2a651 CDC All Volume Random Self Test Questions
Cancel
-
+
2A651 All Volume Random Self Test Questions
- 1.What is the common term for repair cycle assets?
- A.
DIFM PARTS
- B.
MICAP PARTS
- C.
CYCLE ASSETS
- D.
CANN PARTS
- 2.What two factors determine the priority for an off base requisition?
- A.
LBS AND DAY
- B.
UJC AND NAD
- C.
FCU AND GCI
- D.
FAD AND UJC
- 3.Where can you find a block by block explanation of how to document the afto form 350 tag?
- A.
00-5-1
- B.
00-5-2
- C.
00-20-1
- D.
00-20-2
- 4.Who provides you with the required equipment manager training?
- A.
Equipment Management element at Base Training
- B.
Base supply liason
- C.
Equipment Management element at Base Supply
- D.
Unit Base Manager
- 5.EAID items that require formal supply accountability must be reflected on what listing?
- A.
CA/CRL
- B.
CA/CLR
- C.
CA/DVE
- D.
PA/STK
- 6.Where can you look to find information concerning how to use the condition tags and the required entries for each?
- A.
TO 00-5-1
- B.
TO 00-5-2
- C.
TO 00-20-3
- D.
TO 00-20-2
- 7.Which forms should you submit if it's determined that a first time request part will become a recurring one and therefore, the stock level needs to be adjusted?
- A.
AF IMT 2005
- B.
AF IMT 2001
- C.
AF IMT 1998
- D.
AF IMT 1996
- 8.If a TO change contains new material that cannot be included on an existing page, how are added pages assigned?
- A.
2-2-1 or 2-2A
- B.
2-6-1 or 2-3A
- C.
2-2-1 or 22B
- D.
2-1-1 or 2-4c
- 9.Which type of washer is used on grooved shafts?
- A.
Plain type washer
- B.
Castlelated type washer
- C.
Tapered type washer
- D.
Tab type washer
- 10.Which screw is made from high tensile material?
- A.
Shear head screw
- B.
Tapered screw
- C.
Structural screw
- D.
Machine screw
- 11.Which type of nut requires an auxilary locking washer?
- A.
Lock nut
- B.
Plain nut
- C.
Castle nut
- D.
Plain washer
- 12.Where is the diameter fo a bolt measured?
- A.
On the head
- B.
On the threads
- C.
On the shank
- D.
On the grip
- 13.Which control switch is used to take measurements in a circuit thats difficult to reach?
- A.
Funciton selector
- B.
Hold
- C.
Button push selector
- D.
Hold pushbutton
- 14.On dial indicators with two indicators within one dial face, what does the smaller indicator measure?
- A.
Ten-thousands of an inch
- B.
One-hundred thousant of an inch
- C.
Revolutions
- D.
Centimeters
- 15.Which part of the micrometer has graduations that represent tenths of an inch?
- A.
The barrel
- B.
The thimble
- C.
The pivot lever
- D.
The micro handler
- 16.What are the height ranges of each of the five maintenance platforms?
- A.
C-4, 4 FEET, B-2, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-4, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12
- B.
C-1, 4 FEET, B-4, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-2, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-6, 7 TO 12
- C.
C-4, 4 FEET, B-2, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-4, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12
- D.
C-1, 4 FEET, B-1, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-2, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-4, 3 TO 7 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12
- 17.What TO gives the procedure for cleaning a jet engine?
- A.
2J-1-19
- B.
2J-1-15
- C.
2J-1-13
- D.
2J-1-16
- 18.Which manual covers reporting an engine that was improperly shipped?
- A.
AFJMAN 24-404
- B.
AFJMAN 24-204
- C.
AFJMAN 24-203
- D.
AFJMAN 24-208
- 19.What type of cover is opened by using a zipper?
- A.
Cotton wall frabricator
- B.
Cover
- C.
Prefabricated cover
- D.
Loose fitting flexible cover
- 20.Which turbine drives the front compressor on a dual spool engine?
- A.
The front turbine
- B.
The mid turbine
- C.
The center turbine
- D.
The rear turbine
- 21.After the gases leave the turbine section and enter the exhaust section, what type of velocity do they have?
- A.
Centrifugal
- B.
Axial
- C.
Divergent
- D.
Convergent
- 22.Where is the point of highest airflow velocity in a jet engine?
- A.
