2A6X1 Vol 1 Ure's (Mfe)

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Samh5112
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1. Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear,use, and maintain personal protective equipment?

Explanation

The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in charge of ensuring that employees are properly trained and equipped to protect themselves from potential hazards in the workplace. The supervisor plays a crucial role in promoting safety and ensuring that employees understand the importance of using personal protective equipment correctly.

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About This Quiz
Aircraft Maintenance Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz assesses knowledge in aircraft maintenance fundamentals, specifically for the 2A6X1 MFE role in the Air Force. It covers squadron structure, QA processes, maintenance operations, and career development, essential for personnel in maintenance roles.

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2. FOD is normaly caused by

Explanation

FOD, or Foreign Object Debris, is typically caused by people. This refers to any object, substance, or debris that is not part of an aircraft or its components, but can cause damage or hazards if left in or around the aircraft. People can unintentionally introduce FOD during maintenance or construction activities, or by not properly securing loose objects in the vicinity of the aircraft. It is important for individuals working in and around aircraft to be vigilant and follow proper procedures to prevent FOD incidents.

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3. Base supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis becuase of what difference in each organization?

Explanation

The base supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because each organization has a different mission. The mission of an organization determines its specific needs and requirements, including the parts and supplies it requires. Therefore, the base supply must prioritize and deliver the necessary parts based on the mission of each organization.

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4. If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,

Explanation

When torquing a sequence of three or more bolts, it is recommended to use a staggered sequence. This means that instead of tightening the bolts in a consecutive order (e.g., from left to right), the bolts should be tightened in a alternating pattern. This helps to distribute the torque evenly across the bolts and ensures that the load is evenly distributed. Using a staggered sequence also helps to prevent warping or distortion of the material being fastened, as well as reducing the risk of bolt failure.

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5. Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series

Explanation

Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series 91.

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6. Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?

Explanation

Shelf-life is the correct answer because it refers to the period of time during which a product, such as food or medicine, can be stored and remain usable or effective. Assigning a storage time period to an item ensures that it will be used or consumed before it reaches its expiration date, guaranteeing that it will perform satisfactorily over the specified period of time.

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7. Which type of techinical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?

Explanation

A job guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance for performing specific maintenance tasks on equipment or systems. This type of manual is often used by technicians or maintenance personnel to ensure that they follow the correct procedures and sequence of actions when performing maintenance actions. It helps to streamline the maintenance process and ensure that tasks are completed correctly and efficiently.

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8. Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by

Explanation

The correct answer is providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability. This means that depot maintenance support base-level technicians assist and repair equipment that is beyond the capability of the technicians at the base level. They have the expertise and resources to handle more complex repairs and provide technical guidance to the base-level technicians.

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9. When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned?

Explanation

If you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, you will most likely be assigned to the Specialist flight. This is because as an engine troop, your expertise and responsibilities will primarily revolve around the maintenance and repair of aircraft engines. Being assigned to the Specialist flight will allow you to focus on your specific area of expertise and carry out specialized tasks related to engine maintenance.

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10. What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach?

Explanation

A toolbag would be the most appropriate option to hold your tools when your toolbox is not within arm's reach. A toolbag is specifically designed to carry and organize tools, making it a convenient solution in such a situation. It provides a secure and portable storage option, allowing easy access to the tools you need. A ziplock bag may not be suitable for holding larger tools or multiple tools, while a parts bag is typically used for storing small components rather than tools. FOD bag, on the other hand, is used to prevent foreign object debris in aviation maintenance and may not be readily available in all situations.

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11. Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all air force employees?

Explanation

AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health. This program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all air force employees. It focuses on preventing accidents, injuries, and illnesses in the workplace by implementing safety measures, providing training, and conducting inspections. AFOSH plays a crucial role in maintaining the well-being of air force personnel and promoting a culture of safety within the organization.

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12. Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause

Explanation

Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it can cause injury to you. The tool may have sharp edges or points that can accidentally cut or puncture your skin while in your pocket. Additionally, if the tool is heavy or bulky, it can cause discomfort or strain on your body, leading to potential injuries such as bruises or sprains. Therefore, it is important to properly store and secure hand tools to prevent any harm to yourself.

