2A671 7-level CDCs Volume 2
CDCs for AFSC 2A671- Air Force stuff
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
- A.
Air Combat Command (ACC).
- B.
Air Training Command (ATC).
- C.
Air Reserve Command (AFRC).
- D.
Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
Correct Answer
D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).Explanation
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). This means that TDs, which are units responsible for providing specialized training, are under the administrative control of AETC. AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel, making it the appropriate MAJCOM for TDs to be assigned to.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs) normally do not provide what type of training?
- A.
Cross utilization training.
- B.
Continuation training.
- C.
Ancillary training.
- D.
Formal training.
Correct Answer
C. Ancillary training.Explanation
Training detachments (TDs) under the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) typically do not offer ancillary training. Ancillary training refers to additional or supplementary training that is not directly related to the primary job or occupation. TDs primarily focus on providing formal training, continuation training, and cross-utilization training to enhance the skills and knowledge of personnel in their specific fields. Ancillary training, which may include topics such as personal development or non-essential skills, is not typically provided by TDs.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?
- A.
Any 7-level course.
- B.
Weight and Balance.
- C.
Maintenance Orientation.
- D.
General Technical Order System.
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance Orientation.Explanation
The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation training course.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within how many months?
- A.
11
- B.
12
- C.
13
- D.
14
Correct Answer
C. 13Explanation
Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within 13 months. This time frame allows students to gain the necessary knowledge and skills required for the A&P certification. It ensures that students have enough time to cover all the required coursework and practical training before they can become certified A&P mechanics.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual’s training records?
- A.
Specialty Training Standard.
- B.
Career Field Education and Training Plan.
- C.
AF Form 623, Individual Training Record.
- D.
AF IMT 623a, On-The-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet.
Correct Answer
C. AF Form 623, Individual Training Record.Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 623, Individual Training Record. This form is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's training and includes information such as completed courses, certifications, and qualifications. It is an official document that is used to track and document an individual's training progress and achievements.Rate this question:
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- 6.
All of the following can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular work center except
- A.
MAJCOMs.
- B.
Supervisors.
- C.
Commanders.
- D.
Unit training managers.
Correct Answer
D. Unit training managers.Explanation
The correct answer is unit training managers. While MAJCOMs, supervisors, and commanders can all designate critical tasks that apply to a specific AFSC in a work center, unit training managers are not typically responsible for this task. Unit training managers are responsible for coordinating and managing the training programs within a unit, but they do not have the authority to designate critical tasks specific to an AFSC. This responsibility lies with higher-level authorities such as MAJCOMs, supervisors, and commanders.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade?
- A.
Squadron operations officer.
- B.
MAJCOM functional manager.
- C.
Squadron commander (SQ/CC).
- D.
Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC).
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC).Explanation
The Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC) must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade. This indicates that the MXG/CC is the highest authority responsible for granting permission for individuals to be added to the SCR. The Squadron operations officer, MAJCOM functional manager, and Squadron commander (SQ/CC) do not have the authority to approve the waiver for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 8.
In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
- A.
Chief master sergeant (CMSgt).
- B.
Senior master sergeant (SMSgt).
- C.
Master sergeant (MSgt).
- D.
Technical sergeant (TSgt).
Correct Answer
C. Master sergeant (MSgt).Explanation
To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of master sergeant (MSgt). This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of master sergeant are eligible to have the authority to downgrade a "Red-X."Rate this question:
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- 9.
What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
B. IIExplanation
The correct answer is II. The training phase with the four sub-phases mentioned is the second phase. This phase includes multiphase training, which covers various aspects of the job, MAJCOM mandatory training, which is required by the Major Command, freeflow training, which allows trainees to practice their skills independently, and maintenance qualification training, which focuses on specific maintenance tasks.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?
- A.
Maintenance qualification.
- B.
Maintenance refresher.
- C.
On-the-job.
- D.
Ancillary.
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance qualification.Explanation
Continuation training refers to the ongoing training that is provided to individuals after they have completed their initial skills training. In the context of the given question, continuation training for maintenance personnel consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement the skills learned during the initial training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. This type of training is focused on maintaining and enhancing the maintenance qualification of the individuals, ensuring that they stay up-to-date with the latest knowledge and skills required for their job.Rate this question:
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- 11.
How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Semiannually.
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
A. Monthly.Explanation
The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the MTF gives an update on the training status to the MXG/CC every month.Rate this question:
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- 12.
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
If an individual is unable to complete their training recertification due to being TDY (temporary duty), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed up to 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have a 30-day grace period to complete their training recertification after they come back from their TDY, leave, or incapacitation.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Operations officer
- B.
