2A651 CDC All Volume Random Self Test Questions

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  • 1/110 Questions

    An augmentor is classified as what type of an engine?

    • Ramrod engine
    • Rampiston engine
    • Ramjet engine
    • Jetram engine
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '2A651 CDC All Volume Random Self Test Questions,' assesses knowledge in logistics management within a military framework. It covers topics such as repair cycle assets, requisition priorities, documentation procedures, and accountability of equipment, providing essential training for logistics personnel.

2A651 CDC All Volume Random Self Test Questions - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which part of the augmentor reduces the velocity of the gases so that the flame stability is maintained during augmentor operation?

    • Sprayrings

    • Exhaust Nozzle

    • Flameholder

    • Exhaust Liner

    Correct Answer
    A. Flameholder
    Explanation
    The flameholder is responsible for reducing the velocity of the gases in the augmentor, ensuring that the flame remains stable during operation. By slowing down the gases, the flame can be maintained at a consistent level, allowing for efficient combustion and optimal performance of the augmentor. The other options, such as sprayrings, exhaust nozzle, and exhaust liner, are not directly involved in reducing gas velocity and maintaining flame stability.

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  • 3. 

    What type of cover is opened by using a zipper?

    • Cotton wall frabricator

    • Cover

    • Prefabricated cover

    • Loose fitting flexible cover

    Correct Answer
    A. Prefabricated cover
    Explanation
    A zipper is commonly used to open and close a prefabricated cover. Prefabricated covers are pre-made and usually have a specific purpose, such as covering furniture, vehicles, or equipment. The zipper allows for easy access to the contents or to secure the cover in place. Cotton wall fabricator, cover, and loose fitting flexible cover do not specifically indicate the use of a zipper, making them less likely to be the correct answer.

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  • 4. 

    Which turbine drives the front compressor on a dual spool engine?

    • The front turbine

    • The mid turbine

    • The center turbine

    • The rear turbine

    Correct Answer
    A. The rear turbine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the rear turbine. In a dual spool engine, there are two separate turbines, one at the front and one at the rear. The rear turbine is responsible for driving the front compressor, which is a vital component in the engine's operation. The front turbine, mid turbine, and center turbine do not drive the front compressor, making them incorrect options.

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  • 5. 

    What are the primary mechanical controls provided to the control assembly?

    • Throttle

    • Throttle and condition lever

    • Condition

    Correct Answer
    A. Throttle and condition lever
    Explanation
    The primary mechanical controls provided to the control assembly are the throttle and the condition lever. The throttle is used to control the engine power output by adjusting the amount of fuel-air mixture entering the engine. The condition lever, on the other hand, is used to control the engine's operating condition, such as start, idle, and shutdown. These two controls are essential for the pilot to have precise control over the aircraft's engine performance and ensure safe and efficient operation.

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  • 6. 

    What maintenance metric is perhaps the best know yardstick for measuring a units performance?

    • MC RATE

    • NMC RATE

    Correct Answer
    A. MC RATE
    Explanation
    MC RATE, also known as Mean Corrective Rate, is a maintenance metric that measures the average number of corrective maintenance actions performed on a unit over a specific period of time. It is considered the best-known yardstick for measuring a unit's performance because it indicates the frequency at which maintenance actions are required, providing insights into the reliability and effectiveness of the unit. A higher MC RATE suggests that the unit requires frequent corrective maintenance, indicating potential issues with its performance and reliability.

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  • 7. 

    What is the approximate air to fuel ratio that is used for the actual burning process in a combustion chamber?

    • 20:1

    • 10:1

    • 15:1

    • 18:1

    Correct Answer
    A. 15:1
    Explanation
    The approximate air to fuel ratio used for the actual burning process in a combustion chamber is 15:1. This means that for every 15 units of air, 1 unit of fuel is used. This ratio is important to ensure efficient and complete combustion of the fuel, as too little air can result in incomplete combustion and the formation of harmful pollutants, while too much air can lead to wasted fuel and reduced efficiency. A 15:1 ratio strikes a balance between these factors, allowing for optimal combustion and energy production.

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  • 8. 

    How many shafs comprise the compressor/turbine shaft assembly?

    • 3

    • 5

    • 7

    • 9

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3 because the question is asking about the number of shafs in the compressor/turbine shaft assembly. Since there is only one compressor and one turbine, there will be only one shaft for each, making a total of three shafs in the assembly.

