2A651 Volume 1 Ure's

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2A651 Quizzes & Trivia

Volume 1 ure's


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which functions form a maintenace group?

    • A.

      Operations, aircraft maintenance, and flying

    • B.

      Maintenance, operations, QA.

    • C.

      QA, support, aircraft maintenance

    • D.

      Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA
    Explanation
    The functions that form a maintenance group are maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA. This combination includes all the necessary functions for the maintenance of aircraft and ensuring quality assurance. Maintenance operations involve the overall management and coordination of maintenance activities. Maintenance specifically refers to the actual repair and upkeep of the aircraft. Aircraft maintenance focuses on the specific maintenance tasks related to the aircraft. QA (Quality Assurance) is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance activities meet the required standards and regulations.

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  • 2. 

    Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?

    • A.

      Operations Support Center

    • B.

      Logistics Support Squadron

    • C.

      Operations Support Squadron

    • D.

      Maintenance Operations Center

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance Operations Center
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules and maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. They oversee the operational and maintenance activities of the fleet, ensuring that all aircraft are properly maintained and available for missions. This includes tracking maintenance schedules, coordinating repairs, and ensuring that the fleet is in optimal condition.

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  • 3. 

    When you are assigned to an equipment maintenace squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be attached?

    • A.

      Maintenance

    • B.

      Accessories

    • C.

      Fabrication

    • D.

      Munitions

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance
    Explanation
    As an engine troop assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron, it is most likely that you will be attached to the Maintenance flight. This is because the main responsibility of an engine troop is to maintain and repair engines, which falls under the domain of the Maintenance flight. The Accessories flight typically deals with the maintenance of accessories and components, the Fabrication flight focuses on creating or repairing equipment parts, and the Munitions flight handles the storage and handling of weapons and ammunition.

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  • 4. 

    What does the fifth positions fo the AFSC 3A652 represent?

    • A.

      Career field subdivision

    • B.

      Specific AFSC

    • C.

      Career field

    • D.

      Skill level

    Correct Answer
    B. Specific AFSC
    Explanation
    The fifth position of the AFSC 3A652 represents the specific AFSC. AFSC stands for Air Force Specialty Code, which is a system used by the United States Air Force to identify and categorize specific job roles. The AFSC 3A652 is a specific job role within the Air Force, and the fifth position of this code indicates the specific AFSC associated with this career field.

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  • 5. 

    What will be your title once you obtain the 7-skill level?

    • A.

      Craftsman

    • B.

      Apprentice

    • C.

      Journeyman

    • D.

      Superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Craftsman
    Explanation
    Once you obtain the 7-skill level, your title will be Craftsman. This title suggests that you have reached a high level of expertise and proficiency in your craft. It signifies that you have mastered the necessary skills and can work independently, creating high-quality work. The title Craftsman also implies a level of experience and knowledge that surpasses that of an Apprentice or Journeyman. Superintendent, on the other hand, typically refers to a managerial or supervisory role rather than a skill level.

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  • 6. 

    What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?

    • A.

      OJT

    • B.

      Task qualification training

    • C.

      Career development course(CDC's)

    • D.

      NCO academy

    Correct Answer
    C. Career development course(CDC's)
    Explanation
    Career development courses (CDCs) are a type of training provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. These courses are designed to enhance the skills and knowledge of employees in specific career fields. CDCs are typically self-paced and can be completed online or through printed materials. They cover a wide range of topics related to the job and provide employees with the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their duties effectively. This type of training is often required for career advancement and professional development.

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  • 7. 

    How many months must you have in the AF before you may attend ALS?

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      36

    • C.

      48

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    C. 48
    Explanation
    In order to attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS), one must have a minimum of 48 months in the Air Force. This indicates that a certain level of experience and service is required before being eligible for ALS.

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  • 8. 

    AFOSH standards are located within AF publication series?

    • A.

      91

    • B.

      66

    • C.

      127

    • D.

      161

    Correct Answer
    A. 91
    Explanation
    AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health. It is a set of standards and guidelines that ensure safe and healthy working conditions for Air Force personnel. AFOSH standards are indeed located within AF publication series, which means they are part of the official publications and regulations of the Air Force. The correct answer is 91.

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  • 9. 

    Which piece of PPE is required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects?

    • A.

      Googles

    • B.

      Back brace

    • C.

