2A551 Practice Test Volume 2

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Practice Test Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The maintenance stand with an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet is the

    • A.

      B-1

    • B.

      B-2

    • C.

      B-4

    • D.

      B-5

    Correct Answer
    B. B-2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-2 because it is the only option that falls within the given range of 13 to 20 feet. The other options, B-1, B-4, and B-5, do not have an adjustable height or do not fall within the specified range.

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  • 2. 

    Of the following, the maintenance stand that is a scissor-type is the

    • A.

      B-1

    • B.

      B-2

    • C.

      B-4

    • D.

      C-1

    Correct Answer
    C. B-4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-4. This is because a scissor-type maintenance stand is typically used for larger aircraft, such as commercial airplanes or military cargo planes. The B-4 is a larger aircraft model compared to the other options listed (B-1, B-2, C-1), making it more likely to require a scissor-type maintenance stand for maintenance and repair tasks.

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  • 3. 

    The type of jack normally used to change a tire on the aircraft is the

    • A.

      Axle

    • B.

      Tail

    • C.

      Nose

    • D.

      Fixed-height

    Correct Answer
    A. Axle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is axle because an axle jack is typically used to change a tire on an aircraft. An axle jack is designed to fit under the axle of the aircraft and lift it off the ground, allowing for the removal and replacement of the tire. This type of jack is specifically designed for the purpose of changing tires on aircraft and is commonly used in maintenance operations.

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  • 4. 

    The boiling point of liquid oxygen (LOX) is

    • A.

      -183 degrees C

    • B.

      -183 degrees F

    • C.

      -297 degrees C

    • D.

      -297 degrees F

    Correct Answer
    D. -297 degrees F
    Explanation
    The boiling point of liquid oxygen (LOX) is -297 degrees Fahrenheit. This is a very low temperature, indicating that LOX boils at a very cold temperature.

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  • 5. 

    The low and high pressure capabilities, as measure in PSI of the NSU-L75 nitrogen servicing unit are

    • A.

      0-300, 300-3500

    • B.

      0-300, 300-3600

    • C.

      0-350, 350-2500

    • D.

      0-350, 350-3600

    Correct Answer
    D. 0-350, 350-3600
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0-350, 350-3600. This means that the NSU-L75 nitrogen servicing unit has a low pressure capability of 0-350 PSI and a high pressure capability of 350-3600 PSI.

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  • 6. 

    The high pressure pump provides a hydraulic filler pressurization unit with a maximum pressure of

    • A.

      2000 PSI

    • B.

      2500 PSI

    • C.

      3000 PSI

    • D.

      3500 PSI

    Correct Answer
    C. 3000 PSI
    Explanation
    The high pressure pump is responsible for pressurizing the hydraulic filler unit. The question asks for the maximum pressure provided by the pump. Among the given options, the highest pressure mentioned is 3000 PSI. Therefore, the correct answer is 3000 PSI.

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  • 7. 

    The model 4000 engine trailer can support a maximum load of

    • A.

      7000 lbs

    • B.

      8000 lbs

    • C.

      9000 lbs

    • D.

      10000 lbs

    Correct Answer
    B. 8000 lbs
    Explanation
    The model 4000 engine trailer is designed to handle a maximum load of 8000 lbs. This means that the trailer has been tested and certified to safely carry up to 8000 lbs of weight without causing any damage or compromising its structural integrity. Exceeding this weight limit could potentially lead to accidents or damage to the trailer.

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  • 8. 

    The usable pressure range, as measured is PSI, of the MC-1A air compressor is

    • A.

      0-200

    • B.

      0-350

    • C.

      0-3200

    • D.

      05-3500

    Correct Answer
    C. 0-3200
    Explanation
    The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0-3200 PSI. This means that the compressor is capable of producing a minimum pressure of 0 PSI and a maximum pressure of 3200 PSI. This range allows the compressor to be used for a variety of applications that require different levels of pressure, providing versatility and flexibility in its use.

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  • 9. 

    The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure, measured is PSI, of

    • A.

