2A671 7-level CDCs Volume 2

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1. Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). This role is specifically assigned to the unit training manager, as they are responsible for overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit. Conducting interviews with both the trainee and their supervisor allows the unit training manager to gather information about the trainee's goals, expectations, and any specific training needs, as well as to ensure that the supervisor is aware of the trainee's participation in the CDC and can provide the necessary support and guidance.

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About This Quiz
Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz assesses knowledge crucial for personnel engaged in Air Force 2A671 roles, focusing on administrative assignments, training exclusions, and procedural standards. It is essential for mastering tasks... see morewithin Air Education and Training Command (AETC) operations. see less

2. Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?

Explanation

Before an asset can be placed on a bench stock, it must be assigned the expendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) XB3. The XB3 ERRC indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is consumed or worn out during use and cannot be economically repaired or overhauled. This code also suggests that the asset is not recoverable, meaning it is not cost-effective to recover or repair it after it becomes unserviceable. Finally, the XB3 code indicates that the asset is not reparable, meaning it cannot be repaired or restored to a usable condition.

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3. Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

Explanation

Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). This means that TDs, which are units responsible for providing specialized training, are under the administrative control of AETC. AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel, making it the appropriate MAJCOM for TDs to be assigned to.

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4. The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

Explanation

The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation training course.

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5. In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

Explanation

To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of master sergeant (MSgt). This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of master sergeant are eligible to have the authority to downgrade a "Red-X."

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6. During "Red Ball" maintenance it is important that expediters have a quick reference list (QRL) available in order to

Explanation

During "Red Ball" maintenance, having a quick reference list (QRL) available is important because it helps in reducing the time needed to research parts. This means that expediters can quickly find the information they need about the required parts without having to spend a lot of time searching for it. This efficiency in researching parts can help expedite the maintenance process and minimize downtime.

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7. Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

Explanation

The Squadron Commander is responsible for appointing an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This role involves managing and overseeing the equipment inventory and ensuring its proper use and maintenance. The Squadron Commander has the authority to select a qualified individual who can effectively handle these responsibilities and ensure accountability for the equipment.

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8. Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

Explanation

The Daily Document Register (D04) is the supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document keeps a record of all the documents that have been processed, including their numbers. Therefore, it serves as a comprehensive tracking tool for supply management. The other options mentioned (D18, M-24, and D23) are not specifically designed for tracking document numbers processed during the day.

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9. Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order (TO) waivers or deviations?

Explanation

The correct answer is Telephone. Telephone is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order (TO) waivers or deviations. This is because telephone conversations can easily be misunderstood or misinterpreted, leading to errors or miscommunication. Approved methods for issuing TO waivers or deviations include signed letter, organizational email, and Defense Message System, which provide a documented and traceable means of communication.

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10. How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

Explanation

The correct answer is 9. An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. Since the question asks how many digits make up the EID code, we can conclude that the code consists of 9 digits.

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11. The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the

Explanation

The correct answer is Quality Assurance section. The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is typically located within the Quality Assurance section. This is because the Quality Assurance section is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance and operational activities comply with established standards and procedures. The FOD monitor plays a crucial role in identifying and preventing foreign object damage to aircraft, so it makes sense for it to be housed within the Quality Assurance section, which is responsible for maintaining the highest level of quality and safety in aircraft operations.

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12. The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

Explanation

The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section of the Maintenance Group (MXG). This role involves overseeing and managing the process of improving the quality of products or services within the organization. The Quality Assurance section is responsible for ensuring that products meet the required standards and specifications, conducting quality audits, and implementing corrective actions to address any issues or deficiencies.

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13. Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

Explanation

Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment or organic matter. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not always a direct indicator. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to be caused by pollution and are therefore considered obvious signs.

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14. "Red Ball" maintenance defines a situation that requires all of the following except

Explanation

The correct answer is "an approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver." This is because the other options, such as priority actions, a sense of urgency, and specific local procedures, are all necessary for "Red Ball" maintenance. However, an approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver is not required in this situation.