      Leather gloves

    • D.

      Safety-toed boots

    Correct Answer
    D. Safety-toed boots
    Explanation
    Safety-toed boots are required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects because they provide protection to the feet from falling objects or accidental impacts. These boots have reinforced toe caps that are designed to withstand heavy loads and prevent injuries such as crushed toes or broken bones. Wearing safety-toed boots ensures that the feet are adequately protected and reduces the risk of accidents and injuries while lifting heavy objects.

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  • 10. 

    Which AFI defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?

    • A.

      00-5-1

    • B.

      00-20-1

    • C.

      21-101

    • D.

      36-2108

    Correct Answer
    C. 21-101
    Explanation
    AFI 21-101 is the correct answer because it defines quality maintenance and emphasizes the importance of maintenance personnel displaying integrity and complying with all written guidance. This AFI provides guidelines and procedures for maintaining and inspecting Air Force equipment to ensure its reliability and performance. It also outlines the responsibilities and expectations of maintenance personnel in maintaining a high standard of quality in their work.

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  • 11. 

    How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?

    • A.

      20ft. from the front and 15ft. from the rear

    • B.

      15ft. from the front and 10ft. from the rear

    • C.

      10ft. from the front and 5ft. from the rear

    • D.

      5ft. from the front and 1foot from the rear

    Correct Answer
    C. 10ft. from the front and 5ft. from the rear
    Explanation
    The propeller's axis of rotation extends 10ft. from the front and 5ft. from the rear.

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  • 12. 

    When approaching or leaving a heli with the blades rotating, all personnel need to remain in full view of the

    • A.

      Ground man

    • B.

      Crew chief

    • C.

      Scanner

    • D.

      Pilot

    Correct Answer
    D. Pilot
    Explanation
    When approaching or leaving a helicopter with the blades rotating, all personnel need to remain in full view of the pilot. This is because the pilot has the best visibility and control over the helicopter and can ensure the safety of everyone in the vicinity. The pilot can also communicate with the ground crew and provide instructions or warnings if necessary. Therefore, it is important for all personnel to stay visible to the pilot to avoid any potential accidents or mishaps.

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  • 13. 

    FOD is normally caused by what?

    • A.

      People

    • B.

      Animals

    • C.

      Weather

    • D.

      Mechanical failure

    Correct Answer
    A. People
    Explanation
    FOD, or Foreign Object Debris, is typically caused by people. This refers to any object or material that is not part of an aircraft but can cause damage if it enters the engine or other critical areas. People can inadvertently leave tools, equipment, or other objects on the runway or tarmac, which can then be sucked into the engine or pose a hazard to the aircraft. Therefore, human error or negligence is often the cause of FOD incidents.

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  • 14. 

    During flight-line or test cell operations, you may be exposed to?

    • A.

      Acetone

    • B.

      Toluene

    • C.

      Carbon dioxide

    • D.

      Carbon monoxide

    Correct Answer
    D. Carbon monoxide
    Explanation
    During flight-line or test cell operations, exposure to carbon monoxide is possible. Carbon monoxide is a colorless and odorless gas that is produced from the incomplete combustion of fuels such as gasoline, diesel, and natural gas. It can be present in the exhaust fumes of vehicles, generators, and other machinery. Breathing in carbon monoxide can be harmful as it binds to hemoglobin in the blood, reducing its ability to carry oxygen. Symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning include headache, dizziness, nausea, and confusion. Prolonged exposure to high levels of carbon monoxide can be life-threatening.

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  • 15. 

    Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of

    • A.

      Aerosols

    • B.

      Liquids

    • C.

      Solids

    • D.

      Gases

    Correct Answer
    D. Gases
    Explanation
    Gases are the easiest form of toxic materials to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions because they can be easily inhaled. When inhaled, gases can quickly enter the bloodstream through the lungs and be distributed throughout the body, leading to immediate toxic effects. In contrast, aerosols, liquids, and solids may require ingestion or contact with the skin to enter the body, which can be slower and less efficient in causing toxic reactions.

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  • 16. 

    Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain PPE?

    • A.

      Safety

    • B.

      Hospital

    • C.

      Supervisor

    • D.

      Enviromental

    Correct Answer
    C. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment (PPE). They have the authority and knowledge to ensure that employees are properly trained and equipped to protect themselves from workplace hazards. Supervisors play a crucial role in ensuring the safety of their team members by providing necessary guidance and instructions regarding PPE usage.