      200

    • B.

      300

    • C.

      3500

    • D.

      3600

    Correct Answer
    A. 200
    Explanation
    The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of 200 PSI.

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  • 10. 

    The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from

    • A.

      100F to 230F

    • B.

      115F to 250F

    • C.

      125F to 270F

    • D.

      150F to 280F

    Correct Answer
    D. 150F to 280F
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 150F to 280F. This is because the H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that can be set anywhere between 150F and 280F. This range allows the user to choose the desired temperature for their heating needs.

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  • 11. 

    The stationary, skid-mounted power unit that produces aircraft electrical power for use in shops and hangars is the

    • A.

      A/M32A-95

    • B.

      MK-3A

    • C.

      MD-4

    • D.

      MB-2

    Correct Answer
    C. MD-4
    Explanation
    The MD-4 is the correct answer because it is a stationary, skid-mounted power unit specifically designed to produce aircraft electrical power for use in shops and hangars. The other options (A/M32A-95, MK-3A, and MB-2) do not fit the description of a stationary, skid-mounted power unit for aircraft electrical power.

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  • 12. 

    The unit capable of providing both AC and DC electrical power in addition to pneumatic power for ground maintenance is the

    • A.

      A/M32A-95

    • B.

      A/M32A-86

    • C.

      A/M32A-60

    • D.

      AF/M-32R-3

    Correct Answer
    C. A/M32A-60
    Explanation
    The A/M32A-60 is the correct answer because it is a unit that is capable of providing both AC and DC electrical power, as well as pneumatic power for ground maintenance. The other options, A/M32A-95, A/M32A-86, and AF/M-32R-3, do not have the capability to provide all three types of power.

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  • 13. 

    The hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand are designated

    • A.

      Primary and secondary

    • B.

      Primary and alternate

    • C.

      No 1 and No 2

    • D.

      Left and right

    Correct Answer
    C. No 1 and No 2
    Explanation
    The hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand are designated as No 1 and No 2. This means that there are two separate hydraulic systems on the test stand, each labeled as No 1 and No 2. This labeling system helps to differentiate and identify the different hydraulic systems and their components on the test stand.

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  • 14. 

    The amount of fluid the MJ-2A reservoir holds is

    • A.

      19 g

    • B.

      27 g

    • C.

      30 g

    • D.

      60 g

    Correct Answer
    B. 27 g
    Explanation
    Based on the given options, the correct answer is 27 g. This means that the MJ-2A reservoir can hold a volume of 27 grams of fluid.

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  • 15. 

    A Class I MB-2 tractor weighs

    • A.

      2700 lbs

    • B.

      40000 lbs

    • C.

      53000 lbs

    • D.

      500000 lbs

    Correct Answer
    B. 40000 lbs
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 40000 lbs. This is because the question asks for the weight of a Class I MB-2 tractor, and out of the given options, 40000 lbs is the only weight that corresponds to the tractor.

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  • 16. 

    The structural members, whose chief use is to give shape to the aircraft and provide a means for attaching the skin to the structure, are called

    • A.

      Longerons

    • B.

      Bulkheads

    • C.

      Stringers

    • D.

      Frames

    Correct Answer
    C. Stringers
    Explanation
    Stringers are structural members that are used to give shape to the aircraft and provide a means for attaching the skin to the structure. They run longitudinally along the fuselage and wings, providing support and rigidity to the overall structure. Longerons are also structural members that run longitudinally, but their chief use is to carry the primary loads of the aircraft. Bulkheads are vertical partitions that provide structural support and divide the fuselage into compartments. Frames are horizontal or vertical structural members that provide support and shape to the aircraft structure. Therefore, the correct answer is stringers.

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  • 17. 

    The most common type of material used for fuselage construction

    • A.

      Steel

    • B.

      Titanium

    • C.

      Magnesium

    • D.