Group commander.
- C.
Unit training manager.
- D.
Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.
Correct Answer
C. Unit training manager.Explanation
The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). This role is specifically assigned to the unit training manager, as they are responsible for overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit. Conducting interviews with both the trainee and their supervisor allows the unit training manager to gather information about the trainee's goals, expectations, and any specific training needs, as well as to ensure that the supervisor is aware of the trainee's participation in the CDC and can provide the necessary support and guidance.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your next step is to
- A.
Evaluate training.
- B.
Select training strategies.
- C.
Determine training needs.
- D.
Determine training capabilities.
Correct Answer
C. Determine training needs.Explanation
After completing the master task list for the master training plan, the next step is to determine the training needs. This involves assessing the current skills and knowledge of the individuals who will receive the training and identifying any gaps or areas for improvement. By determining the training needs, you can develop targeted training programs that address these specific areas and ensure that the training is relevant and effective.Rate this question:
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- 15.
In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what percentage of overhead manning?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
Correct Answer
B. 10Explanation
The logistics composite model (LCOM) allows for 10% of overhead manning to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks. This means that a certain percentage of the workforce is allocated to handle tasks that are not directly related to maintenance, such as administrative work or supporting additional requirements that may arise. This allows for flexibility and ensures that the necessary resources are available to handle various logistical needs.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study considers weather modeling conditions?
- A.
Support facilities.
- B.
Support equipment.
- C.
Operations requirements.
- D.
Maintenance requirements.
Correct Answer
C. Operations requirements.Explanation
In a logistics composite model (LCOM) study, operations requirements consider various factors, including weather modeling conditions. This element focuses on the specific needs and demands of the operations being conducted, taking into account factors such as weather patterns and conditions that may impact the logistics process. By considering operations requirements, planners can ensure that the necessary resources and strategies are in place to effectively navigate and adapt to different weather scenarios.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which factor is not modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study?
- A.
Spare parts.
- B.
Maintenance people.
- C.
Training deployments.
- D.
Aerospace ground equipment.
Correct Answer
C. Training deployments.Explanation
In a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study, spare parts, maintenance people, and aerospace ground equipment are all factors that are typically considered and modeled. However, training deployments are not typically included in the LCOM manpower study as they are not directly related to the manpower requirements and allocation within the logistics system.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Manpower authorizations are
- A.
Funded.
- B.
Unfunded.
- C.
Unvalidated.
- D.
Both funded and unfunded.
Correct Answer
A. Funded.Explanation
Manpower authorizations are funded means that there is financial support allocated for the authorized positions. This implies that the necessary resources and budget are available to hire and maintain the required number of personnel. The term "funded" indicates that the organization has the means to cover the costs associated with these authorizations, ensuring that the positions can be filled and sustained.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A unit manpower document (UDM) does not
- A.
Show the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular position.
- B.
Provide detailed information about each manpower requirement.
- C.
Show the name of person assigned to a particular position.
- D.
Show the required grade for a particular position.
Correct Answer
C. Show the name of person assigned to a particular position.Explanation
A unit manpower document (UDM) does not show the name of the person assigned to a particular position. The UDM is a document that outlines the manpower requirements for a unit, including the positions and grades needed. However, it does not provide specific information about who is currently assigned to each position. This information would typically be found in a separate personnel roster or assignment document.Rate this question:
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- 20.
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held
- A.
Weekly.
- B.
Monthly.
- C.
Quarterly.
- D.
Semiannually.
Correct Answer
B. Monthly.Explanation
The correct answer is monthly. This is because meetings to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) are typically held once a month. Holding these meetings on a monthly basis allows for regular updates and discussions on any staffing concerns within the MXG. This frequency strikes a balance between having enough meetings to address any emerging issues and not overwhelming the participants with too many meetings.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which maintenance group (MXG) office acts as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals?
- A.
Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).
- B.
Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA).
- C.
Maintenance operations center (MOC).
- D.
Programs and Resources Flight..
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA).Explanation
The maintenance data system analysis (MDSA) office acts as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals. This means that they are responsible for analyzing and evaluating maintenance data to identify trends, patterns, and potential issues. They play a crucial role in ensuring that maintenance operations are efficient and effective by providing insights and recommendations based on the analysis of maintenance data.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
- A.
Maintenance supply liaison.
- B.
Maintenance supply support.
- C.
Maintenance operations center.
- D.
Maintenance data system analysis.
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance supply liaison.Explanation
The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between maintenance and supply operations, ensuring that the necessary supplies and materials are available to support maintenance activities. They also address any issues or problems that may arise in the supply chain, working to resolve them in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
- A.
Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions.
- B.
Advising supervisors on supply management documents.
- C.
Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.
- D.
Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
Correct Answer
D. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.Explanation
The correct answer is "Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty is not normally a responsibility of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a Maintenance Supply Liaison would typically perform. However, collecting and turning in precious metal bearing assets is not directly related to their role in supply management.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.Rate this question:
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- 25.
How often are operating commands required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs)?
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Annually.
- D.
Biennially.
Correct Answer
C. Annually.Explanation
Operating commands are required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs) on an annual basis. This means that once a year, the operating commands must assess and evaluate the RSPs to ensure that they are up to date and in good condition. Regular reviews are necessary to maintain the readiness and effectiveness of the RSPs, allowing for any necessary updates or replacements to be made. Quarterly, biennial, or monthly reviews would not provide the same level of thoroughness and attention to detail as an annual review.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?
- A.
XF3.
- B.
XD2.
- C.
XD1.
- D.
XB3.
Correct Answer
D. XB3.Explanation
Before an asset can be placed on a bench stock, it must be assigned the expendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) XB3. The XB3 ERRC indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is consumed or worn out during use and cannot be economically repaired or overhauled. This code also suggests that the asset is not recoverable, meaning it is not cost-effective to recover or repair it after it becomes unserviceable. Finally, the XB3 code indicates that the asset is not reparable, meaning it cannot be repaired or restored to a usable condition.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Shop stock should not exceed how many days of usage?
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
Correct Answer
C. 90Explanation
The shop stock should not exceed 90 days of usage because having excessive stock can lead to increased costs and potential waste. It is important to maintain an optimal level of inventory to ensure efficient operations and avoid tying up too much capital in unsold products. By limiting the stock to 90 days of usage, the shop can better manage its resources and respond to changes in demand effectively.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date which type of shelf life item?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
B. II -
- 29.
Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
- A.
Oil sheen on standing water.
- B.
Stressed vegetation.
- C.
Stains on ground.
- D.
Cloudy water.
Correct Answer
D. Cloudy water.Explanation
Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment or organic matter. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not always a direct indicator. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to be caused by pollution and are therefore considered obvious signs.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
- A.
Operations officer.
- B.
Section supervisor.
- C.
Squadron commander.
- D.
Squadron safety monitor.
Correct Answer
B. Section supervisor.Explanation
The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This role is typically assigned to the section supervisor as they have direct oversight of the personnel in their section and are responsible for ensuring their safety. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may also have roles in implementing and overseeing the HAZCOM program, but the primary responsibility for developing the training plan lies with the section supervisor.Rate this question:
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- 31.
In the Maintenance Group (MXG), who is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance?
- A.
Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Commander.
- B.
MXG Vice Commander.
- C.
MXG Superintendent.
- D.
MXG Commander.
Correct Answer
D. MXG Commander.Explanation
The MXG Commander is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance in the Maintenance Group (MXG). This role holds the highest authority and decision-making power within the MXG, making them responsible for overseeing all maintenance operations and ensuring compliance with regulations and guidelines. As such, they have the authority to establish and enforce procedures and controls for local manufacture within the MXG.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?
- A.
MXG Commander.
- B.
MXG Superintendent.
- C.
MXG Vice Commander.
- D.
Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).Explanation
The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements in the maintenance group (MXG). This individual oversees the operations and maintenance activities of the squadron, ensuring that all necessary resources and capabilities are in place to meet the manufacturing needs of the local area. They work closely with the MXG Commander and MXG Superintendent to coordinate and prioritize these requirements.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
- A.
Section supervisor.
- B.
Squadron Commander.
- C.
Flight Commander/Chief.
- D.
Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
Correct Answer
B. Squadron Commander.Explanation
The Squadron Commander is responsible for appointing an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This role involves managing and overseeing the equipment inventory and ensuring its proper use and maintenance. The Squadron Commander has the authority to select a qualified individual who can effectively handle these responsibilities and ensure accountability for the equipment.Rate this question:
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- 34.
An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
- A.
I
- B.
III
- C.
IIB
- D.
IIA
Correct Answer
C. IIB -
- 35.
Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metals Recovery Program?
- A.
Silver.
- B.
Copper.
- C.
Iridium.
- D.
Rhodium.
Correct Answer
B. Copper.Explanation
The Precious Metals Recovery Program covers the recovery of precious metals such as silver, iridium, and rhodium. However, copper is not included in this program.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metal?
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
G
- D.
P
Correct Answer
A. AExplanation
The correct answer is A. The PMIC code A indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metal. This code is used to classify items that do not have any precious metal content.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
G
- D.