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  • 9. 

    What component on the F108 engine establishes the schedule for positioning the VBV's?

    • MFC

    • AFC

    • RGB

    • MEC

    Correct Answer
    A. MEC
    Explanation
    The MEC (Main Engine Controller) is responsible for establishing the schedule for positioning the VBV's (Variable Bleed Valves) on the F108 engine. The MEC monitors various engine parameters and adjusts the position of the VBV's accordingly to optimize engine performance and efficiency. This ensures that the engine operates within its specified limits and maintains optimal fuel burn and thrust output.

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  • 10. 

    What MRP level should be assigned to perform routine repair of AGE and repair cycle assets?

    • Priority 5

    • Priority 3

    • Priority 1

    Correct Answer
    A. Priority 5
    Explanation
    Priority 5 should be assigned for routine repair of AGE and repair cycle assets. This indicates that these repairs have the lowest priority compared to other maintenance tasks. Assigning a lower priority level allows resources to be allocated more efficiently, ensuring that higher priority repairs are completed first. This ensures that critical equipment and assets are maintained promptly while routine repairs can be scheduled accordingly without disrupting operations.

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  • 11. 

    EAID items that require formal supply accountability must be reflected on what listing?

    • CA/CRL

    • CA/CLR

    • CA/DVE

    • PA/STK

    Correct Answer
    A. CA/CRL
    Explanation
    EAID items that require formal supply accountability must be reflected on the CA/CRL listing. The CA/CRL (Commanders Authorization/Commanders Restricted List) is a comprehensive inventory of authorized items that require formal supply accountability. This listing helps ensure that these items are properly tracked and accounted for, reducing the risk of loss or misuse.

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  • 12. 

    Which type of compressor is more durable, the axial flow or the centrifugal?

    • Axial flow

    • Centrifugal

    • Front

    • Rear

    Correct Answer
    A. Centrifugal
    Explanation
    The centrifugal compressor is more durable compared to the axial flow compressor. This is because the centrifugal compressor has a simpler design with fewer moving parts, which reduces the chances of mechanical failure. Additionally, the centrifugal compressor operates at lower speeds and lower temperatures, resulting in less wear and tear on the components. Overall, the centrifugal compressor offers better durability and longevity in comparison to the axial flow compressor.

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  • 13. 

    What is the common term for repair cycle assets?

    • DIFM PARTS

    • MICAP PARTS

    • CYCLE ASSETS

    • CANN PARTS

    Correct Answer
    A. DIFM PARTS
    Explanation
    DIFM stands for "Do It For Me," which refers to assets that are repaired or maintained by a third-party service provider rather than the owner or user. These assets are commonly known as DIFM parts. Therefore, the correct answer is DIFM PARTS.

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  • 14. 

    If a TO change contains new material that cannot be included on an existing page, how are added pages assigned?

    • 2-2-1 or 2-2A

    • 2-6-1 or 2-3A

    • 2-2-1 or 22B

    • 2-1-1 or 2-4c

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-2-1 or 2-2A
    Explanation
    When a TO change contains new material that cannot be included on an existing page, added pages are assigned using the format 2-2-1 or 2-2A. This means that the added pages will be numbered as 2-2-1 or 2-2A, indicating that they are additional pages related to section 2-2 of the TO. This format helps to maintain the organization and structure of the TO while incorporating new information that cannot fit on existing pages.

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  • 15. 

    What are the height ranges of each of the five maintenance platforms?

    • C-4, 4 FEET, B-2, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-4, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12

    • C-1, 4 FEET, B-4, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-2, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-6, 7 TO 12

    • C-4, 4 FEET, B-2, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-4, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12

    • C-1, 4 FEET, B-1, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-2, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-4, 3 TO 7 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12

    Correct Answer
    A. C-1, 4 FEET, B-1, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-2, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-4, 3 TO 7 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C-1, 4 FEET, B-1, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-2, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-4, 3 TO 7 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12. This answer provides the height ranges for each of the five maintenance platforms, with platform C-1 being 4 feet tall, platform B-1 being 3 to 10 feet tall, platform B-2 being 13 to 20 feet tall, platform B-4 being 3 to 7 feet tall, and platform B-5 being 7 to 12 feet tall.

