2A671 7-level CDCs Volume 2

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • Operations officer
    • Group commander.
    • Unit training manager.
    • Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.
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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge crucial for personnel engaged in Air Force 2A671 roles, focusing on administrative assignments, training exclusions, and procedural standards. It is essential for mastering tasks within Air Education and Training Command (AETC) operations.


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  • 2. 

    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • Air Training Command (ATC).

    • Air Reserve Command (AFRC).

    • Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
    Explanation
    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). This means that TDs, which are units responsible for providing specialized training, are under the administrative control of AETC. AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel, making it the appropriate MAJCOM for TDs to be assigned to.

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  • 3. 

    The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

    • Any 7-level course.

    • Weight and Balance.

    • Maintenance Orientation.

    • General Technical Order System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Orientation.
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation training course.

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  • 4. 

    Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?

    • XF3.

    • XD2.

    • XD1.

    • XB3.

    Correct Answer
    A. XB3.
    Explanation
    Before an asset can be placed on a bench stock, it must be assigned the expendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) XB3. The XB3 ERRC indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is consumed or worn out during use and cannot be economically repaired or overhauled. This code also suggests that the asset is not recoverable, meaning it is not cost-effective to recover or repair it after it becomes unserviceable. Finally, the XB3 code indicates that the asset is not reparable, meaning it cannot be repaired or restored to a usable condition.

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  • 5. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • Chief master sergeant (CMSgt).

    • Senior master sergeant (SMSgt).

    • Master sergeant (MSgt).

    • Technical sergeant (TSgt).

    Correct Answer
    A. Master sergeant (MSgt).
    Explanation
    To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of master sergeant (MSgt). This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of master sergeant are eligible to have the authority to downgrade a "Red-X."

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  • 6. 

    During "Red Ball" maintenance it is important that expediters have a quick reference list (QRL) available in order to

    • Verify time change parts.

    • Check supply delivery priorities.

    • Reduce the time needed to research parts.

    • Provide contact information for key personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce the time needed to research parts.
    Explanation
    During "Red Ball" maintenance, having a quick reference list (QRL) available is important because it helps in reducing the time needed to research parts. This means that expediters can quickly find the information they need about the required parts without having to spend a lot of time searching for it. This efficiency in researching parts can help expedite the maintenance process and minimize downtime.

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  • 7. 

    Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

    • Section supervisor.

    • Squadron Commander.

    • Flight Commander/Chief.

    • Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron Commander.
    Explanation
    The Squadron Commander is responsible for appointing an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This role involves managing and overseeing the equipment inventory and ensuring its proper use and maintenance. The Squadron Commander has the authority to select a qualified individual who can effectively handle these responsibilities and ensure accountability for the equipment.

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  • 8. 

    Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

    • D18, Priority Monitor Report.

    • D04, Daily Document Register.

    • M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.

    • D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

    Correct Answer
    A. D04, Daily Document Register.
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) is the supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document keeps a record of all the documents that have been processed, including their numbers. Therefore, it serves as a comprehensive tracking tool for supply management. The other options mentioned (D18, M-24, and D23) are not specifically designed for tracking document numbers processed during the day.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order (TO) waivers or deviations?

    • Telephone.

    • Signed letter.

    • Organizational e-mail.

    • Defense Massage System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Telephone.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Telephone. Telephone is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order (TO) waivers or deviations. This is because telephone conversations can easily be misunderstood or misinterpreted, leading to errors or miscommunication. Approved methods for issuing TO waivers or deviations include signed letter, organizational email, and Defense Message System, which provide a documented and traceable means of communication.

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  • 10. 

    How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

    • 8

    • 9

    • 10

    • 11

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 9. An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. Since the question asks how many digits make up the EID code, we can conclude that the code consists of 9 digits.

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  • 11. 

    The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the

    • Maintenance Flight.

    • Quality Assurance section.

    • Engine Management section.

    • Maintenance Operations Center.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance section.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Quality Assurance section. The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is typically located within the Quality Assurance section. This is because the Quality Assurance section is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance and operational activities comply with established standards and procedures. The FOD monitor plays a crucial role in identifying and preventing foreign object damage to aircraft, so it makes sense for it to be housed within the Quality Assurance section, which is responsible for maintaining the highest level of quality and safety in aircraft operations.

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  • 12. 

    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

    • Quality Assurance.

    • Engine Management.

    • Maintenance Operations Center.

    • Maintenance Data System Analysis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance.
    Explanation
    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section of the Maintenance Group (MXG). This role involves overseeing and managing the process of improving the quality of products or services within the organization. The Quality Assurance section is responsible for ensuring that products meet the required standards and specifications, conducting quality audits, and implementing corrective actions to address any issues or deficiencies.

