CDC 2S051 Practice Test. Volume 5

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  • 1/53 Questions

    The core of asset management is the

    • TRACKER
    • STOCK CONTROL SYSTEM
    • RECOVERABLE ASSEMBLY PROCESS
    • RECOVERABLE CONSUMPTION ITEMS REQUISITION SYSTEM
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

The CDC 2S051 Practice Test, Volume 5, assesses knowledge in logistics and asset management, focusing on systems like STOCK CONTROL SYSTEM and TRACKER. It evaluates skills crucial for managing military logistics and supply chain operations efficiently.

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  • 2. 

    What online system combines the issue, shipment, receipt and transfer of wholesale and retail material?

    • Stock Control System (SCS)

    • Logistics Information Network (LINK)

    • Visual Logistics Information Processing System (VLIPS)

    • Standard Automated Material Mgt. System (SAMMS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Stock Control System (SCS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Stock Control System (SCS). This system combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and transfer of wholesale and retail material. It helps in managing and tracking the inventory levels, ensuring that the right products are available at the right time. The Stock Control System also provides real-time visibility of stock levels, allowing for efficient stock replenishment and preventing stockouts or overstocking. This system is essential for effective inventory management and improving overall supply chain efficiency.

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  • 3. 

    Which system provides the user with information on their requistions, with emphasis placed on the flight line base level user?

    • TRACKER

    • RAMPS

    • LINK

    • SCS

    Correct Answer
    A. TRACKER
    Explanation
    TRACKER is the system that provides the user with information on their requisitions, specifically focusing on the flight line base level user. This suggests that TRACKER is a software or platform that allows users to track and manage their requisitions related to flight operations. It is designed to cater specifically to the needs and requirements of users at the flight line base level, providing them with relevant and timely information regarding their requisitions.

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  • 4. 

    Which module has standalone capability used by unit commanders to determine their war fighting capabilities?

    • Pipeline Performance Analysis System

    • Supportability, Analysis, Visibility

    • Dyna Metric Microcomputer Analysis System

    • Weapon System Management Information System

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapon System Management Information System
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Weapon System Management Information System. This module is used by unit commanders to determine their war fighting capabilities. It provides information and analysis on weapon systems, allowing commanders to assess their readiness and effectiveness in combat situations. This system helps commanders make informed decisions regarding the deployment and utilization of their units in battle.

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  • 5. 

    Which module supports repair execution, item distribution, and manages flow of recoverable assets in and out of depot repair?

    • Readiness Assessment Module

    • Propulsion Requirement System

    • Requirements/Execution Availability Logistics Module

    • Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System

    Correct Answer
    A. Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System
    Explanation
    The Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System supports repair execution, item distribution, and manages the flow of recoverable assets in and out of depot repair. This module is responsible for coordinating and prioritizing repair activities, ensuring that the necessary resources are available for repairs, and tracking the movement of assets throughout the repair process. It plays a crucial role in efficiently managing the repair process and ensuring that repairs are completed in a timely manner.

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  • 6. 

    What has the capability to support multiple full Material Management System accounts?

    • LSC

    • DECCs

    • HQ SSG

    • OSSG

    Correct Answer
    A. DECCs
    Explanation
    DECCs, or Defense Enterprise Computing Centers, have the capability to support multiple full Material Management System accounts. These centers provide centralized computing and information management services to support the Department of Defense's logistics and supply chain operations. By having multiple accounts, DECCs can effectively manage and track materials across various departments and locations, ensuring efficient and effective supply chain management.

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  • 7. 

    Establishing connectivity between a desktop personal computer (PC) adn the mainframe computer is done with a terminal emulation program called....

    • INFOConnect

    • SATS

    • OSSG

    • Interface Processing Facility

    Correct Answer
    A. INFOConnect
    Explanation
    INFOConnect is a terminal emulation program that is used to establish connectivity between a desktop PC and a mainframe computer. It allows the PC to emulate a terminal, enabling the user to access and interact with the mainframe system. INFOConnect provides the necessary protocols and interfaces to establish a secure and reliable connection between the two systems, allowing for data transfer and communication.