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  • 16. 

    The flexible feedback cables for the VBV's and VSV's transmit signals to what components?

    • MFC

    • RGB

    • MEC

    • RCVV

    Correct Answer
    A. MEC
    Explanation
    The flexible feedback cables for the VBV's and VSV's transmit signals to the MEC components.

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  • 17. 

    What tools can you use if you are required to repeen an area of the blade?

    • Power driven aluminium blade peener or a peening hammer

    • Blade checking indicator

    • Re peening sledge hammer

    • Dremel and mallet

    Correct Answer
    A. Power driven aluminium blade peener or a peening hammer
    Explanation
    To repeen an area of the blade, you can use a power-driven aluminum blade peener or a peening hammer. These tools are specifically designed for reshaping or reworking the blade surface by striking it with controlled force. The power-driven aluminum blade peener utilizes a motorized mechanism to deliver consistent and precise peening, while a peening hammer is a handheld tool that allows for manual peening. Both tools are effective in restoring the desired shape and strength to the blade.

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  • 18. 

    Which screw is made from high tensile material?

    • Shear head screw

    • Tapered screw

    • Structural screw

    • Machine screw

    Correct Answer
    A. Structural screw
    Explanation
    A structural screw is made from high tensile material. This type of screw is specifically designed to provide strong and secure connections in structural applications, such as building frames and heavy-duty construction projects. The high tensile material ensures that the screw can withstand high levels of tension and pressure without breaking or becoming loose, making it a reliable choice for demanding and load-bearing tasks.

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  • 19. 

    Which type of nut requires an auxilary locking washer?

    • Lock nut

    • Plain nut

    • Castle nut

    • Plain washer

    Correct Answer
    A. Plain nut
    Explanation
    A plain nut requires an auxiliary locking washer. A plain nut is a type of nut that does not have any built-in locking mechanism to prevent it from loosening. Therefore, an auxiliary locking washer is used in conjunction with a plain nut to provide additional security and prevent the nut from coming loose. The locking washer is placed between the nut and the surface it is being tightened onto, creating friction and resistance that helps to keep the nut in place. This combination of a plain nut and an auxiliary locking washer is commonly used in applications where vibration or movement may cause the nut to loosen.

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  • 20. 

    Who is responsible through the MOS/CC to the MXG/CC for monitoring the overall health of the fleet?

    • MOF/CC assisted by the MOF SUPT

    • MOF/CD assisted by the MOF SUPT

    Correct Answer
    A. MOF/CC assisted by the MOF SUPT
    Explanation
    The MOF/CC (Maintenance Operations Flight Commander) is responsible for monitoring the overall health of the fleet. They are assisted in this role by the MOF SUPT (Maintenance Operations Flight Superintendent). This means that the MOF/CC is the primary person accountable for ensuring the fleet's well-being, while the MOF SUPT provides support and assistance in carrying out these responsibilities.

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  • 21. 

    Which type of air compressor is the most ineffeceint type of air compressor?

    • Turbine compressor

    • Roots compressor

    • Gear compressor

    • Diffuser compressor

    Correct Answer
    A. Gear compressor
    Explanation
    The gear compressor is the most inefficient type of air compressor because it uses gears to compress the air. Gears create more friction and heat, resulting in energy loss and decreased efficiency compared to other types of compressors.

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  • 22. 

    The divergent nozzle segments are free floating, permitting what types of operations?

    • Subsonic and Ultrasonic

    • Ultrasonic and supersonic

    • Supersonic and Hyper speed

    • Subsonic and supersonic

    Correct Answer
    A. Subsonic and supersonic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Subsonic and supersonic. The divergent nozzle segments are free floating, meaning they can move and adjust to different positions. This allows the nozzle to be used in both subsonic and supersonic operations. In subsonic operations, the nozzle segments can be adjusted to create a larger exit area, which helps to slow down the exhaust gases. In supersonic operations, the nozzle segments can be adjusted to create a smaller exit area, which helps to accelerate the exhaust gases to supersonic speeds. Therefore, the divergent nozzle segments permit both subsonic and supersonic operations.

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  • 23. 

    At what percent engine RPM does the T56 speed sensitive control de-energize the ignition exciter?