      Aluminum alloy

    Correct Answer
    D. Aluminum alloy
    Explanation
    Aluminum alloy is the most common type of material used for fuselage construction due to its favorable properties. It is lightweight, yet strong and durable, making it ideal for aircraft structures. Aluminum alloys also have excellent corrosion resistance, which is crucial for withstanding the harsh conditions of flight. Additionally, aluminum is readily available and relatively inexpensive compared to other materials like titanium or magnesium. Therefore, it is the preferred choice for constructing aircraft fuselages.

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  • 18. 

    The wing components that provide strength and contour shape to the wing are the

    • A.

      Ribs

    • B.

      Spars

    • C.

      Stringers

    • D.

      Stiffners

    Correct Answer
    A. Ribs
    Explanation
    Ribs are the wing components that provide strength and contour shape to the wing. They are typically made of lightweight materials such as aluminum or composite materials. Ribs are placed perpendicular to the spars, which are the main load-carrying structures of the wing. Ribs help to distribute the aerodynamic forces evenly across the wing and maintain its shape. They also provide attachment points for other components such as the skin and control surfaces. Overall, ribs play a crucial role in ensuring the structural integrity and aerodynamic performance of the wing.

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  • 19. 

    The main difference between inspection plates and panels is

    • A.

      Size

    • B.

      Material

    • C.

      Location

    • D.

      Installation

    Correct Answer
    A. Size
    Explanation
    The main difference between inspection plates and panels is their size. Inspection plates are typically smaller in size and are used to provide access to specific components or areas for inspection or maintenance purposes. On the other hand, panels are larger and are used to cover larger areas or enclosures. They may provide access to multiple components or serve as protective barriers. Therefore, size is the key distinguishing factor between inspection plates and panels.

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  • 20. 

    A cracked radome could cause

    • A.

      Antenna oscillation

    • B.

      Dielectric increase

    • C.

      Microwave distortion

    • D.

      Electron- deterioration

    Correct Answer
    C. Microwave distortion
    Explanation
    A cracked radome, which is the protective cover for an antenna, can cause microwave distortion. This is because the crack can disrupt the smooth flow of microwave signals, leading to interference and distortion in the transmitted or received signals. The crack may cause reflections, scattering, or diffraction of the microwaves, resulting in a distorted signal.

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  • 21. 

    The reference locations, which are in the vertical direction measured from a reference datum that is usually well below the aircraft, are called

    • A.

      Buttlines

    • B.

      Waterlines

    • C.

      Buttock stations

    • D.

      Fuselage stations

    Correct Answer
    B. Waterlines
    Explanation
    Waterlines are reference locations in the vertical direction measured from a reference datum that is usually well below the aircraft. These waterlines are used to determine the position of the aircraft's hull or body in relation to the water surface. They are important for designing and constructing watercraft, ensuring proper buoyancy and stability.

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  • 22. 

    The category of a -21 equipment used for life support and crew comfort is

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    C. III
    Explanation
    The category III equipment is used for life support and crew comfort. This category includes equipment that is essential for maintaining the health and well-being of the crew members, such as oxygen systems, environmental control systems, and waste management systems. These equipment are crucial for providing a safe and comfortable environment for the crew during their mission.

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  • 23. 

    The effective range of a fully charged handheld fire extinguisher is

    • A.

      5 feet

    • B.

      10 feet

    • C.

      15 feet

    • D.

      20 Feet

    Correct Answer
    D. 20 Feet
    Explanation
    The effective range of a fully charged handheld fire extinguisher is 20 feet. This means that the extinguisher can effectively reach and extinguish fires that are up to 20 feet away from the user. This range is important as it allows the user to maintain a safe distance from the fire while still being able to effectively put it out. Having a longer range ensures that the user can reach fires that may be larger or further away, increasing the chances of successfully extinguishing the fire and preventing further damage.

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  • 24. 

    The first practical laminated composite formed was

    • A.

      Safety glass

    • B.

      Fiberglass

    • C.

      Plywood

    • D.

