CDC 2a651s Volume 1 By CDCmaster

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which functions form a maintenance group?

    • Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying
    • Maintenance, operations, quality assurance
    • Quality assurance (QA), support, aircraft maintenance
    • Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance
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About This Quiz

CDC 2A651s Volume 1 by CDCmaster is designed to assess skills in aircraft maintenance and management. It covers functions within maintenance groups, engine management, and career progression in the Air Force, specifically for the AFSC 3A652. This quiz is essential for Air Force personnel aiming to advance their craft.

CDC 2a651s Volume 1 By CDCmaster - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    To which flight is the engine management section assigned?

    • Programs and resources

    • Maintenance Operations

    • Maintenance Training

    • Quality Assurance

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Operations
    Explanation
    The engine management section is assigned to the Maintenance Operations. This means that the responsibility of managing and maintaining the engines of the flights is handled by the Maintenance Operations department. They are in charge of ensuring the proper functioning and maintenance of the engines, ensuring the safety and efficiency of the flights.

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  • 3. 

    Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?

    • Operations Support Center

    • Logistics Support Squadron

    • Operations Support Squadron

    • Maintenance Operations Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Operations Center
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules and maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. They ensure that all aircraft are properly maintained and in good working condition, and they coordinate with other departments and squadrons to schedule maintenance and repairs. By closely monitoring the fleet's health indicators, they can identify any potential issues or maintenance needs and take proactive measures to address them, ensuring the safety and efficiency of the aircraft operations.

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  • 4. 

    What does the fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represent?

    • Career field subdivision

    • Specific AFSC

    • Career field

    • Skill level

    Correct Answer
    A. Career field subdivision
    Explanation
    The fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represents the career field subdivision. This means that within the broader career field, there are further subdivisions or specializations, and the fifth position indicates which subdivision the AFSC belongs to. It helps to categorize and differentiate between different career paths within the overall career field.

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  • 5. 

    What will be your title once you obtain the 7-skill level?

    • Craftsman

    • Apprentice

    • Journeyman

    • Superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Craftsman
    Explanation
    Once you obtain the 7-skill level, your title will be Craftsman. This suggests that reaching this level signifies a high level of expertise and mastery in a particular craft or skill. The term "Craftsman" is often used to describe someone who has honed their skills through years of practice and experience, and is now capable of producing high-quality work independently. This title implies a level of professionalism and proficiency that is respected within the field.

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  • 6. 

    What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?

    • On-the-job training

    • Task qualification training

    • Career development course

    • Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Career development course
    Explanation
    A career development course is a type of training that is provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training focuses on enhancing the skills and knowledge required for career advancement and growth. It may cover various topics such as leadership, communication, problem-solving, and specific job-related skills. By participating in a career development course, individuals can acquire the necessary knowledge and expertise to excel in their current role and prepare for future career opportunities.

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  • 7. 

    How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the Airman Leadership Scholl (ALS)?

    • 24

    • 36

    • 48

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 48
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 48 months. This means that an individual must have served in the Air Force for 48 months before they are eligible to attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS). This requirement ensures that individuals have gained enough experience and knowledge in the Air Force before taking on leadership roles and responsibilities.

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  • 8. 

    Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publications series

    • 91

    • 66

    • 127

    • 161

    Correct Answer
    A. 91
    Explanation
    AFOSH standards are located within Air Force publications series 91. This means that the standards for occupational safety and health in the Air Force can be found in publications that fall under series 91. These publications are likely to contain guidelines, regulations, and procedures related to maintaining a safe and healthy working environment for Air Force personnel.

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  • 9. 

    Which piece of personal protective equipment is required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects?

    • Goggles

    • Back brace

    • Leather gloves

    • Safety-toed boots

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety-toed boots
    Explanation
    Safety-toed boots are required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects because they provide protection to the feet from falling objects, crushing, and impacts. Heavy objects can cause severe injuries if they fall on the feet or if the feet are accidentally stepped on. Safety-toed boots have reinforced toes that are designed to withstand these types of hazards, reducing the risk of foot injuries. Therefore, wearing safety-toed boots is essential for ensuring the safety of individuals when lifting heavy objects.

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  • 10. 

    Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?

    • 00-5-1

    • 00-20-1

    • 21-101

    • 36-2108

    Correct Answer
    A. 21-101
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance.

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  • 11. 

    Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?

    • Lock and pin the work stands

    • Check the intake for foreign object damage (FOD)

    • Review the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781K

    • Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft

    Correct Answer
    A. Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft
    Explanation
    To ensure that it is safe to proceed with maintenance on the aircraft, it is important to check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft. This is because they may have important information or observations about the aircraft that could affect its safety. They may have noticed any potential issues or hazards that need to be addressed before proceeding with maintenance. Consulting with other personnel helps to ensure that all necessary precautions are taken and that the maintenance can be carried out safely.

