2A651 CDC All Volume Random Self Test Questions

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1. An augmentor is classified as what type of an engine?

Explanation

A ramjet engine is a type of engine that belongs to the category of augmentor engines. Unlike other engines, a ramjet engine does not have any moving parts and operates on the principle of compressing incoming air before combustion. It is commonly used in high-speed aircraft and missiles. Therefore, the correct answer is Ramjet engine.

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About This Quiz
2A651 CDC All Volume Random Self Test Questions - Quiz

This quiz, titled '2A651 CDC All Volume Random Self Test Questions,' assesses knowledge in logistics management within a military framework. It covers topics such as repair cycle assets,... see morerequisition priorities, documentation procedures, and accountability of equipment, providing essential training for logistics personnel. see less

2. Which part of the augmentor reduces the velocity of the gases so that the flame stability is maintained during augmentor operation?

Explanation

The flameholder is responsible for reducing the velocity of the gases in the augmentor, ensuring that the flame remains stable during operation. By slowing down the gases, the flame can be maintained at a consistent level, allowing for efficient combustion and optimal performance of the augmentor. The other options, such as sprayrings, exhaust nozzle, and exhaust liner, are not directly involved in reducing gas velocity and maintaining flame stability.

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3. What type of cover is opened by using a zipper?

Explanation

A zipper is commonly used to open and close a prefabricated cover. Prefabricated covers are pre-made and usually have a specific purpose, such as covering furniture, vehicles, or equipment. The zipper allows for easy access to the contents or to secure the cover in place. Cotton wall fabricator, cover, and loose fitting flexible cover do not specifically indicate the use of a zipper, making them less likely to be the correct answer.

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4. Which turbine drives the front compressor on a dual spool engine?

Explanation

The correct answer is the rear turbine. In a dual spool engine, there are two separate turbines, one at the front and one at the rear. The rear turbine is responsible for driving the front compressor, which is a vital component in the engine's operation. The front turbine, mid turbine, and center turbine do not drive the front compressor, making them incorrect options.

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5. What maintenance metric is perhaps the best know yardstick for measuring a units performance?

Explanation

MC RATE, also known as Mean Corrective Rate, is a maintenance metric that measures the average number of corrective maintenance actions performed on a unit over a specific period of time. It is considered the best-known yardstick for measuring a unit's performance because it indicates the frequency at which maintenance actions are required, providing insights into the reliability and effectiveness of the unit. A higher MC RATE suggests that the unit requires frequent corrective maintenance, indicating potential issues with its performance and reliability.

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6. What are the primary mechanical controls provided to the control assembly?

Explanation

The primary mechanical controls provided to the control assembly are the throttle and the condition lever. The throttle is used to control the engine power output by adjusting the amount of fuel-air mixture entering the engine. The condition lever, on the other hand, is used to control the engine's operating condition, such as start, idle, and shutdown. These two controls are essential for the pilot to have precise control over the aircraft's engine performance and ensure safe and efficient operation.

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7. How many shafs comprise the compressor/turbine shaft assembly?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3 because the question is asking about the number of shafs in the compressor/turbine shaft assembly. Since there is only one compressor and one turbine, there will be only one shaft for each, making a total of three shafs in the assembly.

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8. What is the approximate air to fuel ratio that is used for the actual burning process in a combustion chamber?

Explanation

The approximate air to fuel ratio used for the actual burning process in a combustion chamber is 15:1. This means that for every 15 units of air, 1 unit of fuel is used. This ratio is important to ensure efficient and complete combustion of the fuel, as too little air can result in incomplete combustion and the formation of harmful pollutants, while too much air can lead to wasted fuel and reduced efficiency. A 15:1 ratio strikes a balance between these factors, allowing for optimal combustion and energy production.

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9. What MRP level should be assigned to perform routine repair of AGE and repair cycle assets?

Explanation

Priority 5 should be assigned for routine repair of AGE and repair cycle assets. This indicates that these repairs have the lowest priority compared to other maintenance tasks. Assigning a lower priority level allows resources to be allocated more efficiently, ensuring that higher priority repairs are completed first. This ensures that critical equipment and assets are maintained promptly while routine repairs can be scheduled accordingly without disrupting operations.

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10. What component on the F108 engine establishes the schedule for positioning the VBV's?

Explanation

The MEC (Main Engine Controller) is responsible for establishing the schedule for positioning the VBV's (Variable Bleed Valves) on the F108 engine. The MEC monitors various engine parameters and adjusts the position of the VBV's accordingly to optimize engine performance and efficiency. This ensures that the engine operates within its specified limits and maintains optimal fuel burn and thrust output.

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11. EAID items that require formal supply accountability must be reflected on what listing?

Explanation

EAID items that require formal supply accountability must be reflected on the CA/CRL listing. The CA/CRL (Commanders Authorization/Commanders Restricted List) is a comprehensive inventory of authorized items that require formal supply accountability. This listing helps ensure that these items are properly tracked and accounted for, reducing the risk of loss or misuse.

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12. If a TO change contains new material that cannot be included on an existing page, how are added pages assigned?

Explanation

When a TO change contains new material that cannot be included on an existing page, added pages are assigned using the format 2-2-1 or 2-2A. This means that the added pages will be numbered as 2-2-1 or 2-2A, indicating that they are additional pages related to section 2-2 of the TO. This format helps to maintain the organization and structure of the TO while incorporating new information that cannot fit on existing pages.

