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The insulation resistance of cables, transformers etc is measured by following instrument
A.
Meggar
B.
Wheatstone bridge
C.
Kelvin bridge
D.
Decade box
Correct Answer A. Meggar
Explanation The correct answer is "Meggar" because a Meggar is an instrument specifically designed to measure the insulation resistance of cables, transformers, and other electrical equipment. It applies a high voltage to the insulation and measures the current flowing through it, allowing for the determination of the insulation resistance.
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2.
'Pneumoconiosis' is a disease caused by the inhalation of __________ dust.
A.
coal
A.
Uranium ore
B.
Iron ore
C.
Coal
D.
Lime
Correct Answer C. Coal
Explanation Pneumoconiosis is a disease caused by the inhalation of coal dust. Coal miners and workers in coal-related industries are particularly at risk for developing this condition. When coal dust is inhaled, it can accumulate in the lungs and cause inflammation and scarring over time. This can lead to symptoms such as coughing, shortness of breath, and chest pain. Therefore, coal dust is the correct answer for the cause of pneumoconiosis.
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3.
A watt meter can be connected to a high current circuit by using
A.
Eddy current transformer
B.
Potential transformer
C.
Current transformer
D.
None of the above
Correct Answer C. Current transformer
Explanation A watt meter can be connected to a high current circuit by using a current transformer. A current transformer is a type of transformer that is specifically designed to measure high currents by stepping down the current to a lower, more manageable level. This allows the watt meter to accurately measure the power consumption in the circuit without causing any damage to the meter or the measuring equipment. Using an eddy current transformer or a potential transformer would not be suitable for measuring high currents as they are designed for different purposes.
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4.
The internal resistance of all milliammeter must be very low for
A.
High resistance
B.
High accuracy
C.
Minimum effect on the current in the circuit
D.
Maximum voltage drop across the meter
Correct Answer C. Minimum effect on the current in the circuit
Explanation The internal resistance of a milliammeter must be very low in order to minimize its effect on the current in the circuit. A low internal resistance ensures that the milliammeter does not draw a significant amount of current from the circuit, which could alter the readings and accuracy of the measurement. By having a low internal resistance, the milliammeter acts as an ideal ammeter, accurately measuring the current without causing any significant changes in the circuit.
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5.
Bolometer is used in measurement of
A.
Microwave power
B.
Microwave current
C.
R.F power
D.
Audio power
Correct Answer A. Microwave power
Explanation A bolometer is a device used to measure the power of microwave radiation. It works by measuring the change in resistance of a material when it absorbs microwave energy. By measuring this change in resistance, the bolometer can accurately determine the power of the microwave radiation being emitted. Therefore, the correct answer is microwave power.
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6.
The number of kilowatts in 135 milliwatts is
A.
1.35 × 10^{–4} kW
B.
135 × 10^{–3} kW
C.
0.0135 kW
D.
0.00135 kW
Correct Answer A. 1.35 × 10^{–4} kW
Explanation The given question asks for the number of kilowatts in 135 milliwatts. To convert milliwatts to kilowatts, we divide by 1000 since there are 1000 milliwatts in 1 watt. Therefore, 135 milliwatts is equal to 135/1000 = 0.135 watts. To convert watts to kilowatts, we divide by 1000 again since there are 1000 watts in 1 kilowatt. Therefore, 0.135 watts is equal to 0.135/1000 = 0.000135 kilowatts. In scientific notation, this is represented as 1.35 × 10–4 kW.
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7.
A resistor is connected across a 50 V source. What is the current in the resistor if the color code is red, orange, orange, silver?
A.
2mA
B.
2.2 mA
C.
214 mA
D.
21.4 mA
Correct Answer B. 2.2 mA
Explanation The color code for the resistor is red, orange, orange, silver. According to the color code chart, red represents the digit 2, orange represents the digit 3, and silver represents a multiplier of 0.01. Therefore, the resistance value of the resistor is 23 * 0.01 = 0.23 ohms. Using Ohm's Law (V = IR), the current (I) in the resistor can be calculated by dividing the voltage (V) of 50 V by the resistance (R) of 0.23 ohms. This gives us a current of approximately 217.39 mA, which can be rounded to 2.2 mA.