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  • 8. 

    After how many days are the Supply Interface System residue images deleted?

    • 5

    • 7

    • 10

    • 14

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    After 10 days, the Supply Interface System residue images are deleted.

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  • 9. 

    The Supply Interface System residue images are considered delinquent after how many hours?

    • 24

    • 36

    • 48

    • 72

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    The Supply Interface System residue images are considered delinquent after 24 hours. This means that if the residue images are not processed or dealt with within 24 hours, they are considered overdue or late.

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  • 10. 

    Which directory contains commonly used programs, compilers, and other processors?

    • RECALL

    • Work

    • System

    • Home

    Correct Answer
    A. System
    Explanation
    The directory that contains commonly used programs, compilers, and other processors is the "System" directory. This directory is typically where essential system files and executables are stored, allowing users to access and utilize important tools and programs necessary for the functioning of the system.

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  • 11. 

    In an interactive processing facility, what are the two editing modes within the full screen mode?

    • EDIT; UPDATE

    • INPUT; OUTPUT

    • UPDATE;OUTPUT

    • INPUT;EDIT

    Correct Answer
    A. INPUT;EDIT
    Explanation
    In an interactive processing facility, the two editing modes within the full screen mode are INPUT and EDIT. This means that users can input data and make changes to the existing data in real-time. The other options (UPDATE;OUTPUT and EDIT;UPDATE) do not accurately represent the two editing modes within the full screen mode.

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  • 12. 

    Which interactive processing facility command changes the name of the workspace?

    • XQT

    • NAME

    • ACCEPT

    • CHANGE

    Correct Answer
    A. NAME
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "NAME." This command is used in the interactive processing facility to change the name of the workspace. It allows users to assign a new name to the workspace, providing flexibility and customization options. By using the "NAME" command, users can easily rename their workspace to better suit their needs or to organize their work more effectively.

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  • 13. 

    What interactive processing facility command allows you to add images saved in other files in your job stream?

    • IN

    • ADD

    • CALL

    • ACCEPT

    Correct Answer
    A. IN
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "IN". The IN command in interactive processing facility allows you to add images saved in other files in your job stream. This command is commonly used to incorporate graphics or visual elements into a job or program.

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  • 14. 

    What type of variable begins with a dollar ($) sign and have preset names?

    • SET

    • USER

    • NOTATION

    • SYSTEM

    Correct Answer
    A. SYSTEM
    Explanation
    Variables that begin with a dollar sign ($) and have preset names are typically system variables. These variables are predefined and used to store information related to the system or environment in which the program is running. They often contain important data such as system configuration, user information, or system status. By using these preset system variables, programmers can access and manipulate system-related information easily.

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  • 15. 

    Prior to the personal computer, what did INFOConnect gave you access to?

    • Green Screens

    • Blue Screens

    • Mainframe

    • Internet

    Correct Answer
    A. Green Screens
    Explanation
    INFOConnect gave you access to green screens. Green screens were the primary user interface for accessing mainframe computers before the personal computer became popular. The green screens displayed text and allowed users to input commands and retrieve information from the mainframe system.

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  • 16. 

    In Discoverer , what function allows you to transfer data to other application formats?

    • Report

    • Import

    • Export

    • Print

    Correct Answer
    A. Export
    Explanation
    The function in Discoverer that allows you to transfer data to other application formats is "Export". This feature enables users to save their data in a format that can be easily imported into other applications for further analysis or processing. By selecting the Export option, users can choose the desired format (such as Excel, CSV, or PDF) and save the data accordingly. This functionality enhances the flexibility and usability of the data obtained from Discoverer.

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  • 17. 

    What system provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenence, acquisition, re distribution, forecasting, and other managemnt decisions?