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  • 12. 

    How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?

    • 20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear

    • 15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear

    • 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear

    • 5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear. This means that the axis of rotation of a propeller extends 10 feet forward and 5 feet backward from its central point.

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  • 13. 

    In order to avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance to the rear of the aircraft?

    • 100 feet

    • 200 feet

    • 300 feet

    • 400 feet

    Correct Answer
    A. 200 feet
    Explanation
    The minimum distance to the rear of the aircraft to avoid the engine exhaust blast is 200 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals and equipment near the aircraft, as the engine exhaust blast can be extremely hot and powerful. Being too close to the rear of the aircraft can pose a risk of burns, injuries, or damage. Therefore, a minimum distance of 200 feet is required to mitigate these risks and maintain a safe environment.

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  • 14. 

    Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by

    • People

    • Animals

    • Weather

    • Mechanical failure

    Correct Answer
    A. People
    Explanation
    Foreign object damage (FOD) is typically caused by people. This refers to any damage or debris that is introduced into an area where it can cause harm to equipment or systems. People can unintentionally introduce foreign objects, such as tools, parts, or personal items, into areas where they can be ingested by engines, damage sensitive components, or disrupt operations. This can occur during maintenance or operations activities if proper procedures and precautions are not followed.

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  • 15. 

    Who has overall responsibility for the foreign object damage (FOD) program?

    • Quality Assurance

    • Production supervisor

    • Squadron commander

    • Vice Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Vice Wing commander
    Explanation
    The Vice Wing commander has overall responsibility for the foreign object damage (FOD) program. As the second-in-command of the Wing, they are responsible for overseeing and managing various operations within the organization, including FOD prevention and control. This role involves implementing policies, procedures, and training programs to minimize the risk of FOD incidents, ensuring compliance with regulations, and coordinating with other departments to maintain a safe and efficient working environment. The Vice Wing commander's authority and leadership position make them the most suitable candidate for the overall responsibility of the FOD program.

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  • 16. 

    Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of

    • Aerosols

    • Liquids

    • Solids

    • Gases

    Correct Answer
    A. Gases
    Explanation
    Toxic materials in the form of gases are the easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions because gases are highly volatile and can easily be inhaled or absorbed through the respiratory system. Gases have the ability to quickly spread and penetrate the body's tissues, leading to fast and potentially severe toxic effects. In contrast, aerosols, liquids, and solids may require additional mechanisms such as ingestion or direct contact to enter the body, making their toxic effects comparatively slower or less immediate.

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  • 17. 

    Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?

    • Safety

    • Hospital

    • Supervisor

    • Environmental

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They have the authority and knowledge to ensure that employees understand the proper procedures and guidelines for using protective equipment effectively. Supervisors play a crucial role in ensuring the safety of workers and promoting a culture of safety in the workplace. They are responsible for enforcing safety protocols and providing necessary training to prevent accidents and injuries.

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  • 18. 

    What would you normally use to clean and sanitize respirators?

    • Alcohol

    • Pine oil

    • Mild soap

    • Fleur-de-lis

    Correct Answer
    A. Mild soap
    Explanation
    Mild soap is the correct answer because it is commonly used to clean and sanitize respirators. Alcohol may be too harsh and can damage the materials, while pine oil is not typically used for this purpose. Fleur-de-lis is unrelated and not used for cleaning respirators.

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  • 19. 

    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent

    • Explosions

    • Unauthorized entry

    • Overflow of materials

    • Mixing of unlike materials

    Correct Answer
    A. Unauthorized entry
    Explanation
    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety of individuals and the environment. Unauthorized entry can lead to accidents, mishandling of materials, and potential harm to people and the surroundings. It is crucial to restrict access to these areas to trained personnel only, who are aware of the proper handling procedures and safety protocols. Unauthorized entry can also prevent theft or tampering with hazardous materials, which could have severe consequences if released or misused.

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  • 20. 

    Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and

    • Flash point

    • Classification

    • Shipping name

    • Date the waste began to accumulate

    Correct Answer
    A. Date the waste began to accumulate
    Explanation
    Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and the date the waste began to accumulate. This is important for several reasons. Firstly, knowing the contents of the container allows for proper handling and storage to prevent accidents or leaks. Secondly, the date the waste began to accumulate helps track the age of the waste and ensures that it is properly disposed of within the required timeframes. This is crucial to prevent the build-up of hazardous waste and potential environmental contamination.