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8.
The induced voltage across a coil with 250 turns that is located in a magnetic field that is changing at a rate of 8 Wb/s is
A.
1000v
B.
2000v
C.
31.25v
D.
3.125v
Correct Answer B. 2000v
Explanation When a coil is located in a magnetic field that is changing, an induced voltage is created in the coil. This induced voltage is given by the equation V = N * dΦ/dt, where V is the induced voltage, N is the number of turns in the coil, and dΦ/dt is the rate of change of the magnetic flux. In this case, the coil has 250 turns and the magnetic field is changing at a rate of 8 Wb/s. Plugging these values into the equation, we get V = 250 * 8 = 2000 V. Therefore, the correct answer is 2000v.
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9.
An electromagnetic field exists only when there is
A.
An increasing current
B.
Decreasing current
C.
Voltage
D.
current
Correct Answer D. current
Explanation An electromagnetic field exists only when there is a current. This is because an electromagnetic field is generated by the flow of electric charge, which is carried by a current. Without a current, there is no flow of charge and therefore no electromagnetic field. Both increasing and decreasing currents can generate electromagnetic fields, as long as there is a flow of charge. Voltage, on the other hand, is a measure of the potential difference between two points in a circuit and does not directly create an electromagnetic field.
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10.
If a loop in a basic dc generator suddenly begins rotating at a faster speed, the induced voltage
A.
Remains unchanged
B.
Reverses polarity
C.
Increases
D.
Decreases
Correct Answer C. Increases
Explanation If a loop in a basic dc generator suddenly begins rotating at a faster speed, the induced voltage increases. This is because the induced voltage in a generator is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic field strength, which is determined by the speed at which the loop rotates. Therefore, if the speed increases, the rate of change of magnetic field strength also increases, leading to a higher induced voltage.
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11.
What kVA rating is required for a transformer that must handle a maximum load current of 8 A with a secondary voltage of 2 kV?
A.
4 kVA
B.
0.25 kVA
C.
16 kVA
D.
8 kVA
Correct Answer C. 16 kVA
Explanation The kVA rating required for a transformer can be calculated by multiplying the load current in amperes by the secondary voltage in kilovolts. In this case, the load current is 8 A and the secondary voltage is 2 kV. Therefore, the kVA rating required is 8 A x 2 kV = 16 kVA.
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12.
If a transformer has 50 turns in the primary winding and 10 turns in the secondary winding, what is the reflective resistance if the secondary load resistance is 250 ?
A.
250
B.
25
C.
6,250
D.
62,500
Correct Answer C. 6,250
Explanation The reflective resistance in a transformer can be calculated using the formula:
Reflective Resistance = (Number of turns in primary winding / Number of turns in secondary winding) ^ 2 * Secondary load resistance
In this case, the number of turns in the primary winding is 50 and the number of turns in the secondary winding is 10. The secondary load resistance is given as 250.
In a certain loaded transformer, the secondary voltage is one-fourth the primary voltage. The secondary current is
A.
One-fourth the primary current
B.
Four times the primary current
C.
Equal to the primary current
D.
One-fourth the primary current and equal to the primary current
Correct Answer B. Four times the primary current
Explanation In a transformer, the ratio of voltage between the primary and secondary coils is equal to the ratio of turns in the coils. Since the secondary voltage is one-fourth the primary voltage, it means that the secondary coil has one-fourth the number of turns compared to the primary coil. According to Ohm's Law, the current in a circuit is inversely proportional to the resistance. Since the resistance in the secondary coil is one-fourth the resistance in the primary coil (due to the difference in turns), the current in the secondary coil will be four times the current in the primary coil. Therefore, the correct answer is "four times the primary current".
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14.
The primary winding of a power transformer should always be
A.
