2A651 Ure (All Volumes Mix)
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
What type of oil seal has soft metal as its basic composition and allows a small amount of airflow to prevent oil seepage?
- A.
Silicone
- B.
Carbon
- C.
Synthetic
- D.
Labyrinth
Correct Answer
D. LabyrinthExplanation
A labyrinth oil seal is made up of soft metal and allows a small amount of airflow to prevent oil seepage. This type of seal consists of multiple interlocking grooves that create a tortuous path for the oil to pass through, effectively sealing the oil within the system. The soft metal composition of the seal provides flexibility and durability, ensuring a long-lasting and effective seal.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?
- A.
Operations Support Center
- B.
Logistics Support Squadron
- C.
Operations Support Squadron
- D.
Maintenance Operations Center
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance Operations CenterExplanation
The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules and maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. They ensure that aircraft are properly maintained and available for scheduled flights. They also track any maintenance issues and coordinate with the necessary personnel to address them. By closely monitoring the fleet's health indicators, they can proactively identify and resolve any potential issues, ensuring the safety and efficiency of operations.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?
- A.
Dry sump
- B.
Wet sump
- C.
Cold tank
- D.
Hot tank
Correct Answer
A. Dry sumpExplanation
A dry sump oil system stores the oil in a separate tank located outside of the engine, typically on the side. This design allows for a larger oil capacity and better oil control compared to a wet sump system, where the oil is stored in a pan underneath the engine. The dry sump system is commonly used in high-performance and racing engines to prevent oil starvation during extreme driving conditions.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which section of a jet engine introduces and burns fuel?
- A.
Turbine
- B.
Diffuser
- C.
Compressor
- D.
Combustion
Correct Answer
D. CombustionExplanation
The section of a jet engine that introduces and burns fuel is called the combustion section. In this section, fuel is mixed with compressed air and ignited, resulting in the release of energy. The combustion process generates high temperatures and pressure, which then expand and propel the exhaust gases out of the engine, creating thrust. The other options listed, turbine, diffuser, and compressor, are different sections of a jet engine that perform different functions, such as compressing air, diffusing airflow, and extracting energy from the exhaust gases.Rate this question:
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- 5.
On an F100-PW–220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts?
- A.
Oil relief valve
- B.
Filter poppet valve
- C.
Oil pressure transmitter tap
- D.
Filter assembly bypass valve
Correct Answer
D. Filter assembly bypass valveExplanation
The filter assembly bypass valve is the component that permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts. This valve allows oil to flow directly to the engine without passing through the filter, which helps to prevent clogging and ensures that sufficient lubrication is provided to the engine during startup in cold temperatures.Rate this question:
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- 6.
How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS)?
- A.
24
- B.
36
- C.
48
- D.
60
Correct Answer
C. 48Explanation
The correct answer is 48. Airman Leadership School (ALS) is a professional military education program for enlisted members of the United States Air Force. In order to attend ALS, one must have at least 48 months of service in the Air Force. This requirement ensures that individuals attending ALS have a sufficient amount of experience and knowledge to benefit from the leadership training provided in the program.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?
- A.
Wear metals
- B.
Friction metals
- C.
Precious metals
- D.
Transformation metals
Correct Answer
A. Wear metalsExplanation
Wear metals are microscopic metallic particles that are found in the oil system. These particles are generated due to the friction and wear of metal components in the system. Over time, as the oil circulates through the system, it picks up these wear metals, which can be indicators of potential mechanical issues or abnormalities in the system. Therefore, the correct answer is wear metals.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which method of producing thrust does a turboprop engine use?
- A.
Using only the energy expended through the exhaust nozzle to propel the aircraft forward
- B.
Using the same working fluid for propulsive force as that used within the engine
- C.
Accelerating a large mass of air through a small velocity change
- D.
Moving a small quantity of air through a large velocity change
Correct Answer
C. Accelerating a large mass of air through a small velocity changeExplanation
A turboprop engine uses the method of accelerating a large mass of air through a small velocity change to produce thrust. This is achieved by passing the air through a turbine, which is connected to a propeller. The turbine extracts energy from the hot exhaust gases and uses it to drive the propeller, which in turn accelerates a large mass of air behind it. This accelerated air creates a forward thrust, propelling the aircraft forward.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Under what condition would you not receive an OAP laboratory sample report?
- A.