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  • 21. 

    A specialized function of the supply mission is

    • Repair

    • Service

    • Disposal

    • Retrieval

    Correct Answer
    A. Disposal
    Explanation
    The specialized function of the supply mission that is being referred to in this question is disposal. This means that one of the main tasks of the supply mission is to safely and properly dispose of any waste or unwanted materials. This could include things like packaging, expired supplies, or any other items that are no longer needed. Disposal is an important aspect of supply missions to ensure that the space station or spacecraft remains clean, organized, and efficient.

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  • 22. 

    From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manage supply?

    • Base system

    • Weapons system

    • Inventory system

    • Geographical system

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons system
    Explanation
    The Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manages supply from the perspective of the weapons system. This means that the GLSC focuses on providing logistics support specifically for the weapons used by the military. They ensure that the necessary supplies and resources are available to support the functioning and maintenance of the weapons system, ensuring its readiness and effectiveness in military operations.

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  • 23. 

    Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require

    • Overhaul

    • Retest OK

    • Time change

    • Repair cycle support

    Correct Answer
    A. Overhaul
    Explanation
    Selected equipment items, due to their design characteristics, function, or application, are predetermined to require an overhaul when returned to the depot. This means that these specific items need to undergo a thorough examination, repair, and maintenance process to restore them to their optimal working condition. Overhaul ensures that any worn-out or damaged components are replaced, ensuring that the equipment functions effectively and safely. It is a necessary procedure to extend the lifespan and maintain the performance of the equipment.

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  • 24. 

    Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?

    • Priority Monitor Report (D18)

    • Daily Document Register (D04)

    • Due-out Validation Listing (M30)

    • Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23)

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily Document Register (D04)
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). This document allows organizations to keep track of all the documents that have been processed, ensuring that no document numbers are missed or overlooked. It serves as a record of all the transactions and activities related to the supply system, providing a comprehensive overview for review and reference purposes.

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  • 25. 

    Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a priority basis because of the differences in each organization's 

    • Type of aircraft

    • Contract

    • Mission

    • Location

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission
    Explanation
    Each organization has different missions, which require specific parts for their aircraft. Therefore, Base Supply needs to prioritize delivering the necessary parts based on the missions of each organization. This ensures that the organizations can carry out their missions effectively and efficiently.

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  • 26. 

    What does a completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 serve to identify?

    • Origin of an item

    • Why the item broke

    • How long the item will take to repair

    • The responsibility reparable processing center

    Correct Answer
    A. Origin of an item
    Explanation
    A completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used to track and document the history of an item, including its source or point of origin. It helps in maintaining a record of where the item came from and provides important information for tracking and accountability purposes.

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  • 27. 

    If you need detailed information concerning codes and entries on the Air Force Information Management Tool (IMT) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request, refer to Air Force Manual (AFMAN)

    • 23-254

    • 23-110

    • 91-254

    • 91-110

    Correct Answer
    A. 23-110
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "23-110" because it is the manual that provides detailed information concerning codes and entries on the Air Force Information Management Tool (IMT) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request.

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  • 28. 

    Items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are each required to have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form

    • 1574

    • 1575

    • 1577-2

    • 1577-3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1575
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1575 because it is the only option that is a valid Department of Defense (DD) Form. The other options (1574, 1577-2, and 1577-3) are not valid forms.

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  • 29. 

    When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life it means the item

    • Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended

    • Should be returned to supply after expiration date

    • Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life

    • Should be inspected or tested

    Correct Answer
    A. Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life
    Explanation
    When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means that the item has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item cannot be used or stored beyond its expiration date and should not be used or returned to supply after it has expired. The shelf-life period for this item is fixed and cannot be extended. It is important to adhere to this shelf-life period to ensure the item's quality and effectiveness.

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  • 30. 

    A Category I deficiency report (DR) is used to report a deficiency

    • That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager

    • Found during an initial acceptance inspection (critical or major defects only)

    • That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system

    • That identifies a potential enhancement (applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle)

    Correct Answer
    A. That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system
    Explanation
    A Category I deficiency report is used to report a deficiency that, if left uncorrected, has the potential to cause significant loss or damage to equipment or a system. This type of report is specifically for critical or major defects that are identified during an initial acceptance inspection. It is important to track and address these deficiencies to prevent any major negative consequences. Additionally, the report may also identify potential enhancements that were noted during the acquisition cycle, which could further improve the equipment or system.

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  • 31. 

    Within how many hours must Category I deficiency reports (DR) be forwarded to the originating point?