      Adobe

    Correct Answer
    C. Plywood
    Explanation
    Plywood was the first practical laminated composite formed because it is made by gluing together thin layers of wood veneer. This process creates a strong and durable material that is resistant to warping and splitting. Plywood is widely used in construction, furniture making, and other applications where strength and stability are important. Safety glass, fiberglass, and adobe are not examples of laminated composites.

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  • 25. 

    A barometer is designed to measure pressure is

    • A.

      PSI

    • B.

      Inches in mercury

    • C.

      Relative humidity

    • D.

      Ounces of air

    Correct Answer
    B. Inches in mercury
    Explanation
    A barometer is designed to measure pressure, and the unit commonly used to measure pressure is inches in mercury. This unit refers to the height of a column of mercury that is supported by the atmospheric pressure. As the atmospheric pressure changes, the height of the mercury column in the barometer will also change, providing a measure of the pressure. PSI (pounds per square inch) is another unit used to measure pressure, but it is not specifically associated with barometers. Relative humidity and ounces of air are not units used to measure pressure and are therefore incorrect answers.

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  • 26. 

    Atmospheric pressure at sea level is

    • A.

      14.7 PSI

    • B.

      17.4 PSI

    • C.

      29.92 PSI

    • D.

      29.29 PSI

    Correct Answer
    C. 29.92 PSI
    Explanation
    Atmospheric pressure at sea level is 29.92 PSI. This is the standard atmospheric pressure at sea level, also known as one atmosphere of pressure. It is the average pressure exerted by the Earth's atmosphere on a surface at sea level. This value is commonly used as a reference point for measuring pressure in various applications, such as weather forecasting, aviation, and scuba diving.

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  • 27. 

    The force that acts parallel to the relative wind is

    • A.

      Lift

    • B.

      Drag

    • C.

      Gravity

    • D.

      Weight

    Correct Answer
    B. Drag
    Explanation
    Drag is the force that acts parallel to the relative wind. When an object moves through a fluid (such as air or water), drag is the resistance force that opposes the motion. It is caused by the friction between the object's surface and the fluid, and it acts in the direction opposite to the object's motion. In the context of aerodynamics, drag is an important force to consider as it affects the performance and efficiency of vehicles, aircraft, and other objects moving through a fluid medium.

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  • 28. 

    The axis that extends lengthwise through the fuselage from the nose to the tail is the

    • A.

      Lateral

    • B.

      Vertical

    • C.

      Horizontal

    • D.

      Longitudinal

    Correct Answer
    D. Longitudinal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is longitudinal. The question is asking about the axis that runs from the nose to the tail of the fuselage. The term "longitudinal" refers to a lengthwise direction or axis, which aligns with the description given in the question. The other options - lateral, vertical, and horizontal - do not accurately describe an axis that extends from the nose to the tail.

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  • 29. 

    The asix that extends crosswise from wingtip to wingtip is the

    • A.

      Lateral

    • B.

      Vertical

    • C.

      Horizontal

    • D.

      Longitudinal

    Correct Answer
    A. Lateral
    Explanation
    The correct answer is lateral. The axis that extends crosswise from wingtip to wingtip is called the lateral axis. This axis is responsible for the rolling motion of an aircraft, allowing it to tilt from side to side. The lateral axis is perpendicular to the longitudinal axis, which runs from the nose to the tail of the aircraft, and the vertical axis, which runs from top to bottom.

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  • 30. 

    Movement about the vertical axis is called

    • A.

      Roll

    • B.

      Pitch

    • C.

      Crab

    • D.

      Yaw

    Correct Answer
    D. Yaw
    Explanation
    Movement about the vertical axis is called yaw. Yaw refers to the rotation of an object or vehicle around its vertical axis, causing it to change its direction to the left or right. This movement is commonly seen in aircraft and ships when they change their heading.

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  • 31. 

    The flight control located on the longitudinal control surface is the

    • A.

      Rudder

    • B.

      Aileron

    • C.

      Elevator

    • D.