    • Oracle Discoverer Plus

    • ES-S

    • SATS

    • Weapon System Mgmt. Information System

    Correct Answer
    A. ES-S
    Explanation
    ES-S (Enterprise System-Sustainment) provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance, acquisition, redistribution, forecasting, and other management decisions. This system is designed to support the management and sustainment of enterprise-level systems and processes. It allows for effective decision-making and resource allocation in various areas such as repair, sourcing, and forecasting.

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  • 18. 

    The intent of Enterprise Asset Visibility component is to provide complete visibility of Air Force...

    • Owned assets

    • Sourced assets

    • Asset shortages

    • Repairable assets

    Correct Answer
    A. Owned assets
    Explanation
    The Enterprise Asset Visibility component aims to offer comprehensive visibility of Air Force "owned assets." This means that it provides a way to track and monitor all assets that belong to the Air Force. It allows for better management and control of these assets, ensuring their proper utilization and maintenance. This visibility helps in optimizing resource allocation and identifying any potential issues or gaps in asset management.

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  • 19. 

    The Audit Data Query enhances your ability to query transaction information efficiently for what types of audits?

    • Internal and External

    • Issue and Requisition

    • Single and Multiple

    • Management and Inventory

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal and External
    Explanation
    The Audit Data Query enhances your ability to query transaction information efficiently for both internal and external audits. This means that you can easily retrieve and analyze transaction data for audits conducted within your organization as well as audits conducted by external entities such as regulatory bodies or external auditors. This feature helps you effectively track and monitor transaction activities to ensure compliance with both internal policies and external regulations.

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  • 20. 

    What function provides the ability to query all ES-S transactions from a single user interface?

    • Audit Data Query

    • Process Orders Query

    • Asset Query

    • Process SBSS Transactions

    Correct Answer
    A. Audit Data Query
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Audit Data Query. This function allows users to retrieve and analyze all ES-S transactions from a single user interface. It provides the ability to query and access audit data related to various transactions, helping users to monitor and track the activities and transactions within the system.

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  • 21. 

    In ES-S, what three sections is the Order Selection Page divided into?

    • Basic Selection Criteria, Additional Selection Criteria, Display Criteria

    • Required Selection Criteria, Optional Selection Criteria, Display Criteria

    • Order Selection Criteria, Supplement Selection Criteria, Display Criteria

    • Primary Selection Criteria, Secondary Selection Criteria, Display Criteria

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary Selection Criteria, Secondary Selection Criteria, Display Criteria
    Explanation
    The Order Selection Page in ES-S is divided into three sections: Primary Selection Criteria, Secondary Selection Criteria, and Display Criteria. The Primary Selection Criteria section includes the essential criteria that must be selected for the order. The Secondary Selection Criteria section includes additional criteria that are optional but can be selected if needed. The Display Criteria section determines how the selected criteria will be displayed on the page.

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  • 22. 

    ES-S provides the capability to query and view orders in what three legacy systems?

    • D035A; D035K; D043

    • Material Management System; DO35A; D035K

    • D043; SATS; Material Management System

    • D035A; SATS; Material Management System

    Correct Answer
    A. Material Management System; DO35A; D035K
    Explanation
    ES-S provides the capability to query and view orders in three legacy systems: Material Management System, DO35A, and D035K.

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  • 23. 

    In ES-S, which is not a type of order provided by the Order Placement Page?

    • Requisition

    • Common Issue

    • Depot Retail Issue

    • Maintenance Issue

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Issue
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Maintenance Issue" because the question is asking for a type of order that is not provided by the Order Placement Page in ES-S. The other options, Requisition, Common Issue, and Depot Retail Issue, are all types of orders that can be placed through the Order Placement Page. However, Maintenance Issue is not listed as one of the options, indicating that it is not a type of order provided by the Order Placement Page.

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  • 24. 

    One of the primary functions of ES-S offers is the ability to....

    • Migrate orders into WSMIS

    • Input orders into the legacy Material Management System

    • Update orders in the SATS

    • Transfer orders into Discoverer

    Correct Answer
    A. Input orders into the legacy Material Management System
    Explanation
    ES-S offers the ability to input orders into the legacy Material Management System. This implies that ES-S has a feature or capability that allows users to enter or input orders directly into the legacy Material Management System. The other options (migrate orders into WSMIS, update orders in the SATS, transfer orders into Discoverer) are not mentioned as functions of ES-S, so they can be ruled out as the correct answer.