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15. What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

Explanation

After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual. This inspection ensures that the completed task meets the required quality standards and specifications. It involves a thorough examination and evaluation of the work done by the technician to ensure that it is in compliance with the established maintenance standards. The purpose of this assessment is to verify the quality of the completed task and to identify any potential deficiencies or areas that need improvement.

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16. Which maintenance squadron (MXS) flight is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the maintenance group's (MXG's) Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instruction?

Explanation

The Maintenance Flight is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the maintenance group's Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instruction. This means that the Maintenance Flight is responsible for overseeing and managing the CDDAR Program within the maintenance group. They are in charge of developing and maintaining the program's operating instruction, ensuring that all necessary procedures and guidelines are in place for the recovery of crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft.

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17. An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

Explanation

If an individual is unable to complete their training recertification due to being TDY (temporary duty), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed up to 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have a 30-day grace period to complete their training recertification after they come back from their TDY, leave, or incapacitation.

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18. Who is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?

Explanation

The aircraft commander is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing. As the highest-ranking officer on the aircraft, the aircraft commander has the authority and responsibility to ensure the security and safety of the aircraft and its equipment. They will coordinate with relevant authorities such as local law enforcement or the nearest military installation if necessary, but ultimately, the aircraft commander has the primary responsibility for the security of the classified equipment.

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19. Units cannot make local modifications to which AF publication?

Explanation

Technical Orders are a type of AF publication that provides detailed instructions for the installation, operation, and maintenance of equipment. Unlike Manuals, Instructions, and Policy Directives, Technical Orders cannot be modified at the local level. They are standardized and must be followed exactly as written to ensure safety and consistency in the use of equipment.

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20. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?

Explanation

The correct answer is 24. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is required to notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This ensures that any potential damage or hazards caused by foreign objects on the aircraft or runway can be addressed promptly and necessary actions can be taken to prevent further incidents.

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21. The maximum total initial duty time (including home station duty, travel time, and recovery site duty upon arrival) that a maintenance recovery team member may be worked before being given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest is

Explanation

A maintenance recovery team member is allowed to work for a maximum total initial duty time before being given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest. The correct answer is 16 hours.

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22. A unit manpower document (UDM) does not

Explanation

A unit manpower document (UDM) does not show the name of the person assigned to a particular position. The UDM is a document that outlines the manpower requirements for a unit, including the positions and grades needed. However, it does not provide specific information about who is currently assigned to each position. This information would typically be found in a separate personnel roster or assignment document.

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23. After initial training, how often must Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Team members receive additional academic and hands-on training?

Explanation

CDDAR Team members must receive additional academic and hands-on training on an annual basis. This ensures that they stay up-to-date with the latest techniques, procedures, and equipment necessary for the recovery of crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft. Regular training helps maintain their skills and knowledge, allowing them to effectively respond to any emergency situations that may arise.

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24. If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), who is the CANN authority required to notify?

Explanation

When a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the CANN authority required to notify is the Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D) department. PS&D is responsible for coordinating and managing the scheduling of maintenance activities, including cannibalization. They need to be informed about the cannibalization so that they can update the maintenance documentation and adjust the maintenance schedule accordingly.

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25. Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 623, Individual Training Record. This form is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's training and includes information such as completed courses, certifications, and qualifications. It is an official document that is used to track and document an individual's training progress and achievements.

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26. Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?

Explanation

The question asks for a category that is not a technical order (TO) change priority category. The options provided are Urgent, Routine, Standard, and Emergency. Urgent, Routine, and Emergency are all valid TO change priority categories, but Standard is not. Therefore, the correct answer is Standard.

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27. An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as what technical order (TO) change priority?

Explanation

An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as an urgent technical order (TO) change priority because it involves addressing potential safety risks and environmental concerns. Urgent TO change priorities are typically reserved for situations that require immediate action to mitigate hazards or prevent further damage. In this case, finding a replacement for hazardous materials or ozone depleting substances is crucial to ensure the safety of personnel and protect the environment.