    • 65%

    • 75%

    • 45%

    • 30%

    Correct Answer
    A. 65%
    Explanation
    The T56 speed sensitive control de-energizes the ignition exciter at 65% engine RPM.

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  • 24. 

    Who provides you with the required equipment manager training?

    • Equipment Management element at Base Training

    • Base supply liason

    • Equipment Management element at Base Supply

    • Unit Base Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment Management element at Base Supply
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Equipment Management element at Base Supply. This is because the Equipment Management element at Base Supply is responsible for providing the required equipment manager training. They have the knowledge and expertise to train individuals on how to effectively manage and maintain equipment. They understand the specific requirements and protocols for equipment management and can provide comprehensive training to ensure that individuals are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge in this area.

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  • 25. 

    On dial indicators with two indicators within one dial face, what does the smaller indicator measure?

    • Ten-thousands of an inch

    • One-hundred thousant of an inch

    • Revolutions

    • Centimeters

    Correct Answer
    A. Revolutions
    Explanation
    The smaller indicator on dial indicators with two indicators within one dial face measures revolutions.

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  • 26. 

    Which part of the micrometer has graduations that represent tenths of an inch?

    • The barrel

    • The thimble

    • The pivot lever

    • The micro handler

    Correct Answer
    A. The barrel
    Explanation
    The barrel of a micrometer is the part that contains the graduations representing tenths of an inch. It is the section of the micrometer that is used to measure the larger increments, while the thimble is used for more precise measurements. The pivot lever and micro handler are not relevant to the graduations representing tenths of an inch.

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  • 27. 

    Which propeller assembly provides electrical circuits between the brush block assembly and the spinner, afterbody, and blade assemblies?

    • Deicer contact ring holder assembly

    • Deicer boot ring holder assembly

    Correct Answer
    A. Deicer contact ring holder assembly
    Explanation
    The deicer contact ring holder assembly is responsible for providing electrical circuits between the brush block assembly and the spinner, afterbody, and blade assemblies. This means that it facilitates the flow of electrical current between these components, allowing for proper functioning of the propeller assembly.

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  • 28. 

    Which IMDS-CDB subsystem monitors estimated time in commission ETIC?

    • Sub system and equipment reporting

    • Status and inventory reporting

    Correct Answer
    A. Status and inventory reporting
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Status and inventory reporting." This subsystem is responsible for monitoring the estimated time in commission (ETIC). It keeps track of the status and inventory of equipment, which includes monitoring the estimated time that equipment will remain in commission.

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  • 29. 

    When a jet engine reaches idle speed, what determines how the fuel control regulates engine speed?

    • Turbine inlet temp

    • Compressor temp

    • Pt 7 and pt 2

    • Power lever setting

    Correct Answer
    A. Power lever setting
    Explanation
    The power lever setting determines how the fuel control regulates engine speed when a jet engine reaches idle speed. The power lever setting is the control used by the pilot to adjust the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine. By adjusting the power lever setting, the pilot can increase or decrease the engine speed, which in turn affects the fuel control's regulation of the engine speed.

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  • 30. 

    Which type of air compressor consists of a two port casing that houses a blower mechanism?

    • Turbine compressor

    • Diffuser compressor

    • Compressor

    • Roots compressor

    Correct Answer
    A. Roots compressor
    Explanation
    A Roots compressor consists of a two-port casing that houses a blower mechanism. This type of air compressor uses a pair of meshing lobed rotors to compress the air. As the rotors rotate, air is trapped in the space between the lobes and the casing, and is then compressed and discharged through the outlet port. The design of the two-port casing in a Roots compressor allows for efficient compression and delivery of compressed air.

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  • 31. 

    How many fuel nozzles are installed on the AE2100D3 engine diffuser?

    • 16

    • 8

    • 12

    • 21

    Correct Answer
    A. 16
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 16. This means that there are 16 fuel nozzles installed on the AE2100D3 engine diffuser.

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  • 32. 

    Name the four types of variable nozzle systems?

    • Deve, Convergent divergent, Vectoring

    • Flap, Iris, Convergent divergent, Vectoring

    • Flap, Iris, Convergent divergent

    • Axial, Iris, Convergent divergent, Vector

    Correct Answer
    A. Flap, Iris, Convergent divergent, Vectoring
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Flap, Iris, Convergent divergent, Vectoring. These are the four types of variable nozzle systems. The flap nozzle system involves the movement of flaps to adjust the exhaust nozzle area. The iris nozzle system uses an iris mechanism to change the nozzle area. The convergent-divergent nozzle system has a convergent section followed by a divergent section to control the exhaust flow. The vectoring nozzle system allows for thrust vectoring, which means the direction of the exhaust can be adjusted to provide additional control and maneuverability.