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13. During flightline and test cell operatios, you may be exposed to

Explanation

During flightline and test cell operations, exposure to various chemicals and gases is possible. Acetone and toluene are commonly used solvents in aviation maintenance and can be harmful if inhaled or absorbed through the skin. Carbon dioxide is a naturally occurring gas in the atmosphere and is not typically harmful unless present in high concentrations. However, carbon monoxide is a toxic gas that can be produced by the incomplete combustion of fuels, such as those used in aircraft engines. Exposure to carbon monoxide can lead to symptoms such as headache, dizziness, and even death in high concentrations. Therefore, it is important to be aware of the potential risks and take necessary precautions to minimize exposure to carbon monoxide during flightline and test cell operations.

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14. Which squadrons form a maintenance group?

Explanation

The squadrons that form a maintenance group are maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance. These squadrons are responsible for ensuring the proper functioning and upkeep of aircraft and equipment. They work together to perform maintenance tasks, conduct quality assurance checks, and provide support for the overall operations of the group.

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15. To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?

Explanation

To avoid the engine exhaust blast, the minimum distance to the rear of the aircraft should be 200 feet. This distance ensures that individuals and objects are at a safe distance from the powerful exhaust gases and any potential hazards associated with them.

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16. Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of

Explanation

Gases are the easiest form of toxic materials to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions. Unlike aerosols, liquids, and solids, gases can easily be inhaled and absorbed into the bloodstream through the lungs. Gases have the ability to quickly spread and penetrate the body's tissues and organs, leading to immediate toxic effects. Additionally, gases can also be easily inhaled in high concentrations, increasing the intensity of the toxic reaction.

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17. If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?

Explanation

If you are TDY (Temporary Duty) and both IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) and SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) are not available, you would use AF IMT 2005 to order an engine part. This form is specifically designed for requesting and tracking the status of items not available through normal supply channels. It allows personnel to document and submit their requirements for items that are urgently needed but cannot be obtained through the usual systems.

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18. The key to making CEMS work is

Explanation

The key to making CEMS work is accurate and timely data at the lowest level. This means that the data collected from the engines and their parts must be accurate and updated in a timely manner. This is essential for the effective functioning of CEMS, as it relies on this data to monitor and analyze the performance of the engines and their components. Without accurate and timely data at the lowest level, CEMS would not be able to provide accurate insights and make informed decisions.

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19. Which supply document provieds a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed dudring the day by the SBSS?

Explanation

The Daily Document Register (D04) provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS. This register keeps track of all the documents processed, allowing organizations to have a comprehensive view of the documents processed on a daily basis. The other options, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Due-out Validation Listing (M30), and Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23), do not specifically provide a means for reviewing all document numbers processed during the day.

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20. What type of fule should you use for measuring an inside diameter?

Explanation

A slide caliper is a measuring tool that is commonly used to measure inside diameters. It has two jaws, one of which can be inserted into a hole or gap to measure its diameter accurately. The other options mentioned, such as a hook, narrow, or 6-inch steel, are not specific tools used for measuring inside diameters. Therefore, the correct tool to use for measuring an inside diameter is a slide caliper.

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21. What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?

Explanation

A completed AFTO Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used in the United States Air Force to document the history and maintenance of equipment. By completing this form, personnel can track the origin of an item, including when and where it was acquired. This information is important for inventory management, maintenance planning, and tracking the life cycle of equipment.

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22. A Category 1 DR is used to report a deficiency

Explanation

A Category 1 DR is used to report a deficiency that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system. This means that the deficiency identified is critical and has the potential to cause significant harm if not addressed. It is important to track and rectify such deficiencies to ensure the safety and functionality of the equipment or system in question.

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23. In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?

Explanation

In the given options, the correct answer is "Index". An index is a type of TO (Technical Order) where you can find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment. It serves as a reference guide or a catalog that helps users easily locate and access the relevant TOs related to a particular equipment category.

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24. You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which one of the following AFTO Forms?

Explanation

The correct answer is 95. The AFTO Form 95 is used to record the removal and replacement of engine accessories. This form is specifically designed for documenting maintenance actions related to engine components. It provides a standardized format for recording the details of the removal and replacement process, including the date, time, and personnel involved. By using the AFTO Form 95, maintenance personnel can maintain an accurate record of engine accessory maintenance and ensure proper documentation for future reference.