Turbine
- B.
Compressor
- C.
Exhaust
- D.
Ejector nozzle
- 23.Approximately what percent of the energy produced by the fuel is needed to maintain the jet engine operating cycle?
- A.
80
- B.
100
- C.
90
- D.
60
- 24.When a jet engine reaches idle speed, what determines how the fuel control regulates engine speed?
- A.
Turbine inlet temp
- B.
Compressor temp
- C.
Pt 7 and pt 2
- D.
Power lever setting
- 25.Where is the point of highest pressure within a jet engine?
- A.
Turbine section
- B.
Compressor section
- C.
Diffuser section
- D.
Exhaust section
- 26.What two factors determine what proportion of the engergy of a fuel is actually used to propel an aircraft forward?
- A.
Thermal and aircraft effeciency
- B.
Thermal and propulsion efficiency
- C.
Thermal and propulsive efficeincy
- D.
Thermal and conductive efficiency
- 27.Which bearing discrepancy is caused by heavy shock loads or impact?
- A.
Brinelling
- B.
Pitting
- C.
Grooving
- D.
True Brinelling
- 28.Which bearing descrepancy occurs from continuous thrust loading during bearing rotation?
- A.
Grooves
- B.
Bands
- C.
Brinelling
- D.
Pitting
- 29.Which bearing discrepancy is the result of continued shaft oscillation?
- A.
True brinelling
- B.
False brinelling
- C.
Impitent brinelling
- D.
Axial brinelling
- 30.An augmentor is classified as what type of an engine?
- A.
Ramrod engine
- B.
Rampiston engine
- C.
Ramjet engine
- D.
Jetram engine
- 31.What is the approximate air to fuel ratio that is used for the actual burning process in a combustion chamber?
- A.
20:1
- B.
10:1
- C.
15:1
- D.
18:1
- 32.What achieves diffusion in axial flow compressor engine?
- A.
Divergent shape of the casing aft of the compressor guide vanes
- B.
Convergent shape of the casing aft of the compressor guide vanes
- C.
Laterall shape of the casing aft of the compressor guide vanes
- D.
Axial shape of the casing aft of the compressor guide vanes
- 33.What is the purpose of the air chamber in axial flow compressor engines?
- A.
To bleed air from the N1 Low pressure compressor
- B.
To bleed air from the PT7 Medium pressure compressor
- C.
To bleed air from the N2 High pressure compressor
- D.
To bleed air from the N4 High pressure compressor
- 34.Which type of compressor is more durable, the axial flow or the centrifugal?
- A.
Axial flow
- B.
Centrifugal
- C.
Front
- D.
Rear
- 35.How many shafs comprise the compressor/turbine shaft assembly?
- A.
3
- B.
5
- C.
7
- D.
9
- 36.What is the purpose of the inducer rotor?
- A.
To pick up the air smoothly and feed it into the impeller
- B.
To pick up the air vigurously and feed it into the compressor
- C.
To pick up the air smoothly and feed it into the turbine
- D.
To pick up the air smoothly and feed it into the diffuser
- 37.Which type of air compressor consists of a two port casing that houses a blower mechanism?
- A.
Turbine compressor
- B.
Diffuser compressor
- C.
Compressor
- D.
Roots compressor
- 38.Which type of air compressor is the most ineffeceint type of air compressor?
- A.
Turbine compressor
- B.
Roots compressor
- C.
Gear compressor
- D.
Diffuser compressor
- 39.Which type of air compressor is commonly used on the flight line?
- A.
Gear compressor
- B.
Piston pump compressor
- C.
Gearotor compressor
- D.
Root compressor
- 40.At what range temperature does the AE2100D3 engine fuel temp switch operate?
- A.
Less than 50 degrees F
- B.
Less than 34 degrees F
- C.
More than 32 degrees F
- D.
Less than 32 degrees F
- 41.How many fuel nozzles are installed on the AE2100D3 engine diffuser?
- A.
16
- B.
8
- C.
12
- D.
21
- 42.What component maintains a constant drop of 70 psid to the metering valve and returns excess fuel flow to the inlet side of the high pressure pump on the AE21OOD3?
- A.
Pressure drop and spill valve
- B.
Spill valve and de-pressure
- C.
Pressure increase and spill valve
- D.
Both A and B
- 43.On the AE21OOD3 engine, at what psid is the fuel flow relief valve in the high pressure pump fully opened?