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28. How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

Explanation

The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the MTF gives an update on the training status to the MXG/CC every month.

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29. Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date which type of shelf life item?

Explanation

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30. When items are placed in an aircraft's tail number bin (TNB), which entry is not normally needed?

Explanation

The security classification is not normally needed when items are placed in an aircraft's tail number bin (TNB). The other entries such as date received, status, and noun may be necessary for tracking and identifying the items stored in the TNB, but the security classification is not relevant in this context.

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31. Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?

Explanation

The Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector is directly responsible to the Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT) for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed. This means that the QA Chief Inspector reports to the QA OIC/SUPT and is accountable for overseeing the MSEP activities within the organization. The other options, such as the Wing Inspector General and MAJCOM Inspector General, are not directly responsible for the MSEP functions. The Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD) may have a role in overseeing maintenance operations but is not specifically responsible for the MSEP.

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32. Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

Explanation

AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management, provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication outlines the procedures and processes for managing aircraft and equipment maintenance, including recovery operations. It covers topics such as maintenance planning, scheduling, and execution, as well as maintenance documentation and reporting. Therefore, it is the appropriate publication to consult for guidance on conducting maintenance recovery operations.

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33. Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade?

Explanation

The Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC) must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade. This indicates that the MXG/CC is the highest authority responsible for granting permission for individuals to be added to the SCR. The Squadron operations officer, MAJCOM functional manager, and Squadron commander (SQ/CC) do not have the authority to approve the waiver for this purpose.

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34. Which element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study considers weather modeling conditions?

Explanation

In a logistics composite model (LCOM) study, operations requirements consider various factors, including weather modeling conditions. This element focuses on the specific needs and demands of the operations being conducted, taking into account factors such as weather patterns and conditions that may impact the logistics process. By considering operations requirements, planners can ensure that the necessary resources and strategies are in place to effectively navigate and adapt to different weather scenarios.

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35. The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

Explanation

After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.

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36. Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metals Recovery Program?

Explanation

The Precious Metals Recovery Program covers the recovery of precious metals such as silver, iridium, and rhodium. However, copper is not included in this program.

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37. Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

Explanation

The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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38. Who appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group (MXG) Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) project officer?

Explanation

The MXG Commander appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group (MXG) Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) project officer. This individual is responsible for overseeing the ASIP project within the MXG, ensuring the structural integrity of aircraft is maintained. The MXG Commander, as the leader of the maintenance group, has the authority to make such appointments and delegate responsibilities within the organization.

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39. Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

Explanation

The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between maintenance and supply operations, ensuring that the necessary supplies and materials are available to support maintenance activities. They also address any issues or problems that may arise in the supply chain, working to resolve them in a timely manner.

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40. Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

Explanation

The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to identify items that are made from a mixture of different precious metals, such as gold and silver or platinum and palladium. By using this code, it becomes easier to track and manage the inventory of items that contain multiple precious metals.

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41. Who is the final approval authority for waivers of technical order (TO) system policies and procedures?

Explanation

HQ USAF/A4MM is the final approval authority for waivers of technical order (TO) system policies and procedures.

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42. How often must the Team Chief for the Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program conduct a CDDAR exercise?

Explanation

The Team Chief for the Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program must conduct a CDDAR exercise once every year.

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43. Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs) normally do not provide what type of training?

Explanation

Training detachments (TDs) under the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) typically do not offer ancillary training. Ancillary training refers to additional or supplementary training that is not directly related to the primary job or occupation. TDs primarily focus on providing formal training, continuation training, and cross-utilization training to enhance the skills and knowledge of personnel in their specific fields. Ancillary training, which may include topics such as personal development or non-essential skills, is not typically provided by TDs.

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44. Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty is not normally a responsibility of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a Maintenance Supply Liaison would typically perform. However, collecting and turning in precious metal bearing assets is not directly related to their role in supply management.