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25. To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the

Explanation

To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the commander. The commander holds the highest authority and is responsible for making appointments and decisions within the organization. As an equipment custodian, it is essential to have the commander's approval and trust to handle and manage the equipment effectively. The commander's appointment ensures that the individual is capable and reliable in fulfilling the responsibilities of an equipment custodian.

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26. How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?

Explanation

When the text or picture in a TO has been changed, it will be indicated by a bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture. This visual cue helps the reader easily identify the modifications made to the original content.

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27. Who monitors flying and maintenace schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?

Explanation

The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules and maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. They ensure that aircraft are properly maintained and serviced, and coordinate with other units to ensure smooth operations. They play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and efficiency of the fleet.

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28. What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge prtion of your job?

Explanation

A career development course is a type of training provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training focuses on enhancing skills and knowledge related to one's career path. It may include classroom instruction, workshops, seminars, or online courses. By participating in a career development course, individuals can gain a deeper understanding of their job responsibilities, industry trends, and best practices. This training can contribute to professional growth, advancement opportunities, and overall job performance.

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29. Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?

Explanation

To ensure that it is safe to proceed with maintenance on the aircraft, it is important to check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft. This step is crucial as it allows for communication and coordination among the team members, ensuring that everyone is aware of the ongoing maintenance activities and any potential hazards or risks. By checking with other personnel, any potential conflicts or safety concerns can be addressed, promoting a safe working environment for all involved.

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30. Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent

Explanation

Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety and security of the facility and the surrounding environment. Unauthorized entry can lead to potential accidents, theft, or intentional harm. It is crucial to restrict access to authorized personnel who are trained to handle and manage hazardous materials properly. Unauthorized entry can also result in the mishandling or improper disposal of hazardous waste, which can have severe consequences for human health and the environment. Therefore, preventing unauthorized entry is a critical requirement for hazardous waste storage areas.

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31. The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit the damage to turbine engines by

Explanation

The primary goal of the ET&D program is to detect any decrease in performance or failures in turbine engines at an early stage. This allows for prompt action to be taken, preventing further damage or limiting the extent of the damage. By detecting performance degradation or failures early on, the program can ensure that necessary maintenance or repairs are carried out in a timely manner, minimizing the risk of accidents or more severe engine damage.

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32. A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is

Explanation

Dilution is a common method for disposing of hazardous waste because it involves mixing the waste with a large volume of water or another solvent to reduce its concentration. This process helps to decrease the toxicity of the waste and make it less harmful to the environment. Dilution is often used for liquid or soluble hazardous waste, as it allows for easier transportation and treatment. However, it is important to note that dilution should be done carefully and within regulatory limits to ensure that the waste does not cause pollution or harm to ecosystems.

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33. For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify

Explanation

Incineration is the most suitable method for hazardous waste disposal for the Air Force because it involves the controlled burning of waste at high temperatures, which helps to reduce the volume and toxicity of the waste. This method is effective in destroying hazardous substances and minimizing the environmental impact. Land disposal may pose risks of contamination to soil and groundwater, while biodegradation and chemico-physical treatment may not fully eliminate the hazardous properties of the waste. Therefore, incineration is the most justifiable option for the Air Force.

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34. Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require

Explanation

Certain equipment items may require overhaul when returned to the depot due to their design characteristics, function, or application. Overhaul refers to a comprehensive examination and repair of the equipment to ensure its proper functioning. This process involves disassembling, inspecting, repairing or replacing worn-out components, and reassembling the equipment. Overhaul is necessary to maintain the equipment's performance, extend its lifespan, and address any issues or damage that may have occurred during its use.

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35. Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?

Explanation

The supervisor of the initiator is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission. They oversee the work of the initiator and have the authority to review and approve the document before it is submitted. As the supervisor, they have the knowledge and expertise to assess the accuracy and completeness of the AFTO IMT 22, ensuring that it meets the necessary criteria before it is forwarded for further action.

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36. What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility/capability?

Explanation

Depot maintenance supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility/capability. Depot maintenance typically involves more complex and specialized repairs that cannot be handled by base-level technicians alone. It serves as a higher level of support to ensure that all necessary repairs and maintenance tasks are completed efficiently and effectively.