- A.
850
- B.
100
- C.
340
- D.
750
- 44.What component on the F108 engine establishes the schedule for positioning the VBV's?
- A.
MFC
- B.
AFC
- C.
RGB
- D.
MEC
- 45.On the F108 engine, what parameters determine the position of the VSV's?
- A.
N2 AND BIT
- B.
N1 AND CIT
- C.
N2 AND CIT
- D.
N1 AND TIT
- 46.What type of pump is on the F108 engine fuel pump high pressure stage?
- A.
Positive displacement gear type
- B.
Negative displacement gear type
- C.
Axial displacement gear type
- D.
Centrifugal displacement gear type
- 47.Which three units can the CEDS replace at the organizational level and at the test cell?
- A.
DCU, GSU, EAU
- B.
DCA, GSA, EDU
- C.
DCU, GSU, EDU
- D.
DCU, GSCU, EAU
- 48.What parts of the propeller assembly form the feather stop?
- A.
Front face of the piston, rear face of the hub, and an adjustment washer
- B.
Rear face of the piston, front face of the hub, and an adjustment washer
- C.
Axial face of the piston, front face of the hub, and an adjustment washer
- D.
Mid face of the piston, front face of the hub, and an adjustment washer
- 49.How is piston and shaft movement translated to vary propeller blade angle?
- A.
Through the operating pin
- B.
Through the major pin
- C.
Through the pinion input gear pin
- D.
Through the operating shaft
- 50.What provides ice protection on the leading edge of each propeller blade?
- A.
Anti ice boots
- B.
Deicing plate
- C.
Energized deicer valve
- D.
Deicing boots
- 51.What is the most successful type of thrust reverser?
- A.
Aerodynamic blockage
- B.
Mechanical blockage
- C.
Reverse thrust
- D.
Thrust reversal system
- 52.The thrust reverser control valve controls hydraulic power for actuating what components?
- A.
The fan and diffuser thrust reversers
- B.
The fan and core thrust reversers
- C.
The fan and exhaust thrust reversers
- D.
The fan reversers
- 53.The operation of the control valve is in what three functional modes?
- A.
Stowed and locked, deploying, and preventing
- B.
Stowed and locked, deploying, and actuating
- C.
Stowed and locked, deploying, and stowing
- D.
Stowed and locked, deploying, and locking
- 54.The C-17 has how many fan blocker doors?
- A.
4
- B.
16
- C.
10
- D.
12
- 55.The C-17 has how many core blocker doors?
- A.
7
- B.
16
- C.
12
- D.
8
- 56.The C-17 has how many 95 percent proximity sensors?
- A.
4
- B.
7
- C.
16
- D.
2
- 57.Which part of the augmentor reduces the velocity of the gases so that the flame stability is maintained during augmentor operation?
- A.
Sprayrings
- B.
Exhaust Nozzle
- C.
Flameholder
- D.
Exhaust Liner
- 58.Name the four types of variable nozzle systems?
- A.
Deve, Convergent divergent, Vectoring
- B.
Flap, Iris, Convergent divergent, Vectoring
- C.
Flap, Iris, Convergent divergent
- D.
Axial, Iris, Convergent divergent, Vector
- 59.What is used to operate the flaps in the flap type nozzle system?
- A.
Air pressure acting on a series of pistons
- B.
Spring pressure acting on a series of pistons
- C.
Oil pressure acting on a series of pistons
- D.
Fuel pressure acting on a series of pistons
- 60.How many positioins does a typical iris type nozzle system have?
- A.
4
- B.
6
- C.
10
- D.
2
- 61.The divergent exhaust nozzle is what kind of system?
- A.
Free floating
- B.
Floating
- C.
Spring pressure
- D.
Free formed
- 62.The divergent nozzle segments are free floating, permitting what types of operations?
- A.
Subsonic and Ultrasonic
- B.
Ultrasonic and supersonic
- C.
Supersonic and Hyper speed
- D.
Subsonic and supersonic
- 63.What component is supported inside the augmentor liner?
- A.
Liner Duct
- B.
Mixing Duct
- C.
Re-mixing Liner
- D.
Mixing Liner
- 64.What component spreads the flame to the radial gutters of the flameholder?
- A.
Rear gutter ring
- B.
Mid gutter radial
- C.
Mid gutter ring
- D.