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  • 17. 

    What would you normally use to clean and sanitize respirators?

    • A.

      Alcohol

    • B.

      Pine oil

    • C.

      Mild soap

    • D.

      Fleu-de-lis

    Correct Answer
    C. Mild soap
    Explanation
    Mild soap is commonly used to clean and sanitize respirators. It is effective in removing dirt, oil, and other contaminants from the surface of the respirator. Mild soap is gentle enough to not damage the respirator material, yet strong enough to ensure proper cleaning and sanitization. Alcohol may be too harsh and can degrade the respirator material, while pine oil may leave a residue. Fleu-de-lis is unrelated to cleaning and sanitizing respirators.

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  • 18. 

    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent?

    • A.

      Explosions

    • B.

      Unauthorized entry

    • C.

      Overflow of materials

    • D.

      Mixing of unlike materials

    Correct Answer
    B. Unauthorized entry
    Explanation
    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety of individuals and the environment. Unauthorized entry can lead to accidents, spills, and exposure to hazardous materials, posing a risk to human health and the surrounding ecosystem. Implementing security measures such as fences, locks, and access control systems can help restrict access to authorized personnel only, minimizing the potential for accidents and ensuring proper handling and containment of hazardous waste.

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  • 19. 

    Containers holding hazardous waste must be cleary marked to show the contents and?

    • A.

      Flash point

    • B.

      Classification

    • C.

      Shipping name

    • D.

      Date the waste began to accumulate

    Correct Answer
    D. Date the waste began to accumulate
    Explanation
    Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and the date the waste began to accumulate. This is important for proper management and tracking of hazardous waste. Knowing the date the waste began to accumulate helps ensure that it is disposed of or treated within the required timeframes. It also allows for accurate record-keeping and compliance with regulations. Properly marking containers with this information helps prevent confusion, ensures safety, and facilitates proper handling and disposal of hazardous waste.

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  • 20. 

    A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is?

    • A.

      Dilution

    • B.

      Incineration

    • C.

      Land disposal

    • D.

      Biodegradation

    Correct Answer
    A. Dilution
    Explanation
    Dilution is a common method for disposing of hazardous waste because it involves mixing the waste with a large volume of water or another solvent to reduce its concentration. This process helps to make the waste less harmful and easier to handle or transport. However, it is important to note that dilution does not completely eliminate the hazardous properties of the waste, and proper treatment and disposal methods should still be followed to ensure environmental and human safety.

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  • 21. 

    From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center manage supply?

    • A.

      Base system

    • B.

      Weapon system

    • C.

      Inventory system

    • D.

      Geographical system

    Correct Answer
    B. Weapon system
    Explanation
    The Global Logistics Support Center manages supply from the perspective of the weapon system. This means that they focus on coordinating and providing support specifically for the weapons used by the military or defense organization. They ensure that the necessary supplies, equipment, and maintenance are available to keep the weapon systems operational and effective. This perspective allows for a targeted and efficient approach to managing the logistics of supplying weapons.

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  • 22. 

     What system has the purpose of establishing a firm control over repair cycle assets to make sure they are repaired at base level or sent to a repair facility as fast as possible?

    • A.

      Depot-level Repair system

    • B.

      Repair Cycle support system

    • C.

      Standard Base Supply system

    • D.

      Precious metals recovery system

    Correct Answer
    B. Repair Cycle support system
    Explanation
    The Repair Cycle support system is designed to establish control over repair cycle assets and ensure that they are repaired at the base level or sent to a repair facility as quickly as possible. This system helps to streamline the repair process and minimize downtime by efficiently managing and tracking repairable assets. It aims to optimize the repair cycle and ensure that assets are returned to service promptly.

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  • 23. 

    Which supply document porvides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System?

    • A.

      Priority monitor report (D18)

    • B.

      Daily Document Register (D04)

    • C.

      Due-out Validation Listing (M30)

    • D.

      Repair cycle assests management listing (D23)

    Correct Answer
    B. Daily Document Register (D04)
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System. This register allows organizations to keep track of all the documents that have been processed, ensuring that no document is missed or overlooked. It serves as a useful tool for organizations to maintain a record of their daily document processing activities and to review and verify the accuracy of the documents processed.