The sample is the first taken after an oil change
- B.
The aircraft is on TDY
- C.
It was a special oil sample
- D.
The results are normal
Correct Answer
D. The results are normalExplanation
If the results of the laboratory sample are normal, it means that there are no abnormalities or issues found in the sample. In such a case, there would be no need to receive a report as everything is within the expected range. The report is typically provided to highlight any potential problems or abnormalities in the sample, but if the results are normal, there is no need for further action or analysis.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publication series
- A.
91
- B.
66
- C.
127
- D.
161
Correct Answer
A. 91Explanation
The correct answer is 91. Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publication series 91. This series specifically focuses on safety and health regulations and guidelines within the Air Force. It contains information and standards that are necessary for maintaining a safe and healthy working environment for Air Force personnel.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which unit of an AC ignition system develops 20,000 volts?
- A.
Inverter
- B.
Capacitor
- C.
Generator
- D.
Transformer
Correct Answer
D. TransformerExplanation
A transformer is a device that can increase or decrease the voltage of an electrical current. In an AC ignition system, the transformer is responsible for stepping up the voltage from the battery to a much higher level, typically around 20,000 volts. This high voltage is necessary to create a spark in the spark plugs, which ignites the fuel-air mixture in the engine. Therefore, the transformer is the unit of an AC ignition system that develops 20,000 volts.Rate this question:
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- 12.
On an average, what percent of all the energy produced by the fuel is required to maintain the engine operating cycle?
- A.
50
- B.
60
- C.
70
- D.
80
Correct Answer
B. 60Explanation
The correct answer is 60, which means that on average, 60% of all the energy produced by the fuel is required to maintain the engine operating cycle. This suggests that a significant portion of the energy generated by the fuel is used to keep the engine running smoothly and efficiently. This could include powering various components of the engine, such as the pistons, valves, and fuel injection system, as well as overcoming friction and other mechanical losses.Rate this question:
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- 13.
How many independent circuits are within an F100-PW–100 engine ignition system?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Five
Correct Answer
C. ThreeExplanation
The F100-PW-100 engine ignition system consists of three independent circuits. This means that there are three separate and distinct pathways through which the electrical current flows to ignite the engine. Each circuit operates independently, providing redundancy and ensuring that the engine can still be ignited even if one or two circuits fail. Having multiple circuits increases the reliability and safety of the ignition system.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Vane-type fuel pumps used in jet engines are similar to
- A.
Sliding-vane air compressors
- B.
Piston pump air compressors
- C.
Roots air compressors
- D.
Turbo-superchargers
Correct Answer
A. Sliding-vane air compressorsExplanation
Vane-type fuel pumps used in jet engines are similar to sliding-vane air compressors. Both types of pumps use a rotating vane or blade mechanism to create a seal and move fluid or air. In the case of fuel pumps, the vanes rotate within a cylindrical chamber, drawing in fuel and then pushing it out under pressure. Similarly, sliding-vane air compressors use vanes that slide in and out of slots in a rotor, creating compression and pushing air out. Both types of pumps rely on the same basic principle of vane movement to achieve their respective functions.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What component monitors the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate?
- A.
Full Authority Digital Electronic Control (FADEC)
- B.
Gearbox Mounted Accessory Drive (GMAD)
- C.
Power Unit Accessor Drive (PUAD)
- D.
Nacelle Interface Unit (NIU)
Correct Answer
D. Nacelle Interface Unit (NIU)Explanation
The Nacelle Interface Unit (NIU) is responsible for monitoring the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate. The NIU is a component that interfaces with the engine's ignition system and controls the spark rate to ensure optimal engine performance. It receives input from various sensors and adjusts the spark rate accordingly. The other options, FADEC, GMAD, and PUAD, are not directly related to monitoring the ignition exciters spark rate.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?
- A.
Safety
- B.
Hospital
- C.
Supervisor
- D.
Environmental
Correct Answer
C. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in charge of ensuring that employees are properly trained and equipped to protect themselves from potential hazards in the workplace. This includes teaching them how to correctly wear and use the personal protective equipment, as well as how to maintain and care for it to ensure its effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which type of combustion chamber does the JFS use?
- A.
Can
- B.
Annular
- C.
Can-annular
- D.