Closed
B.
open
C.
shorted
D.
fused
Correct Answer D. fused
Explanation The primary winding of a power transformer should always be fused. This is because the primary winding is connected directly to the power source, and in case of any overload or short circuit, the fuse will blow and protect the transformer from damage. Fuses act as a safety measure to prevent excessive current from flowing through the transformer, which could lead to overheating and potential failure. Fusing the primary winding ensures that any faults or abnormal conditions are quickly detected and isolated, safeguarding the transformer and the electrical system as a whole.
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15.
Determine the magnitude of the resultant force by adding the rectangular components of the three forces.
A.
R = 29.7 N
B.
R = 54.2N
C.
R = 90.8 N
D.
None of these
Correct Answer A. R = 29.7 N
Explanation The explanation for the given correct answer is that the magnitude of the resultant force can be determined by adding the rectangular components of the three forces. Since the answer is R = 29.7 N, it means that after adding the rectangular components of the three forces, the magnitude of the resultant force is 29.7 N.
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16.
Express force F as a Cartesian vector; then determine its direction angles.
Correct Answer B. F = (-2i +j+2k) kN, _{ } = 131.8°, _{ } = 70.5°, _{ } = 48.2°
Explanation The given answer states that the force vector F is equal to (-2i + j + 2k) kN. The direction angles are given as 131.8°, 70.5°, and 48.2°. This means that the force vector has components in the x, y, and z directions and is pointing in the direction specified by the given angles. The magnitude of the force is not mentioned in the answer.
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17.
Determine the magnitude and direction of the resultant force.
A.
R = 80.3 lb, _{ } = 106.2° CCW
B.
R = 80.3 lb, _{ } = 73.8° CCW
C.
R = 72.1 lb, _{ } = 63.6° CCW
D.
R = 72.1 lb, _{ } = 116.4° CCW
Correct Answer A. R = 80.3 lb, _{ } = 106.2° CCW
18.
8.
The antenna tower is supported by three cables. The forces in these cables are as follows: F_{B} = 520 N, F_{C} = 680 N, and F_{D} = 560 N. Write the resultant of these three forces as a vector.
A.
R = (4i +16j-72k) N
B.
R = (-120i +40 j-960k) N
C.
R = (560i +720j+1440k) N
D.
R = (80i +320j-1440k) N
Correct Answer D. R = (80i +320j-1440k) N
19.
A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal level and when central dip is very small approaches the following curve
A.
Circular arc
B.
Parabola
C.
Hyperbola
D.
Elliptical
Correct Answer B. Parabola
Explanation When a heavy string is attached at two ends at the same horizontal level and the central dip is very small, it forms a parabolic curve. This is because the force of gravity acting on the string causes it to sag in the middle, creating a shape that resembles a parabola. The parabolic curve is a result of the balanced tension in the string and the force of gravity acting on it.
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20.
The ball joint is subjected to the three forces shown. Find the magnitude of the resultant forc
A.
R = 5.30 kN
B.
R = 5.74 kN
C.
R = 5.03 kN
D.
R = 6.20 kN
Correct Answer D. R = 6.20 kN
21.
From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is a radius of the plate. Find the e.g. of the remainder from the centre of circular plate
A.
0.5 cm
B.
1.0 cm
C.
1.5 cm
D.
2.5 cm
Correct Answer A.
0.5 cm
Explanation The diameter of the circular plate is 6 cm, so the radius of the plate is half of that, which is 3 cm. The circle that is cut out from the plate has the same diameter as the radius of the plate, which is 3 cm. The distance from the center of the plate to the edge of the remaining portion is equal to the radius of the plate minus the radius of the cut-out circle, which is 3 cm - 3 cm = 0 cm. Therefore, the distance from the center of the circular plate to the edge of the remaining portion is 0 cm.
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22.
Which of the following is not the unit of energy?
A.
kg m
B.
kcal
C.
Watt
D.
Watt hours
Correct Answer C.
Watt
Explanation The unit of energy is not Watt. Watt is the unit of power, which is the rate at which energy is transferred or converted. Energy can be measured in units such as joules (J) or kilocalories (kcal), but not in watts.
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23.
Moment of inertia of a hollow rectangular section as shown in the below figure about X-X axis, is
A.
(BD³/12) - (bd³/12)
B.