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45. Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

Explanation

The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This role is typically assigned to the section supervisor as they have direct oversight of the personnel in their section and are responsible for ensuring their safety. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may also have roles in implementing and overseeing the HAZCOM program, but the primary responsibility for developing the training plan lies with the section supervisor.

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46. Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

Explanation

The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This office is specifically tasked with keeping track of these assets and ensuring they are properly accounted for. The other options, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the same responsibility for managing SPRAM assets.

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47. What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment finding is defined as a condition that would endanger personnel or jeopardize equipment?

Explanation

A major assessment finding in the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) refers to a condition that poses a significant risk to personnel safety or equipment. It indicates a severe problem that needs immediate attention and corrective measures to prevent any potential harm or damage.

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48. What Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) section is required to ensure Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) equipped aircraft are identified as such in weekly schedules?

Explanation

The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section is responsible for ensuring that Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) equipped aircraft are identified in weekly schedules. This section is in charge of creating and maintaining the schedules for aircraft maintenance, including identifying specific aircraft that require ASIP. They work closely with the Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) and other relevant sections to ensure that all necessary maintenance tasks, including ASIP requirements, are properly scheduled and documented.

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49. What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

Explanation

The correct answer is II. The training phase with the four sub-phases mentioned is the second phase. This phase includes multiphase training, which covers various aspects of the job, MAJCOM mandatory training, which is required by the Major Command, freeflow training, which allows trainees to practice their skills independently, and maintenance qualification training, which focuses on specific maintenance tasks.

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50. Manpower authorizations are

Explanation

Manpower authorizations are funded means that there is financial support allocated for the authorized positions. This implies that the necessary resources and budget are available to hire and maintain the required number of personnel. The term "funded" indicates that the organization has the means to cover the costs associated with these authorizations, ensuring that the positions can be filled and sustained.

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51. Who is responsible for establishing a maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group missions and activities?

Explanation

The MXG Commander (MXG/CC) is responsible for establishing a maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group missions and activities. As the commander of the MXG, they have the authority and responsibility to ensure that the MXG operates efficiently and effectively, including the management of TOs. The TO custodian is responsible for the proper distribution, control, and maintenance of TOs within the MXG, and the MXG Commander is the one who designates this role.

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52. Which of the following is not a member of the Joint Council on Aging Aircraft (JCAA)?

Explanation

The Joint Council on Aging Aircraft (JCAA) is an organization that focuses on the safety and maintenance of aging aircraft. It is composed of various entities involved in aviation, such as the US Army, US Air Force, and the Federal Aviation Administration. However, the National Transportation Safety Board is not a member of the JCAA. The NTSB is an independent agency that investigates transportation accidents and makes recommendations to improve safety. While they play a crucial role in aviation safety, they are not specifically part of the JCAA.

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53. What time-frame is used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object?

Explanation

The time-frame used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object is from engine start to engine shut down. This means that any item that falls off the aircraft during this time period must be reported.

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54. When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

Explanation

When the aircraft owner or user is not present with their aircraft, it is necessary for them to ensure that security checks are conducted regularly to maintain the safety and security of the aircraft. The correct answer of 3 hours indicates that security checks should be arranged every 3 hours in such situations. This ensures that any potential security threats or issues can be identified and addressed in a timely manner, reducing the risk of any unauthorized access or damage to the aircraft.

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55. Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?

Explanation

The duty of establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty. The other duties listed, such as assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems, are all responsibilities typically performed by a MXG TODO.

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56. In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what percentage of overhead manning?

Explanation

The logistics composite model (LCOM) allows for 10% of overhead manning to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks. This means that a certain percentage of the workforce is allocated to handle tasks that are not directly related to maintenance, such as administrative work or supporting additional requirements that may arise. This allows for flexibility and ensures that the necessary resources are available to handle various logistical needs.

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57. An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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58. Who ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft ?