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13. Which type of compressor is more durable, the axial flow or the centrifugal?

Explanation

The centrifugal compressor is more durable compared to the axial flow compressor. This is because the centrifugal compressor has a simpler design with fewer moving parts, which reduces the chances of mechanical failure. Additionally, the centrifugal compressor operates at lower speeds and lower temperatures, resulting in less wear and tear on the components. Overall, the centrifugal compressor offers better durability and longevity in comparison to the axial flow compressor.

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14. What is the common term for repair cycle assets?

Explanation

DIFM stands for "Do It For Me," which refers to assets that are repaired or maintained by a third-party service provider rather than the owner or user. These assets are commonly known as DIFM parts. Therefore, the correct answer is DIFM PARTS.

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15. What are the height ranges of each of the five maintenance platforms?

Explanation

The correct answer is C-1, 4 FEET, B-1, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-2, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-4, 3 TO 7 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12. This answer provides the height ranges for each of the five maintenance platforms, with platform C-1 being 4 feet tall, platform B-1 being 3 to 10 feet tall, platform B-2 being 13 to 20 feet tall, platform B-4 being 3 to 7 feet tall, and platform B-5 being 7 to 12 feet tall.

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16. The flexible feedback cables for the VBV's and VSV's transmit signals to what components?

Explanation

The flexible feedback cables for the VBV's and VSV's transmit signals to the MEC components.

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17. What tools can you use if you are required to repeen an area of the blade?

Explanation

To repeen an area of the blade, you can use a power-driven aluminum blade peener or a peening hammer. These tools are specifically designed for reshaping or reworking the blade surface by striking it with controlled force. The power-driven aluminum blade peener utilizes a motorized mechanism to deliver consistent and precise peening, while a peening hammer is a handheld tool that allows for manual peening. Both tools are effective in restoring the desired shape and strength to the blade.

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18. Which screw is made from high tensile material?

Explanation

A structural screw is made from high tensile material. This type of screw is specifically designed to provide strong and secure connections in structural applications, such as building frames and heavy-duty construction projects. The high tensile material ensures that the screw can withstand high levels of tension and pressure without breaking or becoming loose, making it a reliable choice for demanding and load-bearing tasks.

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19. Who is responsible through the MOS/CC to the MXG/CC for monitoring the overall health of the fleet?

Explanation

The MOF/CC (Maintenance Operations Flight Commander) is responsible for monitoring the overall health of the fleet. They are assisted in this role by the MOF SUPT (Maintenance Operations Flight Superintendent). This means that the MOF/CC is the primary person accountable for ensuring the fleet's well-being, while the MOF SUPT provides support and assistance in carrying out these responsibilities.

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20. Which type of nut requires an auxilary locking washer?

Explanation

A plain nut requires an auxiliary locking washer. A plain nut is a type of nut that does not have any built-in locking mechanism to prevent it from loosening. Therefore, an auxiliary locking washer is used in conjunction with a plain nut to provide additional security and prevent the nut from coming loose. The locking washer is placed between the nut and the surface it is being tightened onto, creating friction and resistance that helps to keep the nut in place. This combination of a plain nut and an auxiliary locking washer is commonly used in applications where vibration or movement may cause the nut to loosen.

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21. The divergent nozzle segments are free floating, permitting what types of operations?

Explanation

The correct answer is Subsonic and supersonic. The divergent nozzle segments are free floating, meaning they can move and adjust to different positions. This allows the nozzle to be used in both subsonic and supersonic operations. In subsonic operations, the nozzle segments can be adjusted to create a larger exit area, which helps to slow down the exhaust gases. In supersonic operations, the nozzle segments can be adjusted to create a smaller exit area, which helps to accelerate the exhaust gases to supersonic speeds. Therefore, the divergent nozzle segments permit both subsonic and supersonic operations.

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22. At what percent engine RPM does the T56 speed sensitive control de-energize the ignition exciter?

Explanation

The T56 speed sensitive control de-energizes the ignition exciter at 65% engine RPM.

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23. Which type of air compressor is the most ineffeceint type of air compressor?

Explanation

The gear compressor is the most inefficient type of air compressor because it uses gears to compress the air. Gears create more friction and heat, resulting in energy loss and decreased efficiency compared to other types of compressors.

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24. Which part of the micrometer has graduations that represent tenths of an inch?

Explanation

The barrel of a micrometer is the part that contains the graduations representing tenths of an inch. It is the section of the micrometer that is used to measure the larger increments, while the thimble is used for more precise measurements. The pivot lever and micro handler are not relevant to the graduations representing tenths of an inch.

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25. Who provides you with the required equipment manager training?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Equipment Management element at Base Supply. This is because the Equipment Management element at Base Supply is responsible for providing the required equipment manager training. They have the knowledge and expertise to train individuals on how to effectively manage and maintain equipment. They understand the specific requirements and protocols for equipment management and can provide comprehensive training to ensure that individuals are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge in this area.

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26. On dial indicators with two indicators within one dial face, what does the smaller indicator measure?

Explanation

The smaller indicator on dial indicators with two indicators within one dial face measures revolutions.

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27. Which propeller assembly provides electrical circuits between the brush block assembly and the spinner, afterbody, and blade assemblies?

