2A651 CDC All Volume Random Self Test Questions
(157).webp "2A651 CDC All Volume Random Self Test Questions - Quiz")
2A651 All Volume Random Self Test Questions
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What is the common term for repair cycle assets?
- A.
DIFM PARTS
- B.
MICAP PARTS
- C.
CYCLE ASSETS
- D.
CANN PARTS
Correct Answer
A. DIFM PARTSExplanation
DIFM stands for "Do It For Me," which refers to assets that are repaired or maintained by a third-party service provider rather than the owner or user. These assets are commonly known as DIFM parts. Therefore, the correct answer is DIFM PARTS.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
What two factors determine the priority for an off base requisition?
- A.
LBS AND DAY
- B.
UJC AND NAD
- C.
FCU AND GCI
- D.
FAD AND UJC
Correct Answer
D. FAD AND UJCExplanation
The priority for an off base requisition is determined by two factors: FAD and UJC.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Where can you find a block by block explanation of how to document the afto form 350 tag?
- A.
00-5-1
- B.
00-5-2
- C.
00-20-1
- D.
00-20-2
Correct Answer
D. 00-20-2Explanation
The correct answer is 00-20-2. This is because 00-20-2 is a technical manual that provides a block by block explanation of how to document the afto form 350 tag. It contains detailed instructions and guidelines on how to properly fill out the form, ensuring accurate and thorough documentation.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Who provides you with the required equipment manager training?
- A.
Equipment Management element at Base Training
- B.
Base supply liason
- C.
Equipment Management element at Base Supply
- D.
Unit Base Manager
Correct Answer
C. Equipment Management element at Base SupplyExplanation
The correct answer is the Equipment Management element at Base Supply. This is because the Equipment Management element at Base Supply is responsible for providing the required equipment manager training. They have the knowledge and expertise to train individuals on how to effectively manage and maintain equipment. They understand the specific requirements and protocols for equipment management and can provide comprehensive training to ensure that individuals are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge in this area.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
EAID items that require formal supply accountability must be reflected on what listing?
- A.
CA/CRL
- B.
CA/CLR
- C.
CA/DVE
- D.
PA/STK
Correct Answer
A. CA/CRLExplanation
EAID items that require formal supply accountability must be reflected on the CA/CRL listing. The CA/CRL (Commanders Authorization/Commanders Restricted List) is a comprehensive inventory of authorized items that require formal supply accountability. This listing helps ensure that these items are properly tracked and accounted for, reducing the risk of loss or misuse.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
Where can you look to find information concerning how to use the condition tags and the required entries for each?
- A.
TO 00-5-1
- B.
TO 00-5-2
- C.
TO 00-20-3
- D.
TO 00-20-2
Correct Answer
C. TO 00-20-3Explanation
You can look in TO 00-20-3 to find information concerning how to use the condition tags and the required entries for each.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Which forms should you submit if it's determined that a first time request part will become a recurring one and therefore, the stock level needs to be adjusted?
- A.
AF IMT 2005
- B.
AF IMT 2001
- C.
AF IMT 1998
- D.
AF IMT 1996
Correct Answer
D. AF IMT 1996Explanation
If it is determined that a first-time request part will become a recurring one and the stock level needs to be adjusted, the forms that should be submitted are AF IMT 1996.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
If a TO change contains new material that cannot be included on an existing page, how are added pages assigned?
- A.
2-2-1 or 2-2A
- B.
2-6-1 or 2-3A
- C.
2-2-1 or 22B
- D.
2-1-1 or 2-4c
Correct Answer
A. 2-2-1 or 2-2AExplanation
When a TO change contains new material that cannot be included on an existing page, added pages are assigned using the format 2-2-1 or 2-2A. This means that the added pages will be numbered as 2-2-1 or 2-2A, indicating that they are additional pages related to section 2-2 of the TO. This format helps to maintain the organization and structure of the TO while incorporating new information that cannot fit on existing pages.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Which type of washer is used on grooved shafts?