Explanation

The aircraft commander is responsible for ensuring the security of the aircraft and its contents, including any classified assets installed on board. They have the authority to determine if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for these assets. This includes assessing the physical security measures in place, such as access controls and surveillance systems, as well as the overall security posture of the location. The aircraft commander's decision is crucial in ensuring the protection of classified information and assets during transit.

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59. How are radiographic inspections accomplished outside the Non Destructive Inspection Laboratory classified?

Explanation

Radiographic inspections accomplished outside the Non Destructive Inspection Laboratory are classified as unshielded. This means that there is no protective shield or barrier in place to prevent radiation exposure to individuals in the surrounding area. Unshielded radiographic inspections are considered unsafe and pose a risk to the health and safety of those nearby.

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60. When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during what type of operation?

Explanation

When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during a compass rose operation. A compass rose is a designated area on an airport where aircraft can be towed in order to calibrate their compasses. By attaching an external power unit to the aircraft during this operation, the navigational equipment can be powered and tested accurately. This ensures that the compass readings are correct and reliable for future flights.

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61. Which AF Portal link provides access to recurring AF periodicals like Airman Magazine and the Air & Space Journal?

Explanation

AF Electronic Publishing (AF e-Publishing) is the correct answer because it is the portal link that provides access to recurring AF periodicals like Airman Magazine and the Air & Space Journal. This platform is specifically designed for publishing and distributing official Air Force documents, publications, and periodicals, making it the most logical choice for accessing these types of materials.

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62. Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for how many months before being selected as Quality Assurance (QA) inspectors?

Explanation

Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for 6 months before being selected as Quality Assurance (QA) inspectors. This duration allows individuals to gain sufficient knowledge and experience in their assigned unit, which is essential for them to effectively carry out their responsibilities as QA inspectors. It ensures that they have a comprehensive understanding of the unit's operations and procedures, enabling them to accurately assess and evaluate the quality of products or services. A 6-month assignment period also allows personnel to develop the necessary skills and expertise required for performing QA inspections.

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63. Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

Explanation

The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. This individual is responsible for ensuring that all supply assets are properly maintained and meet operational requirements. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the condition and functionality of these assets, making them the appropriate authority for reviewing the list.

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64. Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?

Explanation

The Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) is responsible for the development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas. As the commander of the maintenance group, they have the authority and expertise to oversee and ensure the proper procedures are in place for tool and equipment control and management. The other options, Wing Commander (WG/CC), Wing Vice Commander (WG/CV), and Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD) do not have the same level of responsibility or authority in this specific area.

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65. What dollar amount of damage must be exceeded for a foreign object damage (FOD) incident to be used to calculate the FOD rate for a unit?

Explanation

The dollar amount of damage that must be exceeded for a foreign object damage (FOD) incident to be used to calculate the FOD rate for a unit is $20,000.

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66. A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held

Explanation

The correct answer is monthly. This is because meetings to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) are typically held once a month. Holding these meetings on a monthly basis allows for regular updates and discussions on any staffing concerns within the MXG. This frequency strikes a balance between having enough meetings to address any emerging issues and not overwhelming the participants with too many meetings.

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67. What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spares?

Explanation

The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spares is F.

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68. Which of the following is responsible for coordinating the number of certified load crew team members in support of aircraft generation planning?

Explanation

The Wing Weapons Manager is responsible for coordinating the number of certified load crew team members in support of aircraft generation planning. This role involves ensuring that the necessary personnel are available to load munitions onto the aircraft and that they are properly certified to perform their duties. The Wing Weapons Manager works closely with the Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer and the MXS production superintendent to ensure that the aircraft generation planning is carried out effectively and efficiently.

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69. Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your next step is to

Explanation

After completing the master task list for the master training plan, the next step is to determine the training needs. This involves assessing the current skills and knowledge of the individuals who will receive the training and identifying any gaps or areas for improvement. By determining the training needs, you can develop targeted training programs that address these specific areas and ensure that the training is relevant and effective.

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70. In the equipment identification designator (EID) code U6JG00001, what does the third character "J" identify?