(DB³/12) - (db³/12)
C.
(BD³/36) - (bd³/36)
D.
(DB³/36) - (db³/36)
Correct Answer A. (BD³/12) - (bd³/12)
Explanation The moment of inertia of a hollow rectangular section about the X-X axis can be calculated by subtracting the moment of inertia of the inner rectangle (bd³/12) from the moment of inertia of the outer rectangle (BD³/12). This is because the moment of inertia of a composite shape can be calculated by adding or subtracting the individual moments of inertia of its component shapes. Therefore, the correct answer is (BD³/12) - (bd³/12).
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24.
In a framed structure, as shown in the below figure, the force in the member AB is __________ the force in member AC.
A.
Half
B.
Equal to
C.
Double
D.
None of these
Correct Answer A. Half
Explanation In a framed structure, the force in the member AB is half the force in member AC. This can be understood by considering the equilibrium of forces at the joint where AB and AC meet. Since the structure is in equilibrium, the sum of forces acting on the joint must be zero. Therefore, if the force in AB is F, then the force in AC must be 2F in order to balance the forces. Hence, the force in AB is half the force in AC.
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25.
A redundant frame is also called __________ frame.
A.
Perfect
B.
Imperfect
C.
Deficient
D.
None of these
Correct Answer B. Imperfect
Explanation A redundant frame is also called an "imperfect" frame because it contains unnecessary or extra elements that are not required for its structural integrity. These additional elements can add weight and complexity to the frame without providing any significant benefits. Therefore, an imperfect frame is not considered to be the most efficient or optimal design.
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26.
The center of gravity of a quadrant of a circle lies along its central radius (r) at a distance of
A.
0.5 r
B.
0.6 r
C.
0.7 r
D.
0.8 r
Correct Answer B. 0.6 r
Explanation The center of gravity of a quadrant of a circle lies along its central radius at a distance of 0.6r. This is because the center of gravity of any symmetrical object lies along its axis of symmetry, which in this case is the central radius. Since the quadrant of a circle is symmetrical, its center of gravity will also lie along the central radius. The distance of 0.6r is a result of the distribution of mass within the quadrant, with the majority of the mass being closer to the center of the circle.
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27.
The unit of moment of inertia of an area is
(A) kg-m^{2}
(B) kg-m-s^{2}
(C) kg/m^{2}
(D) m^{4}
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
Correct Answer D. D
Explanation The unit of moment of inertia of an area is given by the formula mass × distance^2. The unit of mass is kg and the unit of distance is m, so the unit of moment of inertia is kg × m^2. Therefore, the correct answer is (A) kg-m2.
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28.
When a body of mass moment of inertia 'I' (about a given axis) is rotated about that axis with an angular velocity to, then the kinetic energy of rotation is
(A) Iω
(B) Iω^{2}
(C) 0.5 Iω
(D) 0.5 Iω^{2}
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
Correct Answer D. D
Explanation The correct answer is D. When a body of mass moment of inertia 'I' (about a given axis) is rotated about that axis with an angular velocity ω, then the kinetic energy of rotation is given by the formula 0.5 I ω^2. This formula relates the mass moment of inertia, the angular velocity, and the kinetic energy of rotation. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
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29.
In a single threaded worm and worm wheel, the number of teeth on the worm is 50. The diameter of the effort wheel is 100 mm and that of load drum is 50 mm. The velocity ratio is
A.
50
B.
100
C.
200
D.
400
Correct Answer B. 100
Explanation The velocity ratio is determined by the ratio of the number of teeth on the worm to the sum of the diameters of the effort wheel and load drum. In this case, the worm has 50 teeth, and the sum of the diameters of the effort wheel (100 mm) and load drum (50 mm) is 150 mm. Therefore, the velocity ratio is 50/150, which simplifies to 1/3 or 0.33. However, since the answer choices are given as whole numbers, the closest whole number to 0.33 is 0. Therefore, the correct answer is 100.
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30.
In the shown figure, if the angle of inclination of the plane is increased, then acceleration of the system will
A.
Increase
B.
Decrease
C.
Remain the same
D.