- A.
Plain type washer
- B.
Castlelated type washer
- C.
Tapered type washer
- D.
Tab type washer
Correct Answer
D. Tab type washerExplanation
Tab type washers are used on grooved shafts because they have a tab or tabbed edge that fits into the groove, providing a secure and stable connection. This type of washer helps prevent rotation or movement of the washer on the shaft, making it ideal for applications where the shaft needs to be locked or held in place.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
Which screw is made from high tensile material?
- A.
Shear head screw
- B.
Tapered screw
- C.
Structural screw
- D.
Machine screw
Correct Answer
C. Structural screwExplanation
A structural screw is made from high tensile material. This type of screw is specifically designed to provide strong and secure connections in structural applications, such as building frames and heavy-duty construction projects. The high tensile material ensures that the screw can withstand high levels of tension and pressure without breaking or becoming loose, making it a reliable choice for demanding and load-bearing tasks.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Which type of nut requires an auxilary locking washer?
- A.
Lock nut
- B.
Plain nut
- C.
Castle nut
- D.
Plain washer
Correct Answer
B. Plain nutExplanation
A plain nut requires an auxiliary locking washer. A plain nut is a type of nut that does not have any built-in locking mechanism to prevent it from loosening. Therefore, an auxiliary locking washer is used in conjunction with a plain nut to provide additional security and prevent the nut from coming loose. The locking washer is placed between the nut and the surface it is being tightened onto, creating friction and resistance that helps to keep the nut in place. This combination of a plain nut and an auxiliary locking washer is commonly used in applications where vibration or movement may cause the nut to loosen.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Where is the diameter fo a bolt measured?
- A.
On the head
- B.
On the threads
- C.
On the shank
- D.
On the grip
Correct Answer
D. On the gripExplanation
The diameter of a bolt is measured on the grip. The grip refers to the portion of the bolt that is held or grasped by a tool or a person. This measurement is important for determining the appropriate size of wrench or socket needed to tighten or loosen the bolt. The head, threads, and shank are other parts of the bolt, but the diameter is specifically measured on the grip.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Which control switch is used to take measurements in a circuit thats difficult to reach?
- A.
Funciton selector
- B.
Hold
- C.
Button push selector
- D.
Hold pushbutton
Correct Answer
D. Hold pushbuttonExplanation
The hold pushbutton is used to take measurements in a circuit that is difficult to reach. This switch allows the user to hold the measurement value on the display, even after removing the test leads from the circuit. This is especially useful when the circuit is in a hard-to-reach location or when the user needs to take multiple measurements without having to constantly keep the test leads connected. By pressing the hold pushbutton, the user can freeze the measurement value on the display for easy reading and analysis.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
On dial indicators with two indicators within one dial face, what does the smaller indicator measure?
- A.
Ten-thousands of an inch
- B.
One-hundred thousant of an inch
- C.
Revolutions
- D.
Centimeters
Correct Answer
C. RevolutionsExplanation
The smaller indicator on dial indicators with two indicators within one dial face measures revolutions.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Which part of the micrometer has graduations that represent tenths of an inch?
- A.
The barrel
- B.
The thimble
- C.
The pivot lever
- D.
The micro handler
Correct Answer
A. The barrelExplanation
The barrel of a micrometer is the part that contains the graduations representing tenths of an inch. It is the section of the micrometer that is used to measure the larger increments, while the thimble is used for more precise measurements. The pivot lever and micro handler are not relevant to the graduations representing tenths of an inch.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
What are the height ranges of each of the five maintenance platforms?
- A.
C-4, 4 FEET, B-2, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-4, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12
- B.
C-1, 4 FEET, B-4, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-2, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-6, 7 TO 12
- C.
C-4, 4 FEET, B-2, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-4, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12
- D.