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37. When a bench stock item has a type 1 shelf-life, it means the item

Explanation

A bench stock item with a type 1 shelf-life has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item has a specific amount of time before it expires and cannot be used beyond that period. Unlike items with an extendible shelf-life, which can have their shelf-life extended, a type 1 shelf-life item must be used or disposed of before the expiration date. This ensures that the item is still safe and effective for use.

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38. Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?

Explanation

Submitting an AFTO IMT 22 recommendation as "Urgent" is the correct answer because this indicates that the issue needs immediate attention and if not corrected, it could potentially cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property. This urgency implies that the situation is critical and requires prompt action to prevent any harm or further damage.

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39. The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the square drive and the center of the

Explanation

The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the broached opening. The broached opening refers to the hole or opening in the torque extension where the square drive of the tool is inserted. This distance is important because it affects the leverage and torque applied by the tool. The longer the distance, the greater the leverage and torque that can be achieved. Therefore, the length of the torque extension is determined by the broached opening.

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40. QA recommends possible corective actions to which level?

Explanation

The correct answer is Supervisors. The question asks about the level to which QA recommends possible corrective actions. The supervisors are responsible for overseeing the work and performance of their subordinates. Therefore, it is logical to assume that QA would recommend corrective actions to supervisors, as they are directly responsible for managing and addressing any issues within their teams.

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41. You may attend ALS after having how many months in the Air Force?

Explanation

After serving in the Air Force for 48 months, one may attend ALS (Airman Leadership School). This indicates that ALS is a higher-level training program that is only available to individuals who have a certain amount of experience and time in the Air Force. It is likely that attending ALS after 48 months allows individuals to have a solid foundation of knowledge and skills before taking on leadership roles within the Air Force.

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42. Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?

Explanation

Air Force instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and mandates that maintenance personnel exhibit integrity and adhere to all written guidance. This instruction likely outlines the standards and procedures for maintaining aircraft and equipment in the Air Force, ensuring that maintenance is conducted with a high level of quality and professionalism.

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43. Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?

Explanation

The Repair Cycle Support System manages the repair cycle system. This system is responsible for coordinating and supporting the repair process, ensuring that damaged or faulty equipment is repaired and returned to service in a timely manner. It involves tracking and managing repair orders, coordinating with repair facilities, and ensuring that necessary parts and resources are available for the repair process. The Repair Cycle Support System plays a crucial role in maintaining the operational readiness of military equipment.

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44. When a CIRF ships replacement asset to a deployed unti, who is esponsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed?

Explanation

CIRF personnel are responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed when a CIRF ships replacement asset to a deployed unit. This is because they are directly involved in the process of shipping and handling the replacement asset, so it is their responsibility to ensure that all necessary paperwork and documentation is completed accurately and in a timely manner. The deployed unit may be responsible for other aspects of receiving and utilizing the replacement asset, but the specific task of completing the documentation falls under the purview of the CIRF personnel.

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45. The second part of a TO number gives the

Explanation

The second part of a TO number provides information about the model and series for the equipment type in the TO. This means that by looking at the second part of the TO number, one can identify the specific model and series of the equipment that the TO is referring to. This information is important for accurately locating and using the correct set of instructions for a particular piece of equipment.

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46. What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?

Explanation

The introduction section of the IPB typically contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB. This section provides an overview of the structure and format of the IPB, including any abbreviations, symbols, or codes used throughout the document. It helps users understand how to interpret and navigate the information presented in the IPB, making it an essential resource for effectively using the manual.

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47. What are the two classifications of failures in the RCM?

Explanation

The RCM (Reliability Centered Maintenance) framework categorizes failures into two classifications: potential and functional. Potential failures refer to failures that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. Functional failures, on the other hand, are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the functionality of the system or equipment. This classification helps in identifying and addressing both existing and potential failures to ensure effective maintenance and reliability of the system.

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48. Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?

Explanation

The objective of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program is to accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements, evaluate engine controls and accessories, and detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections. However, reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets is not mentioned as an objective of the program.

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49. How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and accessories?