Restricted flow
Correct Answer
B. AnnularExplanation
The JFS (Jet Fuel Starter) uses an annular combustion chamber. An annular combustion chamber is a type of combustion chamber where the fuel and air mixture is ignited in a ring-shaped chamber. This design allows for efficient combustion and is commonly used in gas turbine engines.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Fuel that accumulates after a failed start is
- A.
Returned to the fuel control by tubes
- B.
Drained overboard by a drain system
- C.
Burned on the next start attempt
- D.
Allowed to evaporate
Correct Answer
B. Drained overboard by a drain systemExplanation
After a failed start, the fuel that accumulates is drained overboard by a drain system. This is done to prevent the fuel from causing any damage or contamination to the fuel control system. By draining the fuel overboard, it ensures that any excess or contaminated fuel is safely removed from the system, allowing for a clean start on the next attempt.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Discharge air used for aircraft engine anti-icing to heat-critical areas is taken from which engine area?
- A.
Compressor
- B.
Combustion
- C.
Augmentor
- D.
Turbine
Correct Answer
A. CompressorExplanation
The discharge air used for aircraft engine anti-icing is taken from the compressor. The compressor is responsible for compressing the incoming air before it enters the combustion chamber. This compressed air is then used for various purposes, including anti-icing. By taking the discharge air from the compressor, it ensures that the air is at a high enough temperature to effectively prevent ice formation on critical areas of the engine.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?
- A.
Priority Monitor Report (D18)
- B.
Daily Document Register (D04)
- C.
Due-out Validation Listing (M30)
- D.
Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23)
Correct Answer
B. Daily Document Register (D04)Explanation
The Daily Document Register (D04) is the supply document that provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). This register allows organizations to keep track of all documents processed and ensures that no document numbers are missed or overlooked. It is an important tool for maintaining accurate and up-to-date records of supply transactions.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which characteristic is the most common cause of bearing failure?
- A.
Transient vibration
- B.
Partial loss of lubrication
- C.
Complete loss of lubrication
- D.
Stall condition over temperature
Correct Answer
C. Complete loss of lubricationExplanation
Complete loss of lubrication is the most common cause of bearing failure. Bearings rely on lubrication to reduce friction and prevent wear and overheating. When lubrication is completely lost, the metal surfaces of the bearing come into direct contact, leading to increased friction and heat generation. This can result in rapid wear, increased noise, and ultimately bearing failure. It is important to ensure proper lubrication of bearings to prevent this common cause of failure.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What law does the C-D supersonic inlet use to slow down the airflow?
- A.
Ohm’s law
- B.
Bernoulli’s law
- C.
Newton’s first law
- D.
Newton’s third law
Correct Answer
B. Bernoulli’s lawExplanation
The C-D supersonic inlet uses Bernoulli's law to slow down the airflow. According to Bernoulli's principle, as the velocity of a fluid increases, its pressure decreases. The supersonic inlet utilizes this principle by gradually decelerating the high-speed airflow entering the inlet, which in turn reduces its pressure. This allows the airflow to be efficiently compressed and slowed down before entering the engine, ensuring optimal performance and preventing damage to the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The purpose of the exhaust duct is to
- A.
Swirl exhaust gas-flow
- B.
Equalize exhaust gas-flow
- C.
Straighten exhaust gas-flow
- D.
Modulate exhaust gas-flow
Correct Answer
C. Straighten exhaust gas-flowExplanation
The purpose of the exhaust duct is to straighten the exhaust gas-flow. This means that the duct is designed to remove any turbulence or swirling motion in the exhaust gases, allowing them to flow in a straight and consistent manner. By straightening the exhaust gas-flow, the duct helps to improve the efficiency of the exhaust system and reduce any potential back pressure, ensuring that the gases are expelled smoothly and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 24.
An F110-GE–129 engine contains how many stages of VSV?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
5
- D.
7
Correct Answer
B. 3Explanation
The F110-GE-129 engine contains three stages of VSV.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The “fir tree” method of attaching turbine blades (buckets) to the turbine rotor disc is preferred because
- A.
Of the temperature differential between the turbine rotor disc and the blades
- B.
It aids in preventing horizontal movement of the blades
- C.
There is more blade tip shake during engine operation
- D.