C-1, 4 FEET, B-1, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-2, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-4, 3 TO 7 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12
Correct Answer
D. C-1, 4 FEET, B-1, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-2, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-4, 3 TO 7 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12Explanation
The correct answer is C-1, 4 FEET, B-1, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-2, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-4, 3 TO 7 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12. This answer provides the height ranges for each of the five maintenance platforms, with platform C-1 being 4 feet tall, platform B-1 being 3 to 10 feet tall, platform B-2 being 13 to 20 feet tall, platform B-4 being 3 to 7 feet tall, and platform B-5 being 7 to 12 feet tall.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
What TO gives the procedure for cleaning a jet engine?
- A.
2J-1-19
- B.
2J-1-15
- C.
2J-1-13
- D.
2J-1-16
Correct Answer
C. 2J-1-13 -
- 18.
Which manual covers reporting an engine that was improperly shipped?
- A.
AFJMAN 24-404
- B.
AFJMAN 24-204
- C.
AFJMAN 24-203
- D.
AFJMAN 24-208
Correct Answer
B. AFJMAN 24-204Explanation
AFJMAN 24-204 covers reporting an engine that was improperly shipped.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
What type of cover is opened by using a zipper?
- A.
Cotton wall frabricator
- B.
Cover
- C.
Prefabricated cover
- D.
Loose fitting flexible cover
Correct Answer
C. Prefabricated coverExplanation
A zipper is commonly used to open and close a prefabricated cover. Prefabricated covers are pre-made and usually have a specific purpose, such as covering furniture, vehicles, or equipment. The zipper allows for easy access to the contents or to secure the cover in place. Cotton wall fabricator, cover, and loose fitting flexible cover do not specifically indicate the use of a zipper, making them less likely to be the correct answer.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
Which turbine drives the front compressor on a dual spool engine?
- A.
The front turbine
- B.
The mid turbine
- C.
The center turbine
- D.
The rear turbine
Correct Answer
D. The rear turbineExplanation
The correct answer is the rear turbine. In a dual spool engine, there are two separate turbines, one at the front and one at the rear. The rear turbine is responsible for driving the front compressor, which is a vital component in the engine's operation. The front turbine, mid turbine, and center turbine do not drive the front compressor, making them incorrect options.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
After the gases leave the turbine section and enter the exhaust section, what type of velocity do they have?
- A.
Centrifugal
- B.
Axial
- C.
Divergent
- D.
Convergent
Correct Answer
B. AxialExplanation
After the gases leave the turbine section and enter the exhaust section, they have an axial velocity. Axial velocity refers to the velocity of the gases in the same direction as the axis of the turbine. This means that the gases continue to flow in a straight line, parallel to the turbine axis, as they exit the exhaust section. This type of velocity is important for efficient exhaust flow and to maintain the overall performance of the turbine system.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
Where is the point of highest airflow velocity in a jet engine?
- A.
Turbine
- B.
Compressor
- C.
Exhaust
- D.
Ejector nozzle
Correct Answer
D. Ejector nozzleExplanation
The ejector nozzle is the point of highest airflow velocity in a jet engine. This is because the ejector nozzle is responsible for expelling the exhaust gases from the engine at high speeds. As the exhaust gases pass through the nozzle, they are accelerated, resulting in the highest airflow velocity at this point.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
Approximately what percent of the energy produced by the fuel is needed to maintain the jet engine operating cycle?
- A.
80
- B.
100
- C.
90
- D.
60
Correct Answer
D. 60Explanation
The answer is 60 because it represents the approximate percentage of energy produced by the fuel that is required to maintain the jet engine operating cycle. This means that 60% of the energy generated from the fuel is used to keep the engine running efficiently and effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
When a jet engine reaches idle speed, what determines how the fuel control regulates engine speed?
- A.
Turbine inlet temp
- B.
Compressor temp
- C.
Pt 7 and pt 2
- D.
