The Fleet Tech Challenge Trivia: Quiz

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| By Erin Ingersoll
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Erin Ingersoll
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 6,460
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The Fleet Tech Challenge Trivia: Quiz - Quiz


Hey, are you searching for the fleet tech challenge trivia quiz? Well, look no more as you have arrived at the right place. To be a fleet technician, you must exhibit good knowledge of electricity, how it flows, and how to ensure safe electrical connections. If there is an issue in the field, you need to develop a solution and think on your feet. This quiz is designed to test out if you have the skills for the position based on real examples. Check it out!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Technician A says a higher than normal voltage drop could indicate high resistance. Technician B says high resistance causes an increase in current flow. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Techs A and B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor B

    Correct Answer
    A. Technician A
    Explanation
    Technician A is correct. A higher than normal voltage drop can indeed indicate high resistance. When resistance increases in a circuit, it restricts the flow of current, causing a higher voltage drop across the resistor. This is Ohm's Law in action, which states that voltage (V) equals current (I) multiplied by resistance (R). Therefore, Technician A's statement is accurate. Technician B, on the other hand, is incorrect because high resistance actually decreases current flow, rather than increasing it.

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  • 2. 

    An excess of electrons will give the atom a/n:

    • A.

      Positive charge

    • B.

      Negative charge

    • C.

      Atomic charge

    • D.

      Neutral charge

    Correct Answer
    B. Negative charge
    Explanation
    An excess of electrons will give the atom a negative charge because electrons have a negative charge. When there are more electrons than protons in an atom, the overall charge becomes negative. This is because protons have a positive charge, and electrons have a negative charge. The excess of electrons creates an imbalance of charges, resulting in a negative charge for the atom.

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  • 3. 

    Two technicians are discussing voltage. Technician A says that amperage is the number of electrons flowing in a circuit. Technician B says that voltage is the amount of force in a circuit. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Technicians A and B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor B

    Correct Answer
    C. Both Technicians A and B
    Explanation
    Both technicians A and B are correct. Technician A is correct in stating that amperage is the number of electrons flowing in a circuit. Amperage is a measure of the current in a circuit, which is the flow of electric charge. Technician B is correct in stating that voltage is the amount of force in a circuit. Voltage, also known as electromotive force, is the driving force that pushes the electric charge through a circuit. Therefore, both technicians are correct in their explanations of voltage.

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  • 4. 

    Technician A says a parasitic draw is when the alternator is charging the battery. Technician B says when performing a parasitic draw test, you should wait until all of the modules have gone to sleep. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Technicians A and B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor B

    Correct Answer
    B. Technician B
    Explanation
    Technician B is correct. A parasitic draw refers to an excessive amount of electrical current being drawn from the battery when the vehicle is turned off. This can drain the battery over time. When performing a parasitic draw test, it is important to wait until all of the modules in the vehicle have gone to sleep. Modules are electronic components in the vehicle that can draw power even when the vehicle is not in use. Waiting for them to go to sleep ensures an accurate test of the parasitic draw.

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  • 5. 

    When performing a battery open circuit voltage test, what voltage indicates a fully charged battery?

    • A.

      12.0 volts

    • B.

      12.4 volts

    • C.

      12.6 volts

    • D.

      13.5 volts

    Correct Answer
    C. 12.6 volts
    Explanation
    A fully charged battery is indicated by a voltage of 12.6 volts. This is because a fully charged lead-acid battery typically has a voltage of around 2.1 volts per cell, and since most automotive batteries have 6 cells, the total voltage would be 12.6 volts.

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  • 6. 

    A voltage drop test is being performed on the output wire of the alternator, between the alternator output wire to the battery positive post. Technician A says that the voltage drop should be approximately 12.0 volts. Technician B says that during the voltage drop test, the engine should be at the specified rpm and the battery loaded down so the alternator puts out maximum current flow. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Technician A and B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor B

    Correct Answer
    B. Technician B
    Explanation
    Technician B is correct. During a voltage drop test, the engine should be at the specified rpm and the battery should be loaded down so that the alternator puts out maximum current flow. This is because the test is performed to measure the voltage drop across the wire under maximum load conditions. Technician A is incorrect in stating that the voltage drop should be approximately 12.0 volts, as the actual voltage drop will depend on the specific system and its components.

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  • 7. 