Explanation

The deicer contact ring holder assembly is responsible for providing electrical circuits between the brush block assembly and the spinner, afterbody, and blade assemblies. This means that it facilitates the flow of electrical current between these components, allowing for proper functioning of the propeller assembly.

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28. Which IMDS-CDB subsystem monitors estimated time in commission ETIC?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Status and inventory reporting." This subsystem is responsible for monitoring the estimated time in commission (ETIC). It keeps track of the status and inventory of equipment, which includes monitoring the estimated time that equipment will remain in commission.

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29. At what percent engine RPM does the T56 speed sensitive control engergize the ignition relay?

Explanation

The correct answer is 16% 2,200. The T56 speed sensitive control energizes the ignition relay at 16% engine RPM.

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30. Name the four types of variable nozzle systems?

Explanation

The correct answer is Flap, Iris, Convergent divergent, Vectoring. These are the four types of variable nozzle systems. The flap nozzle system involves the movement of flaps to adjust the exhaust nozzle area. The iris nozzle system uses an iris mechanism to change the nozzle area. The convergent-divergent nozzle system has a convergent section followed by a divergent section to control the exhaust flow. The vectoring nozzle system allows for thrust vectoring, which means the direction of the exhaust can be adjusted to provide additional control and maneuverability.

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31. Which type of air compressor consists of a two port casing that houses a blower mechanism?

Explanation

A Roots compressor consists of a two-port casing that houses a blower mechanism. This type of air compressor uses a pair of meshing lobed rotors to compress the air. As the rotors rotate, air is trapped in the space between the lobes and the casing, and is then compressed and discharged through the outlet port. The design of the two-port casing in a Roots compressor allows for efficient compression and delivery of compressed air.

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32. When a jet engine reaches idle speed, what determines how the fuel control regulates engine speed?

Explanation

The power lever setting determines how the fuel control regulates engine speed when a jet engine reaches idle speed. The power lever setting is the control used by the pilot to adjust the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine. By adjusting the power lever setting, the pilot can increase or decrease the engine speed, which in turn affects the fuel control's regulation of the engine speed.

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33. How many fuel nozzles are installed on the AE2100D3 engine diffuser?

Explanation

The correct answer is 16. This means that there are 16 fuel nozzles installed on the AE2100D3 engine diffuser.

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34. What MRP level should be assigned to perform scheduled maint to include periodic insp, routine TCTO's?

Explanation

Priority 4 should be assigned to perform scheduled maintenance that includes periodic inspections and routine Time Compliance Technical Orders (TCTO's). This indicates that the maintenance task is important but not urgent, as it falls in the middle of the priority scale. Assigning Priority 4 ensures that the maintenance is completed in a timely manner, but allows for flexibility in scheduling to accommodate other higher priority tasks if necessary.

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35. Which type of air compressor is commonly used on the flight line?

Explanation

Piston pump compressors are commonly used on the flight line because they are reliable and efficient. These compressors use a piston to compress air, which is then stored in a tank for later use. They are capable of delivering high-pressure air and are suitable for a range of applications, including inflating tires, powering pneumatic tools, and supplying air for aircraft systems. Their compact size and portability make them ideal for use on the flight line, where space and mobility are important factors.

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36. Approximately what percent of the energy produced by the fuel is needed to maintain the jet engine operating cycle?

Explanation

The answer is 60 because it represents the approximate percentage of energy produced by the fuel that is required to maintain the jet engine operating cycle. This means that 60% of the energy generated from the fuel is used to keep the engine running efficiently and effectively.

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37. What two factors determine the priority for an off base requisition?

Explanation

The priority for an off base requisition is determined by two factors: FAD and UJC.

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38. Which valve housing component contains the beta set cam and alpha shaft rigging cam?

Explanation

The alpha shaft contains the beta set cam and alpha shaft rigging cam.

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39. What combined maintenance approach modifies or eliminates the intermediate (off equipment) function, where possible, by consolidating that repair function at the depot level?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2LM. 2LM stands for Two-Level Maintenance, which is a combined maintenance approach that aims to modify or eliminate the intermediate (off equipment) function by consolidating the repair function at the depot level. This approach allows for more efficient and cost-effective maintenance processes by reducing the number of maintenance levels and streamlining the repair functions.

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40. What is the purpose of the air chamber in axial flow compressor engines?

Explanation

The purpose of the air chamber in axial flow compressor engines is to bleed air from the N2 High pressure compressor.

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41. After the gases leave the turbine section and enter the exhaust section, what type of velocity do they have?

Explanation

After the gases leave the turbine section and enter the exhaust section, they have an axial velocity. Axial velocity refers to the velocity of the gases in the same direction as the axis of the turbine. This means that the gases continue to flow in a straight line, parallel to the turbine axis, as they exit the exhaust section. This type of velocity is important for efficient exhaust flow and to maintain the overall performance of the turbine system.

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42. On the F108 engine, what parameters determine the position of the VSV's?

Explanation

The position of the VSV's on the F108 engine is determined by two parameters: N2 and CIT. N2 refers to the rotational speed of the high-pressure compressor, while CIT stands for Compressor Inlet Temperature. These two parameters play a crucial role in controlling the position of the Variable Stator Vanes (VSV's) in order to optimize engine performance and efficiency.

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43. What is the most successful type of thrust reverser?