Power lever setting
Correct Answer
D. Power lever settingExplanation
The power lever setting determines how the fuel control regulates engine speed when a jet engine reaches idle speed. The power lever setting is the control used by the pilot to adjust the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine. By adjusting the power lever setting, the pilot can increase or decrease the engine speed, which in turn affects the fuel control's regulation of the engine speed.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
Where is the point of highest pressure within a jet engine?
- A.
Turbine section
- B.
Compressor section
- C.
Diffuser section
- D.
Exhaust section
Correct Answer
C. Diffuser sectionExplanation
The diffuser section is where the point of highest pressure is within a jet engine. This section is responsible for slowing down and diffusing the high-speed, high-pressure air coming out of the compressor section. As the air enters the diffuser, its velocity decreases, causing an increase in pressure. This high-pressure air is then directed into the combustion chamber for fuel combustion. Therefore, the diffuser section is where the pressure reaches its highest point before entering the combustion process.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
What two factors determine what proportion of the engergy of a fuel is actually used to propel an aircraft forward?
- A.
Thermal and aircraft effeciency
- B.
Thermal and propulsion efficiency
- C.
Thermal and propulsive efficeincy
- D.
Thermal and conductive efficiency
Correct Answer
C. Thermal and propulsive efficeincyExplanation
The proportion of energy of a fuel that is actually used to propel an aircraft forward is determined by thermal efficiency and propulsive efficiency. Thermal efficiency refers to how effectively the fuel is converted into thermal energy, while propulsive efficiency refers to how effectively the thermal energy is converted into forward propulsion. These two factors together determine the overall efficiency of the aircraft's propulsion system.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
Which bearing discrepancy is caused by heavy shock loads or impact?
- A.
Brinelling
- B.
Pitting
- C.
Grooving
- D.
True Brinelling
Correct Answer
D. True BrinellingExplanation
True Brinelling is the bearing discrepancy caused by heavy shock loads or impact. Brinelling refers to the permanent indentation or flattening of the bearing raceway due to excessive pressure, and True Brinelling specifically occurs as a result of heavy shock loads or impact. This can happen when a bearing is subjected to sudden and extreme forces, causing the metal to deform and create indentations on the raceway surface. As a result, the bearing's performance and lifespan can be significantly affected.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
Which bearing descrepancy occurs from continuous thrust loading during bearing rotation?
- A.
Grooves
- B.
Bands
- C.
Brinelling
- D.
Pitting
Correct Answer
B. BandsExplanation
Continuous thrust loading during bearing rotation can cause the formation of bands. Bands are localized areas of increased wear and damage on the bearing surface. This occurs due to the continuous pressure and friction caused by the thrust loading, leading to the development of bands. These bands can reduce the effectiveness and lifespan of the bearing, ultimately leading to bearing failure if not addressed.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
Which bearing discrepancy is the result of continued shaft oscillation?
- A.
True brinelling
- B.
False brinelling
- C.
Impitent brinelling
- D.
Axial brinelling
Correct Answer
B. False brinellingExplanation
False brinelling is the bearing discrepancy that is the result of continued shaft oscillation. Brinelling refers to the indentation of the bearing raceway caused by excessive pressure or impact. In false brinelling, the oscillation of the shaft causes the formation of false brinell marks on the bearing raceway. These marks are not true brinell marks caused by static loads, but rather they are caused by the repeated sliding motion of the shaft. False brinelling can lead to premature bearing failure and increased friction and wear.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
An augmentor is classified as what type of an engine?
- A.
Ramrod engine
- B.
Rampiston engine
- C.
Ramjet engine
- D.
Jetram engine
Correct Answer
C. Ramjet engineExplanation
A ramjet engine is a type of engine that belongs to the category of augmentor engines. Unlike other engines, a ramjet engine does not have any moving parts and operates on the principle of compressing incoming air before combustion. It is commonly used in high-speed aircraft and missiles. Therefore, the correct answer is Ramjet engine.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
What is the approximate air to fuel ratio that is used for the actual burning process in a combustion chamber?