    Two technicians are discussing a charging system output test. Technician A says that an amp reading substantially below specifications could be caused by open diodes. Technician B says it could be caused by a faulty regulator. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Technicians A and B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor B

    Correct Answer
    C. Both Technicians A and B
    Explanation
    Both Technician A and Technician B are correct. An amp reading substantially below specifications in a charging system output test could be caused by open diodes or a faulty regulator. Open diodes can disrupt the flow of current, leading to a lower amp reading. Similarly, a faulty regulator can also affect the charging system output and result in a lower amp reading. Therefore, both technicians are correct in their assessments of the potential causes for the low amp reading.

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  • 8. 

    Two technicians are discussing a vehicle's charging system running at 17.2 volts. Technician A says it is normal for newer vehicles to run a higher voltage like that. Technician B says a faulty voltage regulator could cause that condition. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Technicians A and B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor B

    Correct Answer
    B. Technician B
    Explanation
    Technician B is correct. A vehicle's charging system should typically run at around 13.5 to 14.5 volts when the engine is running. A voltage of 17.2 volts indicates a faulty voltage regulator, which is responsible for regulating the voltage produced by the alternator. If the voltage regulator is faulty, it can cause the charging system to output a higher voltage, potentially damaging the vehicle's electrical components. Therefore, Technician B's statement about a faulty voltage regulator causing the high voltage condition is accurate.

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  • 9. 

    Two technicians are discussing a starter that clicks once when turning the key to the crank position. Technician A says that it could be caused by worn solenoid contacts. Technician B says it could be caused by an open ignition switch. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Technicians A and B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor B

    Correct Answer
    A. Technician A
    Explanation
    Technician A is correct. A starter that clicks once when turning the key to the crank position is often caused by worn solenoid contacts. The solenoid is responsible for engaging the starter motor when the ignition key is turned. If the contacts inside the solenoid are worn, they may fail to make a solid connection, resulting in a single click sound instead of the starter motor engaging. Technician B's suggestion of an open ignition switch does not align with the symptoms described in the question.

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  • 10. 

    Two technicians are discussing a higher than normal starter draw amperage reading. Technician A says that could be caused by excessive resistance on the starter ground circuit. Technician B says that could be caused by shorted field windings in the starter. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Technician A and B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor B

    Correct Answer
    B. Technician B
    Explanation
    Technician B is correct. A higher than normal starter draw amperage reading can be caused by shorted field windings in the starter. Excessive resistance on the starter ground circuit would not cause this issue.

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  • 11. 

    Disconnecting which of the following would allow the engine to crank but prevent it from starting?

    • A.

      Neutral safety switch

    • B.

      Battery ground cable

    • C.

      Ignition switch

    • D.

      Ignition system or fuel system

    Correct Answer
    D. Ignition system or fuel system
    Explanation
    Disconnecting the ignition system or fuel system would prevent the engine from starting. The ignition system is responsible for creating the spark that ignites the fuel in the engine cylinders, while the fuel system is responsible for delivering fuel to the engine. If either of these systems is disconnected, the engine will not receive the necessary spark or fuel to start and run.

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  • 12. 

    What is an example open circuit?

    • A.

      A power wire that has melted to a power wire

    • B.

      A break in the wire

    • C.

      A power wire that has melted to a ground wore

    • D.

      A switch that has current flowing through it

    Correct Answer
    B. A break in the wire
    Explanation
    An open circuit refers to a circuit where there is a break in the wire, causing a discontinuity in the flow of current. In this case, the correct answer is "A break in the wire," which accurately describes an open circuit. When there is a break in the wire, the circuit is incomplete, and electricity cannot flow through it. This can happen due to various reasons such as a damaged wire or a loose connection.

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  • 13. 

    When measuring voltage with a voltmeter, place:

    • A.

      The red lead in the "Amps" slot and the black lead in the "Neg" slot.

    • B.

      The red lead in the "Common slot" and the black lead in teh "Volt/Ohms" slot.

    • C.

      The red lead in the "Volt/Ohms" slot and the black lead in the "Common" slot.

    • D.

      The red lead in the "Pos" slot and the black lead lead in the "Neg" slot.

    Correct Answer
    C. The red lead in the "Volt/Ohms" slot and the black lead in the "Common" slot.
    Explanation
    When measuring voltage with a voltmeter, the red lead should be placed in the "Volt/Ohms" slot and the black lead should be placed in the "Common" slot. This is because the "Volt/Ohms" slot is specifically designed to measure voltage, while the "Common" slot is used as a reference point for the measurement. Placing the leads in these specific slots ensures accurate voltage measurement.