Explanation

Aerodynamic blockage is the most successful type of thrust reverser because it involves blocking the exhaust flow from the engine, creating a barrier that redirects the thrust forward. This method is highly effective in reducing the aircraft's speed during landing, as it utilizes the air flowing around the engine to create a reverse thrust force. Mechanical blockage, on the other hand, involves physically blocking the exhaust flow with mechanical devices, which may not be as efficient or reliable. Reverse thrust and thrust reversal systems are broader terms that encompass various methods, including both aerodynamic and mechanical blockage.

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44. Which control switch is used to take measurements in a circuit thats difficult to reach?

Explanation

The hold pushbutton is used to take measurements in a circuit that is difficult to reach. This switch allows the user to hold the measurement value on the display, even after removing the test leads from the circuit. This is especially useful when the circuit is in a hard-to-reach location or when the user needs to take multiple measurements without having to constantly keep the test leads connected. By pressing the hold pushbutton, the user can freeze the measurement value on the display for easy reading and analysis.

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45. How many volts does the AC ignition system deliver to the igniter plug?

Explanation

The AC ignition system delivers 20,000 volts to the igniter plug.

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46. What is the rate of spark in an AE2100d3?

Explanation

The AE2100d3 engine has a rate of spark between 4 to 7 sparks each second. This means that during the operation of the engine, it produces an average of 4 to 7 sparks every second.

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47. Which bearing discrepancy is the result of continued shaft oscillation?

Explanation

False brinelling is the bearing discrepancy that is the result of continued shaft oscillation. Brinelling refers to the indentation of the bearing raceway caused by excessive pressure or impact. In false brinelling, the oscillation of the shaft causes the formation of false brinell marks on the bearing raceway. These marks are not true brinell marks caused by static loads, but rather they are caused by the repeated sliding motion of the shaft. False brinelling can lead to premature bearing failure and increased friction and wear.

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48. Which valve housing component can be pinned at 5 degree increments?

Explanation

The correct answer is Beta shaft rigging cam. The cam component in the valve housing can be pinned at 5 degree increments.

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49. What achieves diffusion in axial flow compressor engine?

Explanation

The divergent shape of the casing aft of the compressor guide vanes achieves diffusion in an axial flow compressor engine. This shape allows the airflow to expand and slow down as it moves through the compressor, increasing the pressure and temperature of the air. This is important for efficient engine operation and performance.

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50. What form should be used to establish a TODO accout?

Explanation

The correct form to establish a TODO account is AFTO IMT 43.

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51. What TO gives the procedure for cleaning a jet engine?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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52. Where is the point of highest pressure within a jet engine?

Explanation

The diffuser section is where the point of highest pressure is within a jet engine. This section is responsible for slowing down and diffusing the high-speed, high-pressure air coming out of the compressor section. As the air enters the diffuser, its velocity decreases, causing an increase in pressure. This high-pressure air is then directed into the combustion chamber for fuel combustion. Therefore, the diffuser section is where the pressure reaches its highest point before entering the combustion process.

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53. Where can you find a block by block explanation of how to document the afto form 350 tag?

Explanation

The correct answer is 00-20-2. This is because 00-20-2 is a technical manual that provides a block by block explanation of how to document the afto form 350 tag. It contains detailed instructions and guidelines on how to properly fill out the form, ensuring accurate and thorough documentation.

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54. Which forms should you submit if it's determined that a first time request part will become a recurring one and therefore, the stock level needs to be adjusted?

Explanation

If it is determined that a first-time request part will become a recurring one and the stock level needs to be adjusted, the forms that should be submitted are AF IMT 1996.

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55. Which type of washer is used on grooved shafts?

Explanation

Tab type washers are used on grooved shafts because they have a tab or tabbed edge that fits into the groove, providing a secure and stable connection. This type of washer helps prevent rotation or movement of the washer on the shaft, making it ideal for applications where the shaft needs to be locked or held in place.

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56. Which type of duct design does a high bypass engine usually have?

Explanation

A high bypass engine usually has a short duct design. This design allows for a larger bypass ratio, which means that a larger amount of air bypasses the engine core and produces more thrust. The shorter duct design also helps to reduce drag and increase fuel efficiency.

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57. Which unit connects the ADG to the F-16 engine?

Explanation

The PTO (Power Take-Off) shaft connects the ADG (Air-Driven Generator) to the F-16 engine. The PTO shaft transfers power from the engine to the ADG, allowing it to generate electrical power for various aircraft systems. This connection ensures that the ADG can provide the necessary power backup in case of an engine failure or other power loss situations.

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58. On the AE21OOD3 engine, at what psid is the fuel flow relief valve in the high pressure pump fully opened?

Explanation

The fuel flow relief valve in the high pressure pump on the AE21OOD3 engine is fully opened at 750 psid.

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59. Where is the diameter fo a bolt measured?

Explanation

The diameter of a bolt is measured on the grip. The grip refers to the portion of the bolt that is held or grasped by a tool or a person. This measurement is important for determining the appropriate size of wrench or socket needed to tighten or loosen the bolt. The head, threads, and shank are other parts of the bolt, but the diameter is specifically measured on the grip.

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60. What is the purpose of the inducer rotor?

Explanation

The purpose of the inducer rotor is to pick up the air smoothly and feed it into the impeller. This allows for a continuous and efficient flow of air into the compressor. By picking up the air smoothly, the inducer rotor helps to reduce turbulence and ensure a uniform flow of air, which is essential for optimal compressor performance. The impeller then further compresses the air before it is sent to the turbine or diffuser.