      Wingflaps

    Correct Answer
    C. Elevator
    Explanation
    The correct answer is elevator. The elevator is the flight control located on the longitudinal control surface of an aircraft. It is responsible for controlling the pitch or the up and down movement of the aircraft. By changing the elevator's position, the pilot can adjust the aircraft's attitude and control its climb or descent. The rudder controls the yaw or the left and right movement, the ailerons control the roll or the tilting movement, and the wing flaps control the lift and drag during takeoff and landing.

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  • 32. 

    The type of flight control system that allows the pilot to control the aircraft if hydraulic pressure is lost is

    • A.

      Boost

    • B.

      Manual

    • C.

      Powered

    • D.

      Differential pressure

    Correct Answer
    B. Manual
    Explanation
    The correct answer is manual. In a manual flight control system, the pilot is able to control the aircraft even if hydraulic pressure is lost. This means that the pilot can physically manipulate the controls and directly move the control surfaces of the aircraft, such as the ailerons, elevators, and rudder, without relying on hydraulic assistance. This provides a backup option for the pilot in case of hydraulic system failure, allowing them to maintain control of the aircraft and safely land it.

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  • 33. 

    When making a right turn, the relative position of the ailerons is the right aileron

    • A.

      Up, left aileron up

    • B.

      Down, left aileron down

    • C.

      Up, left aileron down

    • D.

      Down, left aileron up

    Correct Answer
    C. Up, left aileron down
    Explanation
    When making a right turn, the relative position of the ailerons is up, left aileron down. This means that the right aileron is raised or moved upwards, while the left aileron is lowered or moved downwards. This configuration helps to increase the lift on the right wing and decrease the lift on the left wing, causing the aircraft to roll to the right and initiate the turn.

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  • 34. 

    The flight control surfaces used to make an aircraft climb or dive are

    • A.

      Flaps

    • B.

      Spoilers

    • C.

      Ailerons

    • D.

      Elevators

    Correct Answer
    D. Elevators
    Explanation
    The correct answer is elevators. Elevators are the flight control surfaces that are used to make an aircraft climb or dive. They are located on the horizontal stabilizer at the tail of the aircraft and work by changing the angle of the aircraft's tailplane. When the elevators are deflected upwards, the aircraft's nose pitches up, causing it to climb. Conversely, when the elevators are deflected downwards, the nose pitches down, causing the aircraft to dive.

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  • 35. 

    The type of flap normally incorporated on bomber and cargo type aircraft is

    • A.

      Split

    • B.

      Plain

    • C.

      Fowler

    • D.

      Elevators

    Correct Answer
    C. Fowler
    Explanation
    A fowler flap is a type of flap that is commonly used on bomber and cargo aircraft. It is designed to increase the wing area and provide additional lift during takeoff and landing. The fowler flap extends both downwards and backwards, increasing the wing surface area and allowing for better control at low speeds. This type of flap is especially useful for larger aircraft that require high lift capabilities.

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  • 36. 

    Aircraft have trim systems to

    • A.

      Reduce the amout of lift

    • B.

      Prevent the aircraft from stalling

    • C.

      Correct minor deviations in flight altitude

    • D.

      improve augmented lateral control surface movement

    Correct Answer
    C. Correct minor deviations in flight altitude
    Explanation
    Aircraft have trim systems to correct minor deviations in flight altitude. These systems allow pilots to adjust the position of control surfaces, such as elevators or stabilizers, to maintain a desired altitude without having to constantly apply manual pressure on the controls. By making small adjustments to the trim, pilots can ensure that the aircraft remains level and at the desired altitude, improving flight stability and reducing the workload on the pilot.

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  • 37. 

    The law that states, "the distortion of any elastic body is proportional to the distorting force" is known as

    • A.

      Hook's Law

    • B.

      Boyle's Law

    • C.

      Pascal's Law

    • D.

      Charles' Law

    Correct Answer
    A. Hook's Law
    Explanation
    Hook's Law states that the distortion of any elastic body is proportional to the distorting force. This means that when a force is applied to an elastic body, such as stretching or compressing a spring, the amount of deformation or change in length is directly proportional to the force applied. In other words, the more force applied, the more the elastic body will deform. This law is commonly used in physics and engineering to understand and predict the behavior of elastic materials.