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  • 14. 

    You have a 4 ohm resister in series with a 12 battery. How many amps will flow through the resistor?

    • A.

      1 amp

    • B.

      2 amps

    • C.

      3 amps

    • D.

      4 amps

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 amps
    Explanation
    The current flowing through a resistor in a series circuit is determined by Ohm's Law, which states that current (I) is equal to the voltage (V) divided by the resistance (R). In this case, the voltage is 12 volts and the resistance is 4 ohms. Therefore, the current flowing through the resistor can be calculated as 12 volts divided by 4 ohms, which equals 3 amps.

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  • 15. 

    A circuit has 12 volts and a 0.5 ohm resistor. How many amps flow through the resistor?

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      4.8

    • D.

      24

    Correct Answer
    D. 24
    Explanation
    According to Ohm's law, the current flowing through a resistor is equal to the voltage across it divided by the resistance. In this case, the voltage is 12 volts and the resistance is 0.5 ohms. Therefore, the current flowing through the resistor is 12 volts divided by 0.5 ohms, which equals 24 amps.

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  • 16. 

    Two technician are discussing automotive wire. Technician A says that 12 AWG wire carries more current than 8 AWG. Technician B says that as long as they are both made of copper, they will carry the same amount of current. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A only

    • B.

      Technician B only

    • C.

      Both Technician A & Technician B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor Technician B

    Correct Answer
    D. Neither Technician A nor Technician B
    Explanation
    Neither Technician A nor Technician B is correct. The correct answer is that the 8 AWG wire carries more current than the 12 AWG wire. The American Wire Gauge (AWG) system is used to measure the size of wires, where a smaller AWG number indicates a larger wire size. Therefore, 8 AWG wire is larger than 12 AWG wire and can carry more current. The material (copper) does not affect the current carrying capacity in this case.

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  • 17. 

    Two technicians are discussing relays. Technician A says that relays can fail because the relay winding is open. Technician B says relays can fail because the switch contacts can have high resistance. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Technician A and B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor B

    Correct Answer
    C. Both Technician A and B
    Explanation
    Both Technician A and B are correct. Relays can fail due to an open relay winding, which means that there is a break in the coil wire, preventing the relay from functioning. Additionally, relays can also fail if the switch contacts have high resistance, as this can result in poor electrical conductivity and prevent the relay from properly switching on or off. Therefore, both factors mentioned by Technician A and B can contribute to relay failure.

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  • 18. 

    Fuses prevent circuit damage by:

    • A.

      Limiting voltage increases

    • B.

      Reducing wiring length

    • C.

      Decreasing circuit resistance

    • D.

      Stopping excessive current flow

    Correct Answer
    D. Stopping excessive current flow
    Explanation
    Fuses prevent circuit damage by stopping excessive current flow. When the current in a circuit exceeds the rated value of the fuse, the fuse wire inside it melts, creating an open circuit and interrupting the flow of current. This protects the circuit and its components from damage caused by overloading or short circuits. By stopping excessive current flow, fuses ensure that the electrical system operates within safe limits and prevents overheating, fires, and other hazards.

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  • 19. 

    Tech A says that to read amperage, the meter must be hooked up in series in a circuit. Tech B says that to read amperage at a load, you should place one lead of the ammeter on the input side of the load and the other lead on the output side of the load. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both A and B

    • D.

      Neither A nor B

    Correct Answer
    A. Technician A
    Explanation
    Technician A is correct. To measure amperage, the meter must be hooked up in series in a circuit. This means that the meter is placed in the path of the current flow, allowing it to measure the amount of current passing through. Technician B's statement is incorrect because placing the leads of the ammeter on the input and output sides of the load would not provide an accurate measurement of the amperage.

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  • 20. 

    Technician A states that disc brake rotors can be reused as long as the surface is machined smooth. Technician B states that disc brake rotor thickness variation is measured with a micrometer. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Technician A and Technician B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor Technician B

    Correct Answer
    B. Technician B
    Explanation
    Technician B is correct. Disc brake rotor thickness variation is indeed measured with a micrometer. This tool is used to measure the thickness of the rotor at various points to ensure that it is within the manufacturer's specified tolerance. If the rotor thickness variation exceeds the acceptable limit, it may cause brake pulsation or uneven braking. Therefore, it is important to measure and correct any thickness variation for optimal brake performance. Technician A's statement about reusing rotors if the surface is machined smooth is not entirely accurate and does not address the issue of thickness variation.