It aids in preventing axial movement of the bucket
Correct Answer
A. Of the temperature differential between the turbine rotor disc and the bladesExplanation
The "fir tree" method of attaching turbine blades to the turbine rotor disc is preferred because of the temperature differential between the turbine rotor disc and the blades. This method allows for the differential expansion and contraction of the blades and the disc due to the difference in temperature during engine operation. This helps to prevent any stress or damage that could occur from the mismatch in thermal expansion between the blades and the disc.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How many linear hydraulic actuators are used to deploy and stow the fan thrust on the F117-PW–100 engine?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
6
Correct Answer
C. 4Explanation
The F117-PW-100 engine uses four linear hydraulic actuators to deploy and stow the fan thrust.Rate this question:
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- 27.
How many different types of loads can be imposed on a jet engine bearing?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
B. 3Explanation
There are three different types of loads that can be imposed on a jet engine bearing.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The F100 engine augmentor’s primary nozzle actuator is driven by cables from the
- A.
T5 amplifier
- B.
Unified control
- C.
Afterburner fuel control
- D.
Convergent exhaust nozzle control
Correct Answer
D. Convergent exhaust nozzle controlExplanation
The F100 engine augmentor's primary nozzle actuator is driven by the convergent exhaust nozzle control. This control system is responsible for adjusting the position of the exhaust nozzle, which in turn affects the flow of exhaust gases and the engine's thrust. By manipulating the position of the nozzle, the convergent exhaust nozzle control can optimize the engine's performance at different operating conditions, such as during takeoff, cruise, or afterburner operation.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Serviceable items, when received from supply and ready to use, each have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form
- A.
1574
- B.
1575
- C.
1577-2
- D.
1577-3
Correct Answer
A. 1574Explanation
The correct answer is 1574 because it is stated in the question that serviceable items, when received from supply and ready to use, each have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form. Therefore, the attached form for these items would be DD Form 1574.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Compressor section failure from a chain reaction due to blade-to-blade and blade-to-vane interference is known as
- A.
Circumferential force
- B.
Centrifugal force
- C.
Centripetal force
- D.
Centrifuge force
Correct Answer
A. Circumferential forceExplanation
The correct answer is circumferential force. In a compressor section, blade-to-blade and blade-to-vane interference can cause a chain reaction leading to a failure. This interference generates a force that acts in the circumferential direction, parallel to the circumference of the compressor. This force, known as circumferential force, can cause damage to the blades and vanes, leading to a failure in the compressor section.Rate this question:
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- 31.
On the 54H60–117 propeller, which component delivers the actual propeller blade angle from the blade to the control assembly?
- A.
Microadjusting ring
- B.
Beta feedback shaft
- C.
Blade segment gear
- D.
Blade bushing
Correct Answer
B. Beta feedback shaftExplanation
The beta feedback shaft delivers the actual propeller blade angle from the blade to the control assembly. This component is responsible for transmitting the position of the blade to the control system, allowing for precise control and adjustment of the propeller blade angle. It plays a crucial role in ensuring efficient and accurate operation of the propeller system.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The reduction gearbox on an F100–PW–220 engine reduces speed between the main fuel gear pump and the engine-driven main gearbox by
- A.
45%
- B.
33%
- C.
46%
- D.
52%
Correct Answer
D. 52%Explanation
The reduction gearbox on an F100-PW-220 engine reduces speed between the main fuel gear pump and the engine-driven main gearbox by 52%.Rate this question:
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- 33.
On the 54H60–117 propeller, which dome assembly part allows the rotating cam to turn while the stationary cam remains in a fixed position?
- A.
Roller shaft
- B.
Track slopes
- C.
Ball bearings
- D.
Roller bearings
Correct Answer
C. Ball bearingsExplanation
Ball bearings are the dome assembly part that allows the rotating cam to turn while the stationary cam remains fixed. Ball bearings consist of small metal balls that reduce friction and allow smooth rotation between two surfaces. In this case, the ball bearings enable the rotating cam to spin freely while the stationary cam remains in place, ensuring proper functioning of the propeller mechanism.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which type of items must be reflected on the Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL)?
- A.
Shelf-life
- B.
Bench stock
- C.
Hazardous materials
- D.
Equipment authorization inventory data
Correct Answer
D. Equipment authorization inventory dataExplanation
The Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL) is a document that lists the inventory of equipment authorized for custody. It is used to track and manage equipment within an organization. Therefore, it is necessary for the CA/CRL to reflect the equipment authorization inventory data to ensure accurate tracking and accountability of the equipment. Shelf-life, bench stock, and hazardous materials are not relevant to the CA/CRL as they do not pertain to equipment authorization.Rate this question:
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- 35.