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61. What type of pump is on the F108 engine fuel pump high pressure stage?

Explanation

The F108 engine fuel pump high pressure stage is a positive displacement gear type pump. This means that it uses gears to create a fixed volume of fluid that is then pushed through the pump. Positive displacement pumps are known for their ability to provide a consistent flow rate regardless of changes in pressure, making them suitable for applications where precise control is required. In this case, the positive displacement gear type pump is used to ensure that the fuel is delivered at a high pressure to meet the engine's requirements.

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62. What maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform maintenance on primary mission aircraft, related AGE, and munitions support equipment for the first 8 hours after landing?

Explanation

Priority 2 should be assigned for performing maintenance on primary mission aircraft, related AGE, and munitions support equipment for the first 8 hours after landing. This indicates that the maintenance should be carried out in a timely manner, but it is not of the highest priority. Priority 1 would be reserved for more critical maintenance tasks, while Priority 4 would be for lower priority or non-essential maintenance.

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63. Which manual covers reporting an engine that was improperly shipped?

Explanation

AFJMAN 24-204 covers reporting an engine that was improperly shipped.

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64. The divergent exhaust nozzle is what kind of system?

Explanation

The divergent exhaust nozzle is a free floating system. This means that it is not rigidly attached to any other component and can move or rotate freely. This allows for flexibility and adjustment in the exhaust flow, optimizing performance and efficiency.

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65. At what range temperature does the AE2100D3 engine fuel temp switch operate?

Explanation

The AE2100D3 engine fuel temp switch operates at temperatures below 32 degrees F.

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66. The thrust reverser control valve controls hydraulic power for actuating what components?

Explanation

The thrust reverser control valve controls hydraulic power for actuating the fan and core thrust reversers. This means that the valve is responsible for directing hydraulic power to these components, allowing them to be activated and used for thrust reversal. The fan and core thrust reversers are important components in aircraft engines that help to redirect the airflow and assist in braking during landing.

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67. Which bearing discrepancy is caused by heavy shock loads or impact?

Explanation

True Brinelling is the bearing discrepancy caused by heavy shock loads or impact. Brinelling refers to the permanent indentation or flattening of the bearing raceway due to excessive pressure, and True Brinelling specifically occurs as a result of heavy shock loads or impact. This can happen when a bearing is subjected to sudden and extreme forces, causing the metal to deform and create indentations on the raceway surface. As a result, the bearing's performance and lifespan can be significantly affected.

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68. When the thermocouples in an EGT system are hooked up in parallel, what type of circuit is this?

Explanation

When the thermocouples in an EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) system are hooked up in parallel, it creates an averaging circuit. In an averaging circuit, the output is the average of the inputs. In this case, the parallel connection of the thermocouples allows for the measurement of the average exhaust gas temperature, providing a more accurate representation of the overall temperature.

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69. What two factors determine what proportion of the engergy of a fuel is actually used to propel an aircraft forward?

Explanation

The proportion of energy of a fuel that is actually used to propel an aircraft forward is determined by thermal efficiency and propulsive efficiency. Thermal efficiency refers to how effectively the fuel is converted into thermal energy, while propulsive efficiency refers to how effectively the thermal energy is converted into forward propulsion. These two factors together determine the overall efficiency of the aircraft's propulsion system.

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70. What component schedules the start of fuel and ignition for the JFS?

Explanation

The ESS controller is responsible for scheduling the start of fuel and ignition for the JFS (Jet Fuel Starter). It controls the timing and sequence of events required to start the JFS, ensuring that fuel is delivered and ignition is initiated at the correct time. This component plays a crucial role in the overall start-up process of the JFS.

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71. What type of maintenance facility is a hybrid of 2LM and 3LM?

Explanation

A regional repair center is a type of maintenance facility that combines aspects of both the 2LM (two-level maintenance) and 3LM (three-level maintenance) systems. This means that the regional repair center is responsible for both intermediate-level repairs (2LM) and depot-level repairs (3LM). It serves as a centralized location within a specific region, providing maintenance and repair services for a variety of equipment and systems. This hybrid approach allows for efficient and effective maintenance operations, ensuring that repairs are conducted at the appropriate level and minimizing downtime for equipment.

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72. What component maintains a constant drop of 70 psid to the metering valve and returns excess fuel flow to the inlet side of the high pressure pump on the AE21OOD3?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Pressure drop and spill valve". In the AE21OOD3 system, the component responsible for maintaining a constant drop of 70 psid to the metering valve and returning excess fuel flow to the inlet side of the high-pressure pump is a combination of pressure drop and spill valve. The pressure drop ensures a consistent drop in pressure, while the spill valve helps in redirecting excess fuel flow back to the pump's inlet side. Both components work together to regulate the fuel flow effectively in the system.

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73. What provides ice protection on the leading edge of each propeller blade?

Explanation

Deicing boots are used to provide ice protection on the leading edge of each propeller blade. These boots are made of a flexible material that expands and contracts, causing any ice that forms on the blade to break off. This helps prevent ice accumulation, which can affect the performance and efficiency of the propeller. By using deicing boots, the leading edge of the propeller blade remains clear of ice, allowing for safe and efficient operation of the aircraft.