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  • 21. 

    Excessive disc brake rotor thickness variation will cause:

    • A.

      A squishy brake pedal.

    • B.

      The brake pads to wear on a slant.

    • C.

      The caliper pistons to seize in their bores.

    • D.

      Brake pedal pulsation.

    Correct Answer
    D. Brake pedal pulsation.
    Explanation
    Excessive disc brake rotor thickness variation will cause brake pedal pulsation. When the rotor thickness varies, it can create uneven contact between the brake pads and the rotor. This uneven contact causes the brake pedal to pulsate or vibrate when the brakes are applied. This pulsation is felt by the driver and indicates a problem with the braking system. It is important to address this issue as it can affect the performance and safety of the vehicle's braking system.

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  • 22. 

    Disc brake rotors can be out of specification in two ways: thickness variation and:

    • A.

      Hardness

    • B.

      Tire runout

    • C.

      Lateral runout

    • D.

      Specific gravity

    Correct Answer
    C. Lateral runout
    Explanation
    Lateral runout refers to the amount of deviation or wobbling of the disc brake rotor as it rotates. When a disc brake rotor has lateral runout, it means that it is not perfectly flat or centered, causing the brake pads to make uneven contact with the rotor surface. This can result in vibrations, uneven braking, and decreased braking performance. Therefore, if the disc brake rotor is out of specification in terms of lateral runout, it needs to be corrected or replaced to ensure proper braking function.

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  • 23. 

    Air in the brake lines will cause what type of problem?

    • A.

      Vibration in the brake pedal during stops

    • B.

      Spongy brake pedal

    • C.

      Hard brake pedal

    • D.

      Brake noise

    Correct Answer
    B. Spongy brake pedal
    Explanation
    Air in the brake lines can cause a spongy brake pedal. When air enters the brake lines, it can compress and create a soft or spongy feeling when the brake pedal is pressed. This can result in a longer stopping distance and a decrease in braking efficiency. The presence of air in the brake lines can also lead to a loss of brake pressure, which can be dangerous and affect the overall performance of the braking system. Therefore, it is important to regularly bleed the brake lines to remove any air and ensure proper brake function.

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  • 24. 

    To perform an internal leak test on a vacuum power booster, let the engine idle and apply the brake pedal with firm pressure. Without moving your foot, shut off the engine and observe the brake pedal for 1 minute. If the power booster is good, what should the brake pedal do?

    • A.

      Slowly sink

    • B.

      Pulsate rapidly

    • C.

      Slowly rise

    • D.

      Hold steady

    Correct Answer
    D. Hold steady
    Explanation
    When performing an internal leak test on a vacuum power booster, the brake pedal should hold steady if the power booster is good. This means that the pedal should not sink slowly, pulsate rapidly, or slowly rise. Holding steady indicates that there are no leaks in the power booster, and it is functioning properly to maintain brake pressure even after the engine is shut off.

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  • 25. 

    All of the following are properties of DOT 5 brake fluid, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      It is less harmful to paint than DOT 3 and DOT 4 fluids

    • B.

      It is not suitable for vehicles equipped with an anti-lock braking system

    • C.

      It absorbs water

    • D.

      It is not hygroscopic

    Correct Answer
    C. It absorbs water
    Explanation
    DOT 5 brake fluid is known for its silicone-based formula, which makes it non-hygroscopic. This means that it does not absorb water, unlike DOT 3 and DOT 4 fluids. However, it is important to note that DOT 5 is not suitable for vehicles equipped with an anti-lock braking system. Additionally, DOT 5 brake fluid is less harmful to paint compared to DOT 3 and DOT 4 fluids.

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  • 26. 

    Technician A says that packing a wheel bearing assembly means smearing some grease around the outside of the bearing. Technician B says that a wheel bearing assembly can be packed with a bearing packer. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Technician A and Technician B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor Technician B

    Correct Answer
    B. Technician B
    Explanation
    Technician B is correct. Packing a wheel bearing assembly involves filling the bearing with grease using a bearing packer. This ensures that the entire bearing is lubricated properly and helps to prevent premature wear and damage. Smearing grease around the outside of the bearing, as suggested by Technician A, does not effectively lubricate the bearing and may lead to inadequate lubrication and potential failure.