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  • 13. 

    An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    If an individual is unable to complete their training recertification due to being TDY (temporary duty), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed up to 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have a 30-day grace period to complete their training recertification after they come back from their TDY, leave, or incapacitation.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • Oil sheen on standing water.

    • Stressed vegetation.

    • Stains on ground.

    • Cloudy water.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloudy water.
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment or organic matter. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not always a direct indicator. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to be caused by pollution and are therefore considered obvious signs.

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  • 15. 

    "Red Ball" maintenance defines a situation that requires all of the following except

    • Priority actions.

    • A sense of urgency.

    • Specific local procedures.

    • An approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver.

    Correct Answer
    A. An approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "an approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver." This is because the other options, such as priority actions, a sense of urgency, and specific local procedures, are all necessary for "Red Ball" maintenance. However, an approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver is not required in this situation.

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  • 16. 

    What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

    • Special Inspection.

    • Personnel Evaluation.

    • Management Inspection.

    • Quality Verification Inspection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Verification Inspection.
    Explanation
    After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual. This inspection ensures that the completed task meets the required quality standards and specifications. It involves a thorough examination and evaluation of the work done by the technician to ensure that it is in compliance with the established maintenance standards. The purpose of this assessment is to verify the quality of the completed task and to identify any potential deficiencies or areas that need improvement.

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  • 17. 

    Which maintenance squadron (MXS) flight is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the maintenance group’s (MXG’s) Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instruction?

    • Fabrication Flight.

    • Accessories Flight.

    • Maintenance Flight.

    • Aerospace Ground Equipment Flight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Flight.
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Flight is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the maintenance group's Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instruction. This means that the Maintenance Flight is responsible for overseeing and managing the CDDAR Program within the maintenance group. They are in charge of developing and maintaining the program's operating instruction, ensuring that all necessary procedures and guidelines are in place for the recovery of crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft.

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  • 18. 

    Who is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?

    • Nearest military installation.

    • Local law enforcement.

    • Aircraft commander.

    • Local fire chief.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft commander.
    Explanation
    The aircraft commander is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing. As the highest-ranking officer on the aircraft, the aircraft commander has the authority and responsibility to ensure the security and safety of the aircraft and its equipment. They will coordinate with relevant authorities such as local law enforcement or the nearest military installation if necessary, but ultimately, the aircraft commander has the primary responsibility for the security of the classified equipment.

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  • 19. 

    Units cannot make local modifications to which AF publication?

    • Manuals.

    • Instructions.

    • Policy Directives.

    • Technical Orders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Technical Orders.
    Explanation
    Technical Orders are a type of AF publication that provides detailed instructions for the installation, operation, and maintenance of equipment. Unlike Manuals, Instructions, and Policy Directives, Technical Orders cannot be modified at the local level. They are standardized and must be followed exactly as written to ensure safety and consistency in the use of equipment.

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  • 20. 

    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?

    • 8

    • 12

    • 24

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 24. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is required to notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This ensures that any potential damage or hazards caused by foreign objects on the aircraft or runway can be addressed promptly and necessary actions can be taken to prevent further incidents.

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  • 21. 

    The maximum total initial duty time (including home station duty, travel time, and recovery site duty upon arrival) that a maintenance recovery team member may be worked before being given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest is

    • 14 hours.

    • 16 hours.

    • 18 hours.

    • 20 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 hours.
    Explanation
    A maintenance recovery team member is allowed to work for a maximum total initial duty time before being given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest. The correct answer is 16 hours.

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  • 22. 

    A unit manpower document (UDM) does not

    • Show the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular position.

    • Provide detailed information about each manpower requirement.

    • Show the name of person assigned to a particular position.

    • Show the required grade for a particular position.

    Correct Answer
    A. Show the name of person assigned to a particular position.
    Explanation
    A unit manpower document (UDM) does not show the name of the person assigned to a particular position. The UDM is a document that outlines the manpower requirements for a unit, including the positions and grades needed. However, it does not provide specific information about who is currently assigned to each position. This information would typically be found in a separate personnel roster or assignment document.

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  • 23. 

    After initial training, how often must Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Team members receive additional academic and hands-on training?

    • Annually.

    • Quarterly.

    • Semiannually.

    • Biennially.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    CDDAR Team members must receive additional academic and hands-on training on an annual basis. This ensures that they stay up-to-date with the latest techniques, procedures, and equipment necessary for the recovery of crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft. Regular training helps maintain their skills and knowledge, allowing them to effectively respond to any emergency situations that may arise.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual’s training records?

    • Specialty Training Standard.