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  • 24. 

    Base supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of the differences in each organizations's?

    • A.

      Type of aircraft

    • B.

      Contract

    • C.

      Mission

    • D.

      Location

    Correct Answer
    C. Mission
    Explanation
    The base supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of the differences in each organization's mission. This means that different organizations have different objectives and goals, which require specific parts and supplies to fulfill their missions effectively. Therefore, the base supply must prioritize the delivery of parts based on the specific mission requirements of each organization.

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  • 25. 

    Which publication provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag?

    • A.

      AFMAN 23-110

    • B.

      TO 00-20-2

    • C.

      AFI 91-301

    • D.

      TO 00-5-1

    Correct Answer
    B. TO 00-20-2
    Explanation
    TO 00-20-2 is the correct answer because it is a technical order that provides detailed instructions on how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag. It is specifically designed to guide individuals in properly completing and documenting this form. AFMAN 23-110, AFI 91-301, and TO 00-5-1 may contain information related to documentation procedures, but they do not specifically provide a block-by-block explanation for the AFTO Form 350 tag.

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  • 26. 

    If you are TDY and both the IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?

    • A.

      AF IMT 2005

    • B.

      DD form 1574

    • C.

      AFTO form 349

    • D.

      AFTO form 350

    Correct Answer
    A. AF IMT 2005
    Explanation
    If both the IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) and SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) are not available while being on TDY (Temporary Duty), the form that would be used to order an engine part is AF IMT 2005. This form is specifically designed for requesting and tracking items in the Air Force supply chain. It allows for the proper documentation and processing of the order, ensuring that the engine part is obtained and delivered efficiently.

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  • 27. 

    If you need detailed info concerning codes and entries on the AF IMT Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in request, refer to AFMAN?

    • A.

      23-110

    • B.

      23-254

    • C.

      91-254

    • D.

      91-110

    Correct Answer
    A. 23-110
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 23-110 because AFMAN 23-110 provides detailed information concerning codes and entries on the AF IMT Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in request.

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  • 28. 

    Serviceable items, when received from supply and ready to use, each have an attached DD form?

    • A.

      1574

    • B.

      1575

    • C.

      1577-2

    • D.

      1577-3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1574
    Explanation
    When serviceable items are received from supply and ready to use, each item is accompanied by an attached DD form. The specific form number that is attached to these items is DD form 1574.

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  • 29. 

    Items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are each required to have an attached DD form?

    • A.

      1574

    • B.

      1575

    • C.

      1577-2

    • D.

      1577-3

    Correct Answer
    B. 1575
  • 30. 

    Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?

    • A.

      Supply

    • B.

      Shelf-life

    • C.

      Insp.

    • D.

      Bench stock

    Correct Answer
    B. Shelf-life
    Explanation
    Shelf-life is the correct answer because it refers to the period of time during which a product can be stored and remain in good condition for use. Assigning a storage time period to ensure satisfactory performance over a specified period of time is crucial for perishable items or products that may deteriorate or expire. By monitoring and managing the shelf-life, organizations can ensure that the stored items are used or disposed of before they become unusable or unsafe.

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  • 31. 

    When a bench stock item has a type 1 shelf-life, it means the item?

    • A.

      Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended

    • B.

      Should be returned to supply after expiration date

    • C.

      Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life

    • D.

      Should be insp. or tested

    Correct Answer
    C. Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life
    Explanation
    A bench stock item with a type 1 shelf-life has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item has a predetermined expiration date that cannot be extended. Once the item reaches its expiration date, it should not be used or kept in stock any longer. It is important to adhere to the specified shelf-life period to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the item.

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  • 32. 

    In the case of a failure trend that may contribute to accidents, deficiency reports are forwarded to?

    • A.

      Higher HQ's

    • B.

      Job control

    • C.

      Logistics commander

    • D.

      Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Higher HQ's
    Explanation
    Deficiency reports that highlight failure trends that could lead to accidents are typically forwarded to higher HQ's. This is because higher HQ's have the authority and responsibility to address and mitigate these trends at a broader level. By sending the reports to higher HQ's, they can take appropriate actions such as implementing new policies, procedures, or training programs to prevent accidents and improve overall safety.

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  • 33. 

    Which type of items must be reflected on the Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt listing?

    • A.

      Shelf-life

    • B.

      Bench stock

    • C.