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74. Which bearing descrepancy occurs from continuous thrust loading during bearing rotation?

Explanation

Continuous thrust loading during bearing rotation can cause the formation of bands. Bands are localized areas of increased wear and damage on the bearing surface. This occurs due to the continuous pressure and friction caused by the thrust loading, leading to the development of bands. These bands can reduce the effectiveness and lifespan of the bearing, ultimately leading to bearing failure if not addressed.

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75. Where can you look to find information concerning how to use the condition tags and the required entries for each?

Explanation

You can look in TO 00-20-3 to find information concerning how to use the condition tags and the required entries for each.

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76. What is used to operate the flaps in the flap type nozzle system?

Explanation

In a flap type nozzle system, the flaps are operated by air pressure acting on a series of pistons. This means that the movement of the flaps is controlled by the force exerted by the air pressure on the pistons. The air pressure pushes the pistons, which in turn move the flaps to the desired position. This mechanism allows for precise control and adjustment of the flaps, ensuring optimal performance of the nozzle system.

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77. What is the impact of a DR report with a 1C priority?

Explanation

A DR report with a 1C priority indicates that it prevents the accomplishment of an essential capability. This means that the issue identified in the report is of high importance and urgency, and if not addressed, it will significantly hinder or prevent the organization from fulfilling a critical function or achieving a crucial objective. It emphasizes the need for immediate attention and action to resolve the problem and ensure the continuity of essential operations.

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78. What does the CVG system move and control?

Explanation

The CVG system moves and controls the Compressor IGV (Inlet Guide Vanes) and the first five rows of compressor stator vanes.

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79. Which high energy capacitor ignition part smoothes out the pulsations in the current?

Explanation

A gas filled rectifier is a high energy capacitor ignition part that smoothes out the pulsations in the current. It is designed to convert alternating current (AC) into direct current (DC) by using a gas-filled chamber. The gas-filled rectifier acts as a valve, allowing current to flow in only one direction, thereby eliminating the pulsations in the current and providing a smoother output.

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80. What component spreads the flame to the radial gutters of the flameholder?

Explanation

The mid gutter ring is the component that spreads the flame to the radial gutters of the flameholder.

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81. Below 45 percent corrected core engine speed, in what position are the VSV's?

Explanation

When the corrected core engine speed is below 45 percent, the VSV's (Variable Stator Vanes) are fully closed. This means that the vanes are in a position where they restrict the flow of air through the engine, leading to a decrease in engine power output. By fully closing the VSV's, the engine can maintain a lower speed and prevent any potential damage or instability that may occur at lower speeds.

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82. In what position are the compressor air bleed valves after start and during normal engine operation?

Explanation

During start and normal engine operation, the compressor air bleed valves are closed. This means that the valves are shut, preventing any air from being bled off or released from the compressor. Keeping the valves closed allows for maximum efficiency and performance of the engine, as it ensures that all compressed air is directed towards the combustion process.

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83. The operation of the control valve is in what three functional modes?

Explanation

The control valve operates in three functional modes: stowed and locked, deploying, and stowing. In the stowed and locked mode, the valve is secured in a fixed position. In the deploying mode, the valve is activated to open or release the flow. In the stowing mode, the valve is returned to its original position or closed. These three modes cover the different actions that the control valve can perform, ensuring proper control and regulation of the flow.

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84. Which three units can the CEDS replace at the organizational level and at the test cell?

Explanation

The CEDS can replace the DCU, GSU, and EAU units at both the organizational level and the test cell.

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85. In what position is the rotating loop in a generator when no voltage is being produced?

Explanation

When no voltage is being produced in a generator, the rotating loop is in a vertical position. This means that the loop is oriented vertically, perpendicular to the ground.

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86. Where is the point of highest airflow velocity in a jet engine?

Explanation

The ejector nozzle is the point of highest airflow velocity in a jet engine. This is because the ejector nozzle is responsible for expelling the exhaust gases from the engine at high speeds. As the exhaust gases pass through the nozzle, they are accelerated, resulting in the highest airflow velocity at this point.

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87. The C-17 has how many fan blocker doors?

Explanation

The C-17 has 12 fan blocker doors.

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88. What unit senses variation from the desired CSD output speed?

Explanation

The basic speed governor is responsible for sensing variations from the desired CSD (Constant Speed Drive) output speed. It is designed to maintain a consistent speed by adjusting the fuel supply to the engine based on the load demand. The basic speed governor continuously monitors the output speed and makes necessary adjustments to ensure that it remains at the desired level. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the stability and efficiency of the CSD system.

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89. The C-17 has how many 95 percent proximity sensors?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2. This means that the C-17 aircraft has only two 95 percent proximity sensors. These sensors are used to detect the presence or proximity of objects or obstacles around the aircraft. Having only two sensors suggests that the C-17 may rely on other systems or methods for detecting objects and maintaining safe distances during flight.

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90. What component is supported inside the augmentor liner?

Explanation

The correct answer is Mixing Duct. The mixing duct is a component that is supported inside the augmentor liner. It is responsible for mixing the fuel and air to achieve efficient combustion in the engine.

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91. Compressor bleed air is extracted from what stator exit stage for anti icing?

Explanation

Compressor bleed air is extracted from the 5th stator exit stage for anti-icing.

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92. What two types of stress act on the turbine rotor blades?