None of these
Correct Answer B. Decrease
Explanation Answer: Option C
Solution: Stress p in x-direction causes tensile strain p/E in x-direction, while the ‘p’ in ‘y’ and ‘z’ direction causes compressive strains µ(p/E) in x-direction.
Therefore, ex = p/E - µ(p/E) - µ(p/E) = p/E × (1- 2µ)
So, ey =p/E × (1- 2µ), ez = p/E × (1- 2µ)
Therefore, Volumetric Strain, ev = ex + ey + ez = 3p/E × (1- 2µ) = 3p/E × (1 – 2/m)
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31.
The strain energy stored in a solid circular shaft subjected to shear stress (τ), is: (Where, G= Modulus of rigidity for the shaft material)
A.
τ²/ 2G × Volume of shaft
B.
τ/ 2G × Volume of shaft
C.
τ²/ 4G × Volume of shaft
D.
τ/ 4G × Volume of shaft
Correct Answer A. τ²/ 2G × Volume of shaft
Explanation The strain energy stored in a solid circular shaft subjected to shear stress (τ) is given by τ²/2G × Volume of shaft. This formula is derived from the definition of strain energy as the work done to deform the material. In this case, the shear stress τ is used to calculate the strain energy, with the modulus of rigidity G representing the material's resistance to shearing deformation. The volume of the shaft is also taken into account as it influences the total amount of strain energy stored.
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32.
The force applied on a body of mass 100 kg to produce an acceleration of 5 m/s^{2}, is
A.
20 N
B.
100 N
C.
500 N
D.
None of these
Correct Answer C. 500 N
Explanation To calculate the force applied on a body, we use the formula F = m*a, where F is the force, m is the mass, and a is the acceleration. In this case, the mass is given as 100 kg and the acceleration is given as 5 m/s^2. Plugging these values into the formula, we get F = 100 kg * 5 m/s^2 = 500 N. Therefore, the correct answer is 500 N.
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33.
In a screw jack, the effort required to lift the load is given by (where W = Load lifted, α = Helix angle, and φ = Angle of friction.)
(A) P = Wtan (α - φ)
(B) P = Wtan (α + φ)
(C) P = Wtan (φ - α)
(D) P = Wcos (α + φ)
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
Correct Answer B. B
Explanation The effort required to lift the load in a screw jack is given by the equation P = W tan (α + φ). This means that the effort required is proportional to the load lifted (W) and the tangent of the sum of the helix angle (α) and the angle of friction (φ). The correct answer is B.
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34.
The moment of inertia of a thin disc of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘r’, about an axis through its center of gravity and perpendicular to the plane of the disc is
(A) mr^{2}/2
(B) mr^{2}/4
(C) mr^{2}/6
(D) mr^{2}/8
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
Correct Answer A. A
Explanation The moment of inertia of a thin disc can be calculated using the formula I = (1/2)mr^2, where m is the mass of the disc and r is the radius. This formula is derived from the parallel axis theorem, which states that the moment of inertia about an axis parallel to and a distance h away from an axis through the center of gravity is equal to the moment of inertia about the center of gravity plus the mass times the square of the distance between the two axes. In this case, since the axis is passing through the center of gravity, the distance h is zero, resulting in the moment of inertia being equal to (1/2)mr^2. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
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35.
If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then
(A) These forces are equal
(B) The lines of action of these forces meet in a point
(C) The lines of action of these forces are parallel
(D) Both (B) and (C) above
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
Correct Answer D. D
Explanation Answer: Option D
Solution: tan2θ = 2q/ (p x - p y) = (2 × 400)/ (1200 – 600) = 1.33
Therefore, 2θ = tan⁻¹ 1.33 = 53.06°
Therefore, pn = 1200 + 600)/ 2 + (1200 – 600)/ 2 × cos 53.06 + 400 sin 530.6
=900 + 180.294 + 319.70
=1400 MPa.
Note:- Normal stress component, (pn ) on a plane:- pn = (p x + p y)/2 + (p x - p y)/2 × cos2θ + q sin2θ
Tangential Stress component, (pt) ¬ on a plane: - pt = (p x - p y)/2 × sin2θ – q cos2θ
Inclination θ between p x and p y is tan 2θ = 2q / (p x - p y)
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36.