Explanation

The third character "J" in the equipment identification designator (EID) code U6JG00001 identifies the unit.

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71. Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

Explanation

The correct answer is D18, Priority Monitor Report. This report is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. The report helps track the supply of parts and identifies the ones that are urgently needed.

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72. What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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73. When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the

Explanation

When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC). The MOC is responsible for coordinating and managing all maintenance activities for the aircraft. They are the central hub for communication and coordination between supply personnel, maintenance technicians, and other relevant parties. They ensure that the necessary parts and resources are available for maintenance and repair tasks, and they track the progress and status of each aircraft.

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74. All of the following can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular work center except

Explanation

The correct answer is unit training managers. While MAJCOMs, supervisors, and commanders can all designate critical tasks that apply to a specific AFSC in a work center, unit training managers are not typically responsible for this task. Unit training managers are responsible for coordinating and managing the training programs within a unit, but they do not have the authority to designate critical tasks specific to an AFSC. This responsibility lies with higher-level authorities such as MAJCOMs, supervisors, and commanders.

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75. Without a waiver, what is the minimum position an individual must hold before clearing a red X for a lost tool that has not been found?

Explanation

The correct answer is Operations Officer or maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT). This means that in order to clear a red X for a lost tool that has not been found, an individual must hold the position of Operations Officer or maintenance superintendent.

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76. Which AF Portal link can be used to access user manuals for various AF computer systems?

Explanation

The AF Center for Electronic Distribution of Systems (AFCEDS) can be used to access user manuals for various AF computer systems.

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77. Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metal?

Explanation

The correct answer is A. The PMIC code A indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metal. This code is used to classify items that do not have any precious metal content.

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78. What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares?

Explanation

The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares is A.

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79. What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock requirements?

Explanation

The appropriate supply delivery priority for bench stock requirements is 5. This means that the delivery of supplies for bench stock should be prioritized as moderately urgent. This suggests that while it is important to have an adequate supply of items in the bench stock, it is not critical for immediate delivery.

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80. Which maintenance group (MXG) office acts as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals?

Explanation

The maintenance data system analysis (MDSA) office acts as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals. This means that they are responsible for analyzing and evaluating maintenance data to identify trends, patterns, and potential issues. They play a crucial role in ensuring that maintenance operations are efficient and effective by providing insights and recommendations based on the analysis of maintenance data.

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81. In addition to daily accountability checks, how often must support personnel conduct and document a maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) standardized inspection of all support section tools and equipment?

Explanation

Support personnel must conduct and document a maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) standardized inspection of all support section tools and equipment annually. This ensures that the tools and equipment are in good working condition and are ready for use when needed. Conducting this inspection on a yearly basis allows for regular maintenance and identification of any issues or repairs that may be needed. It also helps to ensure that the tools and equipment are being properly cared for and maintained throughout the year.

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82. What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?

Explanation

Continuation training refers to the ongoing training that is provided to individuals after they have completed their initial skills training. In the context of the given question, continuation training for maintenance personnel consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement the skills learned during the initial training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. This type of training is focused on maintaining and enhancing the maintenance qualification of the individuals, ensuring that they stay up-to-date with the latest knowledge and skills required for their job.

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83. Which factor is not modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study?

Explanation

In a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study, spare parts, maintenance people, and aerospace ground equipment are all factors that are typically considered and modeled. However, training deployments are not typically included in the LCOM manpower study as they are not directly related to the manpower requirements and allocation within the logistics system.

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84. In the Maintenance Group (MXG), who is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance?

Explanation

The MXG Commander is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance in the Maintenance Group (MXG). This role holds the highest authority and decision-making power within the MXG, making them responsible for overseeing all maintenance operations and ensuring compliance with regulations and guidelines. As such, they have the authority to establish and enforce procedures and controls for local manufacture within the MXG.

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85. Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group?