- A.
20:1
- B.
10:1
- C.
15:1
- D.
18:1
Correct Answer
C. 15:1Explanation
The approximate air to fuel ratio used for the actual burning process in a combustion chamber is 15:1. This means that for every 15 units of air, 1 unit of fuel is used. This ratio is important to ensure efficient and complete combustion of the fuel, as too little air can result in incomplete combustion and the formation of harmful pollutants, while too much air can lead to wasted fuel and reduced efficiency. A 15:1 ratio strikes a balance between these factors, allowing for optimal combustion and energy production.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
What achieves diffusion in axial flow compressor engine?
- A.
Divergent shape of the casing aft of the compressor guide vanes
- B.
Convergent shape of the casing aft of the compressor guide vanes
- C.
Laterall shape of the casing aft of the compressor guide vanes
- D.
Axial shape of the casing aft of the compressor guide vanes
Correct Answer
A. Divergent shape of the casing aft of the compressor guide vanesExplanation
The divergent shape of the casing aft of the compressor guide vanes achieves diffusion in an axial flow compressor engine. This shape allows the airflow to expand and slow down as it moves through the compressor, increasing the pressure and temperature of the air. This is important for efficient engine operation and performance.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
What is the purpose of the air chamber in axial flow compressor engines?
- A.
To bleed air from the N1 Low pressure compressor
- B.
To bleed air from the PT7 Medium pressure compressor
- C.
To bleed air from the N2 High pressure compressor
- D.
To bleed air from the N4 High pressure compressor
Correct Answer
C. To bleed air from the N2 High pressure compressorExplanation
The purpose of the air chamber in axial flow compressor engines is to bleed air from the N2 High pressure compressor.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
Which type of compressor is more durable, the axial flow or the centrifugal?
- A.
Axial flow
- B.
Centrifugal
- C.
Front
- D.
Rear
Correct Answer
B. CentrifugalExplanation
The centrifugal compressor is more durable compared to the axial flow compressor. This is because the centrifugal compressor has a simpler design with fewer moving parts, which reduces the chances of mechanical failure. Additionally, the centrifugal compressor operates at lower speeds and lower temperatures, resulting in less wear and tear on the components. Overall, the centrifugal compressor offers better durability and longevity in comparison to the axial flow compressor.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
How many shafs comprise the compressor/turbine shaft assembly?
- A.
3
- B.
5
- C.
7
- D.
9
Correct Answer
A. 3Explanation
The correct answer is 3 because the question is asking about the number of shafs in the compressor/turbine shaft assembly. Since there is only one compressor and one turbine, there will be only one shaft for each, making a total of three shafs in the assembly.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
What is the purpose of the inducer rotor?
- A.
To pick up the air smoothly and feed it into the impeller
- B.
To pick up the air vigurously and feed it into the compressor
- C.
To pick up the air smoothly and feed it into the turbine
- D.
To pick up the air smoothly and feed it into the diffuser
Correct Answer
A. To pick up the air smoothly and feed it into the impellerExplanation
The purpose of the inducer rotor is to pick up the air smoothly and feed it into the impeller. This allows for a continuous and efficient flow of air into the compressor. By picking up the air smoothly, the inducer rotor helps to reduce turbulence and ensure a uniform flow of air, which is essential for optimal compressor performance. The impeller then further compresses the air before it is sent to the turbine or diffuser.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
Which type of air compressor consists of a two port casing that houses a blower mechanism?
- A.
Turbine compressor
- B.
Diffuser compressor
- C.
Compressor
- D.