Front gutter ring
- 65.Compressor bleed air is extracted from what stator exit stage for anti icing?
- A.
5th
- B.
9th
- C.
14th
- D.
13th
- 66.Air is ducted into the fan flow path through how many exit slots?
- A.
12
- B.
9
- C.
8
- D.
13
- 67.Which type of duct design does a high bypass engine usually have?
- A.
Long
- B.
Short
- C.
Wide
- D.
Short-Long
- 68.What two types of stress act on the turbine rotor blades?
- A.
Axial and rotational forces
- B.
Heat and rotational forces
- C.
Heat and centrifugal forces
- D.
Heat and axial forces
- 69.The flexible feedback cables for the VBV's and VSV's transmit signals to what components?
- A.
MFC
- B.
RGB
- C.
MEC
- D.
RCVV
- 70.Below 45 percent corrected core engine speed, in what position are the VSV's?
- A.
Energized open
- B.
Partially closed
- C.
Fully open
- D.
Fully closed
- 71.What does the CVG system move and control?
- A.
Compressor IGV and the first five rows of compressor stator vanes
- B.
Compressor IGV and the first six rows of compressor stator vanes
- C.
Compressor IGV and the first four rows of compressor stator vanes
- D.
Compressor IGV and the first seven rows of compressor stator vanes
- 72.In what position are the compressor air bleed valves after start and during normal engine operation?
- A.
Open
- B.
Linear
- C.
Bled
- D.
Closed
- 73.
- A.
To the aft anti icing tube at the diffuser housing
- B.
To the fwd anti icing tube at the diffuser housing
- C.
To the rear anti icing tube at the diffuser housing
- D.
To the aft anti icing tube at the compressor housing
- 74.How is the CVG actuator controlled?
- A.
By High pressure fuel from the PMFR
- B.
By High pressure fuel from the P&D
- C.
By low pressure fuel from the MEC
- D.
By High pressure fuel from the FPMU
- 75.What tools can you use if you are required to repeen an area of the blade?
- A.
Power driven aluminium blade peener or a peening hammer
- B.
Blade checking indicator
- C.
Re peening sledge hammer
- D.
Dremel and mallet
- 76.In what position is the rotating loop in a generator when no voltage is being produced?
- A.
Vertical
- B.
Horizontal
- C.
Laterall
- D.
Fixed
- 77.What unit senses variation from the desired CSD output speed?
- A.
Boost pump
- B.
Alternator stator
- C.
Basic speed governor
- D.
Speed governor
- 78.When the thermocouples in an EGT system are hooked up in parallel, what type of circuit is this?
- A.
Averaging
- B.
Direct
- C.
Alternate
- D.
Fixed
- 79.How many volts does the AC ignition system deliver to the igniter plug?
- A.
30,000
- B.
45,000
- C.
20,000
- D.
90,000
- 80.What funciton does the vibrator unit in the DC ignition system perform?
- A.
It changes direct current to alternate current
- B.
It changes direct current to pulsating current
- C.
It change alternate current to direct current
- D.
It changes alternate current to pulsating current
- 81.Which high energy capacitor ignition part smoothes out the pulsations in the current?
- A.
Pulsating vibrator
- B.
Direct rectifier
- C.
Gas filled rectifier
- D.
Capacitor
- 82.At what percent engine RPM does the T56 speed sensitive control engergize the ignition relay?
- A.
18% 2,200
- B.
16% 2,200
- C.
19% 2,200
- D.
21%
- 83.At what percent engine RPM does the T56 speed sensitive control de-energize the ignition exciter?
- A.
65%
- B.
75%
- C.
45%
- D.
30%
- 84.What is the discharge rate for the main core igniter plug on a F100 engine?
- A.
1 to 5 sparks per second
- B.
2 to 5 sparks per second
- C.
3 to 5 sparks per second
- D.
4 to 5 sparks per second
- 85.What is the rate of spark in an AE2100d3?
- A.
5 to 10 sparks each second
- B.
3 to 5 sparks each second
- C.
2 to 8 sparks each second
- D.
4 to 7 sparks each second
- 86.The compressor inlet gearbox housing of the JFS provides drive pads and mounting flange for what assemblies?
- A.
Fuel control, two speed switch assembly and CGB
- B.
Fuel control, two speed switch assembly and AMAD
- C.
Engine adapter PTO shaft
- D.