    • 8

    • 12

    • 24

    • 72

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    Category I deficiency reports (DR) must be forwarded to the originating point within 24 hours. This means that any major issues or deficiencies that fall under Category I must be reported and forwarded within a day. This ensures that urgent matters are addressed promptly and necessary actions can be taken to rectify the deficiencies.

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  • 32. 

    Which type of items must be reflected on the Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL)?

    • Shelf-life

    • Bench stock

    • Hazardous materials

    • Equipment authorization inventory data

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment authorization inventory data
    Explanation
    The Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL) must reflect the equipment authorization inventory data. This means that any items that require authorization for use or custody must be included in the listing. This ensures that the custodian is aware of the authorized equipment in their possession and can properly account for it. Shelf-life items, bench stock, and hazardous materials may also need to be tracked and accounted for, but they are not specifically mentioned as items that must be reflected on the CA/CRL.

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  • 33. 

    To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the

    • Shop chief

    • Supervisor

    • Commander

    • Supply chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander
    Explanation
    To become an equipment custodian, one must be appointed by the commander. This is because the commander is the highest-ranking official in the organization and has the authority to delegate responsibilities and make appointments. The commander is responsible for overseeing the overall operations and ensuring that equipment is properly managed and maintained. Therefore, it is logical that the commander would have the power to appoint individuals to the role of equipment custodian.

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  • 34. 

    When should new equipment account custodians receive training?

    • Before signing for the account

    • Within 10 days of signing for the account

    • Within 15 days of signing for the account

    • Within 30 days of signing for the account

    Correct Answer
    A. Before signing for the account
    Explanation
    New equipment account custodians should receive training before signing for the account to ensure that they are familiar with the equipment and know how to properly handle and maintain it. This training is crucial in order to prevent any mishandling or damage to the equipment, and to ensure that the custodian is able to effectively perform their duties in managing the equipment. By receiving training beforehand, the custodian will be better prepared to take on the responsibility of caring for the equipment and will be able to start their role with the necessary knowledge and skills.

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  • 35. 

    The second section of a technical order (TO) number gives the

    • Classification

    • Type of equipment

    • Mission type of equipment

    • Model and series for equipment type

    Correct Answer
    A. Model and series for equipment type
    Explanation
    The second section of a technical order (TO) number provides information about the model and series for a specific type of equipment. This helps to identify the specific version or variant of the equipment being referred to in the TO. By including the model and series information, the TO becomes more specific and tailored to the particular equipment being used, ensuring that the correct procedures and instructions are followed for that specific model.

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  • 36. 

    Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?

    • 00-5-1

    • 00-5-2

    • 00-20-1

    • 00-20-2

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-5-1
  • 37. 

    Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?

    • General Equipment

    • General System

    • Fault Isolation

    • Job Guide

    Correct Answer
    A. Job Guide
    Explanation
    A job guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidelines for performing specific maintenance tasks on equipment or systems. This type of manual is useful for technicians and maintenance personnel who need detailed instructions on how to carry out specific maintenance actions.

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  • 38. 

    What section of the illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB?

    • Introduction

    • Numerical index

    • Group assembly parts list

    • Reference designation index

    Correct Answer
    A. Introduction
    Explanation
    The introduction section of the Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB. This section provides an overview of the IPB and explains the various codes and abbreviations that are used throughout the document. It helps the reader understand the meaning of different symbols, numbers, and letters used in the IPB, making it easier to navigate and interpret the information provided in the breakdown.

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  • 39. 

    What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category is issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?

    • Record

    • Urgent action

    • Routine action

    • Immediate action

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediate action
    Explanation
    Immediate action TCTOs are issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel. These TCTOs require immediate attention and action to prevent any potential harm. They are prioritized over other categories to ensure the safety of personnel involved.

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  • 40. 

    Who originates technical orders?

    • Section supervisor

    • Contracting squadron

    • Equipment manufacturer

    • Maintenance group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment manufacturer
    Explanation
    The equipment manufacturer is responsible for originating technical orders. Technical orders provide detailed instructions for the installation, operation, maintenance, and repair of equipment. As the manufacturer, they have the expertise and knowledge about the equipment and its specifications, making them the most suitable entity to create these technical orders. Section supervisors, contracting squadrons, and maintenance group commanders may have roles in implementing or following these technical orders, but they are not responsible for originating them.

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  • 41. 

    An Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply, is not submitted for

    • Preliminary technical orders (TO)

    • Methods and procedure TOs

    • Work cards

    • Job guides

    Correct Answer
    A. Preliminary technical orders (TO)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Preliminary technical orders (TO).
    Preliminary technical orders (TO) do not require the submission of an Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply. This form is used to recommend changes or updates to technical manuals, and it is required for methods and procedure TOs, work cards, and job guides. However, preliminary TOs are not considered finalized or official documents, so they do not require this specific form to be submitted.