Roots compressor
Correct Answer
D. Roots compressorExplanation
A Roots compressor consists of a two-port casing that houses a blower mechanism. This type of air compressor uses a pair of meshing lobed rotors to compress the air. As the rotors rotate, air is trapped in the space between the lobes and the casing, and is then compressed and discharged through the outlet port. The design of the two-port casing in a Roots compressor allows for efficient compression and delivery of compressed air.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
Which type of air compressor is the most ineffeceint type of air compressor?
- A.
Turbine compressor
- B.
Roots compressor
- C.
Gear compressor
- D.
Diffuser compressor
Correct Answer
C. Gear compressorExplanation
The gear compressor is the most inefficient type of air compressor because it uses gears to compress the air. Gears create more friction and heat, resulting in energy loss and decreased efficiency compared to other types of compressors.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
Which type of air compressor is commonly used on the flight line?
- A.
Gear compressor
- B.
Piston pump compressor
- C.
Gearotor compressor
- D.
Root compressor
Correct Answer
B. Piston pump compressorExplanation
Piston pump compressors are commonly used on the flight line because they are reliable and efficient. These compressors use a piston to compress air, which is then stored in a tank for later use. They are capable of delivering high-pressure air and are suitable for a range of applications, including inflating tires, powering pneumatic tools, and supplying air for aircraft systems. Their compact size and portability make them ideal for use on the flight line, where space and mobility are important factors.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
At what range temperature does the AE2100D3 engine fuel temp switch operate?
- A.
Less than 50 degrees F
- B.
Less than 34 degrees F
- C.
More than 32 degrees F
- D.
Less than 32 degrees F
Correct Answer
D. Less than 32 degrees FExplanation
The AE2100D3 engine fuel temp switch operates at temperatures below 32 degrees F.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
How many fuel nozzles are installed on the AE2100D3 engine diffuser?
- A.
16
- B.
8
- C.
12
- D.
21
Correct Answer
A. 16Explanation
The correct answer is 16. This means that there are 16 fuel nozzles installed on the AE2100D3 engine diffuser.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
What component maintains a constant drop of 70 psid to the metering valve and returns excess fuel flow to the inlet side of the high pressure pump on the AE21OOD3?
- A.
Pressure drop and spill valve
- B.
Spill valve and de-pressure
- C.
Pressure increase and spill valve
- D.
Both A and B
Correct Answer
A. Pressure drop and spill valveExplanation
The correct answer is "Pressure drop and spill valve". In the AE21OOD3 system, the component responsible for maintaining a constant drop of 70 psid to the metering valve and returning excess fuel flow to the inlet side of the high-pressure pump is a combination of pressure drop and spill valve. The pressure drop ensures a consistent drop in pressure, while the spill valve helps in redirecting excess fuel flow back to the pump's inlet side. Both components work together to regulate the fuel flow effectively in the system.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
On the AE21OOD3 engine, at what psid is the fuel flow relief valve in the high pressure pump fully opened?
- A.
850
- B.
100
- C.
340
- D.
750
Correct Answer
D. 750Explanation
The fuel flow relief valve in the high pressure pump on the AE21OOD3 engine is fully opened at 750 psid.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
What component on the F108 engine establishes the schedule for positioning the VBV's?
- A.
MFC
- B.
AFC
- C.
RGB
- D.
MEC
Correct Answer
D. MECExplanation
The MEC (Main Engine Controller) is responsible for establishing the schedule for positioning the VBV's (Variable Bleed Valves) on the F108 engine. The MEC monitors various engine parameters and adjusts the position of the VBV's accordingly to optimize engine performance and efficiency. This ensures that the engine operates within its specified limits and maintains optimal fuel burn and thrust output.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
On the F108 engine, what parameters determine the position of the VSV's?
- A.
N2 AND BIT
- B.
N1 AND CIT
- C.
N2 AND CIT
- D.
N1 AND TIT
Correct Answer
C. N2 AND CITExplanation
The position of the VSV's on the F108 engine is determined by two parameters: N2 and CIT. N2 refers to the rotational speed of the high-pressure compressor, while CIT stands for Compressor Inlet Temperature. These two parameters play a crucial role in controlling the position of the Variable Stator Vanes (VSV's) in order to optimize engine performance and efficiency.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
What type of pump is on the F108 engine fuel pump high pressure stage?