      HAZMAT.

    • D.

      Equipment authorization inventory data

    Correct Answer
    D. Equipment authorization inventory data
    Explanation
    The Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt listing must include equipment authorization inventory data. This means that any items that have been authorized and are part of the inventory must be reflected on this listing. This ensures that there is a record of all authorized equipment that is being held in custody by the custodian. The listing helps in tracking and managing the inventory effectively.

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  • 34. 

    To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the?

    • A.

      Commander

    • B.

      Shop chief

    • C.

      Supervisor

    • D.

      Supply chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander
    Explanation
    To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the commander. The commander is the person in charge and has the authority to appoint individuals to specific roles and responsibilities within an organization. As an equipment custodian, you would be responsible for managing and maintaining equipment, ensuring its proper use, and keeping track of inventory. The commander's appointment ensures that the custodian is accountable and authorized to perform these duties effectively.

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  • 35. 

    When should new equipment account custodians receive training?

    • A.

      Before signing the account

    • B.

      Within 10 days of signing the account

    • C.

      Within 15 days of signing the account

    • D.

      Within 30 days of signing the account

    Correct Answer
    A. Before signing the account
    Explanation
    New equipment account custodians should receive training before signing the account to ensure they have the necessary knowledge and skills to properly handle and maintain the equipment. This training is crucial as it helps them understand their responsibilities, learn the proper procedures for handling the equipment, and familiarize themselves with any safety protocols. By receiving training before signing the account, custodians can start their role with the necessary information and confidence to effectively manage the equipment.

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  • 36. 

    The first section of a TO number identifies the?

    • A.

      Sectionalization of the TO

    • B.

      Type of instructions found in the TO

    • C.

      Category and the aircraft mission type in the TO

    • D.

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO

    Correct Answer
    C. Category and the aircraft mission type in the TO
    Explanation
    The first section of a TO number identifies the category and the aircraft mission type in the TO. This means that the TO number provides information about the specific category or classification of the technical order, as well as the type of aircraft mission that the TO is related to. By including this information in the TO number, it becomes easier for users to identify and locate the appropriate TO for their specific needs.

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  • 37. 

    In which type of TO would you find a list of TO's for a specific category of equipment?

    • A.

      Index

    • B.

      Preliminary

    • C.

      Methods and Procedure

    • D.

      Operational and Maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Index
    Explanation
    In the Index type of TO, you would find a list of TO's for a specific category of equipment. The Index serves as a reference guide that organizes and lists the various technical orders available for different types of equipment. It helps users easily locate the specific TO they need by categorizing them based on equipment type.

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  • 38. 

    Which TO describes the AF TO system?

    • A.

      00-5-1

    • B.

      00-5-2

    • C.

      00-20-1

    • D.

      00-20-2

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-5-1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00-5-1. This TO (Technical Order) describes the AF (Air Force) TO system.

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  • 39. 

    Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?

    • A.

      General Equipment

    • B.

      General System

    • C.

      Fault Isolation

    • D.

      Job Guide

    Correct Answer
    D. Job Guide
    Explanation
    A job guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance on how to perform specific maintenance tasks on equipment or systems. This type of manual is useful for technicians and maintenance personnel who need clear and concise instructions for carrying out maintenance actions effectively and efficiently.

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  • 40. 

    What section of the IPB contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB?

    • A.

      Introduction

    • B.

      Numerical Index

    • C.

      Group assembly parts list

    • D.

      Reference designation index

    Correct Answer
    A. Introduction
    Explanation
    The Introduction section of the IPB contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB. This section provides an overview and explanation of the various codes and symbols used throughout the document, allowing users to understand and interpret the information presented in the IPB accurately.

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  • 41. 

    What TCTO category is issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?

    • A.

      Record

    • B.

      Urgent action

    • C.

      Routine action

    • D.

      Immediate action

    Correct Answer
    D. Immediate action
    Explanation
    Immediate action TCTOs are issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel. These TCTOs require immediate attention and action to prevent any potential harm. The urgency of the situation necessitates swift corrective measures to ensure the safety of personnel.

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  • 42. 

    Which TO covers all information concerning the AF  TO system?

    • A.

      00-5-1

    • B.

      00-5-2

    • C.

      00-20-1

    • D.

      00-20-2

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-5-1
  • 43. 

    Who originates TOs?