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  • 38. 

    When any force causes a solid to change permanently, the solid is said to have

    • A.

      Passed the elastic limit

    • B.

      Lost the ability to expand

    • C.

      Failed to meet the elastic limit

    • D.

      Passed the compression limit

    Correct Answer
    A. Passed the elastic limit
    Explanation
    When a force is applied to a solid and it causes a permanent change in the shape or size of the solid, it means that the solid has passed its elastic limit. The elastic limit is the maximum stress or force that a material can withstand without undergoing permanent deformation. Once the elastic limit is surpassed, the solid loses its ability to return to its original shape and size after the force is removed. Therefore, the correct answer is "passed the elastic limit".

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  • 39. 

    The most outstanding characteristic of a liquid is its

    • A.

      Rigidity

    • B.

      Usability

    • C.

      Ability to compress with in its container

    • D.

      Ability to conform to the shape of its container

    Correct Answer
    D. Ability to conform to the shape of its container
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ability to conform to the shape of its container". Unlike solids, liquids do not have a fixed shape and can take the shape of their container. This is due to the weak intermolecular forces between liquid particles, allowing them to flow and move freely. Liquids also have the ability to fill the entire volume of their container, making them adaptable to different shapes and sizes.

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  • 40. 

    Pascal's Law applies to

    • A.

      A fluid in motion

    • B.

      Confined fluids at rest

    • C.

      Fluids flowing through a restrictor

    • D.

      Fluids subjected to high temperatures

    Correct Answer
    B. Confined fluids at rest
    Explanation
    Pascal's Law states that when a fluid is confined and at rest, the pressure is transmitted equally in all directions. This means that if pressure is applied to a confined fluid, it will be transmitted undiminished to all parts of the fluid and the walls of the container. Therefore, the correct answer is "confined fluids at rest" because Pascal's Law specifically applies to this scenario.

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  • 41. 

    Among the first to study the compressibility of gases was

    • A.

      Hook

    • B.

      Boyle

    • C.

      Pascal

    • D.

      Charles

    Correct Answer
    B. Boyle
    Explanation
    Boyle was among the first to study the compressibility of gases. He is known for Boyle's Law, which states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure, assuming the temperature remains constant. Through his experiments, Boyle made significant contributions to the understanding of gas behavior and laid the foundation for the development of the field of gas laws.

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  • 42. 

    The person who found that all gases expand and contract in direct proportion to the change in temperature, provided the pressure remains constant, was

    • A.

      Hook

    • B.

      Pascal

    • C.

      Charles

    • D.

      Bernoulli

    Correct Answer
    C. Charles
    Explanation
    Charles is the correct answer because he discovered Charles's Law, which states that gases expand and contract in direct proportion to the change in temperature, provided the pressure remains constant. This law is also known as the law of volumes and is an important principle in the study of thermodynamics.

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  • 43. 

    If 50 PSI of cylinder pressure acts on a 5 square-inch piston head, the resulting force will be

    • A.

      150 lbs

    • B.

      200 lbs

    • C.

      250 lbs

    • D.

      300 lbs

    Correct Answer
    C. 250 lbs
    Explanation
    The resulting force can be calculated using the formula: force = pressure * area. In this case, the pressure is 50 PSI and the area is 5 square inches. Multiplying these values together gives us a resulting force of 250 lbs.

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  • 44. 

    When an 8 square-inch piston moves 5 inches within a cylinder, the volume of liquid displaced will be

    • A.

      4 cubic inches

    • B.

      40 cubic inches

    • C.

      400 cubic inches

    • D.

      4000 cubic inches

    Correct Answer
    B. 40 cubic inches
    Explanation
    The volume of liquid displaced can be calculated by multiplying the area of the piston by the distance it moves. In this case, the area of the piston is 8 square inches and it moves 5 inches. Therefore, the volume of liquid displaced is 8 square inches multiplied by 5 inches, which equals 40 cubic inches.

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  • 45. 