Explanation

Participating units should accelerate engines, modules, and accessories two years ahead. This means that they should work on developing and advancing these components two years earlier than originally planned. This could be done in order to stay ahead of competition, meet market demands, or ensure timely delivery of products. By accelerating the development process, units can gain a competitive edge and potentially increase their market share.

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50. What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?

Explanation

Immediate action TCTOs are issued to correct unsafe conditions that have the potential to cause a fatality or serious injury to personnel. These TCTOs require immediate attention and action to mitigate the risk and ensure the safety of individuals. Unlike other categories such as routine or record TCTOs, immediate action TCTOs prioritize urgent and critical situations that demand immediate corrective measures.

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51. If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN

Explanation

The correct answer is 23-110. This answer is based on the information provided in the question, which states that if you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, you should refer to AFMAN 23-110.

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52. Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL?

Explanation

The CA/CRL (Cataloging Activity/Commodity Research List) must reflect Equipment Authorization Inventory Data. This means that the inventory data for authorized equipment should be included in the CA/CRL. The CA/CRL is a comprehensive list that catalogs various items, and in this case, it specifically includes data related to equipment authorization.

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53. An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for

Explanation

An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for preliminary TOs because it is a form used for documenting discrepancies and maintenance actions on aircraft. Preliminary TOs, on the other hand, refer to technical orders that provide guidance for performing specific tasks or procedures. Therefore, the AFTO IMT 22 would not be applicable or necessary for preliminary TOs.

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54. To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form

Explanation

To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form 95.

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55. How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?

Explanation

A propeller's axis of rotation extends 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear. This means that the area in which the propeller rotates extends 10 feet forward from its center and 5 feet backward from its center.

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56. Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?

Explanation

The maintenance group commander has overall responsibility for the FOD (Foreign Object Debris) program. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that the program is implemented and followed correctly. The maintenance group commander is responsible for overseeing the maintenance operations and ensuring that all procedures and protocols are followed to prevent FOD incidents. They have the authority to make decisions and allocate resources to ensure the success of the FOD program.

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57. From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?

Explanation

The RSS manages supply from the perspective of the weapons system. This means that the focus of their supply management is on ensuring the availability and proper functioning of weapons within the organization. They prioritize the procurement, maintenance, and distribution of weapons to support operational needs and ensure the readiness of their armed forces.

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58. In RCM, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?

Explanation

On condition maintenance is a preventative maintenance task that involves scheduled inspections to detect potential failure conditions. This type of maintenance is performed based on the condition of the equipment rather than a predetermined time interval. By regularly inspecting the equipment, potential issues can be identified and addressed before they lead to failure. This approach helps to minimize downtime and extend the lifespan of the equipment.

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59. Within the ET&D program, to whom do flightline personnel transfer collected data for analysis?

Explanation

Flightline personnel transfer collected data for analysis to the Base engine maintenance shop. This is because the Base engine maintenance shop is responsible for conducting maintenance and repairs on engines at the base level. They have the expertise and resources to analyze the collected data and determine any necessary actions or repairs. The other options, such as Depot-level engine maintenance shops, Product center engineers, or Flightline expediter, may not have the same level of knowledge or access to the necessary resources for data analysis.

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60. The first part of a TO number identifies the

Explanation

The first part of a TO number is used to identify the category and type of equipment in the TO. This helps to classify and organize the TOs based on the specific equipment they pertain to. By including this information in the TO number, it becomes easier for users to locate the appropriate TO for a particular piece of equipment.

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61. Who maintains accountability of CIRF assets and reports their status?

Explanation

The production supervisor is responsible for maintaining accountability of CIRF assets and reporting their status. As the supervisor in charge of the production process, they oversee the inventory and ensure that all assets are properly accounted for. They also have the authority to report on the status of these assets, providing updates and information as needed. This role requires a strong understanding of the assets and their importance within the production process.

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62. Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?

Explanation

The correct answer is 00-5-1 because it is the only option that specifically mentions the Air Force TO system. The other options do not provide any information related to the Air Force TO system.

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63. Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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64. What drives the creation of a CRP?

Explanation

The creation of a CRP is driven by customer wait time and transportation constraints. This means that when customers have to wait for a long time to receive a product or service, or when there are limitations in transporting goods to customers, a CRP is created. This helps to address the issues of customer satisfaction and efficient delivery, ensuring that customers receive their products or services in a timely manner.