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  • 25. 

    In Discoverer, what is a logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to your specific data requirements?

    • Joins

    • Sorts

    • Reports

    • Business Areas

    Correct Answer
    A. Business Areas
    Explanation
    A logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to specific data requirements in Discoverer is known as Business Areas. Business Areas help organize and categorize the data based on the user's needs and provide a structured approach to accessing and analyzing the data within the Discoverer tool. They allow users to focus on relevant data and simplify the process of creating reports and performing analysis tasks.

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  • 26. 

    In Discoverer Plus, what filters the data to display only the exact information you want?

    • Calculations

    • Percentages

    • Parameters

    • Conditions

    Correct Answer
    A. Conditions
    Explanation
    Conditions in Discoverer Plus filters the data to display only the exact information you want. By setting specific conditions, you can narrow down the data based on certain criteria such as date ranges, specific values, or combinations of conditions. This allows you to refine your query and retrieve the precise information you need from the database.

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  • 27. 

    Which worksheet item enables you to summarize rows and columns quickily and easliy?

    • Sorts

    • Totals

    • Parameters

    • Calculations

    Correct Answer
    A. Totals
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Totals" because this worksheet item allows you to quickly and easily summarize rows and columns. By using the Totals feature, you can calculate the sum, average, count, and other aggregate functions for selected data. This helps in organizing and analyzing large amounts of data effectively.

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  • 28. 

    In order to process predefined reports and modify the display of results in a worksheet, you would need to use the Discoverer..

    • Reporter

    • Viewer

    • Query

    • Plues

    Correct Answer
    A. Viewer
    Explanation
    To process predefined reports and modify the display of results in a worksheet, you would need to use the Discoverer Viewer. The Viewer allows users to access and view predefined reports, as well as customize the display of the data in the worksheet. It provides a user-friendly interface for interacting with the reports and making changes to the way the data is presented. The Reporter is used for creating and designing reports, while the Query tool is used for retrieving specific data from a database. Plues is not a tool or feature related to processing predefined reports.

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  • 29. 

    What worksheet item offers predefined choices of data when you open a workbook?

    • Conditions

    • Parameters

    • Percentages

    • Totals

    Correct Answer
    A. Parameters
    Explanation
    Parameters are worksheet items that offer predefined choices of data when you open a workbook. They allow you to input specific values or criteria to filter and manipulate the data in the workbook. By using parameters, you can easily control and adjust the data displayed in your worksheets without having to modify the underlying data source. This helps in making the workbook more dynamic and interactive, allowing users to explore different scenarios and analyze the data effectively.

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  • 30. 

    What is the process of arranging data into meaningful order so that you can analyze it more effectively?

    • Conditioning

    • Arranging

    • Calculating

    • Sorting

    Correct Answer
    A. Sorting
    Explanation
    Sorting is the process of arranging data into a specific order, such as numerical or alphabetical, to make it more organized and easier to analyze. By sorting data, it becomes easier to identify patterns, trends, and outliers, which can aid in effective analysis. This process allows for a systematic approach to data analysis, enabling individuals to make informed decisions based on the sorted information.

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  • 31. 

    The type of handheld terminal that uses a Symbol Technologies Hand Held Fuzzy Logic Scanner is the Intermec Janus?

    • 2010

    • 2020

    • 5023

    • 5032

    Correct Answer
    A. 2010
    Explanation
    The Intermec Janus is a type of handheld terminal that uses a Symbol Technologies Hand Held Fuzzy Logic Scanner. This suggests that the Intermec Janus was introduced in the year 2010, as indicated by the answer choice.

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  • 32. 

    How many types of hand held terminals are used in SATS?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Three
    Explanation
    There are three types of hand-held terminals used in SATS.

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  • 33. 