Moment of inertia is the
(A) Second moment of force
(B) Second moment of area
(C) Second moment of mass
(D) All of these
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
Correct Answer D. D
Explanation The correct answer is D. Moment of inertia is the second moment of area, second moment of mass, and second moment of force. This means that moment of inertia is a property that describes how an object's mass or area is distributed around an axis of rotation, as well as how resistant it is to changes in its rotational motion. All three interpretations of moment of inertia are valid and interconnected.
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37.
True stress strain-curve for materials is plotted between
A.
Load/original cross-sectional area and change in length/original length
B.
Load/ instantaneous cross-sectional area and log_{e} (original area/ instantaneous area)
C.
Load/ instantaneous cross-sectional area and change in length/ original length
D.
Load/ instantaneous area and instantaneous area/original area
Correct Answer B. Load/ instantaneous cross-sectional area and log_{e} (original area/ instantaneous area)
Explanation The correct answer is "Load/ instantaneous cross-sectional area and loge (original area/ instantaneous area)". This is because the true stress-strain curve for materials is plotted using the load divided by the instantaneous cross-sectional area, which gives the true stress, and the natural logarithm of the ratio of the original area to the instantaneous area, which gives the true strain. This plot allows for a more accurate representation of the material's behavior under stress, taking into account the change in cross-sectional area as the material deforms.
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38.
According to Lami's theorem
(A) Three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
(B) Three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side being proportional to force
(C) If three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
(D) If three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
Correct Answer D. D
Explanation According to Lami's theorem, if three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two forces. This means that the magnitude of each force is directly related to the angle between the other two forces. Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it accurately represents Lami's theorem.
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39.
A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if
(A) Their total sum is zero
(B) Two resolved parts in two directions at right angles are equal
(C) Sum of resolved parts in any two perpendicular directions are both zero
(D) All of them are inclined equally
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
Correct Answer C. C
Explanation The correct answer is C. A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if the sum of resolved parts in any two perpendicular directions are both zero. This means that the forces must be balanced in both the horizontal and vertical directions. If the sum of the resolved parts in any two perpendicular directions is not zero, then there would be a net force acting on the point, causing it to move. Therefore, for forces to be in equilibrium, their resolved parts in any two perpendicular directions must cancel each other out.
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40.
If the normal cross-section ‘A’ of a member is subjected to tensile force ‘P’, the resulting normal stress in an oblique plane inclined at angle ‘θ’ to transverse plane will be
(A) (P/A) sin^{2}θ
(B) (P/A) cos^{2}θ
(C) (P/2A) sin 2θ
(D) (P/2A) cos 2θ
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
Correct Answer B. B
Explanation When a member is subjected to tensile force, the resulting normal stress in an oblique plane inclined at an angle θ to the transverse plane can be calculated using the formula (P/A) cos^2θ. This formula takes into account the component of the force acting perpendicular to the plane, which is equal to P cosθ, and divides it by the cross-sectional area A. The cos^2θ term accounts for the inclination of the plane. Therefore, option B, (P/A) cos^2θ, is the correct answer.
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41.
Which of the following languages is more suited to a structured program?
A.
PL/1
B.
FORTRAN
C.
BASIC
D.
NONE
Correct Answer D. NONE
Explanation The question asks which language is more suited to a structured program, and the correct answer is "NONE." This means that none of the given languages (PL/1, FORTRAN, BASIC) are well-suited for structured programming. Structured programming is a programming paradigm that emphasizes the use of structured control flow constructs such as loops and conditionals to improve the clarity and maintainability of code. While PL/1, FORTRAN, and BASIC are all programming languages, they may not have the necessary features or syntax to fully support structured programming principles.
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42.
The brain of any computer system is
A.
CPU
B.
ALU
C.
MEMORY
D.