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  • 27. 

    In many rear-wheel drive vehicles, the wheel bearings are lubricated with _____________ that also lubricates the differential assembly.

    • A.

      Engine oil

    • B.

      Automatic transmission fluid

    • C.

      Gear oil

    • D.

      Compressor lube

    Correct Answer
    C. Gear oil
    Explanation
    In many rear-wheel drive vehicles, the wheel bearings are lubricated with gear oil that also lubricates the differential assembly. Gear oil is specifically designed to withstand the high pressures and temperatures generated by the gears in the differential. It provides excellent lubrication and helps to reduce friction and wear on the bearings and gears. Using engine oil, automatic transmission fluid, or compressor lube would not be suitable for this purpose as they are not formulated to handle the unique demands of the differential and wheel bearings.

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  • 28. 

    The amount of friction between two moving faces in contact with each other is expressed as a ratio and is called:

    • A.

      The coefficient of friction

    • B.

      Heat ratio

    • C.

      The coefficient of heat

    • D.

      Friction

    Correct Answer
    A. The coefficient of friction
    Explanation
    The amount of friction between two moving faces in contact with each other is expressed as a ratio and is called the coefficient of friction. This ratio quantifies the force required to move one surface over another. It represents the relationship between the force of friction and the normal force between the surfaces. The coefficient of friction is a dimensionless quantity and is used to compare the frictional properties of different materials. It helps engineers and designers understand and predict the behavior of objects in contact, allowing them to optimize designs and prevent unwanted sliding or slipping.

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  • 29. 

    All of the following is a part of the hydraulic brake system, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Brake hoses

    • B.

      Disc brake caliper

    • C.

      Wheel cylinder

    • D.

      Parking brake assembly

    Correct Answer
    D. Parking brake assembly
    Explanation
    The hydraulic brake system is responsible for transmitting the pressure from the brake pedal to the brake pads or shoes, which then apply pressure to the rotors or drums to slow down or stop the vehicle. Brake hoses, disc brake calipers, and wheel cylinders are all components of the hydraulic brake system as they play a crucial role in the transmission and application of hydraulic pressure. However, the parking brake assembly is not a part of the hydraulic brake system. The parking brake assembly is a separate system that is used to mechanically hold the vehicle in place when parked.

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  • 30. 

    The purpose of a drop center in a wheel is to allow for:

    • A.

      Cooler looking wheels

    • B.

      Better heat dissipation

    • C.

      Tire mounting and dismounting

    • D.

      Keeping the tire on the rim if there is a leak

    Correct Answer
    C. Tire mounting and dismounting
    Explanation
    A drop center in a wheel allows for easier tire mounting and dismounting. The drop center provides a recessed area in the wheel where the tire bead can be easily pushed down, making it simpler to install or remove the tire. This design feature saves time and effort during the tire changing process, making it more convenient for vehicle owners and mechanics.

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  • 31. 

    Technician A says that all lug nuts must be torqued to specifications. Technician B says that lug nuts should be tightened in a random sequence. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Technician A and Technician B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor Technician B

    Correct Answer
    A. Technician A
    Explanation
    Technician A is correct. Lug nuts should be torqued to specifications to ensure that they are tightened to the appropriate level. This helps to prevent over-tightening, which can lead to damage, or under-tightening, which can result in loose lug nuts and potential safety hazards. Following the recommended torque specifications ensures that the lug nuts are properly secured and maintains the integrity of the wheel assembly. Technician B is incorrect in suggesting that lug nuts should be tightened in a random sequence, as this can lead to uneven tightening and potential wheel imbalance.

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  • 32. 

    Technician A says when checking a tire’s air pressure, always refer to the tire sidewall information, and inflate the tire to that pressure. Technician B says when checking air pressure, compare it to the specifications on the tire placard usually located on the driver’s door, door pillar, or glove compartment lid. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Technician A and Technician B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor Technician B

    Correct Answer
    B. Technician B
    Explanation
    Technician B is correct. When checking a tire's air pressure, it is recommended to refer to the specifications on the tire placard, which is usually located on the driver's door, door pillar, or glove compartment lid. This information provides the manufacturer's recommended tire pressure for optimal performance and safety. The tire sidewall information may provide the maximum tire pressure, but it does not necessarily indicate the recommended pressure for normal driving conditions.