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan.

    • AF Form 623, Individual Training Record.

    • AF IMT 623a, On-The-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 623, Individual Training Record.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 623, Individual Training Record. This form is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's training and includes information such as completed courses, certifications, and qualifications. It is an official document that is used to track and document an individual's training progress and achievements.

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  • 25. 

    If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), who is the CANN authority required to notify?

    • Quality Assurance.

    • Programs and Resources Flight.

    • Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA).

    • Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).

    Correct Answer
    A. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).
    Explanation
    When a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the CANN authority required to notify is the Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D) department. PS&D is responsible for coordinating and managing the scheduling of maintenance activities, including cannibalization. They need to be informed about the cannibalization so that they can update the maintenance documentation and adjust the maintenance schedule accordingly.

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  • 26. 

    How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    • Semiannually.

    • Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly.
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the MTF gives an update on the training status to the MXG/CC every month.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?

    • Urgent.

    • Routine.

    • Standard.

    • Emergency.

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard.
    Explanation
    The question asks for a category that is not a technical order (TO) change priority category. The options provided are Urgent, Routine, Standard, and Emergency. Urgent, Routine, and Emergency are all valid TO change priority categories, but Standard is not. Therefore, the correct answer is Standard.

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  • 28. 

    An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as what technical order (TO) change priority?

    • Urgent.

    • Routine.

    • Standard.

    • Emergency.

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent.
    Explanation
    An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as an urgent technical order (TO) change priority because it involves addressing potential safety risks and environmental concerns. Urgent TO change priorities are typically reserved for situations that require immediate action to mitigate hazards or prevent further damage. In this case, finding a replacement for hazardous materials or ozone depleting substances is crucial to ensure the safety of personnel and protect the environment.

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  • 29. 

    Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade?

    • Squadron operations officer.

    • MAJCOM functional manager.

    • Squadron commander (SQ/CC).

    • Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC).
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC) must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade. This indicates that the MXG/CC is the highest authority responsible for granting permission for individuals to be added to the SCR. The Squadron operations officer, MAJCOM functional manager, and Squadron commander (SQ/CC) do not have the authority to approve the waiver for this purpose.

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  • 30. 

    Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date which type of shelf life item?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
  • 31. 

    When items are placed in an aircraft’s tail number bin (TNB), which entry is not normally needed?

    • Security classification.

    • Date received.

    • Status.

    • Noun.

    Correct Answer
    A. Security classification.
    Explanation
    The security classification is not normally needed when items are placed in an aircraft's tail number bin (TNB). The other entries such as date received, status, and noun may be necessary for tracking and identifying the items stored in the TNB, but the security classification is not relevant in this context.

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  • 32. 

    Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?

    • Wing Inspector General.

    • MAJCOM Inspector General.

    • Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).

    • Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).
    Explanation
    The Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector is directly responsible to the Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT) for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed. This means that the QA Chief Inspector reports to the QA OIC/SUPT and is accountable for overseeing the MSEP activities within the organization. The other options, such as the Wing Inspector General and MAJCOM Inspector General, are not directly responsible for the MSEP functions. The Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD) may have a role in overseeing maintenance operations but is not specifically responsible for the MSEP.

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  • 33. 

    Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

    • AFTTP 3–21.1, Aircraft Maintenance.

    • AFI 10–403, Deployment Planning and Execution.

    • AFI 33–103, Requirements Development and Processing.

    • AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.
    Explanation
    AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management, provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication outlines the procedures and processes for managing aircraft and equipment maintenance, including recovery operations. It covers topics such as maintenance planning, scheduling, and execution, as well as maintenance documentation and reporting. Therefore, it is the appropriate publication to consult for guidance on conducting maintenance recovery operations.

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  • 34. 

    Which element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study considers weather modeling conditions?

    • Support facilities.

    • Support equipment.

    • Operations requirements.

    • Maintenance requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations requirements.
    Explanation
    In a logistics composite model (LCOM) study, operations requirements consider various factors, including weather modeling conditions. This element focuses on the specific needs and demands of the operations being conducted, taking into account factors such as weather patterns and conditions that may impact the logistics process. By considering operations requirements, planners can ensure that the necessary resources and strategies are in place to effectively navigate and adapt to different weather scenarios.

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  • 35. 

    The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metals Recovery Program?

    • Silver.

    • Copper.

    • Iridium.

    • Rhodium.

    Correct Answer
    A. Copper.
    Explanation
    The Precious Metals Recovery Program covers the recovery of precious metals such as silver, iridium, and rhodium. However, copper is not included in this program.

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  • 37. 

    Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

    • 1A or JA.

    • AR or BR.

    • AA or AM.