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65. Depot level support includes CLSS crews, depot maintenance support, maintenance assistance, and

Explanation

Field teams are included in depot level support.

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66. Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program?

Explanation

Propulsion and nondestructive inspection technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program. This means that these technicians are responsible for reporting and documenting the maintenance activities related to propulsion systems and nondestructive inspection. They provide crucial information about the maintenance performed on these systems, which is important for monitoring and improving the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the ET&D program.

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67. A specialized function of the supply mission is

Explanation

The specialized function of the supply mission mentioned in the question is disposal. This means that the mission is focused on getting rid of or getting rid of unwanted or waste materials. This could involve disposing of items that are no longer needed or are no longer usable, ensuring proper waste management and environmental sustainability.

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68. Micrometers are generally used to make measurements to an acuracy of

Explanation

Micrometers are precision measuring instruments used to make highly accurate measurements. They are capable of measuring to the nearest ten-thousandth of an inch, which is a very small unit of measurement. This level of accuracy is necessary in industries such as manufacturing and engineering where precision is crucial. Therefore, the correct answer is "one ten-thousandth of an inch".

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69. What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program is to determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field.

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70. For how many categories of reporting does he CEMS establish and maintain records?

Explanation

The CEMS establishes and maintains records for two categories of reporting.

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71. A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to

Explanation

The primary objective of the engine reporting system is to maintain accurate and timely engine inventories. This means that the system is designed to keep track of the number of engines available, their condition, and their location. By doing so, it ensures that the organization has the necessary engines in stock when needed and can plan for replacements or repairs in a timely manner. This helps to prevent delays and disruptions in operations and ensures that the organization can effectively manage its engine inventory.

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72. Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag?

Explanation

The correct answer is TO 00-20-2. This document provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag.

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73. Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals(IETMS)?

Explanation

Interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMs) do not typically provide urgent recommendations as additional data. IETMs are designed to provide technical information and instructions for maintenance, repair, and operation of equipment or systems. Urgent recommendations, on the other hand, are time-sensitive advisories that may require immediate action to ensure safety or prevent equipment failure. While IETMs may include information on regular maintenance procedures and updates, urgent recommendations are usually communicated separately through other channels, such as bulletins or notifications.

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74. Within how many hours must Category 1 DR be forwarded to the screening point?

Explanation

Category 1 DR must be forwarded to the screening point within 12 to 24 hours. This suggests that there is a time limit within which the DR needs to be processed and forwarded for screening. The specific time frame is not mentioned, but it falls between 12 and 24 hours.

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Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear,use,...
FOD is normaly caused by
Base supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a...
If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,
Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series
Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to...
Which type of techinical manual is divided into tasks that cover a...
Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by
When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine...
What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your...
Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working...
Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because...
During flightline and test cell operatios, you may be exposed to
Which squadrons form a maintenance group?
To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in...
Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic...
If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would...
The key to making CEMS work is
Which supply document provieds a means for organizations to review all...
What type of fule should you use for measuring an inside diameter?
What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?
A Category 1 DR is used to report a deficiency
In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific...
You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on...
To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?
Who monitors flying and maintenace schedules, and maintains visibility...
What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge...
Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to...
Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit the...
A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is
For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify
Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their...
Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?
What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance...
When a bench stock item has a type 1 shelf-life, it means the item
Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not...
The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between...
QA recommends possible corective actions to which level?
You may attend ALS after having how many months in the Air Force?
Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires...
Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?
When a CIRF ships replacement asset to a deployed unti, who is...
The second part of a TO number gives the
What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in...
What are the two classifications of failures in the RCM?
Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?
How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines,...
What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can...
If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and...
Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL?
An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for
To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO...
How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?
Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?
From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?
In RCM, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection...
Within the ET&D program, to whom do flightline personnel transfer...
The first part of a TO number identifies the
Who maintains accountability of CIRF assets and reports their status?
Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?
Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or...
What drives the creation of a CRP?
Depot level support includes CLSS crews, depot maintenance support,...
Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D...
A specialized function of the supply mission is
Micrometers are generally used to make measurements to an acuracy of
What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program?
For how many categories of reporting does he CEMS establish and...
A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to
Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the...
Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive...
Within how many hours must Category 1 DR be forwarded to the screening...
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