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  • 33. 

    When attempting a repair on a damaged tire all of the following are true; EXCEPT:

    • A.

      A complete inspection of the tire, removed from the wheel, is required.

    • B.

      Tread punctures of greater than 1/4" or 6 mm cannot be repaired.

    • C.

      Repairs cannot be made to fix sidewall damage.

    • D.

      A tire plug by itself is an acceptable repair.

    Correct Answer
    D. A tire plug by itself is an acceptable repair.
    Explanation
    A tire plug by itself is not an acceptable repair because it does not provide a permanent solution to the damaged tire. In order to properly repair a damaged tire, a complete inspection of the tire, removed from the wheel, is required to assess the extent of the damage. Tread punctures of greater than 1/4" or 6 mm cannot be repaired as they are considered too large to be effectively fixed. Additionally, sidewall damage cannot be repaired as it compromises the structural integrity of the tire. Therefore, all of the given statements are true except for the fact that a tire plug by itself is an acceptable repair.

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  • 34. 

    Tech A says that a static imbalance condition is centered within the width of the tire. Tech B says that a dynamic imbalance condition can be anywhere within the width of the tire. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Technician A and B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor B

    Correct Answer
    C. Both Technician A and B
    Explanation
    Both Technician A and B are correct. Technician A is correct in stating that a static imbalance condition is centered within the width of the tire. This means that the weight distribution is uneven across the tire, causing it to vibrate. Technician B is correct in stating that a dynamic imbalance condition can be anywhere within the width of the tire. This means that the tire may have areas with uneven weight distribution that cause it to vibrate at different points along its width.

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  • 35. 

    All of the following statements about a tire pressure monitoring system are true, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      It uses a warning light or message as a driver warning

    • B.

      It is often referred to as a TPMS

    • C.

      It can automatically stop a leak in a tire

    • D.

      It can be diagnosed with an appropriate scan tool

    Correct Answer
    C. It can automatically stop a leak in a tire
    Explanation
    A tire pressure monitoring system (TPMS) is a system that monitors the air pressure in the tires of a vehicle. It uses a warning light or message to alert the driver when the tire pressure is low. It is often referred to as a TPMS. However, it cannot automatically stop a leak in a tire. The purpose of a TPMS is to monitor the tire pressure and provide a warning to the driver, but it does not have the ability to fix or repair a leak in the tire. To diagnose any issues with the TPMS, an appropriate scan tool is required.

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  • 36. 

    A green valve stem cap on tires on recent model-year vehicles means that the tires are:

    • A.

      Filled with carbon dioxide

    • B.

      Filled with nitrogen

    • C.

      Filled with hydrogen

    • D.

      Filled with argon

    Correct Answer
    B. Filled with nitrogen
    Explanation
    A green valve stem cap on tires on recent model-year vehicles indicates that the tires are filled with nitrogen. Nitrogen is commonly used as an alternative to regular air in tires because it has several advantages. Nitrogen is less likely to leak through the tire rubber, resulting in more consistent tire pressure over time. It also helps to reduce oxidation and corrosion within the tire, leading to longer tire life. Additionally, nitrogen-filled tires can provide better fuel efficiency and improved handling.

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  • 37. 

    The aspect ratio of a tire is:

    • A.

      The width of the tire

    • B.

      The ratio of the inflation pressures

    • C.

      The rim diameter

    • D.

      The ratio of its height to its width

    Correct Answer
    D. The ratio of its height to its width
    Explanation
    The aspect ratio of a tire refers to the ratio of its height to its width. This means that the height of the tire is a certain percentage of its width. For example, if a tire has an aspect ratio of 60, it means that the height of the tire is 60% of its width. This aspect ratio is important because it affects the overall performance and handling of the tire. A lower aspect ratio generally means better handling and cornering abilities, while a higher aspect ratio offers a more comfortable ride.

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  • 38. 

    Technician A says some tire pressure monitoring systems (TPMS) have a sensor mounted in each wheel rim. Technician B says some tire pressure monitoring systems use the wheel speed sensors in the ABS system to detect tires with low pressure. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Technician A and Technician B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor Technician B

    Correct Answer
    C. Both Technician A and Technician B
    Explanation
    Both Technician A and Technician B are correct. Some tire pressure monitoring systems (TPMS) do have a sensor mounted in each wheel rim to detect tire pressure. Additionally, some TPMS systems also use the wheel speed sensors in the ABS system to detect tires with low pressure. Therefore, both technicians are providing accurate information about different types of TPMS systems.