    • BM or CM.

    Correct Answer
    A. AR or BR.
    Explanation
    The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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  • 38. 

    Who appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group (MXG) Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) project officer?

    • MXG Commander.

    • MXG Superintendent.

    • MXG Vice Commander.

    • MXS Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).

    Correct Answer
    A. MXG Commander.
    Explanation
    The MXG Commander appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group (MXG) Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) project officer. This individual is responsible for overseeing the ASIP project within the MXG, ensuring the structural integrity of aircraft is maintained. The MXG Commander, as the leader of the maintenance group, has the authority to make such appointments and delegate responsibilities within the organization.

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  • 39. 

    Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs) normally do not provide what type of training?

    • Cross utilization training.

    • Continuation training.

    • Ancillary training.

    • Formal training.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ancillary training.
    Explanation
    Training detachments (TDs) under the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) typically do not offer ancillary training. Ancillary training refers to additional or supplementary training that is not directly related to the primary job or occupation. TDs primarily focus on providing formal training, continuation training, and cross-utilization training to enhance the skills and knowledge of personnel in their specific fields. Ancillary training, which may include topics such as personal development or non-essential skills, is not typically provided by TDs.

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  • 40. 

    Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

    • Maintenance supply liaison.

    • Maintenance supply support.

    • Maintenance operations center.

    • Maintenance data system analysis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance supply liaison.
    Explanation
    The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between maintenance and supply operations, ensuring that the necessary supplies and materials are available to support maintenance activities. They also address any issues or problems that may arise in the supply chain, working to resolve them in a timely manner.

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  • 41. 

    Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A

    • C

    • G

    • P

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to identify items that are made from a mixture of different precious metals, such as gold and silver or platinum and palladium. By using this code, it becomes easier to track and manage the inventory of items that contain multiple precious metals.

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  • 42. 

    Who is the final approval authority for waivers of technical order (TO) system policies and procedures?

    • HQ ACC/A4MT.

    • HQ AFMC/A4YE.

    • HQ USAF/A4MM.

    • HQ AFMC/A4BM.

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ USAF/A4MM.
    Explanation
    HQ USAF/A4MM is the final approval authority for waivers of technical order (TO) system policies and procedures.

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  • 43. 

    How often must the Team Chief for the Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program conduct a CDDAR exercise?

    • Monthly.

    • Semiannually.

    • Quarterly.

    • Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    The Team Chief for the Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program must conduct a CDDAR exercise once every year.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?

    • Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions.

    • Advising supervisors on supply management documents.

    • Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.

    • Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty is not normally a responsibility of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a Maintenance Supply Liaison would typically perform. However, collecting and turning in precious metal bearing assets is not directly related to their role in supply management.

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  • 45. 

    Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

    • Operations officer.

    • Section supervisor.

    • Squadron commander.

    • Squadron safety monitor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Section supervisor.
    Explanation
    The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This role is typically assigned to the section supervisor as they have direct oversight of the personnel in their section and are responsible for ensuring their safety. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may also have roles in implementing and overseeing the HAZCOM program, but the primary responsibility for developing the training plan lies with the section supervisor.

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  • 46. 

    Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

    • Flight Service Center (FSC).

    • Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).

    • Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).

    • Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
    Explanation
    The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This office is specifically tasked with keeping track of these assets and ensuring they are properly accounted for. The other options, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the same responsibility for managing SPRAM assets.

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  • 47. 

    What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment finding is defined as a condition that would endanger personnel or jeopardize equipment?

    • Minor.

    • Major.

    • Category I.

    • Category II.

    Correct Answer
    A. Major.
    Explanation
    A major assessment finding in the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) refers to a condition that poses a significant risk to personnel safety or equipment. It indicates a severe problem that needs immediate attention and corrective measures to prevent any potential harm or damage.

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  • 48. 

    What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II. The training phase with the four sub-phases mentioned is the second phase. This phase includes multiphase training, which covers various aspects of the job, MAJCOM mandatory training, which is required by the Major Command, freeflow training, which allows trainees to practice their skills independently, and maintenance qualification training, which focuses on specific maintenance tasks.

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  • 49. 

    What Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) section is required to ensure Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) equipped aircraft are identified as such in weekly schedules?

    • Aircraft.

    • Specialist.

    • Aircrew and Maintenance Debrief.

    • Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
    Explanation
    The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section is responsible for ensuring that Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) equipped aircraft are identified in weekly schedules. This section is in charge of creating and maintaining the schedules for aircraft maintenance, including identifying specific aircraft that require ASIP. They work closely with the Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) and other relevant sections to ensure that all necessary maintenance tasks, including ASIP requirements, are properly scheduled and documented.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 20, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Mabrash1
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