Power turbine overspeed switch
- 87.What type of combustion section does the JFS have?
- A.
Reverse flow, can annular type
- B.
Forward flow, annular type
- C.
Reverse flow, annular type
- D.
Forward flow, can annular type
- 88.Positive pressure is maintained in the fuel control during shutdown by what system?
- A.
Bypass flow system
- B.
Bypass fuel system
- C.
Bypass oil system
- D.
Bypass alternate current system
- 89.Which unit connects the ADG to the F-16 engine?
- A.
Aircraft adapter
- B.
AMAD shaft
- C.
Engine adapter
- D.
PTO shaft
- 90.What component schedules the start of fuel and ignition for the JFS?
- A.
ESS CONTROLLER
- B.
SCS CONTROLLER
- C.
EAU CONTROLLER
- D.
DSG CONTROLLER
- 91.How many ounces of engine oil are used to lubricate the gear train?
- A.
13.2
- B.
16.5
- C.
14.4
- D.
14.5
- 92.The start panel is monitored and controlled by the mission computer by which bus?
- A.
MIL-STD-1554B data bus
- B.
MIL-STD-1555B data bus
- C.
MIL-STD-1556B data bus
- D.
MIL-STD-1553B data bus
- 93.Which propeller assembly provides electrical circuits between the brush block assembly and the spinner, afterbody, and blade assemblies?
- A.
Deicer contact ring holder assembly
- B.
Deicer boot ring holder assembly
- 94.What are the primary mechanical controls provided to the control assembly?
- A.
Throttle
- B.
Throttle and condition lever
- C.
Condition
- 95.Which valve housing component contains the beta set cam and alpha shaft rigging cam?
- A.
Alpha shaft
- B.
Beta shaft
- 96.Which valve housing component can be pinned at 5 degree increments?
- A.
Beta shaft rigging con
- B.
Beta shaft rigging shaft
- C.
Beta shaft rigging cam
- 97.What combined maintenance approach modifies or eliminates the intermediate (off equipment) function, where possible, by consolidating that repair function at the depot level?
- A.
2LM
- B.
3LM
- C.
1LM
- 98.What type of maintenance facility is a hybrid of 2LM and 3LM?
- A.
Centralized repair center
- B.
Regional repair center
- 99.Who takes the lead in identifying, tracking, assessing, and correcting R&M deficiencies on their assigned air and space equipment and also co chairs the PIWG?
- A.
Single manager
- B.
Regional manager
- C.
Origin point
- 100.What is the impact of a DR report with a 1C priority?
- A.
Prevents the accomplishment of a non essential capabibility, not including MC
- B.
Prevents the accomplishment of an essential capability
- 101.Which IMDS-CDB subsystem tracks maintenance on test equipment?
- A.
ATERS
- B.
IMDS
- C.
CEMS
- D.
Maintenance review
- 102.Which IMDS-CDB subsystem monitors estimated time in commission ETIC?
- A.
Sub system and equipment reporting
- B.
Status and inventory reporting
- 103.What maintenance metric is perhaps the best know yardstick for measuring a units performance?
- A.
MC RATE
- B.
NMC RATE
- 104.What maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform maintenance on primary mission aircraft, related AGE, and munitions support equipment for the first 8 hours after landing?
- A.
Priority 2
- B.
Priority 1
- C.
Priority 4
- 105.What MRP level should be assigned to perform scheduled maint to include periodic insp, routine TCTO's?
- A.
Priority 2
- B.
Priority 4
- C.
Priority 5
- 106.What MRP level should be assigned to perform routine repair of AGE and repair cycle assets?
- A.
Priority 5
- B.
Priority 3
- C.
Priority 1
- 107.In AMXS/HMXS or MXS, who does the MX SUPT work for?
- A.
MXG/CD
- B.
MOO
- C.
MXG/CC
- 108.Who is responsible through the MOS/CC to the MXG/CC for monitoring the overall health of the fleet?
- A.
MOF/CC assisted by the MOF SUPT
- B.
MOF/CD assisted by the MOF SUPT
- 109.What form should be used to establish a TODO accout?
- A.
AFTO IMT 43
- B.
AFTO IMT 22
- 110.What AF IMT should be submitted to have a TO correction or improvement be considered under the IDEA program?
- A.
AF IMT 43
- B.
AF IMT 22
- C.
AF IMT 1000
Back to top