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  • 39. 

    Camber is the:

    • A.

      Axis around which the wheel assembly swivels as it turns.

    • B.

      Inward or outward (side to side) vertical tilt of the wheel.

    • C.

      Axis between the upper and lower pivots on the control arms.

    • D.

      Angle the steering arms make when projected toward the center of the rear axle.

    Correct Answer
    B. Inward or outward (side to side) vertical tilt of the wheel.
    Explanation
    Camber refers to the inward or outward vertical tilt of the wheel. It is the angle at which the top of the wheel tilts towards the vehicle's center or away from it. This tilt helps distribute the weight of the vehicle evenly across the tire's contact patch, ensuring optimal traction and stability during cornering. Correct camber alignment is crucial for tire wear and overall vehicle handling.

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  • 40. 

    A  pre-alignment inspection includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Removal of any heavy items from the trunk or truck bed

    • B.

      Inspecting and adjusting the tire air pressure to specifications on the tire placard

    • C.

      Inspecting and confirming correct tire size

    • D.

      Removing the front wheels to prepare for adjustment

    Correct Answer
    D. Removing the front wheels to prepare for adjustment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is removing the front wheels to prepare for adjustment. This is because a pre-alignment inspection involves checking various aspects such as removing heavy items from the trunk or truck bed, inspecting and adjusting tire air pressure, and confirming correct tire size. However, removing the front wheels is not a part of the pre-alignment inspection process.

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  • 41. 

    The components that follow the road contours, such as wheels, tires, axles, and outboard brake assemblies are considered:

    • A.

      To be "driving weight"

    • B.

      To be "dead wight"

    • C.

      To be "unsprung weight"

    • D.

      To be "sprung weight"

    Correct Answer
    C. To be "unsprung weight"
    Explanation
    The components that follow the road contours, such as wheels, tires, axles, and outboard brake assemblies are considered to be "unsprung weight". Unsprung weight refers to the weight of the components that are not supported by the suspension system, but instead directly connected to the road. These components play a crucial role in the vehicle's handling and responsiveness. The term "unsprung weight" is used to differentiate these components from the "sprung weight", which includes the weight of the vehicle's body and other components supported by the suspension system.

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  • 42. 

    The _______________ connect(s) the wheels to the suspension and steering system.

    • A.

      Inner tie-rods

    • B.

      Idler arm

    • C.

      Pitman arm

    • D.

      Steering knuckle

    Correct Answer
    D. Steering knuckle
    Explanation
    The steering knuckle is the correct answer because it is the component that connects the wheels to both the suspension and steering system. It is a crucial part of the steering mechanism as it allows the wheels to turn and also supports the weight of the vehicle. The steering knuckle is responsible for transmitting the steering input from the driver to the wheels, allowing for control and maneuverability of the vehicle.

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  • 43. 

    All of the following about the flexible joints found in the steering linkage are true, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      They are sometimes equipped with a grease fitting

    • B.

      They can be disassembled, cleaned, and repacked with grease

    • C.

      They are of ball-and-socket design

    • D.

      They allow movement without looseness or play

    Correct Answer
    B. They can be disassembled, cleaned, and repacked with grease
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "they can be disassembled, cleaned, and repacked with grease." This is because flexible joints in the steering linkage are typically sealed and not intended to be disassembled or repacked with grease. They are designed to allow movement without looseness or play and are often equipped with a grease fitting for lubrication. The joints are usually of ball-and-socket design, which allows for flexibility and smooth movement.

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  • 44. 

    When the piston moves from bottom dead center (BDC) to top dead center (TDC) or TDC to BDC, it is known as a:

    • A.

      Cycle

    • B.

      Revolutions

    • C.

      Bore

    • D.

      Stroke

    Correct Answer
    D. Stroke
    Explanation
    When the piston moves from bottom dead center (BDC) to top dead center (TDC) or vice versa, it is referred to as a stroke. In an internal combustion engine, the piston undergoes four strokes in a cycle: intake, compression, power, and exhaust. During the intake stroke, the piston moves from TDC to BDC, drawing in the air-fuel mixture. In the compression stroke, the piston moves from BDC to TDC, compressing the mixture. The power stroke occurs when the ignited mixture pushes the piston from TDC to BDC, generating power. Finally, the exhaust stroke sees the piston move from BDC to TDC, expelling the exhaust gases.