    When a customer receives assets from the Logistics Readiness Squadron, whatever other item besides a PIN does the individual need to accept property?

    • Signature

    • Smart Card

    • Security Clearance

    • SATS Card

    Correct Answer
    A. Smart Card
    Explanation
    In order to accept property from the Logistics Readiness Squadron, a customer needs to have a Smart Card, along with a PIN. The Smart Card serves as a form of identification and authorization for the individual to access and accept the assets. It is a secure method that ensures only authorized personnel can receive the property. The Smart Card is therefore an essential requirement for accepting property from the Logistics Readiness Squadron.

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  • 34. 

    At least how many individual options does SATS have built in within reports list?

    • 10

    • 15

    • 25

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 25
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 25. This means that SATS has a minimum of 25 individual options built in within the reports list.

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  • 35. 

    Who is in charge of all the internal workings of the SATS system?

    • User

    • Customer

    • Network technician

    • System Administrator

    Correct Answer
    A. System Administrator
    Explanation
    The System Administrator is responsible for managing and overseeing all the internal workings of the SATS system. They are responsible for maintaining the system, troubleshooting any issues, ensuring its smooth operation, and managing user access and permissions. The System Administrator plays a crucial role in ensuring the system's efficiency and security, making them the most suitable choice for being in charge of all the internal workings of the SATS system.

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  • 36. 

    Who is responsible for issuing all user and customer identification numbers and priveleges and for maintaining database, restoring files, intializing Radio Frequency network, and the Material Management System Asset Management System Interface?

    • System Administrator

    • Customer

    • User

    • Network Technician

    Correct Answer
    A. System Administrator
    Explanation
    The System Administrator is responsible for issuing all user and customer identification numbers and privileges. They also maintain the database, restore files, initialize the Radio Frequency network, and handle the Material Management System Asset Management System Interface.

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  • 37. 

    At a minimum, what Microsoft Windows operating system is required for flashing a hand held terminal?

    • 95

    • XP

    • 98

    • 2000

    Correct Answer
    A. 95
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 95. This version of Microsoft Windows operating system is required for flashing a hand held terminal.

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  • 38. 

    Software is loaded into hand held terminals through process known as....

    • Installing

    • Flashing

    • Transferring

    • Configuring

    Correct Answer
    A. Flashing
    Explanation
    Flashing is the process of loading software into hand-held terminals. It involves transferring the firmware or operating system from a computer to the device's memory, replacing the existing software. This process is commonly used to update or upgrade the software on the device, ensuring it has the latest features and bug fixes. Flashing is typically done using specialized software or tools, and it is an essential step in maintaining and optimizing the performance of hand-held terminals.

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  • 39. 

    What happens during a warm boot?

    • Many applications reset to original settings

    • Configuration settings and files are retained

    • Many settings revert to the default factory settings

    • The SATS application is not retained

    Correct Answer
    A. Configuration settings and files are retained
    Explanation
    During a warm boot, the system restarts without completely shutting down. This means that the configuration settings and files are retained, allowing the system to resume from where it left off. Unlike a cold boot, where the system starts from scratch, a warm boot maintains the current state of the system. This is why the configuration settings and files are not reset to their original or default factory settings. The SATS application, however, is not specifically mentioned in the explanation, so its status during a warm boot is unclear.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is not correct concerning a cold boot?

    • Configuration Settings and files are retained

    • Some settings revert to the default factory settings

    • The network and scanner parameters are retained

    • It is necessary to re-flash the SATS application onto the HHT

    Correct Answer
    A. Configuration Settings and files are retained
    Explanation
    A cold boot refers to restarting a computer system by completely powering it off and then turning it back on. During a cold boot, all configuration settings and files are not retained. Instead, some settings may revert to the default factory settings. The network and scanner parameters are retained, and it is not necessary to re-flash the SATS application onto the HHT.

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  • 41. 

    What are tracked in SATS while an item is in route to its warehouse location or delivery destination?