    The principle, which states that as the velocity of a gas or iquid increases, pressure decreases, is

    • A.

      Hook's

    • B.

      Boyles'

    • C.

      Pascal's

    • D.

      Bernoulli's

    Correct Answer
    D. Bernoulli's
    Explanation
    Bernoulli's principle states that as the velocity of a gas or liquid increases, the pressure decreases. This principle is based on the conservation of energy, stating that as the speed of a fluid increases, its potential energy decreases, resulting in a decrease in pressure. This principle is commonly observed in various phenomena, such as the lift force on an airplane wing and the flow of fluids through pipes. Therefore, Bernoulli's principle is the correct explanation for the given statement.

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  • 46. 

    As fluid enters the narrow portion of a venturi

    • A.

      It deecelerates

    • B.

      Is accelerates

    • C.

      Nothing happens

    • D.

      Pressure increases

    Correct Answer
    B. Is accelerates
    Explanation
    According to the principle of fluid dynamics, as fluid enters the narrow portion of a venturi, it accelerates. This is because the narrow portion creates a constriction in the flow, causing the fluid to speed up in order to maintain the same flow rate. This acceleration leads to a decrease in pressure according to Bernoulli's principle. Therefore, the correct answer is "it accelerates."

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  • 47. 

    When referring to hydraulic hand pumps, double action means

    • A.

      Fluid flow is created with each stroke of the pump handle

    • B.

      Fluid flow is created with every other stroke of the pump handle

    • C.

      Double volume is displaced with each stroke of the pump handle

    • D.

      Double volume is displaced with every other stroke of the pump handle

    Correct Answer
    A. Fluid flow is created with each stroke of the pump handle
    Explanation
    In hydraulic hand pumps, the term "double action" means that fluid flow is created with each stroke of the pump handle. This means that with every movement of the handle, fluid is being pumped and flowing through the system. This is in contrast to "single action" pumps, where fluid flow is created with every other stroke of the pump handle. With a double action pump, the flow of fluid is continuous and consistent with each stroke, allowing for more efficient and effective operation.

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  • 48. 

    Variable volume pumps do not require a separate pressure-regulating device in the system because

    • A.

      They deliver low pressure

    • B.

      They have an integral compensator

    • C.

      The case drain will relieve high system pressure

    • D.

      There is no angle between the drive shaft and cylinder block

    Correct Answer
    B. They have an integral compensator
    Explanation
    Variable volume pumps do not require a separate pressure-regulating device in the system because they have an integral compensator. This means that the pump itself is able to automatically adjust its output pressure based on the system's demand. The integral compensator allows the pump to maintain a consistent pressure level without the need for an additional regulating device.

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  • 49. 

    Cooler operation in a variable-volume hydraulic pump is provided by

    • A.

      Foot valves

    • B.

      Oil radiator

    • C.

      Creep plates

    • D.

      Fluid radiator

    Correct Answer
    C. Creep plates
    Explanation
    Creep plates provide cooler operation in a variable-volume hydraulic pump. Creep plates are designed to create a small gap between the pump's pistons and the cylinder block. This allows a small amount of fluid to continuously flow through the gap, which helps to dissipate heat generated during pump operation. As a result, the pump operates at a lower temperature, reducing the risk of overheating and improving overall efficiency.

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  • 50. 

    In the Stratopower variable-volume pump, the pistons are held in contact with the cam plate by the

    • A.

      Fixed pivot

    • B.

      Nutating plate

    • C.

      Stationary bearing

    • D.

      Compensator piston

    Correct Answer
    B. Nutating plate
    Explanation
    The Stratopower variable-volume pump uses a nutating plate to hold the pistons in contact with the cam plate. A nutating plate is a disc-shaped component that moves in a circular motion while maintaining contact with the pistons. This design ensures that the pistons are properly aligned and can move smoothly along the cam plate, allowing for efficient pumping action. The nutating plate acts as a stabilizing element, preventing any misalignment or displacement of the pistons during operation.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 26, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    BHarris019
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