- A.
Positive displacement gear type
- B.
Negative displacement gear type
- C.
Axial displacement gear type
- D.
Centrifugal displacement gear type
Correct Answer
A. Positive displacement gear typeExplanation
The F108 engine fuel pump high pressure stage is a positive displacement gear type pump. This means that it uses gears to create a fixed volume of fluid that is then pushed through the pump. Positive displacement pumps are known for their ability to provide a consistent flow rate regardless of changes in pressure, making them suitable for applications where precise control is required. In this case, the positive displacement gear type pump is used to ensure that the fuel is delivered at a high pressure to meet the engine's requirements.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
Which three units can the CEDS replace at the organizational level and at the test cell?
- A.
DCU, GSU, EAU
- B.
DCA, GSA, EDU
- C.
DCU, GSU, EDU
- D.
DCU, GSCU, EAU
Correct Answer
A. DCU, GSU, EAUExplanation
The CEDS can replace the DCU, GSU, and EAU units at both the organizational level and the test cell.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
What parts of the propeller assembly form the feather stop?
- A.
Front face of the piston, rear face of the hub, and an adjustment washer
- B.
Rear face of the piston, front face of the hub, and an adjustment washer
- C.
Axial face of the piston, front face of the hub, and an adjustment washer
- D.
Mid face of the piston, front face of the hub, and an adjustment washer
Correct Answer
B. Rear face of the piston, front face of the hub, and an adjustment washerExplanation
The feather stop in the propeller assembly is formed by the rear face of the piston, front face of the hub, and an adjustment washer. These components work together to control the pitch angle of the propeller blades, allowing them to be adjusted to the desired position for different flight conditions. The rear face of the piston and front face of the hub serve as the contact points for the adjustment washer, which can be moved to change the position of the propeller blades and control their angle of attack.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
How is piston and shaft movement translated to vary propeller blade angle?
- A.
Through the operating pin
- B.
Through the major pin
- C.
Through the pinion input gear pin
- D.
Through the operating shaft
Correct Answer
A. Through the operating pinExplanation
The movement of the piston and shaft is translated to vary the propeller blade angle through the operating pin. This indicates that the operating pin is responsible for transmitting the motion from the piston and shaft to adjust the angle of the propeller blades.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
What provides ice protection on the leading edge of each propeller blade?
- A.
Anti ice boots
- B.
Deicing plate
- C.
Energized deicer valve
- D.
Deicing boots
Correct Answer
D. Deicing bootsExplanation
Deicing boots are used to provide ice protection on the leading edge of each propeller blade. These boots are made of a flexible material that expands and contracts, causing any ice that forms on the blade to break off. This helps prevent ice accumulation, which can affect the performance and efficiency of the propeller. By using deicing boots, the leading edge of the propeller blade remains clear of ice, allowing for safe and efficient operation of the aircraft.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 06, 2024Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Feb 01, 2013Quiz Created by
Pitmane23
- ACA Quizzes
- ACCA Quizzes
- ACE Quizzes
- BCBA Quizzes
- CCP Quizzes
- CDCs Quizzes
- CEH Quizzes
- CISA Quizzes
- CISCO Quizzes
- CISSP Quizzes
- CompTIA Quizzes
- CPA Quizzes
- CPAT Quizzes
- CPFA Quizzes
- CPP Quizzes
- CPT Quizzes
- CSA Quizzes
- CSET Quizzes
- CST Quizzes
- CSWIP Quizzes
- FTCE Quizzes
- HIPAA Quizzes
- IAHCSMM Quizzes
- ISTQB Quizzes
- LEED Ga Quizzes
- MBLEx Quizzes
- TEAS Quizzes
Back to top