    • Assigned Location

    • Temporary Location

    • Permanent Location

    • No Warehouse Location

    Correct Answer
    A. Temporary Location
    Explanation
    During the transportation of an item to its warehouse location or delivery destination, it is tracked in temporary locations. These temporary locations refer to the various stops or checkpoints along the route where the item is temporarily stored or processed before it reaches its final destination. This tracking helps to ensure the item's safe and timely delivery by monitoring its progress throughout the transportation process.

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  • 42. 

    Which HHT function allows the user to place items into the warehouse location?

    • Pull

    • Delivery

    • Put Away

    • Movement

    Correct Answer
    A. Put Away
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Put Away." This function allows the user to place items into the warehouse location.

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  • 43. 

    What two types of movements are users allowed to perform on a hand held terminal?

    • Single and Multiple

    • Individual And Bulk

    • Assigned and no warehouse location

    • Temporary and Permanent

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual And Bulk
    Explanation
    Users are allowed to perform two types of movements on a hand held terminal: individual and bulk. Individual movement refers to the ability to move items one at a time, while bulk movement allows users to move multiple items simultaneously. This distinction allows for flexibility and efficiency in managing inventory or transferring goods using the hand held terminal.

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  • 44. 

    All are fuctions of the Pull process except:

    • Regular Pull

    • Pull by Labor

    • Pull by location

    • High Priority Pull

    Correct Answer
    A. Pull by location
    Explanation
    The given question lists different types of pull processes, and asks for the one that is not a function of the Pull process. Regular Pull, Pull by Labor, and High Priority Pull are all examples of pull processes, where work is pulled based on demand. However, Pull by location does not fit into the concept of pull processes, as it does not involve pulling work based on demand. Therefore, Pull by location is the correct answer.

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  • 45. 

    Which of these actions does not occur when scanning receipts through SATS?

    • Clears the REC document fro SATS

    • Greatly reduces Document control workload

    • Clears the REC document control record from the Material Management System

    • Eliminates the need of sending of sending of a hardcopy receipt document control

    Correct Answer
    A. Clears the REC document fro SATS
    Explanation
    When scanning receipts through SATS, the action that does not occur is clearing the REC document from SATS. This means that the scanned receipt document is not removed or deleted from the SATS system.

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  • 46. 

    What function indacates that an item has been transfered from the recieving area to the next step in the storage and delievery process

    • Pull

    • Delivery

    • Put Away

    • Reject and Movement

    Correct Answer
    A. Reject and Movement
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Reject and Movement" because this function indicates that an item has been transferred from the receiving area to the next step in the storage and delivery process. The term "Reject" suggests that the item has been rejected or deemed unsuitable for further processing, while "Movement" indicates that the item has been moved to the next step in the process. This function helps to track and manage the flow of items within the storage and delivery system.

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  • 47. 

    What process verifies that the user has placed an item in a correct location in the warehouse?

    • Pull

    • Delivery

    • Put away

    • Movement

    Correct Answer
    A. Put away
    Explanation
    The process of "put away" verifies that the user has placed an item in the correct location in the warehouse. This process involves taking the item from its initial location and properly storing it in its designated place. By completing the "put away" process, the user ensures that the item is in the correct location and can be easily located and retrieved when needed.

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  • 48. 

    What does the Pull process involve?

    • Delivering property to customers

    • Issuing property from the warehouse

    • Tracking an Interim location for an item

    • Placing an item in the proper storage location

    Correct Answer
    A. Issuing property from the warehouse
    Explanation
    The Pull process involves issuing property from the warehouse. This means that when a customer requests a specific item, the warehouse staff will locate and retrieve the item from the warehouse inventory and prepare it for delivery to the customer. This process ensures that the correct item is taken out of the warehouse and made available for the customer's use.

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  • 49. 

    How many presorted reports are available to the SATS users?

    • 10

    • 17

    • 24

    • 31

    Correct Answer
    A. 31
    Explanation
    There are a total of 31 presorted reports available to the SATS users.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 25, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 25, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 02, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Mkciekanski23

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