Explanation

The correct answer is heat and rotational forces. Turbine rotor blades are subjected to high temperatures due to the combustion process, which creates heat stress on the blades. Additionally, as the rotor spins, it experiences rotational forces that can put mechanical stress on the blades. These two types of stress, heat and rotational forces, act on the turbine rotor blades.

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93. How many positioins does a typical iris type nozzle system have?

Explanation

A typical iris type nozzle system has 2 positions. This means that the nozzle system can be adjusted or set in two different positions, providing flexibility and control over the direction and intensity of the fluid flow.

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94. What type of combustion section does the JFS have?

Explanation

The JFS (Jet Fuel Starter) has a reverse flow, annular type combustion section. In a reverse flow combustion section, the air and fuel flow in the opposite direction of the engine's exhaust gases. This design helps to improve the mixing of fuel and air, resulting in more efficient combustion. An annular type combustion section refers to a circular arrangement of fuel nozzles and combustion chambers around the engine's central axis. This design allows for a more compact and streamlined engine configuration.

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95. The start panel is monitored and controlled by the mission computer by which bus?

Explanation

The start panel is monitored and controlled by the mission computer using the MIL-STD-1553B data bus. This data bus is a standard used for communication between avionics systems in military aircraft. It allows for the exchange of data and commands between different components of the aircraft, such as the mission computer and the start panel. Therefore, the mission computer is able to monitor and control the start panel through this data bus.

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96. What parts of the propeller assembly form the feather stop?

Explanation

The feather stop in the propeller assembly is formed by the rear face of the piston, front face of the hub, and an adjustment washer. These components work together to control the pitch angle of the propeller blades, allowing them to be adjusted to the desired position for different flight conditions. The rear face of the piston and front face of the hub serve as the contact points for the adjustment washer, which can be moved to change the position of the propeller blades and control their angle of attack.

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97. What funciton does the vibrator unit in the DC ignition system perform?

Explanation

The vibrator unit in the DC ignition system performs the function of changing direct current to pulsating current. This is important because the ignition system requires a pulsating current to create the spark needed for the combustion process in an engine. By converting the direct current from the battery into pulsating current, the vibrator unit ensures that the spark plugs receive the necessary electrical pulses to ignite the fuel-air mixture in the engine cylinders.

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98. Who takes the lead in identifying, tracking, assessing, and correcting R&M deficiencies on their assigned air and space equipment and also co chairs the PIWG?

Explanation

The single manager takes the lead in identifying, tracking, assessing, and correcting R&M deficiencies on their assigned air and space equipment. They also co-chair the PIWG (Product Improvement Working Group). This indicates that the single manager has the responsibility and authority to oversee and manage the maintenance and improvement activities for the equipment, making them the most suitable choice for this role.

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99. The C-17 has how many core blocker doors?

Explanation

The C-17 has 7 core blocker doors.

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100. How many ounces of engine oil are used to lubricate the gear train?

Explanation

The answer 14.4 ounces is the correct one because it is the closest option to the actual amount of engine oil required to lubricate the gear train.

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101. The compressor inlet gearbox housing of the JFS provides drive pads and mounting flange for what assemblies?

Explanation

The compressor inlet gearbox (CGB) is responsible for transferring power from the engine to the compressor. It provides drive pads and a mounting flange for the fuel control, two speed switch assembly, and CGB itself. These assemblies are crucial for controlling the fuel flow and regulating the speed of the engine. The engine adapter PTO shaft and power turbine overspeed switch are not directly related to the compressor inlet gearbox housing.

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102. Which IMDS-CDB subsystem tracks maintenance on test equipment?

Explanation

The correct answer is ATERS. ATERS is the IMDS-CDB subsystem that tracks maintenance on test equipment. This subsystem is responsible for recording and monitoring all maintenance activities related to test equipment, ensuring that it is properly maintained and functioning effectively. By tracking maintenance on test equipment, ATERS helps to ensure the accuracy and reliability of test results, ultimately contributing to the overall quality and safety of the equipment being tested.

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103. What is the discharge rate for the main core igniter plug on a F100 engine?

Explanation

The discharge rate for the main core igniter plug on a F100 engine is 1 to 5 sparks per second.

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104. Positive pressure is maintained in the fuel control during shutdown by what system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Bypass flow system. During shutdown, the bypass flow system helps maintain positive pressure in the fuel control. This system allows the fuel to bypass certain components and continue flowing, ensuring that the pressure is maintained and preventing any potential issues or damage to the fuel control system.

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105. In AMXS/HMXS or MXS, who does the MX SUPT work for?

Explanation

The MX SUPT in AMXS/HMXS or MXS works for the MOO.

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106. Air is ducted into the fan flow path through how many exit slots?

Explanation

Air is ducted into the fan flow path through 13 exit slots.

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107. Where is the compressor acceleration bleed control valve mounted?

Explanation

The compressor acceleration bleed control valve is mounted to the aft anti-icing tube at the diffuser housing.

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108. What AF IMT should be submitted to have a TO correction or improvement be considered under the IDEA program?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF IMT 1000. The AF IMT 1000 is the form that should be submitted to have a TO correction or improvement considered under the IDEA program. This form is specifically designed for submitting ideas and suggestions for improvement within the Air Force. It allows individuals to provide detailed information about the problem or issue they have identified, as well as their proposed solution. By using the AF IMT 1000, individuals can ensure that their TO correction or improvement idea is properly documented and considered by the appropriate authorities.