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  • 33. 

    At what percent engine RPM does the T56 speed sensitive control engergize the ignition relay?

    • 18% 2,200

    • 16% 2,200

    • 19% 2,200

    • 21%

    Correct Answer
    A. 16% 2,200
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 16% 2,200. The T56 speed sensitive control energizes the ignition relay at 16% engine RPM.

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  • 34. 

    What two factors determine the priority for an off base requisition?

    • LBS AND DAY

    • UJC AND NAD

    • FCU AND GCI

    • FAD AND UJC

    Correct Answer
    A. FAD AND UJC
    Explanation
    The priority for an off base requisition is determined by two factors: FAD and UJC.

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  • 35. 

    Approximately what percent of the energy produced by the fuel is needed to maintain the jet engine operating cycle?

    • 80

    • 100

    • 90

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    The answer is 60 because it represents the approximate percentage of energy produced by the fuel that is required to maintain the jet engine operating cycle. This means that 60% of the energy generated from the fuel is used to keep the engine running efficiently and effectively.

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  • 36. 

    Which type of air compressor is commonly used on the flight line?

    • Gear compressor

    • Piston pump compressor

    • Gearotor compressor

    • Root compressor

    Correct Answer
    A. Piston pump compressor
    Explanation
    Piston pump compressors are commonly used on the flight line because they are reliable and efficient. These compressors use a piston to compress air, which is then stored in a tank for later use. They are capable of delivering high-pressure air and are suitable for a range of applications, including inflating tires, powering pneumatic tools, and supplying air for aircraft systems. Their compact size and portability make them ideal for use on the flight line, where space and mobility are important factors.

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  • 37. 

    What MRP level should be assigned to perform scheduled maint to include periodic insp, routine TCTO's?

    • Priority 2

    • Priority 4

    • Priority 5

    Correct Answer
    A. Priority 4
    Explanation
    Priority 4 should be assigned to perform scheduled maintenance that includes periodic inspections and routine Time Compliance Technical Orders (TCTO's). This indicates that the maintenance task is important but not urgent, as it falls in the middle of the priority scale. Assigning Priority 4 ensures that the maintenance is completed in a timely manner, but allows for flexibility in scheduling to accommodate other higher priority tasks if necessary.

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  • 38. 

    Which valve housing component contains the beta set cam and alpha shaft rigging cam?

    • Alpha shaft

    • Beta shaft

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha shaft
    Explanation
    The alpha shaft contains the beta set cam and alpha shaft rigging cam.

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  • 39. 

    What is the purpose of the air chamber in axial flow compressor engines?

    • To bleed air from the N1 Low pressure compressor

    • To bleed air from the PT7 Medium pressure compressor

    • To bleed air from the N2 High pressure compressor

    • To bleed air from the N4 High pressure compressor

    Correct Answer
    A. To bleed air from the N2 High pressure compressor
    Explanation
    The purpose of the air chamber in axial flow compressor engines is to bleed air from the N2 High pressure compressor.

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  • 40. 

    On the F108 engine, what parameters determine the position of the VSV's?

    • N2 AND BIT

    • N1 AND CIT

    • N2 AND CIT

    • N1 AND TIT

    Correct Answer
    A. N2 AND CIT
    Explanation
    The position of the VSV's on the F108 engine is determined by two parameters: N2 and CIT. N2 refers to the rotational speed of the high-pressure compressor, while CIT stands for Compressor Inlet Temperature. These two parameters play a crucial role in controlling the position of the Variable Stator Vanes (VSV's) in order to optimize engine performance and efficiency.

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  • 41. 

    What combined maintenance approach modifies or eliminates the intermediate (off equipment) function, where possible, by consolidating that repair function at the depot level?

    • 2LM

    • 3LM

    • 1LM

    Correct Answer
    A. 2LM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2LM. 2LM stands for Two-Level Maintenance, which is a combined maintenance approach that aims to modify or eliminate the intermediate (off equipment) function by consolidating the repair function at the depot level. This approach allows for more efficient and cost-effective maintenance processes by reducing the number of maintenance levels and streamlining the repair functions.