On the 54H60–117 propeller, which pump(s) is/are used during propeller static operation?
- A.
Main pressure
- B.
Main scavenge
- C.
Standby pressure and main scavenge
- D.
Auxiliary pressure and auxiliary scavenge
Correct Answer
D. Auxiliary pressure and auxiliary scavengeExplanation
During propeller static operation, the auxiliary pressure pump and the auxiliary scavenge pump are used. The auxiliary pressure pump provides pressure to the propeller system, while the auxiliary scavenge pump removes oil from the propeller system. These pumps work together to ensure proper operation and maintenance of the propeller during static operation.Rate this question:
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- 36.
On the T56 turboprop engine, there are mounting pads on the aft side of the accessory drive for the fuel control, fuel pump, and
- A.
Speed-sensitive valve
- B.
Engine main oil pump
- C.
Speed-sensitive control
- D.
External scavenge oil pump
Correct Answer
D. External scavenge oil pumpExplanation
The T56 turboprop engine has mounting pads on the aft side of the accessory drive for various components including the fuel control, fuel pump, and speed-sensitive valve. In addition to these components, there is also an external scavenge oil pump that is mounted on these pads. This pump is responsible for removing excess oil from the engine and ensuring proper lubrication.Rate this question:
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- 37.
On the 54H60–117 propeller, which valve connects the main, standby, and auxiliary pressure pumps’ output to the increase pitch lines during negative torque conditions?
- A.
High pressure relief
- B.
Feather actuating
- C.
Feather
- D.
Pilot
Correct Answer
C. FeatherExplanation
The correct answer is Feather. On the 54H60-117 propeller, the feather valve is responsible for connecting the main, standby, and auxiliary pressure pumps' output to the increase pitch lines during negative torque conditions. This allows the propeller blades to be feathered, which means they are rotated parallel to the airflow to minimize drag and prevent windmilling when the engine is not producing power.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A cold compressor stall that occurs at low revolutions per minute (rpm) and is accompanied by a slight over temperature is called
- A.
An incipient
- B.
A thermal
- C.
A partial
- D.
A mild
Correct Answer
A. An incipientExplanation
An incipient cold compressor stall refers to a stall that occurs at low rpm and is accompanied by a slight over temperature. It is considered "incipient" because it is in the early stages and has not fully developed into a complete stall. This type of stall is characterized by a decrease in airflow and disruption in the compressor's ability to compress air efficiently. The slight over temperature indicates that there is some heat buildup in the system, but it is not severe.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?
- A.
00-5-2
- B.
00-5-1
- C.
00-20-1
- D.
00-20-2
Correct Answer
B. 00-5-1Explanation
The correct answer is 00-5-1 because it is the technical order (TO) that describes the Air Force TO system. The other options, 00-5-2, 00-20-1, and 00-20-2, do not pertain to the Air Force TO system.Rate this question:
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- 40.
On the 54H60–117 propeller, when the backup valve is opened, the hydraulic pressure routed to the governor pilot valve is used for which operation?
- A.
Pitchlock
- B.
Standby
- C.
Reverse
- D.
Airstart
Correct Answer
C. ReverseExplanation
When the backup valve is opened on the 54H60-117 propeller, the hydraulic pressure routed to the governor pilot valve is used for the reverse operation. This means that the propeller can be reversed, allowing the aircraft to slow down or stop more quickly.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Torque is transferred from the power unit to the safety coupling on the reduction gearbox (RGB) by the
- A.
Torque shaft
- B.
Reference shaft
- C.
Torquemeter housing
- D.
Compressor extension shaft
Correct Answer
A. Torque shaftExplanation
The torque is transferred from the power unit to the safety coupling on the reduction gearbox (RGB) through the torque shaft. The torque shaft is designed to transmit rotational force or torque between two components. In this case, it connects the power unit to the safety coupling, allowing the transfer of torque from one to the other.Rate this question:
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- 42.
On the 54H60–117 propeller, which type of valve opens to allow the output of the standby pump to combine with the output of the main pump?
- A.
Check
- B.
Bypass
- C.
Low pressure relief
- D.