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109. How is piston and shaft movement translated to vary propeller blade angle?

Explanation

The movement of the piston and shaft is translated to vary the propeller blade angle through the operating pin. This indicates that the operating pin is responsible for transmitting the motion from the piston and shaft to adjust the angle of the propeller blades.

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110. How is the CVG actuator controlled?

Explanation

The CVG actuator is controlled by high pressure fuel from the FPMU. The FPMU stands for Fuel Pump Metering Unit, which is responsible for supplying high pressure fuel to various components of the engine. In this case, it provides the necessary fuel pressure to control the CVG actuator.

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EAID items that require formal supply accountability must be reflected...
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Which screw is made from high tensile material?
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Which type of nut requires an auxilary locking washer?
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At what percent engine RPM does the T56 speed sensitive control...
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Which part of the micrometer has graduations that represent tenths of...
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On dial indicators with two indicators within one dial face, what does...
Which propeller assembly provides electrical circuits between the...
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem monitors estimated time in commission ETIC?
At what percent engine RPM does the T56 speed sensitive control...
Name the four types of variable nozzle systems?
Which type of air compressor consists of a two port casing that houses...
When a jet engine reaches idle speed, what determines how the fuel...
How many fuel nozzles are installed on the AE2100D3 engine diffuser?
What MRP level should be assigned to perform scheduled maint to...
Which type of air compressor is commonly used on the flight line?
Approximately what percent of the energy produced by the fuel is...
What two factors determine the priority for an off base requisition?
Which valve housing component contains the beta set cam and alpha...
What combined maintenance approach modifies or eliminates the...
What is the purpose of the air chamber in axial flow compressor...
After the gases leave the turbine section and enter the exhaust...
On the F108 engine, what parameters determine the position of the...
What is the most successful type of thrust reverser?
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How many volts does the AC ignition system deliver to the igniter...
What is the rate of spark in an AE2100d3?
Which bearing discrepancy is the result of continued shaft...
Which valve housing component can be pinned at 5 degree increments?
What achieves diffusion in axial flow compressor engine?
What form should be used to establish a TODO accout?
What TO gives the procedure for cleaning a jet engine?
Where is the point of highest pressure within a jet engine?
Where can you find a block by block explanation of how to document the...
Which forms should you submit if it's determined that a first time...
Which type of washer is used on grooved shafts?
Which type of duct design does a high bypass engine usually have?
Which unit connects the ADG to the F-16 engine?
On the AE21OOD3 engine, at what psid is the fuel flow relief valve in...
Where is the diameter fo a bolt measured?
What is the purpose of the inducer rotor?
What type of pump is on the F108 engine fuel pump high pressure stage?
What maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform...
Which manual covers reporting an engine that was improperly shipped?
The divergent exhaust nozzle is what kind of system?
At what range temperature does the AE2100D3 engine fuel temp switch...
The thrust reverser control valve controls hydraulic power for...
Which bearing discrepancy is caused by heavy shock loads or impact?
When the thermocouples in an EGT system are hooked up in parallel,...
What two factors determine what proportion of the engergy of a fuel is...
What component schedules the start of fuel and ignition for the JFS?
What type of maintenance facility is a hybrid of 2LM and 3LM?
What component maintains a constant drop of 70 psid to the metering...
What provides ice protection on the leading edge of each propeller...
Which bearing descrepancy occurs from continuous thrust loading during...
Where can you look to find information concerning how to use the...
What is used to operate the flaps in the flap type nozzle system?
What is the impact of a DR report with a 1C priority?
What does the CVG system move and control?
Which high energy capacitor ignition part smoothes out the pulsations...
What component spreads the flame to the radial gutters of the...
Below 45 percent corrected core engine speed, in what position are the...
In what position are the compressor air bleed valves after start and...
The operation of the control valve is in what three functional modes?
Which three units can the CEDS replace at the organizational level and...
In what position is the rotating loop in a generator when no voltage...
Where is the point of highest airflow velocity in a jet engine?
The C-17 has how many fan blocker doors?
What unit senses variation from the desired CSD output speed?
The C-17 has how many 95 percent proximity sensors?
What component is supported inside the augmentor liner?
Compressor bleed air is extracted from what stator exit stage for anti...
What two types of stress act on the turbine rotor blades?
How many positioins does a typical iris type nozzle system have?
What type of combustion section does the JFS have?
The start panel is monitored and controlled by the mission computer by...
What parts of the propeller assembly form the feather stop?
What funciton does the vibrator unit in the DC ignition system...
Who takes the lead in identifying, tracking, assessing, and correcting...
The C-17 has how many core blocker doors?
How many ounces of engine oil are used to lubricate the gear train?
The compressor inlet gearbox housing of the JFS provides drive pads...
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem tracks maintenance on test equipment?
What is the discharge rate for the main core igniter plug on a F100...
Positive pressure is maintained in the fuel control during shutdown by...
In AMXS/HMXS or MXS, who does the MX SUPT work for?
Air is ducted into the fan flow path through how many exit slots?
Where is the compressor acceleration bleed control valve mounted?
What AF IMT should be submitted to have a TO correction or improvement...
How is piston and shaft movement translated to vary propeller blade...
How is the CVG actuator controlled?
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