    • A.

      Section supervisor

    • B.

      Contracting squadron

    • C.

      Equipment manufacturer

    • D.

      MXG commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Equipment manufacturer
    Explanation
    The equipment manufacturer is responsible for originating TOs, which stands for Technical Orders. TOs are documents that provide detailed instructions on how to operate, maintain, and troubleshoot equipment. As the manufacturer of the equipment, they have the knowledge and expertise to create these instructions accurately. The section supervisor, contracting squadron, and MXG commander may play a role in the process of obtaining or implementing TOs, but the equipment manufacturer is the primary source of origin for these documents.

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  • 44. 

    Who makes sure the AFTO IMT Form 22 is valid and warrants submission?

    • A.

      Initiator

    • B.

      Commander

    • C.

      Supervisor of initiator

    • D.

      Product improvement office

    Correct Answer
    C. Supervisor of initiator
    Explanation
    The supervisor of the initiator is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO IMT Form 22 is valid and warrants submission. They play a crucial role in overseeing the process and verifying that all necessary information is included and accurate before the form is submitted. This ensures that the form meets the required standards and can be properly processed and utilized.

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  • 45. 

    What TCTO category has alternately spaced red diagonals and Xs and red diagonals borderning the first page?

    • A.

      Safety

    • B.

      Urgent action

    • C.

      Routine action

    • D.

      Immediate action

    Correct Answer
    B. Urgent action
    Explanation
    The TCTO category that has alternately spaced red diagonals and Xs and red diagonals bordering the first page is "Urgent action". This category indicates that immediate attention and action are required to address a particular issue or problem. The red diagonals and Xs serve as visual indicators of the urgency and importance of the action needed.

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  • 46. 

    What are the two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach?

    • A.

      Evident and hidden

    • B.

      Potential and evident

    • C.

      Hidden and functional

    • D.

      Potential and functional

    Correct Answer
    D. Potential and functional
    Explanation
    In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, failures are classified into two categories: potential and functional. Potential failures refer to failures that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. These failures are identified through analysis and proactive measures are taken to prevent them from occurring. On the other hand, functional failures are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the system's performance. These failures are addressed through reactive maintenance actions to restore the system's functionality.

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  • 47. 

    In the RCM approach, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled insp.  to detect a potential failure condition?

    • A.

      Hard time

    • B.

      Lubricatiion

    • C.

      On condition

    • D.

      Failure finding

    Correct Answer
    C. On condition
    Explanation
    In the RCM approach, a scheduled inspection is conducted to detect a potential failure condition. This means that the inspection is carried out based on the condition of the equipment or system, rather than on a fixed time interval. By monitoring the condition of the equipment, potential failure conditions can be identified early on, allowing for timely maintenance and preventing unexpected breakdowns or failures. This approach helps to optimize maintenance efforts and reduce costs by focusing on areas that require attention based on their condition.

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  • 48. 

    Which program integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health?

    • A.

      Centralized repair facility(CRF)

    • B.

      Engine trending and diagnostics(ET&D)

    • C.

      Engine life-cycle management planning(ELMP)

    • D.

      Comprehensive engine management system(CEMS)

    Correct Answer
    B. Engine trending and diagnostics(ET&D)
    Explanation
    Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) is the correct answer because it integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health. This program helps in analyzing engine performance data, identifying potential issues, and taking appropriate maintenance actions to ensure optimal engine health and performance. ET&D plays a crucial role in proactive maintenance planning and minimizing engine downtime.

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  • 49. 

    The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by?

    • A.

      Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports

    • B.

      Tracking serially controlled components and modules

    • C.

      Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures

    • D.

      Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions

    Correct Answer
    C. Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures
    Explanation
    The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by focusing on early detection of performance degradation and/or failures. This means that the program aims to identify any issues or deterioration in the engine's performance at an early stage, allowing for timely intervention and maintenance to prevent further damage or failure. By detecting these problems early on, the program can help ensure the safe and efficient operation of turbine engines, minimizing the risk of damage and maximizing their lifespan.

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  • 50. 

    Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program?

    • A.

      Propulsion and depot

    • B.

      Depot and NDI

    • C.

      Propulsion and NDI

    • D.

      Enviromental health and NDI

    Correct Answer
    C. Propulsion and NDI
    Explanation
    Propulsion and NDI technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program.

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