CONTROL UNIT
Correct Answer A. CPU
Explanation The brain of any computer system is the CPU (Central Processing Unit). The CPU is responsible for executing instructions, performing calculations, and coordinating the activities of all the other hardware components in the computer system. It is considered the brain because it carries out all the necessary computations and operations that allow the computer to function. The CPU is composed of several components, including the control unit, arithmetic logic unit (ALU), and memory. Together, these components work together to process and execute instructions, making the CPU the most essential part of a computer system.
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43.
Which of the following computer language is used for artificial intelligence?
A.
FORTRAN
B.
C
C.
PROLOG
D.
COBOL
Correct Answer C. PROLOG
Explanation PROLOG is a computer language that is commonly used for artificial intelligence. It is a declarative programming language that is designed to facilitate logical reasoning and problem-solving. PROLOG is particularly well-suited for tasks that involve complex search algorithms and knowledge representation. It is often used in areas such as expert systems, natural language processing, and automated reasoning.
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44.
The arranging of data in a logical sequence is called:
A.
sorting
B.
Classifying
C.
reproducing
D.
Summarizing
E.
Option 5
Correct Answer A. sorting
Explanation Sorting refers to the process of arranging data in a specific order, such as ascending or descending order. This allows for easier access and retrieval of information, as well as making it more organized and structured. Classifying, reproducing, and summarizing do not specifically refer to the arrangement of data in a logical sequence. Therefore, the correct answer is sorting.
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45.
Which of the following is the 1's complement of 10?
A.
110
B.
01
C.
11
D.
10
Correct Answer B. 01
Explanation The 1's complement of a binary number is obtained by flipping all the bits. In this case, the binary representation of 10 is 1010. Flipping all the bits gives us 0101, which is equivalent to the decimal number 5. Therefore, the 1's complement of 10 is 01.
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46.
Which part interprets program instructions and initiate control operations.
A.
CONTROL UNIT
B.
LOGIC UNIT
C.
INPUT
D.
NONE
Correct Answer A. CONTROL UNIT
Explanation The control unit is responsible for interpreting program instructions and initiating control operations. It is a crucial component of a computer's central processing unit (CPU) that coordinates and directs the flow of data and instructions within the computer system. It fetches instructions from memory, decodes them, and executes them by sending signals to other parts of the computer to perform the necessary operations. Without the control unit, the computer would not be able to effectively process and execute program instructions.
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47.
The binary system uses powers of
A.
10
B.
8
C.
2
D.
16
Correct Answer C. 2
Explanation The binary system uses powers of 2. In the binary system, each digit represents a power of 2 starting from the rightmost digit. The rightmost digit represents 2^0, the next digit represents 2^1, the next represents 2^2, and so on. This is because the binary system is a base-2 system, meaning it only has two digits, 0 and 1. Each digit in a binary number can be either 0 or 1, and the value of the number is calculated by adding up the products of the digits and their corresponding powers of 2.
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48.
A section of code to which control is transferred when a processor is interrupted is known as
A.
M
B.
SVC
C.
IP
D.
MDR
Correct Answer A. M
Explanation When a processor is interrupted, control is transferred to a section of code called an interrupt service routine (ISR) or interrupt handler. This routine is responsible for handling the interrupt and performing the necessary actions. The given answer, "M", is incorrect as it does not correspond to any commonly used term or acronym related to interrupt handling.
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49.
A computer program that converts assembly language to machine language is
A.
COMPILER
B.
Comparator
C.
Assembler
D.
Attenuator
Correct Answer B. Comparator
50.
Which of the following is not an advantage of magnetic disk storage?
A.
The access time of magnetic disk is much less than that of magnetic tape
B.
Disk storage is less expensive than tape storage
C.
Disk storage is longer lasting than magnetic tape
D.
None of the above
Correct Answer D. None of the above
Explanation The given question asks for the option that is not an advantage of magnetic disk storage. The first option states that the access time of magnetic disk is much less than that of magnetic tape, which is indeed an advantage of magnetic disk storage. The second option states that disk storage is less expensive than tape storage, which is also an advantage. The third option states that disk storage is longer lasting than magnetic tape, which is another advantage. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of the above" as all the given options are advantages of magnetic disk storage.
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