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  • 45. 

    Technician A says that in a four-stroke engine, it takes two strokes to complete a cycle. Technician B says that only one of the four strokes delivers power to the crankshaft. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Technician A and Technician B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor Technician B

    Correct Answer
    B. Technician B
    Explanation
    Technician B is correct. In a four-stroke engine, each cycle consists of four strokes: intake, compression, power, and exhaust. Only one of these strokes, the power stroke, delivers power to the crankshaft. The intake stroke brings air and fuel into the combustion chamber, the compression stroke compresses the air-fuel mixture, the power stroke ignites the mixture and produces power, and the exhaust stroke expels the exhaust gases. Therefore, Technician B's statement is accurate.

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  • 46. 

    The ratio of the crank gear to the camshaft gear(s) is:

    • A.

      4:1

    • B.

      2:1

    • C.

      3:1

    • D.

      1:1

    Correct Answer
    B. 2:1
    Explanation
    The ratio of the crank gear to the camshaft gear(s) is 2:1. This means that for every two rotations of the crank gear, the camshaft gear(s) will rotate once. This ratio is commonly used in engines to ensure proper timing and synchronization between the crankshaft and the camshaft, which is crucial for the engine's operation.

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  • 47. 

    Intake valves in the cylinder head are closed by pressure from the:

    • A.

      Exhaust

    • B.

      Intake manifold

    • C.

      Valve springs

    • D.

      Piston

    Correct Answer
    C. Valve springs
    Explanation
    Valve springs are responsible for closing the intake valves in the cylinder head. These springs exert pressure on the valves, ensuring that they remain closed when needed. When the piston moves downward during the intake stroke, the intake valves open against the force of the valve springs, allowing air and fuel to enter the combustion chamber. However, when the piston moves back up during the compression stroke, the valve springs push the intake valves closed, preventing any backflow of gases into the intake manifold.

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  • 48. 

    What does the “W” in 5W30 engine oil stand for?

    • A.

      Winter

    • B.

      Weight

    • C.

      Wear resistant

    • D.

      Water resistant

    Correct Answer
    A. Winter
    Explanation
    The "W" in 5W30 engine oil stands for "Winter." This indicates that the oil has been formulated to perform well in cold temperatures. The number before the "W" (5 in this case) represents the oil's viscosity rating at low temperatures, while the number after the "W" (30 in this case) represents the oil's viscosity rating at high temperatures. The "W" designation ensures that the oil will flow properly and provide adequate lubrication during winter months when temperatures are lower.

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  • 49. 

    Technician A says that when installing an oil filter, you should tighten it with a filter wrench to prevent it from falling off. Technician B says that oil filters should only be installed by hand. Who is correct?

    • A.

      Technician A

    • B.

      Technician B

    • C.

      Both Technician A and Technician B

    • D.

      Neither Technician A nor Technician B

    Correct Answer
    B. Technician B
    Explanation
    Technician B is correct. Oil filters should only be installed by hand. Using a filter wrench to tighten the oil filter can lead to over-tightening, which can cause the filter to become stuck and difficult to remove during the next oil change. Hand tightening ensures that the filter is secure but not overly tightened, allowing for easier removal in the future.

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  • 50. 

    When installing a new oil filter, it is a good idea to:

    • A.

      Wipe a small amount of contact cement on the rubber gasket.

    • B.

      Clean all oil from the mounting area and install the rubber gasket dry.

    • C.

      Wipe a small amount of gasket sealer on the new rubber filter gasket.

    • D.

      Wipe a small amount of oil on the new filter gasket.

    Correct Answer
    D. Wipe a small amount of oil on the new filter gasket.
    Explanation
    When installing a new oil filter, it is a good idea to wipe a small amount of oil on the new filter gasket. This helps to create a better seal between the filter and the engine, preventing any oil leaks. The oil also helps to lubricate the gasket, making it easier to remove the filter during the next oil change. Applying contact cement, gasket sealer, or installing the rubber gasket dry would not provide the same benefits and could potentially cause issues such as leaks or difficulty in removing the filter.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 29, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 21, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Erin Ingersoll
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