High pressure relief
Correct Answer
A. CheckExplanation
The correct answer is "Check." In the context of the 54H60-117 propeller, a check valve opens to allow the output of the standby pump to combine with the output of the main pump. A check valve is a one-way valve that allows fluid to flow in only one direction, preventing backflow. In this case, it allows the output of the standby pump to flow into the system when needed, while preventing any reverse flow from the system back into the standby pump.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category has alternately spaced red diagonals and Xs and red diagonals bordering the first page?
- A.
Safety
- B.
Urgent action
- C.
Routine action
- D.
Immediate action
Correct Answer
A. SafetyExplanation
The correct answer is Safety. This is because the presence of alternately spaced red diagonals and Xs, as well as red diagonals bordering the first page, indicates that the TCTO falls under the safety category. This category is typically used for technical orders that address safety concerns and require immediate attention to prevent accidents or injuries.Rate this question:
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- 44.
On the 54H60–117 propeller, what forces the stop levers on the low pitch stop to move outward?
- A.
Hydraulic pressure
- B.
Movable wedge
- C.
Dome piston
- D.
Servo valve
Correct Answer
B. Movable wedgeExplanation
The movable wedge forces the stop levers on the low pitch stop to move outward.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The purpose of the turbine section is to convert
- A.
Energy into torque
- B.
Kinetic energy into airflow
- C.
Airflow into potential energy
- D.
Torque into mechanical energy
Correct Answer
A. Energy into torqueExplanation
The purpose of the turbine section is to convert energy into torque. Turbines are designed to extract energy from a fluid, such as steam or gas, and convert it into rotational motion. This rotational motion is known as torque, which can then be used to drive various mechanical devices or generate electricity. By converting energy into torque, turbines play a crucial role in various industries, including power generation, aviation, and manufacturing.Rate this question:
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- 46.
During what inspection phase are operational checks made according to the technical order (TO)?
- A.
Fix
- B.
Look
- C.
Pre-inspection
- D.
Post-inspection
Correct Answer
D. Post-inspectionExplanation
Operational checks are made after the inspection phase, as stated in the technical order (TO). This implies that the inspection has already been completed and the equipment or system is now being tested for its operational functionality. Therefore, the correct answer is "Post-inspection."Rate this question:
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- 47.
Constant speed can only occur when the throttle is positioned from
- A.
RVS to FLT IDLE
- B.
RVS to GND IDLE
- C.
GND IDLE to FLT IDLE
- D.
FLT IDLE to TAKE OFF
Correct Answer
D. FLT IDLE to TAKE OFFExplanation
Constant speed can only occur when the throttle is positioned from FLT IDLE to TAKE OFF because these positions correspond to the throttle being set at a specific level that maintains a steady engine speed. The other options mentioned do not necessarily indicate a constant speed, as they may refer to different throttle positions that do not guarantee a steady engine speed.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The primary goal of the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by
- A.
Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports
- B.
Tracking serially controlled components and modules
- C.
Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures
- D.
Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions
Correct Answer
C. Early detection of performance degradation and/or failuresExplanation
The primary goal of the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program is to detect any decline in performance or potential failures in turbine engines at an early stage. This allows for timely intervention and preventive measures to prevent or limit damage to the engines. By reviewing past engine accident investigation reports, tracking serially controlled components and modules, and documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions, the program can gather valuable data and insights to identify any signs of performance degradation or failures. This proactive approach helps ensure the safety and reliability of turbine engines.Rate this question:
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- 49.
In the beta range of the 54H60–117 propeller, which cam increases the speeder spring tension?
- A.
Beta set
- B.
Speed set
- C.
Backup valve
- D.
Beta follow-up
Correct Answer
B. Speed setExplanation
The correct answer is "Speed set." In the beta range of the 54H60-117 propeller, the speed set cam increases the tension of the speeder spring. This cam is responsible for controlling the pitch of the propeller blades, allowing for adjustments in speed. By increasing the tension of the speeder spring, the speed set cam can effectively control the pitch and ultimately increase the speed of the propeller.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The T700 engine has a modular concept that allows for the replacement of entire
- A.
Motors
- B.
Systems
- C.
Subsystems
- D.
Components
Correct Answer
C. SubsystemsExplanation
The T700 engine's modular concept enables the replacement of entire subsystems. This means that instead of having to replace individual components or systems, the engine allows for the replacement of larger units that consist of multiple components working together. This modular approach simplifies maintenance and repair processes, as well as reduces downtime and costs associated with replacing smaller parts.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Nov 01, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 26, 2013Quiz Created by
Jkc135r
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