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  • 42. 

    Who makes  sure the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission?

    • Initiator

    • Commander

    • Supervisor of initiator

    • Product improvement office

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor of initiator
    Explanation
    The supervisor of the initiator is responsible for ensuring that the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission. This means that the supervisor must review the form and verify that all the information provided is accurate and complete before it is submitted. The supervisor plays a crucial role in quality control and ensuring that the form meets the necessary standards and requirements.

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  • 43. 

    What are the two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach?

    • Evident and hidden

    • Potential and evident

    • Hidden and functional

    • Potential and functional

    Correct Answer
    A. Potential and functional
    Explanation
    In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, failures are classified into two categories: potential and functional failures. Potential failures refer to failures that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. Functional failures, on the other hand, are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the system's functionality. By categorizing failures in this way, the RCM approach allows for a proactive approach to maintenance, addressing potential failures before they happen and minimizing the impact of functional failures.

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  • 44. 

    In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?

    • Hard time

    • Lubrication

    • On condition

    • Failure finding

    Correct Answer
    A. On condition
    Explanation
    In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, the preventative maintenance task that involves a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition is known as "on condition." This means that the inspection is carried out based on specific conditions or indicators that suggest a potential failure. It allows for proactive identification of potential issues before they escalate into major failures, helping to improve the overall reliability and performance of the system.

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  • 45. 

    Which program integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health?

    • Centralized repair facility (CRF)

    • Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D)

    • Engine life-cycle management planning (ELMP)

    • Comprehensive engine management system (CEMS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D)
    Explanation
    Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) is the correct answer because it refers to a program that integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health. This program allows for the analysis of engine data over time to identify trends and diagnose any potential issues or maintenance needs. It helps in effectively managing and maintaining the engine throughout its lifecycle.

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  • 46. 

    Within the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program, to whom do flight-line personnel transfer collected data for analysis?

    • Depot-level engine maintenance shops

    • Base engine maintenance shop

    • Product center engineers

    • Flight-line expediter

    Correct Answer
    A. Base engine maintenance shop
    Explanation
    Flight-line personnel transfer collected data for analysis to the Base engine maintenance shop. This is because the Base engine maintenance shop is responsible for conducting maintenance and repairs on engines at the base level. They have the expertise and resources to analyze the collected data and determine any issues or trends that need to be addressed. The Depot-level engine maintenance shops may handle more extensive repairs and overhauls, while the Product center engineers may be involved in design and development aspects. The Flight-line expediter is responsible for coordinating and expediting aircraft maintenance activities, but they may not have the necessary expertise for data analysis.

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  • 47. 

    Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program?

    • Propulsion and depot

    • Depot and nondestructive inspection

    • Propulsion and nondestructive inspection

    • Environmental health and nondestructive inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Propulsion and nondestructive inspection
    Explanation
    Propulsion and nondestructive inspection technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program. These technicians are responsible for monitoring and inspecting the propulsion systems of the engine, as well as conducting nondestructive inspections to identify any potential issues or defects. By providing their maintenance activity data to the ET&D program, they contribute to the analysis and assessment of the engine's performance and health, allowing for timely maintenance and repairs to ensure optimal functioning.

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  • 48. 

    Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for whom?

    • War fighters

    • Test cell personnel

    • Flight-line mechanics

    • Back shop mechanics

    Correct Answer
    A. War fighters
    Explanation
    Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for war fighters. These facilities are responsible for repairing and maintaining equipment and weapons used by military personnel in combat situations. By centralizing the repair process, CRFs ensure that war fighters have access to fully functional and reliable equipment, allowing them to carry out their missions effectively and safely. CRFs play a crucial role in keeping war fighters equipped and ready for action.

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  • 49. 

    Who maintains accountability of centralized repair facility (CRF) assets and reports their status?

    • Production supervisor

    • Depot item manager

    • Engine technician

    • Supply officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Production supervisor
    Explanation
    The production supervisor is responsible for maintaining accountability of centralized repair facility (CRF) assets and reporting their status. As the supervisor overseeing the repair facility, they are in charge of ensuring that all assets are properly accounted for and kept in working condition. They are also responsible for reporting any issues or updates regarding the assets to higher authorities or management. The production supervisor plays a crucial role in the efficient operation of the CRF and ensuring that the assets are well-maintained and utilized effectively.

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  • Current Version
  • Jul 10, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Aug 11, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    CDCmaster

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