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  • 42. 

    Which control switch is used to take measurements in a circuit thats difficult to reach?

    • Funciton selector

    • Hold

    • Button push selector

    • Hold pushbutton

    Correct Answer
    A. Hold pushbutton
    Explanation
    The hold pushbutton is used to take measurements in a circuit that is difficult to reach. This switch allows the user to hold the measurement value on the display, even after removing the test leads from the circuit. This is especially useful when the circuit is in a hard-to-reach location or when the user needs to take multiple measurements without having to constantly keep the test leads connected. By pressing the hold pushbutton, the user can freeze the measurement value on the display for easy reading and analysis.

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  • 43. 

    After the gases leave the turbine section and enter the exhaust section, what type of velocity do they have?

    • Centrifugal

    • Axial

    • Divergent

    • Convergent

    Correct Answer
    A. Axial
    Explanation
    After the gases leave the turbine section and enter the exhaust section, they have an axial velocity. Axial velocity refers to the velocity of the gases in the same direction as the axis of the turbine. This means that the gases continue to flow in a straight line, parallel to the turbine axis, as they exit the exhaust section. This type of velocity is important for efficient exhaust flow and to maintain the overall performance of the turbine system.

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  • 44. 

    Where can you find a block by block explanation of how to document the afto form 350 tag?

    • 00-5-1

    • 00-5-2

    • 00-20-1

    • 00-20-2

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-20-2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00-20-2. This is because 00-20-2 is a technical manual that provides a block by block explanation of how to document the afto form 350 tag. It contains detailed instructions and guidelines on how to properly fill out the form, ensuring accurate and thorough documentation.

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  • 45. 

    What TO gives the procedure for cleaning a jet engine?

    • 2J-1-19

    • 2J-1-15

    • 2J-1-13

    • 2J-1-16

    Correct Answer
    A. 2J-1-13
  • 46. 

    Where is the point of highest pressure within a jet engine?

    • Turbine section

    • Compressor section

    • Diffuser section

    • Exhaust section

    Correct Answer
    A. Diffuser section
    Explanation
    The diffuser section is where the point of highest pressure is within a jet engine. This section is responsible for slowing down and diffusing the high-speed, high-pressure air coming out of the compressor section. As the air enters the diffuser, its velocity decreases, causing an increase in pressure. This high-pressure air is then directed into the combustion chamber for fuel combustion. Therefore, the diffuser section is where the pressure reaches its highest point before entering the combustion process.

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  • 47. 

    Which bearing discrepancy is the result of continued shaft oscillation?

    • True brinelling

    • False brinelling

    • Impitent brinelling

    • Axial brinelling

    Correct Answer
    A. False brinelling
    Explanation
    False brinelling is the bearing discrepancy that is the result of continued shaft oscillation. Brinelling refers to the indentation of the bearing raceway caused by excessive pressure or impact. In false brinelling, the oscillation of the shaft causes the formation of false brinell marks on the bearing raceway. These marks are not true brinell marks caused by static loads, but rather they are caused by the repeated sliding motion of the shaft. False brinelling can lead to premature bearing failure and increased friction and wear.

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  • 48. 

    What is the most successful type of thrust reverser?

    • Aerodynamic blockage

    • Mechanical blockage

    • Reverse thrust

    • Thrust reversal system

    Correct Answer
    A. Aerodynamic blockage
    Explanation
    Aerodynamic blockage is the most successful type of thrust reverser because it involves blocking the exhaust flow from the engine, creating a barrier that redirects the thrust forward. This method is highly effective in reducing the aircraft's speed during landing, as it utilizes the air flowing around the engine to create a reverse thrust force. Mechanical blockage, on the other hand, involves physically blocking the exhaust flow with mechanical devices, which may not be as efficient or reliable. Reverse thrust and thrust reversal systems are broader terms that encompass various methods, including both aerodynamic and mechanical blockage.

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  • 49. 

    How many volts does the AC ignition system deliver to the igniter plug?

    • 30,000

    • 45,000

    • 20,000

    • 90,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 20,000
    Explanation
    The AC ignition system delivers 20,000 volts to the igniter plug.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 06, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 01, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Pitmane23

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