTO IMT 22, ensuring that it meets the necessary criteria before it is forwarded for further action.

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  • 49. 

    Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?

    • Urgent

    • Special

    • Routine

    • Emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent
    Explanation
    Submitting an AFTO IMT 22 recommendation as "Urgent" is the correct answer because this indicates that the issue needs immediate attention and if not corrected, it could potentially cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property. This urgency implies that the situation is critical and requires prompt action to prevent any harm or further damage.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 17, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Samh5112

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