Explanation

The originating point has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and managing the entire process of handling deficiency reports within the organization or group. They are responsible for initiating the report, ensuring it is properly documented and tracked, and overseeing any necessary actions or resolutions.

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86. A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW

Explanation

When a dropped object causes casualties or property damage, it must be reported in accordance with AFI 10-206, which is the Operational Reporting regulation. This regulation likely outlines the specific procedures and requirements for reporting incidents that result in harm or damage. The other three options listed are not relevant to reporting incidents of dropped objects and their consequences.

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87. Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within how many months?

Explanation

Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within 13 months. This time frame allows students to gain the necessary knowledge and skills required for the A&P certification. It ensures that students have enough time to cover all the required coursework and practical training before they can become certified A&P mechanics.

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88. What is the accountability document used for supply points that shows the quantity authorized, on-hand, and due-out?

Explanation

The accountability document used for supply points that shows the quantity authorized, on-hand, and due-out is called the Supply Point Listing. This document provides a detailed record of the quantity of supplies that are authorized for a specific supply point, as well as the quantity that is currently on-hand and the quantity that is due to be issued. It helps to track and manage the inventory at the supply point, ensuring that the correct quantities are available when needed.

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89. Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?

Explanation

Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. The LRS material management element is responsible for managing and controlling the supply of materials and equipment, so it is crucial for maintenance to coordinate with them to ensure that the necessary supplies are available at the work area. This coordination helps to streamline the supply chain process and ensures that maintenance operations can be carried out efficiently.

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90. When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?

Explanation

When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, a Supply Discrepancy Report is submitted. This report is used to document any discrepancies or issues with the supply or delivery of goods, such as incorrect quantity, damaged items, or missing items. By submitting a Supply Discrepancy Report, the customer can request a refund or a replacement item to resolve the issue.

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91. For a unit using the extended cannibalization cycle, the standard time frame for having an aircraft down is

Explanation

The correct answer is 45 - 60 days. This means that in a unit using the extended cannibalization cycle, the standard time frame for having an aircraft down is between 45 and 60 days. This suggests that it takes this amount of time for the unit to repair or replace the aircraft and get it back into service.

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92. Shop stock should not exceed how many days of usage?

Explanation

The shop stock should not exceed 90 days of usage because having excessive stock can lead to increased costs and potential waste. It is important to maintain an optimal level of inventory to ensure efficient operations and avoid tying up too much capital in unsold products. By limiting the stock to 90 days of usage, the shop can better manage its resources and respond to changes in demand effectively.

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93. You are primarily concerned with answering the question: "What steps need to be taken?" during which aircraft generation planning area?

Explanation

The question is asking about the specific area in aircraft generation planning where the primary concern is answering the question "What steps need to be taken?" The correct answer is "Aircraft generation actions" because this area focuses on determining the specific actions that need to be taken in order to generate aircraft. It involves identifying and planning the necessary steps and tasks to ensure the successful generation of aircraft.

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94. You are primarily concerned with answering the question: "How long does each step or group of steps take?" during which aircraft generation planning area?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Aircraft generation action timing." This is because the question is asking about the specific timing of each step or group of steps in the aircraft generation process. It is focused on the duration or time taken for each action in the generation process.

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95. Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?

Explanation

The correct answer is Action Point. The action point acts as the deficiency report focal point between the support point and the submitting organization. They are responsible for coordinating and managing the communication and resolution of any deficiencies reported. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary actions are taken to address and resolve the reported deficiencies effectively.

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96. Which of the following is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

Explanation

The Maintenance Group commander is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. The other options, Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT), Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector, and Flight commander/Chief, are all typically involved in the review chain for such items.

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97. Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

Explanation

The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) is a supply tracking document that provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report helps in evaluating the effectiveness of an organization's supply support by monitoring the availability and usage of supplies. It allows managers to track the issue and bench stock supplies, ensuring that they are adequately stocked and available for use.