P
Correct Answer
B. CExplanation
The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to identify items that are made from a mixture of different precious metals, such as gold and silver or platinum and palladium. By using this code, it becomes easier to track and manage the inventory of items that contain multiple precious metals.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
- A.
D18, Priority Monitor Report.
- B.
D04, Daily Document Register.
- C.
M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
- D.
D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
Correct Answer
B. D04, Daily Document Register.Explanation
The Daily Document Register (D04) is the supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document keeps a record of all the documents that have been processed, including their numbers. Therefore, it serves as a comprehensive tracking tool for supply management. The other options mentioned (D18, M-24, and D23) are not specifically designed for tracking document numbers processed during the day.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
- A.
D18, Priority Monitor Report.
- B.
D04, Daily Document Register.
- C.
M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
- D.
D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
Correct Answer
A. D18, Priority Monitor Report.Explanation
The correct answer is D18, Priority Monitor Report. This report is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. The report helps track the supply of parts and identifies the ones that are urgently needed.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?
- A.
D18, Priority Monitor Report.
- B.
D04, Daily Document Register.
- C.
M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
- D.
D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
Correct Answer
C. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.Explanation
The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) is a supply tracking document that provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report helps in evaluating the effectiveness of an organization's supply support by monitoring the availability and usage of supplies. It allows managers to track the issue and bench stock supplies, ensuring that they are adequately stocked and available for use.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
- A.
Flight Service Center (FSC).
- B.
Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
- C.
Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).
- D.
Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).
Correct Answer
B. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).Explanation
The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This office is specifically tasked with keeping track of these assets and ensuring they are properly accounted for. The other options, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the same responsibility for managing SPRAM assets.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares?
- A.
F
- B.
D
- C.
B
- D.
A
Correct Answer
D. AExplanation
The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares is A.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spares?
- A.
F
- B.
D
- C.
B
- D.
A
Correct Answer
A. FExplanation
The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spares is F.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
- A.
Flight commander/Chief.
- B.
Maintenance Group commander.
- C.
Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
- D.
Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).
Correct Answer
C. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.Explanation
The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. This individual is responsible for ensuring that all supply assets are properly maintained and meet operational requirements. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the condition and functionality of these assets, making them the appropriate authority for reviewing the list.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
- A.
Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).
- B.
Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
- C.
Maintenance Group commander.
- D.
Flight commander/Chief.
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance Group commander.Explanation
The Maintenance Group commander is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. The other options, Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT), Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector, and Flight commander/Chief, are all typically involved in the review chain for such items.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Who ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft ?
- A.
Aircraft commander.
- B.
Host installation commander.
- C.
Operations Group Commander.
- D.
Mission Support Group commander.
Correct Answer
A. Aircraft commander.Explanation
The aircraft commander is responsible for ensuring the security of the aircraft and its contents, including any classified assets installed on board. They have the authority to determine if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for these assets. This includes assessing the physical security measures in place, such as access controls and surveillance systems, as well as the overall security posture of the location. The aircraft commander's decision is crucial in ensuring the protection of classified information and assets during transit.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Who is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?
- A.
Nearest military installation.
- B.
Local law enforcement.
- C.
Aircraft commander.
- D.
Local fire chief.
Correct Answer
C. Aircraft commander.Explanation
The aircraft commander is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing. As the highest-ranking officer on the aircraft, the aircraft commander has the authority and responsibility to ensure the security and safety of the aircraft and its equipment. They will coordinate with relevant authorities such as local law enforcement or the nearest military installation if necessary, but ultimately, the aircraft commander has the primary responsibility for the security of the classified equipment.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every
- A.
Hour.
- B.
2 hours.
- C.
3 hours.
- D.
4 hours.
Correct Answer
C. 3 hours.Explanation
When the aircraft owner or user is not present with their aircraft, it is necessary for them to ensure that security checks are conducted regularly to maintain the safety and security of the aircraft. The correct answer of 3 hours indicates that security checks should be arranged every 3 hours in such situations. This ensures that any potential security threats or issues can be identified and addressed in a timely manner, reducing the risk of any unauthorized access or damage to the aircraft.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3 -
- 50.
What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock requirements?
- A.
4
- B.
5
- C.
6
- D.
7
Correct Answer
B. 5Explanation
The appropriate supply delivery priority for bench stock requirements is 5. This means that the delivery of supplies for bench stock should be prioritized as moderately urgent. This suggests that while it is important to have an adequate supply of items in the bench stock, it is not critical for immediate delivery.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 20, 2012Quiz Created by
Mabrash1
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