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98. Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

Explanation

The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements in the maintenance group (MXG). This individual oversees the operations and maintenance activities of the squadron, ensuring that all necessary resources and capabilities are in place to meet the manufacturing needs of the local area. They work closely with the MXG Commander and MXG Superintendent to coordinate and prioritize these requirements.

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99. How often are operating commands required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs)?

Explanation

Operating commands are required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs) on an annual basis. This means that once a year, the operating commands must assess and evaluate the RSPs to ensure that they are up to date and in good condition. Regular reviews are necessary to maintain the readiness and effectiveness of the RSPs, allowing for any necessary updates or replacements to be made. Quarterly, biennial, or monthly reviews would not provide the same level of thoroughness and attention to detail as an annual review.

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100. When a back-ordered item issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the

Explanation

When a back-ordered item is issued and placed in the tail number bin (TNB), the supply personnel notify the Aircraft Maintenance Unit's (AMU's) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) section. This section is responsible for coordinating and managing the maintenance activities of the aircraft. They need to be informed about the back-ordered item so that they can update their plans and schedules accordingly, ensuring that the necessary maintenance tasks are carried out once the item is available. The Operations Officer, Aircraft Section flight chief, and Maintenance Operations Center (MOC) may also be involved in the process, but the PS&D section is specifically mentioned as the correct answer.

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Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee...
Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC)...
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which...
The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance...
In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an...
During "Red Ball" maintenance it is important that...
Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
Which supply tracking document provides information on all document...
Which of the following is not an approved communication method for...
How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID)...
The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located...
The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what...
Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
"Red Ball" maintenance defines a situation that requires all...
What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual...
Which maintenance squadron (MXS) flight is the office of primary...
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on...
Who is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment...
Units cannot make local modifications to which AF publication?
The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM...
The maximum total initial duty time (including home station duty,...
A unit manpower document (UDM) does not
After initial training, how often must Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled...
If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), who is the CANN...
Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's...
Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority...
An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials...
How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status...
Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and...
When items are placed in an aircraft's tail number bin (TNB), which...
Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible...
Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an...
Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the...
Which element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study considers...
The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be...
Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metals Recovery...
Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply...
Who appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group (MXG) Aircraft...
Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall...
Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of...
Who is the final approval authority for waivers of technical order...
How often must the Team Chief for the Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled...
Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs)...
Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison...
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM)...
Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special...
What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual...
What Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) section is required to ensure...
What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM...
Manpower authorizations are
Who is responsible for establishing a maintenance group (MXG)...
Which of the following is not a member of the Joint Council on Aging...
What time-frame is used for determining whether an item that falls off...
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft,...
Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order...
In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid...
An individual must receive what specific block of supply training...
Who ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient...
How are radiographic inspections accomplished outside the Non...
When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is...
Which AF Portal link provides access to recurring AF periodicals like...
Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for how many months...
Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply...
Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of...
What dollar amount of damage must be exceeded for a foreign object...
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is...
What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM)...
Which of the following is responsible for coordinating the number of...
Once you have completed the master task list for your master training...
In the equipment identification designator (EID) code U6JG00001, what...
Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all...
What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission...
When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail...
All of the following can designate critical tasks that apply to a...
Without a waiver, what is the minimum position an individual must hold...
Which AF Portal link can be used to access user manuals for various AF...
Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of...
What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM)...
What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock...
Which maintenance group (MXG) office acts as the office of primary...
In addition to daily accountability checks, how often must support...
What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on...
Which factor is not modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM)...
In the Maintenance Group (MXG), who is responsible for establishing...
Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program...
A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage...
Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be...
What is the accountability document used for supply points that shows...
Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance...
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type...
For a unit using the extended cannibalization cycle, the standard time...
Shop stock should not exceed how many days of usage?
You are primarily concerned with answering the question: "What...
You are primarily concerned with answering the question: "How...
Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support...
Which of the following is not normally in the review chain for items...
Which supply tracking document provides a management product for...
Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the...
How often are operating commands required to review permanent...
When a back-ordered item issues and is placed in the tail number bin...
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